Elsevier Practice for 3rd Concepts Exam 25 Questions with Verified Answers
Which statement by the nurse shows knowledge of public law?
a. "Public
... [Show More] law interprets relationships between individuals and the government."
b. "Public law includes contract law."
c. "Public law solely involves the relationships between individuals."
d. "Public law consists of tort law." - CORRECT ANSWER a. "Public law interprets relationships between individuals and the government."
The function of public law is to create and interpret relationships between individuals and the government. Contract law, the relationships between individuals, and tort law are all incorrect because these reflect private law.
The nurse who administers a medication against a client's wishes might be guilty of violating which law?
a. Tort law
b. Contract law
c. Administrative law
d. Public law - CORRECT ANSWER a. Tort law
Tort law is concerned with reparation of wrongs or injuries inflicted on one person by another. The nurse who administers medication against a client's wishes might be guilty of violating tort law. Contract law involves employer-employee relationships, administrative law includes licensing and regulation of nursing practice, and public law is between individuals and the government.
The nurse wants to delegate blood pressure checks to a certified nurse assistant. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe delegation?
a. Ask another nurse to follow up on the task.
b. Select a nurse assistant who is competent.
c. Check in with the nurse assistant after 2 hours of tracking blood pressure.
d. Provide feedback to the nurse assistant at the end of the shift. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Select a nurse assistant who is competent.
Most state nurse practice acts allow nurses to delegate certain tasks to non-nurses. The nurse should select a nurse assistant who is competent to perform blood pressure checks. The same nurse who delegated the task should then follow up with the nurse assistant. The nurse should not wait 2 hours to check on the task or to check that the nurse assistant is continuing to perform blood pressure checks as delegated. Finally, the nurse should provide feedback to the nurse assistant after the task has been completed, not at the end of the shift.
Which statement by the RN indicates adequate understanding of the treatment of nurses with drug dependency?
a. "Nurses with a drug dependency are not allowed to carry a nursing license."
b. "Drug-dependent nurses can only work in a non-client care role."
c. "Drug-dependent nurses who are compliant with treatment are granted special confidentiality."
d. "Nurses are not required to participate in treatment programs for drug dependency." - CORRECT ANSWER c. "Drug-dependent nurses who are compliant with treatment are granted special confidentiality."
Drug-dependent nurses who are compliant with treatment are granted special confidentiality as long as it is consistent with client safety. Nurses with a drug dependency are in fact allowed to carry a nursing license. Drug-dependent nurses are allowed to work in a client care role as long as client safety is maintained. Drug-dependent nurses who wish to maintain their nursing licenses must complete a treatment program.
Which action by the nurse could be considered assault?
a. Grabbing the client by the arm
b. Sitting the client in a chair
c. Threatening to medicate a client against the client's will
d. Documenting false information in the client's electronic medical record - CORRECT ANSWER c. Threatening to medicate a client against the client's will.
The common law has long recognized the right to be free from offensive touching (battery) or even the threat of offensive touching (assault). The nurse could be charged with assault by threatening to medicate a client against the client's will. Grabbing the client by the arm could be battery, and sitting the client in a chair is not considered assault. Finally, although false charting is illegal, it is not considered assault.
The nurse is interested in using evidence based practice (EBP) to make changes on the cardiac unit. Which step is considered step zero in EBP?
a. Search for the best evidence.
b. Ask clinical questions in PICOT format.
c. Critically appraise the evidence.
d. Cultivate a spirit of inquiry. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Cultivate a spirit of inquiry.
The first step in the EBP process is step zero, which is to cultivate a spirit of inquiry. Searching for the best evidence is step 2. Asking clinical questions in PICOT format is step 1. Critically appraising the evidence is step 3.
Which statement about foreground questions is true?
a. "Foreground questions ask for specific knowledge to inform clinical decisions."
b. "Foreground questions are less complex than background questions."
c. "Foreground questions are not necessary."
d. "Foreground questions often cause confusion during studies." - CORRECT ANSWER a. "Foreground questions ask for specific knowledge to inform clinical decisions."
Foreground questions ask for specific knowledge to inform clinical decisions. Foreground questions are more complex than background questions; are important and necessary; and help clarify, not confuse.
Which statement by the RN is correct regarding systematic reviews?
a. "A systematic review is the statistical combination of results from two or more separate studies."
b. "A systematic review can represent an even higher level of evidence."
c. "A systematic review finds all existing primary research on a topic that reaches a certain criteria."
d. "A systematic review is not considered to be the gold standard of health care evidence." - CORRECT ANSWER c. "A systematic review finds all existing primary research on a topic that reaches a certain criteria."
A systematic review finds all existing primary research on a topic that reaches a certain criteria. The statistical combination of results from separate studies and the potential for an even higher level of evidence are true of meta-analysis, not systematic reviews. Systematic reviews, along with meta-analysis, are considered to be the gold standard of health care evidence.
Which should the nurse consider when implementing an evidence based practice (EBP) project?
a. The EBP project usually takes less time than anticipated.
b. The EBP group should include two other individuals.
c. The nurse should consider setting a strict timeline to aid the group in timely completion.
d. The nurse should communicate the plan to each member of the group. - CORRECT ANSWER d. The nurse should communicate the plan to each member of the group.
