Chapter 01: Overview of Professional Nursing Concepts for Medical- Surgical Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A nurse wishes to provide client-centered care in
... [Show More] all interactions. Which action by the nurse best
demonstrates this concept?
a. Assesses for cultural influences affecting health care
b. Ensures that all the clients basic needs are met
c. Tells the client and family about all upcoming tests
d. Thoroughly orients the client and family to the room
ANS: A
Competency in client-focused care is demonstrated when the nurse focuses on communication, culture,
respect compassion, client education, and empowerment. By assessing the effect of the clients culture on
health care, this nurse is practicing client-focused care. Providing for basic needs does not demonstrate
this competence.
Simply telling the client about all upcoming tests is not providing empowering education. Orienting the
client and family to the room is an important safety measure, but not directly related to demonstrating
client-centered care.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 3
KEY: Patient-centered care| culture MSC: Integrated Process: Caring NOT: Client Needs Category:
Psychosocial Integrity
2. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The clients blood pressure was
142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago, and now is 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?
a. Call the Rapid Response Team.
b. Document and continue to monitor.
c. Notify the primary care provider.
d. Repeat blood pressure measurement in 15 minutes.
ANS: A
The purpose of the Rapid Response Team (RRT) is to intervene when clients are deteriorating before they
suffer either respiratory or cardiac arrest. Since the client has manifested a significant change, the nurse
should call the RRT. Changes in blood pressure, mental status, heart rate, and pain are particularly
significant.
Documentation is vital, but the nurse must do more than document. The primary care provider should be
notified, but this is not the priority over calling the RRT. The clients blood pressure should be reassessed
frequently, but the priority is getting the rapid care to the client.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 3
KEY: Rapid Response Team (RRT)| medical emergencies MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and
Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation
3. A nurse is orienting a new client and family to the inpatient unit. What information does the nurse
provide to help the client promote his or her own safety?
a. Encourage the client and family to be active partners.
b. Have the client monitor hand hygiene in caregivers.
c. Offer the family the opportunity to stay with the client.
d. Tell the client to always wear his or her armband.
ANS: A
Each action could be important for the client or family to perform. However, encouraging the client to be
active in his or her health care as a partner is the most critical. The other actions are very limited in scope
and do not provide the broad protection that being active and involved does.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 3 KEY: Patient safety
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
4. A new nurse is working with a preceptor on an inpatient medical-surgical unit. The preceptor
advises the student that which is the priority when working as a professional nurse?
a. Attending to holistic client needs
b. Ensuring client safety
c. Not making medication errors
d. Providing client-focused care
ANS: B
All actions are appropriate for the professional nurse. However, ensuring client safety is the priority. Up
to 98,000 deaths result each year from errors in hospital care, according to the 2000 Institute of Medicine
report. Many more clients have suffered injuries and less serious outcomes. Every nurse has the
responsibility to guard the clients safety.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 2 KEY: Patient safety
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Intervention
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
5. A client is going to be admitted for a scheduled surgical procedure. Which action does the nurse
explain is the most important thing the client can do to protect against errors?
a. Bring a list of all medications and what they are for.
b. Keep the doctors phone number by the telephone.
c. Make sure all providers wash hands before entering the room.
d. Write down the name of each caregiver who comes in the room.
ANS: A
Medication errors are the most common type of health care mistake. The Joint Commissions Speak Up
campaign encourages clients to help ensure their safety. One recommendation is for clients to know all
their medications and why they take them. This will help prevent medication errors.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 4
KEY: Speak Up campaign| patient safety MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
6. Which action by the nurse working with a client best demonstrates respect for autonomy?
a. Asks if the client has questions before signing a consent
b. Gives the client accurate information when questioned
c. Keeps the promises made to the client and family
d. Treats the client fairly compared to other clients
ANS: A
Autonomy is self-determination. The client should make decisions regarding care. When the nurse obtains
a signature on the consent form, assessing if the client still has questions is vital, because without full
information the client cannot practice autonomy. Giving accurate information is practicing with veracity.
