HESI PHARMACOLOGY QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED) 2024 UPDATED.
1. A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for
... [Show More] a client with
a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what
additional drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin
monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before
administering this drug.
2. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the
antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore
stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B,
and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of
antimetabolites.
HESI PHARMACOLOGY QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS (ANSWERS ARE HIGHLIGHTED)
2024 UPDATED.
3. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen
(Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the
body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important
for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which
might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be
anticipated.
4. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to
prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse
provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a
peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4
hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch
is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the
inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind
the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the
patch.
5. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1
mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV
maximally per hour. What assessment has the highest priority before initiating the
PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an
opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and
the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths
per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before
the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are not as
high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
6. A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for
a client with which condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma.
C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood
pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block
dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents
and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the
management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the
bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma
(D). [Show Less]