CRRN Test 259 Questions with Verified Answers
Lack of pain or fullness, large voids, may have temperature
1. motor paralysis
2. sensory paralysis -
... [Show More] CORRECT ANSWER 2. sensory. Patient may benefit from Intermittent catherization
Each discipline meets and discusses POC
1. interdisciplinary
2. transdisciplinary
3. multi-disciplinary - CORRECT ANSWER 1. interdisciplinary
Most difficult; holistic approach
1. interdisciplinary
2. transdisciplinary
3. multi-disciplinary - CORRECT ANSWER 2. transdisciplinary
Limited coordination; home health is an example
1. interdisciplinary
2. transdisciplinary
3. multi-disciplinary - CORRECT ANSWER 3. multi-disciplinary
Who says, "motivation is key"
1. Lewin
2. Bandura
3. King
4. Kobusa - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Lewin
What is the King theory?
1. energy field
2. open systems
3. self-care deficit - CORRECT ANSWER 2. open systems : personal, interpersonal, social
What is the newest vital sign?
1. HELMs
2. Orem
3. Eberst healthcube - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Health literacy
Which of Hall's 3 components are most important in rehab?
1. Core
2. Care
3. Cure - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Core, the whole person
What is Eberst's healthcube theory?
1. energy fields
2. multidimentional with whole person focus
3. wellness in high stress situations - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Rubix cube analogy
True or false: Kobusa theory aims for wellness even in high stress situations? - CORRECT ANSWER true. 3 values: commitment, control, challenge
Who founded PT?
1. Kenny
2. Roy
3. Dossey - CORRECT ANSWER 1. ROM with polio
Who is the author of the adaption model?
1. Kenny
2. Roy
3. Dossey - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Roy
Smith Fess Act (1st rehab act)
1. 1920
2. 1935
3. 1912
4. 1925 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. First rehab act
true or false: 1935 SS act defined rehab? - CORRECT ANSWER True; also unemployment insurance and aid to blind
When was medicaid established?
1. 1935
2. 1974
3. 1966 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. 1966
When was the ARN established?
1. 1966
2. 1970
3. 1974
4. 1990 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. 1974
When was HIPPA enacted into law?
1. 1990
2. 1996
3. 1975
4. 2000 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. 1996
Older than 65 years, 2 or more years permanently disabled, ESRD, RR retirement
1. medicaid
2. medicare
3. worker's comp - CORRECT ANSWER 2. medicare
2/3 or income, disabled or killed under covered injury/illness
1. medicaid
2. medicare
3. worker's comp
4. SSDI - CORRECT ANSWER 3. main objective is to return to work
True/false: rehab reinbursement is the IRF TPI - CORRECT ANSWER false. it is IRF PAI
Patient does not respond to stimuli
1. Rancho 0
2. Rancho 1
2. Rancho 8 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Rancho Los Amigos 1 is no response
Patient has generalized response
1. Rancho 1
2. Rancho 2
3. Rancho 3 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Rancho Los Amigos 2 is generalized response
Patient has localized response
1. Rancho 1
2. Rancho 2
3. Rancho 3 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Rancho Los Amigos 3 is localized response
True/False: Rancho 1-3 use short, simple phrases, allow time to respond, promote sleep/wake cycles - CORRECT ANSWER true.
Patient is confused and agitated
1. Rancho 2
2. Rancho 4
3. Rancho 6 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Rancho Los Amigos 4 is confused and agitated; reorient, provide structure and quiet environment, maintain safety
Patient is confused and inappropriate
1. Rancho 6
2. Rancho 4
3. Rancho 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Rancho Los Amigos 5 is confused and inappropriate
Patient is confused but appropriate
1. Rancho 6
2. Rancho 4
3. Rancho 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Rancho Los Amigos 6 is confused but appropriate
Patient has automatic actions, appropriate
1. Rancho 8
2. Rancho 7 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Rancho Los Amigos 7 is appropriate with automatic actions
Patient is appropriate with purposeful actions
1. Rancho 8
2. Rancho 7 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Rancho 8 is highest level, patient is appropriate and purposeful
True/False: Rancho Los amigos 5-6 uses repetition, structure, rest periods, bowel/bladder programs, memory aids, and behavior plans? - CORRECT ANSWER true. Rancho Los Amigos Scale 5-6 patient is confused. these actions aid with recovery
True/False: Rancho scale 9-10 decreases structure, increases problem solving, and seeks to cope with frustrations - CORRECT ANSWER false. Scale 9-10 uses memory aids, stand-by assistance, depression monitoring and utilizing resources.
True/False: Rancho scale 7-8 decreases structure, increases problem solving and seeks to cope with frustrations - CORRECT ANSWER true. Rancho scale 7-8 patient is appropriate and function is moving from automatic to purposeful
Which supplement aids with spina bifida prevention?