When preparing to implement an EBP project, the nurse should communicate the plan to each member of the group. The EBP project usually takes more time than anticipated; the group should consist of five to eight individuals, depending on the scope of the project; and setting a flexible timeline is more realistic than a strict one.
Which statement by the nurse indicates that research information will be presented through a poster presentation?
a. "I will provide a written statement of the main points or facts."
b. "I will give a panel presentation about the research."
c. "The importance of this form of presentation is often overlooked."
d. "Presenting research information this way is essential for having writing noticed and accepted." - CORRECT ANSWER b. "I will give a panel presentation about the research."
It is important to the nursing profession that information from new research and programs be widely disseminated. When giving a poster presentation, the nurse will also provide a panel presentation about the research. Providing a written statement of the main points or facts is incorrect because this describes an abstract. The statement that the importance of this form of presentation is often overlooked is incorrect because this is true of the abstract more than the poster presentation. And finally, the statement that presenting research in this way is essential for having writing noticed and accepted is incorrect because, again, this is true of the abstract more than the poster presentation.
The RN understands that which is the first step in early risk assessment and intervention?
a. Understanding genetics
b. Completing genetic testing
c. Maintaining a healthy diet
d. Knowing family history - CORRECT ANSWER d. Knowing family history
Knowing the client's family history is the first step in early risk assessment and intervention. Clients with family members who have certain chronic diseases have a higher chance of developing those diseases. Understanding genetics, completing genetic testing, and maintaining a healthy diet are incorrect because these are not part of the first step in early risk assessment and intervention.
Which statement by the RN is correct regarding carrier testing?
a. "Carrier testing identifies a genetic variation that causes a person to have a genetic condition or disease now or in the future."
b. "Carrier testing may be sought when couples are considering pregnancy."
c. "Carrier testing is performed on newborns to determine if they have a genetic disorder that will cause problems with health and development."
d. "Carrier testing is offered during pregnancy to help identify fetuses that have certain diseases." - CORRECT ANSWER b. "Carrier testing may be sought when couples are considering pregnancy."
Carrier testing is a type of genetic testing that can tell if individuals carry a genetic variation that can cause a disease. This type of testing may be sought when couples are considering pregnancy. Testing that identifies a genetic variation that causes a person to have a genetic condition now or in the future is diagnostic testing. Testing that is done on newborns to determine if they have a disorder is newborn screening. And finally, testing offered during pregnancy to help identify fetuses with certain diseases is prenatal genetic testing.
The RN understands which to be true about research genetic testing?
a. The results will directly help the research participant.
b. The research rarely leads to breakthroughs in health care.
c. Research helps the scientists understand human genes.
d. Testing leads to the immediate release of new treatment options. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Research helps the scientists understand human genes.
Research genetic testing helps scientists understand human genes, which can lead to the benefit of individuals in the future, including the release of new treatment options. This research does not directly help the research participant, but it will help many others in the future, and it often leads to many breakthroughs in health care. Testing does lead to the release of new treatment options but not immediately.
While educating the client, the nurse states that the goal of pharmacogenetics is to
a. determine the client's genetic family history.
b. create a change in the client's genetics.
c. create an individualized drug treatment program.
d. determine the method for drug creation. - CORRECT ANSWER c. create an individualized drug treatment program.
Pharmacogenetics is the field of research that looks at the difference in each individual's response to medications based on genetic variation. The goal of pharmacogenetics is to create an individualized drug treatment plan based on the client's genetics. Determining the client's genetic family history is incorrect because pharmacogenetics relies on knowing the client's individual genetics. The goal is not to change the client's genetics. Determining the method for drug creation is incorrect because pharmacogenomics is concerned with the actual creation of drugs, not just the method.
What education should the nurse provide to a client regarding Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA)?
a. GINA cannot prevent health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information.
b. GINA cannot prevent health insurers from raising premiums based on genetic information.
c. Health insurers can request that the client have genetic testing done.
d. Health insurers cannot discriminate against the client. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Health insurers cannot discriminate against the client.
The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) gives U.S. citizens protection from health insurance and employment discrimination based on their genetic information. This means that GINA prevents health insurers from denying coverage or raising premiums based on genetic information. Health insurers cannot request that a client have genetic testing done.
The nurse is listening to a lecture on telehealth. Which statement by the nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective?
a. "The oldest mode of telehealth is voice via the telephone."
b. "There are five modes of telehealth technology transmission."
c. "Telehealth has not evolved much over the last three decades."
d. "Nursing has been quick to adopt information technology for nursing purposes." - CORRECT ANSWER a. "The oldest mode of telehealth is voice via the telephone."
The oldest mode of telehealth is voice via the telephone. There are four modes of telehealth technology transmission: voice via telephone, store and forward, exchanged via computer, and interactive live videoconferencing. Telehealth has evolved over the past three decades, but nursing has been slow to adopt information technology for nursing purposes.