Keeping promises is upholding fidelity. Treating the client fairly is providing social justice.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 4
KEY: Autonomy| ethical principles MSC: Integrated Process: Caring
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
7. A student nurse asks the faculty to explain best practices when communicating with a person
from the lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ) community. What answer
by the faculty is most accurate?
a. Avoid embarrassing the client by asking questions.
b. Dont make assumptions about their health needs.
c. Most LGBTQ people do not want to share information.
d. No differences exist in communicating with this population.
ANS: B
Many members of the LGBTQ community have faced discrimination from health care providers and may
be reluctant to seek health care. The nurse should never make assumptions about the needs of members of
this population. Rather, respectful questions are appropriate. If approached with sensitivity, the client with
any health care need is more likely to answer honestly.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 4 KEY: LGBTQ| diversity
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity
8. A nurse is calling the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago and has
pain that is unrelieved by the prescribed narcotic pain medication. Which statement is part of the SBAR
format for communication?
a. A: I would like you to order a different pain medication.
b. B: This client has allergies to morphine and codeine.
c. R: Dr. Smith doesnt like nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds.
d. S: This client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago.
ANS: B
SBAR is a recommended form of communication, and the acronym stands for Situation, Background,
Assessment, and Recommendation. Appropriate background information includes allergies to medications
the on-call physician might order. Situation describes what is happening right now that must be
communicated; the clients surgery 2 days ago would be considered background. Assessment would
include an analysis of the clients problem; asking for a different pain medication is a recommendation.
Recommendation is a statement of what is needed or what outcome is desired; this information about the
surgeons preference might be better placed in background.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 5 KEY: SBAR| communication
MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
9. A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP). Four hours later, the nurse notes the clients blood pressure is much higher than
previous readings, and the clients mental status has changed. What action by the nurse would most likely
have prevented this negative outcome?
a. Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure
b. Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure
c. Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP
d. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task
ANS: C
Supervision is one of the five rights of delegation and includes directing, evaluating, and following up on
delegated tasks. The nurse should either have asked the UAP about the vital signs or instructed the UAP
to report them right away. An experienced UAP should know how to take vital signs and the nurse should
not have to assess this at this point. Double-checking the work defeats the purpose of delegation. Vital
signs are within the scope of practice for a UAP and are permissible to delegate. The only appropriate
answer is that the nurse did not provide adequate instruction to the UAP.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 6
KEY: Supervision| delegation| unlicensed assistive personnel MSC: Integrated Process: Communication
and Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
10. A nurse is talking with a client who is moving to a new state and needs to find a new doctor and
hospital there. What advice by the nurse is best?
a. Ask the hospitals there about standard nurse-client ratios.
b. Choose the hospital that has the newest technology.
c. Find a hospital that is accredited by The Joint Commission.
d. Use a facility affiliated with a medical or nursing school.
ANS: C
Accreditation by The Joint Commission (TJC) or other accrediting body gives assurance that the facility
has a focus on safety. Nurse-client ratios differ by unit type and change over time. New technology doesnt
necessarily mean the hospital is safe. Affiliation with a health professions school has several advantages,
but safety is most important.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 2 KEY: The Joint Commission (TJC)| accreditation
MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
11. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in
quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?
a. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement here.
b. Even being new, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
c. Its easy to identify what indicators should be used to measure quality.
d. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.
ANS: B
The preceptor should try to reassure the nurse that implementing QI measures is not out of line for a
newly licensed nurse. Simply stating that all nurses are required to participate does not help the nurse
understand how that is possible and is dismissive. Identifying indicators of quality is not an easy, quick
process and would not be the best place to suggest a new nurse to start. Asking to be assigned to the QI
committee does not give the nurse information about how to implement QI in daily practice.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 6 KEY: Quality improvement
MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. A nurse is interested in making interdisciplinary work a high priority. Which actions by the nurse
best demonstrate this skill? (Select all that apply.)