1. Vitamin C
2. folic acid
3. calcium - CORRECT ANSWER 2. folic acid
t/f: the sweat test aids in diagnosing CF - CORRECT ANSWER true. Increased NaCl in sweat is indicative of CF
Chose all that apply: Maslow's hierarchy of needs includes:
1. physiological safety
2. holistic development
3. self-actualization
4. esteem
5. love and belonging - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 3, 4, 5
Theory that aging population is happier when active
1. disengagement theory
2. activity theory
3. gerotranscendence theory - CORRECT ANSWER 2. activity theory is happier when active
T/F: the disengagement theory states that age narrows social sphere - CORRECT ANSWER true. disengagement means social sphere is reduced
"Can't teach old dog new tricks"
1. gerotranscendence theory
2. continuity theory - CORRECT ANSWER 2. continuity theory
"live and let live"
1. gerotranscendence theory
2. continuity theory - CORRECT ANSWER 1. gerotranscendence theory moves from rational to cosmic
Select all that apply: geriatric changes in cardiopulmonary include
1. decreased CO
2. decreased lung elasticity
3. decreased cough reflex
4. increased risk of COPD and CHF
5. increased CO2 retention
6. moist mucosa - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
t/f: Parkinson's has increased dopamine - CORRECT ANSWER false. Parkinson's decreased dopamine means increased AcH
t/f: hypoalbuminemia affects protein-binding drugs and delays wound healing - CORRECT ANSWER true. protein-bound drugs, such as Warfarin are affected by lower albumin levels
What is the fall prevention acronym?
1. FAST
2. CRASHED
3. PLISST - CORRECT ANSWER 2. Cords, carpets, cracks; Rx; Affect (depression); Sickness; Hypotension; Eyes ;Dizziness
What is the stroke acronym?
1. FAST
2. CRASHED
3. PLISST - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Face, Arms, Speech, Time
What is the PLISST model?
1. permission, limited information, specific suggestions, therapy
2. permission liability, informatics, standards of care, safety, therapy
3. passive ROM, limited information, staff involvement, safety, tasks - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Permission, Limited Information, Specific Suggestions, Therapy
t/f: polytrauma centers are managed by the department of defense - CORRECT ANSWER true. Only 3 or 4 exist
t/f: DeCosta first recognized PTSD - CORRECT ANSWER true
t/f: pain management helps with PTSD symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER true.
Patient does not do well in therapy, stating "it's not in my control"
1. external locus
2 internal locus - CORRECT ANSWER 1. external locus of control perceives chance and outside forces determine fate
Patient believes he can make the changes necessary
1. external locus
2. internal locus - CORRECT ANSWER 2. internal locus of control perceives one controls one's own fate
Select all that apply: dysphagia oral phase
1. drooling on weak side
2. assymetrical face
3. altered lip closure
4. history of aspiration pneumonia
5. fear of eating or drinking
6. increased dental cavities
7. weak or absent gag reflex
8. chewing issues - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 7, 8
Select all that apply: dysphagia pharyngeal phase
1. delayed or absent swallowing
2. weak or absent gag reflex
3. history of aspiration pneumonia
4. weight loss
5. weight gain
6. fear of eating or drinking
7. coughing or wheezing
8. wet sounding voice - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 3, 4, 6, 8
select all that apply: dysphagia esophageal phase
1. burping and/ or indigestion
2. substernal pain
3. complaints of bad breath or bad taste in mouth
4. coughing and/ or wheezing
5. increase in dental cavities - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
pudding-like texture
1. NDDI
2. NDD2
3. NDD3
4. NDD4 - CORRECT ANSWER 1.
mechanical ground
1. NDDI
2. NDD2
3. NDD3
4. NDD4 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. no bread, peas, corn, skin, or seeds
t/f: NDD4 is regular texture with no hard, sick, crunchy foods - CORRECT ANSWER false. NDD4 is a regular diet. This is NDD3
Name that nerve: smell
1. cranial nerve 1
2. cranial nerve 2
3. cranial nerve 3 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. CN 1
name that nerve: eyes
1. cranial nerve 1
2. cranial nerve 2
3. cranial nerve 3 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. CN2
name that nerve: eyelids/eyeball, pupil constriction
1. cranial nerve 1
2. cranial nerve 2
3. cranial nerve 3 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. CN 3
name that nerve: trochlear, downward eye movement
1. cranial nerve 4
2. cranial nerve 5
3. cranial nerve 6 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. CN 4
name that nerve: face sensation, chewing
1. cranial nerve 4
2. cranial nerve 5
3. cranial nerve 6 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. CN 5 trigeminal
name that nerve: eye abduction
1. cranial nerve 4
2. cranial nerve 5
3. cranial nerve 6 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. CN 6
name that nerve: back 3rd of tongue, senses, gag reflex
1. cranial nerve 7
2. cranial nerve 8
3. cranial nerve 9 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. CN 9
name that nerve: hearing and balance
1. cranial nerve 7
2. cranial nerve 8
3. cranial nerve 9 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. CN 8
name that nerve: facial expression, tears, saliva, taste
1. cranial nerve 7
2. cranial nerve 8
3. cranial nerve 9 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. CN 7
name that nerve: neck muscles
1. cranial nerve 10
2. cranial nerve 11
3. cranial nerve 12 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. CN 11
name that nerve: tongue movement
1. cranial nerve 10
2. cranial nerve 11
3. cranial nerve 12 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. CN 12
name that nerve: vagus nerve
1. cranial nerve 10
2. cranial nerve 11
3. cranial nerve 12 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. CN 10; HR, BP, digestion, taste
1st degree burn:
1. black skin, no pain, full-thickness to bone
2. no pain, full-thickness nerve and muscle involvement
3. partial thickness, epidermis, red, painful, edema
4. partial thickness, epidermis and some dermis, blistered - CORRECT ANSWER 3.