The nurse is listening to a presentation on the advantages of telehealth technology. Which statement by the nurse indicates that teaching has been effective?
a. "Telehealth has minimal advantages for the client."
b. "Telehealth technology can empower clients to participate actively in their care."
c. "Medical error rates remained the same whether or not telehealth was used."
d. "Cost remains the same when telehealth is used." - CORRECT ANSWER b. "Telehealth technology can empower clients to participate actively in their care."
Telehealth reaches clients in their homes or communities. Telehealth technology can empower clients to participate actively in their care. Telehealth has many different advantages for clients; the rate of medical errors decreases when telehealth technology is involved; and cost decreases when telehealth is used, one example being the financial savings because of less travel time.
New nurses are being educated on the benefits of using a mobile platform in the prehospital setting to treat possible stroke clients. Which information should be included?
a. The client should receive a face-to-face evaluation only.
b. This allows ischemic clients to receive tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) faster.
c. Stroke is currently the leading cause of death in the United States.
d. There is limited treatment for stroke available at this time. - CORRECT ANSWER b. This allows ischemic clients to receive tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) faster.
As telehealth evolves, there will be an expansion of care to other environments. Using a mobile platform in the prehospital setting allows the ischemic client to receive tPA faster, thereby giving the client the chance for a better outcome. The idea that the client should receive face-to-face evaluation only is incorrect because using the mobile platform helps health care providers recognize the signs of stroke and initiate treatment faster. Stroke is currently the third cause of death in the United States, and there are options for treatment backed by sound research.
A group of nurses are discussing the challenges of telehealth technology. Which statement would the nurses likely make?
a. "Telehealth technology is a very effective means of communicating with other health care professionals."
b. "There is a physical distance between the nurse and client."
c. "Nurses have the opportunity for unique education."
d. "Nurses can interact with other nurses from around the world." - CORRECT ANSWER b. "There is a physical distance between the nurse and client."
There are many challenges to using telehealth technology, such as the physical distance between the nurse and client. The effectiveness of telehealth technology in communicating with other health care professionals, the opportunity for unique education, and the ability for nurses to interact with other nurses from around the world are not challenges of telehealth technology but rather are benefits.
A nursing professor is trying to incorporate telehealth technology into the curriculum in order to adequately prepare nurse practitioners. What action can the nursing professor take?
a. Create clinical experiences that include telehealth applications.
b. Extend the clinical program by 6 months.
c. Implement computer knowledge requirements for admission into the program.
d. Implement a computer course requirement. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Create clinical experiences that include telehealth applications.
The role of the nurse in telehealth is evolving, so education and training are important to any telehealth program. The nursing professor should consider creating clinical experiences that include telehealth applications. Extending the clinical program by 6 months, implementing computer knowledge requirements for admission to the program, and implementing a computer course requirement are important, but they do not necessarily fulfill the need for telehealth knowledge and application.
Which action by the nurse demonstrates the use of palliative care?
a. Providing education on new cancer treatments
b. Calling the physician to request a hospital transfer for higher level of care
c. Discussing elective surgical options with the client
d. Assisting the client into a comfortable position. - CORRECT ANSWER d. Assisting the client into a comfortable position.
Palliative care means to prevent and relieve suffering experienced by patients, which improves quality of life. This can be achieved by assisting the client into a comfortable position. Palliative care does not involve new cancer treatment, hospital transfers for higher quality of care, elective surgeries.
Which is true regarding palliative care?
a. 30 million people require palliative care at the end of life
b. The majority of palliative care recipients are 50 years of age and older
c. Palliative care is appropriate across the lifespan
d. Palliative care is only provided in the hospital setting - CORRECT ANSWER c. Palliative care is appropriate across the lifespan
The World Health Organization estimates that 20 million people world-wide require palliative care at the end of life. The majority of palliative care recipients are age 60 and older. Palliative care is provided in a multitude of settings, and is appropriate across the lifespan.
Which diagnosis is most common for patients enrolling in hospice care?
a. Dementia
b. Rhabdomyelosis
c. Cancer
d. TBI - CORRECT ANSWER c. Cancer
The majority of individuals enrolling in hospice care have non-cancer diagnoses. Common diagnoses include: cancer (36.6%), dementia (14.8%), cardiac disorders (14.7%), lung disease (9.3%).
The nurse is discussing end of life care with the family of a dying patient. Which common symptom should the nurse discuss with the family?
a. Dry mouth
b. Increased energy
c. Dyspnea
d. Skin tears - CORRECT ANSWER c. Dyspnea
Dyspnea is a common occurrence during the dying process, which the nurse should explain to the family, along with available intervention. Dry mouth, increased energy and skin tears are not among the symptoms which are commonly seen in the dying patient.
Which is not considered a barrier to accessing palliative care?
a. Lack of educated palliative care workers
b. Inadequate social support
c. Lack of need for palliative care.
d. Decrease in a diverse workforce - CORRECT ANSWER c. Lack of need for palliative care.
Barriers to accessing palliative care include: lack of educated palliative care workers, inadequate social support, decrease or lack of diverse workforce, among others. Lack of need for palliative care is not a barrier. [Show Less]