a. Consults with other disciplines on client care
b. Coordinates discharge planning for home safety
c. Participates in comprehensive client rounding
d. Routinely asks other disciplines about client progress
e. Shows the nursing care plans to other disciplines
ANS: A, B, C, D
Collaborating with the interdisciplinary team involves planning, implementing, and evaluating client care
as a team with all other disciplines included. Simply showing other caregivers the nursing care plan is not
actively involving them or collaborating with them.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 4
KEY: Collaboration| interdisciplinary team
MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
2. A nurse manager wishes to ensure that the nurses on the unit are practicing at their highest levels
of competency. Which areas should the manager assess to determine if the nursing staff demonstrate
competency according to the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report Health Professions Education: A Bridge
to Quality? (Select all that apply.)
a. Collaborating with an interdisciplinary team
b. Implementing evidence-based care
c. Providing family-focused care
d. Routinely using informatics in practice
e. Using quality improvement in client care
ANS: A, B, D, E
The IOM report lists five broad core competencies that all health care providers should practice. These
include collaborating with the interdisciplinary team, implementing evidence-based practice, providing
client-focused care, using informatics in client care, and using quality improvement in client care.
DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 3
KEY: Competencies| Institute of Medicine (IOM) MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
3. The nurse utilizing evidence-based practice (EBP) considers which factors when planning care?
(Select all that apply.)
a. Cost-saving measures
b. Nurses expertise
c. Client preferences
d. Research findings
e. Values of the client
ANS: B, C, D, E
EBP consists of utilizing current evidence, the clients values and preferences, and the nurses expertise
when planning care. It does not include cost-saving measures.
DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 6 KEY: Evidence-based practice (EBP)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
4. A nurse manager wants to improve hand-off communication among the staff. What actions by the
manager would best help achieve this goal? (Select all that apply.)
a. Attend hand-off rounds to coach and mentor.
b. Conduct audits of staff using a new template.
c. Create a template of topics to include in report.
d. Encourage staff to ask questions during hand-off.
e. Give raises based on compliance with reporting.
ANS: A, B, C, D
A good tool for standardizing hand-off reports and other critical communication is the SHARE model.
SHARE stands for standardize critical information, hardwire within your system, allow opportunities to
ask questions, reinforce quality and measurement, and educate and coach. Attending hand-off report gives
the manager opportunities to educate and coach. Conducting audits is part of reinforcing quality. Creating
a template is hardwiring within the system. Encouraging staff to ask questions and think critically about
the information is allowing opportunities to ask questions. The manager may need to tie raises into
compliance if the staff is resistive and other measures have failed, but this is not part of the SHARE
model.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 5 KEY: SHARE| hand-off communication
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Intervention
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
Chapter 02: Overview of Health Concepts for Medical-Surgical Nursing
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Acid-base balance occurs when the pH level of the blood is between:
a. 7.3 and 7.5
b. 7.35 and 7.45
c. 7.4 and 7.5
d. 7.25 and 7.35
ANS: B
Acid-base balance is the maintenance of arterial blood pH between 7.35 and 7.45 through hydrogen ion
production and elimination.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 13 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Physiological Adaptation | Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances NOT: Describe common fluid,
electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances.
2. The nurse would expect a patient with respiratory acidosis to have an excessive amount of
a. Hydrogen ions.
b. Bicarbonate.
c. Oxygen.
d. Phosphate.
ANS: A
Respiratory acidosis occurs when the arterial blood pH level falls below 7.35 and is caused by either too
many hydrogen ions in the body (respiratory acidosis) or too little bicarbonate (metabolic acidosis).
Excessive oxygen and phosphate are not characteristic of respiratory acidosis.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 13 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Physiological Adaptation | Fluid and Electrolyte Imbalances NOT: Describe common fluid,
electrolyte, and acid-base imbalances.
3. The best way for an individual to maintain acid-base balance is to
a. avoid or quit smoking.
b. exercise regularly.
c. eat healthy and well-balanced meals.
d. All of the above.
ANS: D
Maintaining a healthy lifestyle is the best way to maintain acid-base balance. For example, most cases of
COPD can be prevented by avoiding or quitting smoking, while regular exercise and a healthy diet can
decrease the incidence of type-2 diabetes.
DIF: Patient education REF: 14 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
4. The process to control cellular growth, replication, and differentiation to maintain homeostasis is
called:
a. cellular regulation.
b. cellular impairment.
c. cellular reproduction.
d. cellular tumor.