2nd. degree burn
1. black skin, no pain, full-thickness to bone
2. no pain, full-thickness nerve and muscle involvement
3. partial thickness, epidermis, red, painful, edema
4. partial thickness, epidermis and some dermis, blistered - CORRECT ANSWER 4.
3rd degree burn
1. black skin, no pain, full-thickness to bone
2. no pain, full-thickness nerve and muscle involvement
3. partial thickness, epidermis, red, painful, edema
4. partial thickness, epidermis and some dermis, blistered - CORRECT ANSWER 2.
4th degree burn
1. black skin, no pain, full-thickness to bone
2. no pain, full-thickness nerve and muscle involvement
3. partial thickness, epidermis, red, painful, edema
4. partial thickness, epidermis and some dermis, blistered - CORRECT ANSWER 1
intact skin, non-blanchable, red
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER 1.
full thickness, fat visible
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER 3.
partial skin loss, epidermis and dermis layers affected
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER 2
full thickness, bone, muscle, and tendon involvement
1. Stage 1
2. Stage 2
3. Stage 3
4. Stage 4 - CORRECT ANSWER 4
true/ false: eschar and slough makes PI unstageable - CORRECT ANSWER true
true/false: DTI included purple or maroon discoloration that is generalized - CORRECT ANSWER false. DTI is purple or maroon in color, localized. IE blood-filled blisters
What medications are important for PI recovery? select all that apply:
1. Vitamin D
2. Vitamin C
3. Zinc
4. Aszinine - CORRECT ANSWER 2, 3, 4
t/f: bowel and bladder is controlled by the S2-S4 receptors - CORRECT ANSWER true
CNS - brain, spine, T12 and above
1. UMN
2. LMN - CORRECT ANSWER 1. reflexive and spastic
PNS - T12 and below
1. UMN
2. LMN - CORRECT ANSWER 2. autonomous, areflexive, flaccid
UMN, disrupted CNS, high residuals; caused by trauma, tumor, infection, MS, infarct, damage above T12
1. reflexive neurogenic
2. motorsensory neurogenic
3. uninhibited neurogenic
4. autonomic neurogenic - CORRECT ANSWER 1. suppositories, digital stimulation, sit on commode
UMN, disrupted sacral reflex caused by herniated disc, trauma, tumor, MS, diabetic neuropathy
1. reflexive neurogenic
2. motorsensory neurogenic
3. uninhibited neurogenic
4. autonomic neurogenic - CORRECT ANSWER 2.
UMN, loss of signal, frequent urination, uncontrolled void, small volume, nocturnia, urge and frequency caused by BI and stroke
1. reflexive neurogenic
2. motorsensory neurogenic
3. uninhibited neurogenic
4. autonomic neurogenic - CORRECT ANSWER 3.
LMN, sensory and motor, overflow, weak sensation caused by damage to T12 and lower, spina bifida
1. reflexive neurogenic
2. motorsensory neurogenic
3. uninhibited neurogenic
4. autonomic neurogenic - CORRECT ANSWER 4. bulk fiber, 2000ml/day, ostomy
difficulty starting stream, straining, overflow incontinence
1. motor paralysis
2. sensory paralysis - CORRECT ANSWER 1. motor
reflexic erection
1. UMN triggered by manual stimulation
2. LMN, neurological - CORRECT ANSWER 1. UMN
psychogenic erection
1. UMN triggered by manual stimulation
2. LMN, neurological - CORRECT ANSWER 2. LMN
Medications that decrease libido: select all that apply
1. anticholinergics
2. antihypertensives
3. anti-depressants
4. anti-convulsants
5. anti-histamines
6. lipid lowering agents
7. Digoxin
8. Warfarin
9. substance abuse
10. Beta blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9
true/ false: the PNS is a LMN; cranial nerves, peripheral nerves, and is divided into SNS and ANS systems - CORRECT ANSWER true.
delicate, innermost membrane that clings to the brain and spinal cord
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid mater - CORRECT ANSWER 2. pia
middle meninges
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid mater - CORRECT ANSWER 3. arachnoid
thick, outermost layer of meninges that protects brain and spinal cord
1. dura mater
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid mater - CORRECT ANSWER 1. dura mater
t/f: hydrocephalus is decreased fluid on the brain - CORRECT ANSWER false, hydrocephalus is increased fluid
t/f: cerebrum controls voluntary actions - CORRECT ANSWER true.
