Emergency Medical Technician Final Exam Study Guide
Emergency Medical Technician Final Exam Study Guide
1. What BEST describes the level of EMS
... [Show More] training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and
provides immediate care for life-threatening problems?
a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher
b. Cardiac Care responder
c. EMT
d. Emergency Medical Responder
2. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?
a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds
b. Awareness of problems with color vision
c. Ability to dominate the patient
d. Control of personal habits
3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the
development of emergency medical service standards?
a. U.S. Department of Transportation
b. U.S. Department of the Interior
c. U.S. Department of Health Services
d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security
4. Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers?
a. Traffic director
b. Law enforcement
c. All crew members
d. Triage officer
5. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?
a. Protect and stabilize the patient
b. Communicate with other responders on the scene
c. Maintain personal health and safety
d. Provide emergency care
6. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition,
observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity
of care. This process is known as which of the following?
a. Transfer of care
b. Breach of duty
c. Definitive care
d. End of tour
7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices
and some prehospital medication administration?
a. Advanced EMT
b. Paramedic
c. Emergency Medical Responder
d. EMT
8. Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to
which of the following?
a. Emergency preparedness plan
b. Trauma systemc. Resource management
d. Central management
9. Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT’s original training and
that is usually taken in regular intervals?
a. Distance education
b. EMT training program
c. Recertification
d. Continuing education
10. Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?
a. Self-starter
b. Strong student
c. Strong communication
d. Good eyesight
11. Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the
number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling?
a. Data display 911
b. Priority dispatch 911
c. Enhanced 911
d. Advanced 911
12. What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient’s condition in order to provide emergency care?
a. Patient access
b. Patient assessment
c. Medical intervention
d. Patient advocacy
13. Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT?
a. Nonjudgmental and fair
b. Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds
c. Ability to speak clearly
d. Ability to remain calm in stressful situations
14. What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide?
a. Prehospital care
b. Prompt emergency response
c. Safe emergency transportation
d. Trained medical personnel
15. Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need
emergency medical assistance?
a. Emergency department
b. Emergency medical services system
c. Surgical services department
d. Emergency medical dispatch center
16. Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and
supports his cause?
a. Guardian
b. Assistantc. Advocate
d. Representative
17. To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence
are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT?
a. Able to listen to others
b. Pleasant
c. Judgmental but fair
d. Emotionally stable
18. Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency
medical service?
a. The Spanish
b. The Egyptians
c. The Mayans
d. The French
19. What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for
direct patient care?
a. Emergency Medical Technician
b. Emergency Medical Responder
c. Advanced EMT
d. Emergency Ambulance Driver
20. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services
(EMS) system?
a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene,
during transport and at the hospital
b. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on
the scene
c. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their raining and “do not harm,”
while providing prompt transport to the hospital
d. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care
21. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the
effectiveness of an EMS system?
a. Quality improvement
b. System effectiveness management
c. Process improvement plan
d. Total quality system
22. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment
programs?
a. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
b. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSD)
c. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
d. United States Health Services Agency (HAS)
23. During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains
to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification.One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they
already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer?
a. The state requires the training
b. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam
c. It looks good to a jury should the service be sued
d. EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research
24. Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy?
a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury
b. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities
c. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital
d. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath
25. What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care?
a. Advanced EMT
b. Emergency Medical Responder
c. Emergency Medical Technician
d. Paramedic
26. Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis?
a. Current and former smokers
b. Immunosuppressed patients
c. Uranium mine workers
d. Healthcare practitioners
27. You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of
appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the
cause of these signs and symptoms?
a. Hepatitis B
b. Pneumonia
c. AIDS
d. Tuberculosis
28. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems
with an EMT’s health and well-being?
a. Megastress
b. Hyperstress
c. Distress
d. Eustress
29. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)?
a. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days
b. TB is not spread through surface contamination
c. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue
d. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure
30. You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a
person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you
immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your
hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is coveredin blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best
action?
a. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of
money for failing to report the exposure.
b. Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection.
c. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving
financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury
d. If your hand had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no
risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy.
31. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare
providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on
the job?
a. Communicable Disease Notification Act
b. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991
c. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act
d. Ryan White CARE Act
32. During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance
exposure?
a. Bandage a laceration
b. Childbirth
c. Splinting a sprained ankle
d. Glucometry
33. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body
substance isolation precautious?
a. Harm-reduction strategy
b. Exposure-control equipment
c. Personnel protective equipment
d. Infection-control plan
34. The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following
situations(s)?
a. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease
b. The patient has a respiratory illness
c. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B
d. The provider’s hands come into contact with fecal matter.
35. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash
may consider using in addition to standard PPE.
a. N-95 masks
b. Heavy-duty gloves
c. Face shields
d. Level B hazmat suits
36. Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal
to a stimulus?”
a. Homeostat
b. Distressc. Stress
d. Eustress
37. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient
infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?
a. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles
b. Gloves
c. Gloves and N-95 mask
d. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown
38. What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A?
a. Respiratory droplet
b. Unproteced sex
c. Fecal-oral
d. Bloodborne
39. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern
for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis A
d. AIDS
40. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true?
a. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate
b. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than Hepatitis B
c. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate
d. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS
41. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around
the patient’s mouth and nose. During the assessment you note the patient has a productive
cough. The patient says, “Don’t worry, I’m not contagious. I’ve had this cough for a year.”
Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation.
a. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask
b. Mask yourself and the patient
c. Mask yourself only
d. Use gloves for PPE, as that is all needed
42. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen?
a. An immunity developed after an exposure
b. A study of the origins of infection and disease
c. A medication with a harmful effect
d. An organism that causes infection and disease
43. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning?
a. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear
gloves
b. If the EMT’s hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient.
c. In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately
available, bleach wipes should be used.d. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at
least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously.
44. When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed
TB, a(n), mask should be worn by the EMT.
a. Surgical
b. B-50
c. Nonrebreather
d. N-95
45. An EMT should considered wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients?
a. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration
b. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris
c. A patient who is actively coughing
d. A patient who was spraying with mace by police during arrest
46. What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different
patients?
a. To protect the EMT from becoming infected
b. To minimize the amount of time the EMT’s hands are spent in gloves
c. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible
d. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient
47. All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being,
except:
a. Drinking caffeine instead of alcohol
b. Following a regular walking regimen
c. Spending more time relaxing with friends and family
d. Eating more carbohydrates
48. Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B available to employees
free of charge.
a. Prophylaxis
b. Vaccine
c. Cure
d. Immunity
49. When covering a patient’s mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the
primary risk?
a. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses
b. Interfering with patient communication
c. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma
d. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway
50. The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is
used to:
a. Determine if a person has infected others with TB
b. Detect a person’s exposure to tuberculosis
c. Inculcate healthcare workers against TB infections
d. Prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure
51. Which of the following best describes body mechanisms?a. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety
b. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects
c. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user’s body
d. Both B and C
52. What should you NOT do when using a stair chair?
a. Lean forward from the hips
b. Keep your back straight
c. Lean forward from the wrist
d. Flex your knees
53. You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest.
Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform
chest compression?
a. Non-urgent move
b. Clothing drag
c. Urgent move
d. Emergency move
54. Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true?
a. Use your back to lift
b. Use your legs to lift
c. Twist your torso while lifting
d. Position your feet close together
55. You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have
been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What
type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients?
a. Non-urgent move
b. Extremity lift
c. Urgent move
d. Emergency move
56. You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope
near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for
lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel
help in this lift?
a. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in
the lifting
b. They would position themselves half-way up the slope to take over when you and your
partner get fatigued
c. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety
anchor with a rope
d. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as
a spotter
57. What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair?
a. Two: one in front and one in back
b. Only one with the track-like chair
c. Four: one for each corner of the deviced. Three: two lifting and one spotting
58. Which of the following best describes an urgent?
a. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
b. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt
c. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
d. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
59. When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which
of the following?
a. Lock grip
b. Power lift
c. Power grip
d. Vise grip
60. Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair?
a. Patient with difficulty breathing
b. Patient who is nauseated
c. Patient with a suspected spinal injury
d. Patient found lying in bed
61. How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip?
a. 24 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 6 inches
d. 15 inches
62. Which of the following should you do when reaching for something?
a. Keep your back in a locked-in position
b. Avoid twisting
c. Avoid reaching more than 20 inches in front of your body.
d. All are correct
63. What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair
chair?
a. A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a
hydraulic system.
b. A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted
downstairs
c. There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair
d. Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system.
64. Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a
stretcher by having two or more rescuers knee, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then
reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher?
a. Direct carry
b. Direct ground lift
c. Power lift
d. Draw-sheet method
65. Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow
hallway?a. Long backboard
b. Flexible stretcher
c. Wheeled stretcher
d. Basket stretcher
66. Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll?
a. Keep your back straight
b. Lean forward from the hips
c. Use your shoulder muscles
d. Place both feet flat on the ground
67. If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT’s waist, he should be in a(n)
position.
a. Squatting
b. Kneeling
c. Feet-together
d. Overhead
68. Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient?
a. The weight of the patient
b. Your physical limitations
c. Communications
d. All are correct
69. When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to:
a. Lift with your lower back
b. Extend your arms to maximize your lift
c. Rush your lift to minimize tour lift time
d. Know your lifting limits.
