HESI Med Surg Version 2| Questions and 100% Correct Verified Answers|2023/ 2024 NEW Update
QUESTION
A client taking furosemide (Lasix), reports
... [Show More] difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
A) What dose of medication are you taking?
B) Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
C) Have you lost weight recently?
D) At what time do you take your medication?
Answer:
D) At what time do you take your medication?
The nurse needs to first determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix (D). Because of the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia. The actual dose of medication (A) is of less importance than the time taken. (B) is not related to the insomnia. (C) is valuable information about the effect of the diuretic, but is not likely to be related to insomnia.
QUESTION
The nurse working in a postoperative surgical clinic is assessing a woman who had a left radical mastectomy for breast cancer. Which factor puts this client at greatest risk for developing lymphedema?
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
B) She has lost twenty pounds since the surgery.
C) Her healthcare provider now prescribes a calcium channel blocker for hypertension.
D) Her hobby is playing classical music on the piano.
Answer:
A) She sustained an insect bite to her left arm yesterday.
A radical mastectomy interrupts lymph flow, and the increased lymph flow that occurs in response to the insect bite increases the risk for the occurrence of lymphedema (A). (B) is not a factor. Lymphedema is not significantly related to vascular circulation (C). Only overuse of the arm, such as weight-lifting, would cause lymphedema--(D) would not.
QUESTION
The nurse is teaching a female client who uses a contraceptive diaphragm about reducing the risk for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). Which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Remove the diaphragm immediately after intercourse.
B) Wash the diaphragm with an alcohol solution.
C) Use the diaphragm to prevent conception during the menstrual cycle.
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
F) Replace the old diaphragm every 3 months.
Answer:
D) Do not leave the diaphragm in place longer than 8 hours after intercourse.
E) Contact a healthcare provider a sudden onset of fever grater than 101º F appears.
Correct selections are (D and E). The diaphragm needs to remain against the cervix for 6 to 8 hours to prevent pregnancy but should not remain for longer than 8 hours (D) to avoid the risk of TSS. If a sudden fever occurs, the client should notify the healthcare provider (E). (A) increases the risk of pregnancy, and (B) can reduce the integrity of the barrier contraceptive but neither prevents the risk of TSS. The diaphragm should not be used during menses (C) because it obstructs the menstrual flow and is not indicated because conception does not occur during this time. (F) is not necessary.
QUESTION
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years. What symptoms should this client most likely exhibit?
A) Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
C) Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
D) Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
Answer:
B) Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
(B) are common clinical features of Parkinsonism. (A) are symptoms of chorea, (C) of myasthenia gravis, and (D) of multiple sclerosis.
QUESTION
A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
B) Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
C) Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
D) Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Answer:
A) Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
Estrogen deprivation decreases the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells, so vaginal tissues tend to become thinner, drier (A), and the rugae become smoother which reduces vaginal stretching that contributes to dyspareunia. Dyspareunia is not related to (B or C). While (D) can contribute to discomfort during intercourse, the primary cause is hormone-related.
QUESTION
Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is known to have a pheochromocytoma?
A) Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
C) Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
D) Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness.
Answer:
B) Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
(B) is the typical triad of symptoms of tumors of the adrenal medulla (symptoms depend on the relative proportions of epinephrine and norepinephrine secretion). (A) lists the signs of latent tetany, exhibited by clients diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. (C) lists the signs of an Addisonian (adrenal) crisis. (D) lists the signs of hyperparathyroidism.
QUESTION
In preparing to administer intravenous albumin to a client following surgery, what is the priority nursing intervention? (Select all that apply.)
A) Set the infusion pump to infuse the albumin within four hours.
B) Compare the client's blood type with the label on the albumin.
C) Assign a UAP to monitor blood pressure q15 minutes.
D) Administer through a large gauge catheter. [Show Less]