Left side: details; select all that apply
1. verbal processing
2. language; speech, reading, writing
3. math and science
4. arts
5. reasoning and logic
6. orientation - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 5
slow, cautious, aphasic, ataxic, memory impairment, low tolerance, easily frustrated
1. right side BI
2. left side BI - CORRECT ANSWER 2. speak slowly, communication boards, non-verbal clues, patience, don't rush, short time frames, learns through imitation
Right side, abstract: select all that apply:
1. visual-spatial
2. emotions
3. arts,
4. awareness and insight
5. imagination
6. recognition and orientation - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Unilateral neglect, impulsive, inappropriate, depth perception issues, decreased/absent reasoning skills, emotionally lable, depression
1. left side BI
2. right side BI - CORRECT ANSWER 2. right side.
reasoning, planning, some speech, movement, emotions, problem solving skills
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe
5. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER 1. frontal lobe
visual processing, depth perception
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe
5. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER 3. occipital
sensory input, touch, body position
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe
5. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER 2. parietal
processing, sensory input, coordinating movements, balance
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe
5. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER 5. cerebellum
hearing, taste, smell, sequencing, memory, Wernicke's area
1. frontal lobe
2. parietal lobe
3. occipital lobe
4. temporal lobe
5. cerebellum - CORRECT ANSWER 4. temporal lobe
T /F: Wernicke's area controls language and comprehension - CORRECT ANSWER true.
t/f: the limbic system borders the brainstem and drives sexual and food desires - CORRECT ANSWER true. also controls emotions, fight/flight response and motivation as well as attention
t/f: basal ganglia is in the forebrain and controls movement - CORRECT ANSWER true. dyskinesias and tremors are result of injury
T/F
The medulla oblongata sends efferent signals to the blood vessels and heart to maintain homeostasis - CORRECT ANSWER true. controls HR, breathing, BP, digestion, and temperature
C4 damage
1. diaphragm
2. triceps, hands
3. leg muscles - CORRECT ANSWER 1. may need ventilator until accessory muscles are used
c5 damage
1. diaphragm
2. biceps and deltoids
3. triceps and hands - CORRECT ANSWER 2. biceps and deltoids
C6 damage
1. hands,
2. carpi radialis
3. diaphragm - CORRECT ANSWER 2. carpi radialis
C7
1. triceps and hands
2. carpi radialis
3. hands only - CORRECT ANSWER 1. triceps and hands
c8
1. triceps and hands
2. carpi radialis
3. hands only - CORRECT ANSWER 3. hands only
damage at what spinal cord tract risks autonomic dysreflexia? - CORRECT ANSWER T6
T2-T7
1. leg muscles
2. chest, intercostals, ab muscles
3. bowel. bladder, sexual function - CORRECT ANSWER 2.
t/f: leg muscles are controled by tract L1-L5 - CORRECT ANSWER true
t/f: S234 controls bowel, bladder and sexual function - CORRECT ANSWER true
t/f: SNS is fight or flight - CORRECT ANSWER true. arouses
t/f: PNS is rest and digest - CORRECT ANSWER true. relaxes
chose all that apply: SNS
1. dilates eyes
2. increases salivation
3. increases HR
4. constricts bronchi
5. decreases digestion
6. releases insulin
7. decreases intestinal secretions
8 constricts bladder - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 3, 5, 6, 7
chose all that apply: PNS
1. dilates eyes
2. increases salivation
3. decreases HR
4. constricts bronchi
5. increases digestion
6. releases bile
7. increases intestinal secretions
8. constricts bladder - CORRECT ANSWER 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
Autoimmune demyelination with muscle weakness, visual impairment, numbness/tingling, pain, tremors, dysphagia, cognitive changes, bowel/bladder/sexual dysfunction
1. MS
2. GBS
3. PD
4. ALS
5. MG - CORRECT ANSWER 1. MS. progressive/resisitive exercise, assistive devices, energy conservation, avoid physical and emotional stressors, bowel/bladder/pain management
Neurodegenerative disease with marked decrease of dopamine and increased AcH receptor availability. Depression, mask-like affect, stooped, pill-rolling, cog-wheeling, shuffling, bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, excess salivation and slow response
1. MS
2. GBS
3. PD
4. ALS
5. MG - CORRECT ANSWER .3. Parkinson's Disease.
t/f: PD medication timeliness is important - CORRECT ANSWER true
t/f: high fat food content increases medication absorption with PD drugs - CORRECT ANSWER false. this lowers absorption of medications, like levedopa
Neurodegenerative disease of motor neurons. Weakness, wasting, atrophy, hyperreflexia, frontal lobe involvement, emotionally labile
1. MS
2. GBS
3. PD
4. ALS
5. MG - CORRECT ANSWER 4. ALS
Chronic nerve impulses to muscle. Autoimmune disease that attacks AcH receptors with increased PNS involvement and risk of respiratory failure
1. MS
2. GBS
3. PD
4. ALS
5. MG - CORRECT ANSWER 5. MG. No OTC without PCP knowledge, focus on energy conservation
Can occur over hours to 3 weeks and linger up to 3 years. Ascending progression with descending regression. CN 7 involvement, dysphagia, decreased cough/gag reflex, risk of aspiration, DVT, constant pain
1. MS
2. GBS
3. PD
4. ALS
5. MG - CORRECT ANSWER 2. GBS. Check cranial nerves, respiratory, O2, BP, HR. Administer ROM and passive exercises
t/f: GBS is linked to the swine flu vaccine - CORRECT ANSWER true
Who first documented MG?