ANS: A
Cellular Regulation is the term used to describe both the positive and negative aspects of cellular function
within the body.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 14 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
5. A defining characteristic of malignant (cancerous) cells is:
a. they cannot spread to other tissues or organs.
b. they can invade healthy cells, tissues, and organs.
c. they are not usually a health risk.
d. none of the above.
ANS: B
Malignant (cancerous) cells have no comparison to the original cells from which they are derived, and
they have the ability to invade healthy cells, tissues, and other organs through tumor formation and
invasion. On the other hand, Benign cells do not have the ability to spread to other tissues or organs.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 14 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
6. Specialized cells that circulate in the body to promote clotting are called:
a. anticoagulants.
b. proteins.
c. emboli.
d. platelets.
ANS: D
Clotting is a complex, multi-step process through which blood forms a protein-based clot to prevent
excessive bleeding. Platelets (thrombocytes) are the specialized cells that circulate in the blood and are
activated when an injury occurs. Once activated, these cells become sticky, causing them to clump
together to form a temporary, localized, solid plug.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 15 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
7. An increase in platelet stickiness can lead to:
a. hypercoagulability
b. thromobocytopenia
c. embolus
d. atrial fibrillation
ANS: A
Hypercoagulability refers to an increase in clotting ability caused by an excess of platelets or excessive
plately stickiness, which can impair blood flow. The opposite end of the spectrum involves an inability to
form adequate clots, which often occurs when there is an inadequate number of circulating platelets or a
reduction in platelet stickiness.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 15 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
8. Signs and symptoms of thromobsis include localized redness, swelling, and warmth:
a. arterial
b. venous
c. partial
d. atrial
ANS: B
Venous thrombosis is a clot formation in either superficial or deep veins, usually in the leg, and can be
observed locally.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 16 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
9. A serious condition which is not locally observable and is typically manifested by decreased
blood flow to a distal extremity is known as thrombosis.
a. arterial
b. venous
c. partial
d. atrial
ANS: A
Arterial thrombosis is manifested by decreased blood flow (perfusion) to a distal extremity or internal
organ. For example, the distal leg can become pale and cool in the case of a femoral arterial clot due to
blockage of blood to the leg. This is an emergent condition and requires immediate intervention.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 16 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
10. A high-level thinking process that allows an individual to make decisions and judgments is
known as:
a. amnesia
b. personality
c. reasoning
d. memory
ANS: C
Reasoning is the high-level cognitive thinking process that helps individuals make decisions and
judgments. Personality is the way an individual feels and behaves, while Memory is the ability of an
individual to retain and recall information. Amnesia refers to a loss of memory caused by brain trauma,
congenital disorders, or acute health problems.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 16 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity
11. A form of inadequate cognition in older adults which is manifested by an acute, fluctuating
confusional state is known as:
a. dementia
b. delerium
c. amnesia
d. depression
ANS: B
Delerium is the form of acute, fluctuating confusion which lasts from a few hours to less than 1 month
and that may be treatable. Dementia is a chronic state of confusion that may last from a few months to
many years and that may not be reversible. Amnesia refers to a loss of memory caused by brain trauma,
congenital disorders, or acute health problems.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 16 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity
12. The most common causes of decreased comfort for a patient are pain and .
a. light-headedness
b. nausea
c. emotional stress
d. depression
ANS: C
Pain and emotional stress are the two leading causes of discomfort for a patient. For example, patients
who are having surgery are often anxious and feel stressed about the procedure. This emotional stress may
negatively impact the outcome of surgery.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 17 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment
13. The inability to pass stool is known as .
a. constipation
b. obstipation
c. diarrhea
d. incontinence
ANS: B
Obstipation is the inability to pass stool during bowel elimination. Constipation refers to the condition
where stool can be hard, dry, and difficult to pass through the rectum. Diarrhea is at the opposite end of
the continuum from constipation, and occurs when stool is watery and without solid form. Elimination is
the general term to describe the excretion of waste from the body by the gastrointestinal tract and by the
urinary system.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 18 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
14. Hypokalemia can occur in patients with prolonged diarrhea and is caused by a decrease in:
a. calcium
b. magnesium
c. sodium
d. potassium
ANS: D
Hypokalemia occurs when there is a decrease in serum potassium. It can be a life-threatening condition
because it often causes rhythm abnormalities. An excess of potassium is referred to as Hyperkalemia.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 18 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
15. The minimum hourly urinary output in a patient should be at least:
a. 5 mL per hour
b. 10 mL per hour
c. 30 mL per hour
d. 60 mL per hour
ANS: C
30 mL per hour is the minimum hourly urinary output in a normal healthy adult. A decrease in urinary
output i a sign of diminished kidney activity and fluid deficit.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 20 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
16. The best indicator of fluid volume changes in the body is:
a. skin dryness
b. weight changes
c. blood pressure
d. pulse rate
ANS: C
Changes in weight are the best indicator of fluid volume changes in the body. Monitoring blood pressure,
checking pulse rate and quality, and assessing skin and mucous membranes for dryness are strong
secondary indicators.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 20 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
17. Immunity which occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus through the
placenta or through breast milk is called:
a. natural passive
b. artifical passive
c. natural active
d. artifical active
ANS: A
Artifical passive immunity occurs via a specific transfusion. Natural active immunity occurs when an
antigen enters the body and the body creates antibodies to fight off the antigen. Artifical active immunity
occurs via vaccination or immunization.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 21-22 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
18. A major serum protein that is below normal in patients who have inadequate nutrition is:
a. Albumin
b. Globulin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Transferrin
ANS: A
A serum laboratory test to measure Albumin is the most common assessment for generalized malnutrition.
DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 25 KEY: Assessment
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Chapter 03: Common Health Problems of Older Adults
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A nurse working with older adults in the community plans programming to improve morale and
emotional health in this population. What activity would best meet this goal?
a. Exercise program to improve physical function
b. Financial planning seminar series for older adults
c. Social events such as dances and group dinners
d. Workshop on prevention from becoming an abuse victim
ANS: A
All activities would be beneficial for the older population in the community. However, failure in
performing ones own activities of daily living and participating in society has direct effects on morale and
life satisfaction. Those who lose the ability to function independently often feel worthless and empty. An
exercise program designed to maintain and/or improve physical functioning would best address this need.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 32
KEY: Independence| autonomy| older adult
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning NOT: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity
2. A nurse caring for an older client on a medical-surgical unit notices the client reports frequent
constipation and only wants to eat softer foods such as rice, bread, and puddings. What assessment should
the nurse perform first?
a. Auscultate bowel sounds.
b. Check skin turgor.
c. Perform an oral assessment.
d. Weigh the client.
ANS: C
Poorly fitting dentures and other dental problems are often manifested by a preference for soft foods and
constipation from the lack of fiber. The nurse should perform an oral assessment to determine if these
problems exist. The other assessments are important, but will not yield information specific to the clients
food preferences as they relate to constipation.
DIF: Applying/Application REF: 30 KEY: Nutrition| dentures| older adult
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment
NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort
3. A nursing faculty member working with students explains that the fastest growing subset of the
older population is which group?
a. Elite old
b. Middle old
c. Old old
d. Young old
ANS: C
The old old is the fastest growing subset of the older population. This is the group comprising those 85 to
99 years of age. The young old are between 65 and 74 years of age; the middle old are between 75 and 84
years of age; and the elite old are over 100 years of age.
DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 29
KEY: Adulthood| aging| old old MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs
Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance
4. A nurse is working with an older client admitted with mild dehydration. What teaching does the
nurse provide to best address this issue?
a. Cut some sodium out of your diet.
b. Dehydration can cause incontinence.
c. Have something to drink every 1 to 2 hours.
d. Take your diuretic in the morning.
ANS: C
Older adults often lose their sense of thirst. Since they should drink 1 to 2 liters of water a day, the best
remedy is to have the older adult drink something each hour or two, whether or not he or she is thirsty.
Cutting some sodium from the diet will not address this issue. Although dehydration can cause
incontinence from the irritation of concentrated urine, this information will not help prevent the problem
of dehydration. Instructing the client to take a diuretic in the morning rather than in the evening also will
not directly address this issue. [Show Less]