70. When a stretcher with a patient secures to it is elevated, what occurs?
a. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height
b. The center of gravity is raised, and this causes a tip hazard
c. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed
d. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient
71. Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted?
a. As far from the body as possible
b. An arm’s length away from the body
c. To one side or the other
d. As close to the body as possible
72. While of the following is the correct position of an EMT’s feet when lifting?
a. Shoulder-width apart
b. As close together as possible
c. As wide apart as possible
d. Two feet apart
73. Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever
possible?
a. Stair chair
b. Scoop stretcherc. Basket stretcher
d. Wheeled ambulance stretcher
74. The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are
the three considerations to review before any lift?
a. Equipment, patient injury, and communication
b. The object, patient injury, and communication
c. The object, your limitations, and communications
d. Environment, physical limitations, and communication
75. Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position?
a. Power grip
b. Power lift
c. Weight-lifter technique
d. Direct carry
76. Sharing information about a patient’s medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on
a radio scanner would constitute which of the following?
a. Slander
b. Violating of patient privacy
c. Breach of confidentiality
d. Libel
77. You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks
to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does
not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags
back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said.
What should you do?
a. You should tell her. As his spouse she is legally entitled to know his medical information
b. You should not tell her, there is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his
embarrassing condition.
c. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to
be tested for sexually transmitted diseases.
d. You should not tell her. By law, your conversion with your patient is confidential
78. You are on the scene with a 72-year-old make patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining
of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging
him to go. Which of the following should you do next?
a. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness
b. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care
c. Inform the patient that he is having a “heart attack” and must be taken to the hospital
for evaluation.
d. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient.
79. Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT?
a. The EMT has a duty to act.
b. Proximate causation existed
c. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care
d. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.80. If the EMT is in doubtas to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of
the following is the best decision?
a. Have the patient’s family put their wishes in writing
b. Withhold resuscitative measures
c. Consult with the patient’s physician
d. Begin resuscitative measures
81. The EMT’s obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is
known as which of the following?
a. Legal responsibility
b. Scope of practice
c. Duty to act
d. Standard of care
82. Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT?
a. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician
b. An EMT transport a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the
waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff
c. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic
d. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does
not stop to help.
83. You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is
having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he
only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient
refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying
uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do?
a. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs
you to help
b. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you
intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law.
c. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will
not sue the EMS service.
d. Provide emergency care under implied consent.
84. You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get
consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to
speak for the parents?
a. In loco parentis
b. Informed consent
c. Res ipsa loquitur
d. Healthcare proxy
85. In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a
patient in cardiac arrest?
a. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician.
b. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents
documentation of the patient's wishes.
c. Family members request that nothing be done.d. All are correct
86. The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the
following for the EMT?
a. Duty to act
b. Standard of care
c. Scope of practice
d. None are correct
87. Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a
crime scene?
a. What route you took when responding to the scene
b. How you gained access to the scene
c. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene
d. Your experience as an EMT
88. Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker.
What type of consent allows you to treat this patient?
a. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies
b. Consent for mentally incompetent adults
c. Expressed consent
d. Implied consent
89. An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no
Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is
late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the
vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and
writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and
help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping.
b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died.
c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment.
d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act
90. Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing,
and sharing patient information?
a. HIPAA
b. HIAPA
c. EMTALA
d. COBRA
91. Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent
adult?
a. Unconditional consent
b. Expressed consent
c. Conscious consent
d. Implied consent
92. While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This
could constitute which of the following?
a. Libelb. Slander
c. Degradation of character
d. HIPAA violation
93. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and
limitations placed on the EMT?
a. Scope of practice
b. Legal standards of practice
c. Protocols and standing orders
d. Professional standards
94. Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is
pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911.
He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following
is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs?
a. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital.
b. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's
house but he is now refusing care.
c. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him
against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem.
d. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an
antacid, and go to bed.
95. You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical
information about the patient through which of the following?
a. Medical identification device
b. Driver's license
c. Medical history identifier
d. On-call Medical Director
96. Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with
similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation?
a. Scope of practice
b. Standard of care
c. Protocols and standing orders
d. Professional standards
97. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a
friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment?
a. Act on implied consent.
b. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.
c. Call the patient's mother at work.
d. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
98. In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided
to a patient?
a. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the
patient.
b. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend.
c. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.d. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient.
99. Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws?
a. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when
providing emergency care off-duty
b. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty.
c. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an
emergency.
d. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good
Samaritan law.
100. Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50-year-old male
patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs
are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will
save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting
all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS
refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house
from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form.
b. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died.
c. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation.
d. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical
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