1. Sir Walter Riley
2. Sir William Thomas
3. Sir Thomas Willis - CORRECT ANSWER 3. Sir Thomas Willis
t/f: the tensilon test dx MG - CORRECT ANSWER true. distinguishes between myasthenia crisis and cholinergic crisis
Life-threatening, may require ventilation, administer tensilon
1. cholinergic crisis
2. myasthenia crisis - CORRECT ANSWER 2. myasthenia crisis
Caused by excess medications, do not give tensilon
1. cholinergic crisis
2. myasthenia crisis - CORRECT ANSWER 1. cholinergic crisis
t/f: Wechler theory proposes that post polio syndrome is the result of nerve cell sprouts degeneration leading to view of new symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER true. nerve cell sprouts hide symptoms of polio. when they degenerate, the symptoms are exposed
SMART (er) goals - CORRECT ANSWER Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Relevant
Time-bound
Evaluated
Reviewed
T/F: TBI watch for seizures, wounds, respiratory, ortho, infection, nutrition, I&O - CORRECT ANSWER true.
T/F: TBI rehab focus on structure, repetition, consistency - CORRECT ANSWER true
T/F: TBI has decreased metabolic demands - CORRECT ANSWER false. TBI increases metabolic demands
blood vessel obstruction, 87% of all strokes
1. Ischemic
2. Thrombotic
3. embolic
4. Subarachnoid hemmorhage - CORRECT ANSWER 1.
t/f: atheroschlerosis is a major stroke factor - CORRECT ANSWER true
T/f: TIA is a "warning stroke" or "mini stroke" - CORRECT ANSWER true. brief dysfunction 40% will have a stroke in the future with 50% of those having one within days
t/f: MI is the most common death from stroke - CORRECT ANSWER true
Clots cause stroke; HTN , DM, CAD correlations
1. ischemic
2. thrombotic
3. embolic
4. Subarachnoid hemmorhage - CORRECT ANSWER 2. thrombotic
traveling clot
1. ischemic
2. thrombotic
3. embolic
4. Subarachnoid hemmorhage - CORRECT ANSWER 3. embolic
t/f: right cerebral artery most common location of embolic stroke - CORRECT ANSWER false. Middle cerebral artery is the most common location
Blood vessel rupture, usually caused by berry aneurysm or AV malformation with sudden, intense HA, neck pain, nausea and vomiting
1. ischemic stroke
2. thrombotic stroke
3. embotic stroke
4. subarachnoid hemmorrhage - CORRECT ANSWER 4. Subarachnoid hemmorage
t/f: stroke at brainstem can lead to locked-in syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER true.
Chose all that apply: Stroke therapies
1. anticoagulants
2. antihypertensives
3. antiplatelets
4. Pacemaker
5. stents
6. angioplasty - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 3, 5, 6
Glasgow Coma Scale for eyes: Patient does not respond when his name is called, but opens his eyes to sternal rub. What is his score? `.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1 - CORRECT ANSWER C. Glascow score of 2, responds to pain.
4. spontaneous
3. responds to voice
2. responds to pain
1. no response
Glasgow Coma Scale for motor function: Patient squeezes the doctor's hand when asked to do so. What is her Glasgow motor score?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6 - CORRECT ANSWER F. Glasgow score of 6 is given when the patient obeys commands
5. responds to localized pain
4. withdraws from pain
3. flexes to pain
2. extends from pain
1. no response
Glasgow Coma Scale for verbal. Patient opens her eyes and squeezes the nurses hand on command but when the nurse asks the patient if she knows where she is, the patient responds, "Down by the pretty with the song." What is her Glagow verbal score?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1 - CORRECT ANSWER C. Glasgow 3 is confused, inappropriate words or phrase.
5. A/O
4. confused, coherent
3. confused, inappropriate words or phrases
2. incomprehensible sounds
1. no response
GCS 9-12, LOC <24 hrs, PTA 24 hrs to 7 days
1. mild BI
2. moderate BI
3. severe BI - CORRECT ANSWER 2. moderate
GCS <8, LOC >24 hrs, PTA >7 days
1. mild BI
2. moderate BI
3. severe BI - CORRECT ANSWER 3. severe
GCS 13-15, LOC <30 minutes, PTA <24 hrs
1. mild BI
2. moderate BI
3. severe BI - CORRECT ANSWER 1. mild
T6, CNS damage, hypotension, bradycardia, 1-3 weeks
1. spinal shock
2. neurogenic shock - CORRECT ANSWER 2. neurogenic
immediate and complete loss of reflexes, flaccid, below injury, edema, initial BP increase, loss of bowel and bladder
1. spinal shock
2. neurogenic shock - CORRECT ANSWER 1. spinal shock
C1-T1; involves arms, trunk, legs, pelvic organs
1. quadraplegia
2. paraplegia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. quadraplegia
T2 and below
1. quadraplegia
2. paraplegia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. paraplegia
t/f: incomplete injury has no sensory or motor below injury - CORRECT ANSWER false. complete has no sensory or motor below injury. incomplete retains some sensory and motor
total paralysis
1. grade 0
2. grade 1
3. grade 2
4. grade 3
5. grade 4
6. grade 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 1. grade 0
normal, full ROM, full resistance
1. grade 0
2. grade 1
3. grade 2
4. grade 3
5. grade 4
6. grade 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 6. grade 5
active movement, full ROM, decreased gravity
1. grade 0
2. grade 1
3. grade 2
4. grade 3
5. grade 4
6. grade 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 3. grade 2
palpable, visual contraction
1. grade 0
2. grade 1
3. grade 2
4. grade 3
5. grade 4
6. grade 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 2. grade 1
active movement, full ROM against gravity
1. grade 0
2. grade 1
3. grade 2
4. grade 3
5. grade 4
6. grade 5 - CORRECT ANSWER 4. grade 3
active movement, full ROM, moderate resistance - CORRECT ANSWER 5. grade 4
Patient has injury at T6 and has developed chills, is sweating, has a pounding HA, blurry vision and a sense of doom. Assessment reveals increased BP, decreased HR. What is your first instinctual diagnosis? - CORRECT ANSWER autonomic dysreflexia.
t/f: autonomic dysreflexia can lead to stroke - CORRECT ANSWER true
What is the first intervention for autonomic dysreflexia?
1. raise HOB
2. monitor BP and pulse
3. remove TED hose and binder
4. empty bowel and bladder, search for cause - CORRECT ANSWER 1. first raise the HOB, then search for cause
L1 and below, LMN lesion. Lower extremity pain, flaccid paralysis, bowel/bladder/sexual dysfunction
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 1. cauda equina
function preserved 2-3 segments below point of injury
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 6. zone of partial preservation
loss of upper extremities
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 2. central cord syndrome
most common - flaccidity, no motor function, pain or temperature sensation below lesion
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 4. anterior cord syndrome
hemi-section of cord results in 1 side being affected with contralateral loss of pain and thermal senses
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 3. brown-sequard syndrome
Sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots involved with LE motor and sensory loss, reflexic bowel, bladder, and LE
1. cauda equina
2. central cord syndrome
3. brown-sequard syndrome
4. anterior cord syndrome
5. conus medullaris
6. zone of partial preservation - CORRECT ANSWER 5. conus medullaris
Complete, No motor or sensory function in the lowest sacral segment (S4-S5)
1. ASIA A
2. ASIA B
3. ASIA C
4. ASIA D
5. ASIA E - CORRECT ANSWER 1. ASIA A
incomplete, Motor function is preserved below neurologic level and more than half of the key muscle groups below neurologic level have a muscle grade less than 3.
1. ASIA A
2. ASIA B
3. ASIA C
4. ASIA D
5. ASIA E - CORRECT ANSWER 3. ASIA C
incomplete; Sensory function below neurologic level and in S4-S5, no motor function below neurologic level
1. ASIA A
2. ASIA B
3. ASIA C
4. ASIA D
5. ASIA E - CORRECT ANSWER 2. ASIA B
normal, Sensory and motor function is normal
1. ASIA A
2. ASIA B
3. ASIA C
4. ASIA D
5. ASIA E - CORRECT ANSWER 5. ASIA E
incomplete, Motor function is preserved below neurologic level and at least half of the key muscle groups below neurologic level have a muscle grade 3.
1. ASIA A
2. ASIA B
3. ASIA C
4. ASIA D
5. ASIA E - CORRECT ANSWER 4. ASIA D
true/false: vertebral compression fx is most common osteoporosis fx - CORRECT ANSWER true
true/false: 1/3 of females die within 1 year of hip fx - CORRECT ANSWER false. 1/3 of males dies within 1 year
osteoporosis ACCESS acronym - CORRECT ANSWER Alcohol, Corticosteroids, Calcium low, Estrogen low, Smoker, Sedetary lifestyle
bone reabsorption
1. osteoblasts
2. osteoclasts - CORRECT ANSWER 2. osteoclasts
bone formation
1. osteoblasts
2. osteoclasts - CORRECT ANSWER 1. osteoblasts
Which of the following is not included with management of osteoporosis?
1. Weight bearing exercise
2. passive ROM
3. pain management
4. Vitamin D supplements
5. Calcium supplements
6. increased fruit and vegetable consumption
7. Fosamax
8. calcitonin - CORRECT ANSWER 2. passive ROM
degenerative, characterized by soreness/stiffness with inactivity or overuse, decreased ROM, crepitus, advanced = night pain, pain at rest, limping, paresthesias
1. OA
2. RA
3. Gout - CORRECT ANSWER 1. OA
inflammatory, autoimmune that can damage muscles, lungs, skin, blood vessels, eyes and has external triggers. Stiffness early am, fatigue, symmetrical joints painful, stiff, red, warm, edemous, with decreased mobility
1. OA
2. RA
3. Gout - CORRECT ANSWER 2. RA
metabolic, increased uric acid, renal damage, most common location is great toe and foot; fever, chills, tachycardia, HA, HTN, severe joint and back pain, decreased ROM, malaise
1. OA
2. RA
3. Gout - CORRECT ANSWER 3. gout
Chose all that apply: Which of the following are not contributors to gout?
1. AA men
2. HTN
3. DM
4. renal insufficiency
5. pre-menopausal women
6. increased cholesterol
7. obesity
8. anemia
9. psoriasis
10. high fructose foods
11. high purine foods (game, organ meats) - CORRECT ANSWER 1 and 5
Chose all that apply: which medications are used with gout?
1. NSAIDS
2. ASA
3. Acetaminophen
4. cochinine
5. corticosteroids
6. sodium bicarb
7. citrate
8. calcium - CORRECT ANSWER 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
True/False: OA medications in morning before activity - CORRECT ANSWER true
true false: NSAIDS watch for GI bleed hx - CORRECT ANSWER true
true/false: Cox2 inhibitors watch for renal and cardiac insufficiency - CORRECT ANSWER true
Chose all that apply: Posterior hip precautions
1. do not flex hip >90 degrees
2. keep knees lower than hips
3. use raised toilet seat
4. do not reach towards floor
5. do not externally rotate (no foot or knee out)
6. do not rotate hips via cxrossing ankles or legs
7. pillow betwees to remind
8. do not turn foot or knee inward
9. do not reach across body
10. do not pivot on affected leg - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9., 10
Chose all that apply: anterior hip precautions
1. no external rotation (no foot or knee outwards)
2. no abduction (don't cross foot or leg)
3. no adduction ( foot or knee inwards)
4. no extention (do not extend back from neutral position)` - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 4
temporary or permanent blood supply loss to bones, common to hip, may be asymtomatic with c/c pain at the joint - CORRECT ANSWER avascular necrosis
chose all that apply: avascular necrosis tx includes all but:
1. conservation
2. limit weight bearing exercise
3. increase weight bearing exercise
4. manage pain
5. include -statins - CORRECT ANSWER 3. increasing wt bearing exercise
heterotropic ossification, hemmorhage, wound dehense, phantom pain, contractures, scar formation - CORRECT ANSWER amputation complications
shrinks and prepares for prosthetic; wear except to shower or when wearing prosthesis, keep pressure greater at end of residual - CORRECT ANSWER stump wrapping
t/f: you only have to adjust stump wrapping once per day, more than that can cause harm - CORRECT ANSWER false. reapply 5-6x/day as needed to maintain pressure
medication that decreases CO, such as lasix
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 1. diuretics
medications that decrease blood volume, such as captopril
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 2. ACE
medications that decrease HR, such as inderal
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 4. beta blockers
medications that dilate the great veins, such as vasotec and cozaar
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 3. ARBs
medications that dilate vessels, such as clonidine
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 6. alpha blockers
medications that decrease blood volume, such as norvasc or procardia
1. diuretics
2. ACE
3. ARBs
4. Beta blockers
5. Ca channel blockers
6. Alpha blockers - CORRECT ANSWER 5. Ca channel blockers
t/f: coreg and lopressor decrease CO - CORRECT ANSWER true
inability to increase CO to meet demands; decreased contractility with increased workload - CORRECT ANSWER CHF
Left-sided CHF FORCED acronym - CORRECT ANSWER Fatigue, Orthopnea, Rales/restless, Cyanosis/confusion, Extreme weakness, Dypsnea
Right-side CHF BACONED acryonym - CORRECT ANSWER Bloated, Anorexia, Cyanosis, Oliguria, Nausea, Edema, Distended neck veins
Can't get air out
1. obstructive
2. restrictive - CORRECT ANSWER 1. obstructive
Can't get air in ; dry cough, fatigue, recurrent infections, exertional dyspnea
1. obstructive
2. restrictive - CORRECT ANSWER 2. restrictive
Obstructive C-BABE antonym - CORRECT ANSWER CF, Bronchitis, Asthma, Bronchiectasis, Emphysema
blue bloater; cough with sputum for months
1. emphysema
2. chronic bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWER 2. chronic bronchitis
pink puffer, increased mucus
1. emphysema
2. chronic bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWER 1. emphysema
What are the 3 polys of diabetes? - CORRECT ANSWER polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
Patient is sweating, c/c dizziness, blurred vision, feeling shaky, HA, increased hunger with increased HR and confusion. What could it be? - CORRECT ANSWER hypoglycemia
CD4+ <200, immune system failure
1. AIDS
2. primary AIDS/HIV
3. chronic AIDS/HIV - CORRECT ANSWER 1. aids
CD4+ drops to 500, flu-like symptoms for 1 week to 1 month; period 0-12 weeks
1. AIDS
2. primary AIDS/HIV
3. chronic AIDS/HIV - CORRECT ANSWER 2. primary
CD4+ 200 - 499, 12 weeks to 12 year duration
1. AIDS
2. primary AIDS/HIV
3. chronic AIDS/HIV - CORRECT ANSWER 3. chronic
superficial/moderate pain, increased BP, increased HR, increased RR with muscle tension and pallor
1. parasympathetic pain
2. sympathetic pain - CORRECT ANSWER 2. sympathetic
deep/severe pain with n/v, fainting, decreased BP and HR, irregular respirations
1. parasympathetic pain
2. sympathetic pain - CORRECT ANSWER 1. parasympathetic
Close gate receptors
1. C-fiber
2. A-delta fibers - CORRECT ANSWER 2. A-delta fibers close the gate, decreasing stimulation and pain perception
Open gate receptors
1. C-fiber
2. A-delta fibers - CORRECT ANSWER 1. C-fibers open gate, triggering an increase in pain perception
blood stain surrounded by clear or yellowish staining - CORRECT ANSWER HALO sign of neurocerebral fluid leakage
Patient develops fever, warm extremities, tachycardia, bounding pulses, decreased UO with AMS and abnormal WBC and BUN labs - CORRECT ANSWER sepsis criteria
Can't recall day to day following trauma
1. post traumatic amnesia
2. retrograde amnesia
3. anterograde amnesia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. post traumatic
can't recall after trauma, inability to learn
1. post traumatic amnesia
2. retrograde amnesia
3. anterograde amnesia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. anterograde
can't recall events after trauma
1. post traumatic amnesia
2. retrograde amnesia
3. anterograde amnesia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. retrograde
Not aware of body parts
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. somatagnosis
cannot perfom purposeful actions following brain damage
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 7. apraxia
denial of illness
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. anosognosia
cannot remember how to get around in environment
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 6. impaired geographic topgraphic
loss of left or right field of vision
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. homonymous hemianopsia
cannot distinguish from similar shapes or forms
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 5. form constancy deficit
cannot distinguish foreground from background
1. somatagnosia
2. anosognosia
3. homonymous hemianopsia
4. figure ground deficit
5. form constancy deficit
6. impaired geographic topigraphic
7. apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 4. figure ground deficit
cannot do a sequence of actions; one direction at a time
1. ideational apraxia
2. ideamotor apraxia
3. constructional apraxia
4. speech apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. ideational
cannot draw 2D or 3D
1. ideational apraxia
2. ideamotor apraxia
3. constructional apraxia
4. speech apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. constructional
cannot imitate or perform on demand
1. ideational apraxia
2. ideamotor apraxia
3. constructional apraxia
4. speech apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. ideamotor
inability to execute movements needed for speech
1. ideational apraxia
2. ideamotor apraxia
3. constructional apraxia
4. speech apraxia - CORRECT ANSWER 4. speech
Can understand but cannot produce language; frontal lobe involvement
1. expressive aphasia
2. receptive aphasia
3. global aphasia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. expressive
cannot underand verbal or written words: wernicke's involvement
1. expressive aphasia
2. receptive aphasia
3. global aphasia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. receptive
production and receptive language damaged
1. expressive aphasia
2. receptive aphasia
3. global aphasia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. global
slurred speech
1. anathria
2. dysarthria - CORRECT ANSWER 2. dysarthria
total loss of speech
1. anathria
2. dysarthria - CORRECT ANSWER 1. anathria
t/f: sensory neurons are efferent - CORRECT ANSWER false. sensory are afferent, motor is efferent
deep touch, propriation, vibration, bowel/bladder sensations
1. posterior (dorsal) column
2. lateral corticospinal tract
3. anterior spinothalamic tract
4. anterior corticospinal tract - CORRECT ANSWER 1. posterior (dorsal) column
fine tuning of muscle tone
1. posterior (dorsal) column
2. lateral corticospinal tract
3. anterior spinothalamic tract
4. anterior corticospinal tract - CORRECT ANSWER 4. anterior corticospinal tract
crude touch and pressure, light touch, sensation, some pain
1. posterior (dorsal) column
2. lateral corticospinal tract
3. anterior spinothalamic tract
4. anterior corticospinal tract - CORRECT ANSWER 3. anterior spinothalamic tract
voluntary movement
1. posterior (dorsal) column
2. lateral corticospinal tract
3. anterior spinothalamic tract
4. anterior corticospinal tract - CORRECT ANSWER 2. lateral corticospinal tract
t/f: temporal lobe epilepsy and impaired consciousness can result in a complete partial seizure - CORRECT ANSWER true
increased randomness (at whit's end)
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 1. entropy
increased sensitivity of pain receptors
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 6. hyperalgia
new, made-up word
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 4. neologism
free energy to work
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 2. negentropy
cannot find the right word
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 3. anomia
overreaction to pain
1. entropy
2. negentropy
3. anomia
4. neologism
5. thalamic syndrome
6. hyperalgia - CORRECT ANSWER 5. thalamic syndrome: damage to the posterior thalamic nuclei
What are the stages of change? choose all that apply
1. unfreezing
2. move to new level
3. examination
4. refreezing - CORRECT ANSWER 1, 2, 4 [Show Less]