Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Chapter 25, Health Assessment 1. Upon entering the client’s room at the beginning of a shift and
... [Show More] throughout the shift, the nurse assesses the client. The nurse considers the client’s plan of care and response to nursing interventions during the assessments. What type of assessment is the nurse performing? A) Ongoing partial assessment B) Comprehensive assessment C) Focused assessment D) Emergency assessment Ans : A Feedback: 3. The nurse is performing an assessment on an infant. Which finding is considered an abnormal cardiovascular assessment that should be documented and reported to the physician? A) Decreased heart rate B) Visible pulsation through a thin chest wall C) Sinus dysrhythmia that increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration Contact: [email protected] Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Presence of an S heart sound Ans : A Feedback: Infants and children should have a more rapid heart rate, instead of a decreased heart rate, until about age 8 years. Common cardiovascular findings include visible pulsation if the chest wall is thin, sinus dysrhythmia (the rate increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), and the presence of an S heart sound. 4. The nurse is conducting an assessment on the integumentary system of a client age 74 years. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as an anomaly that may warrant follow-up? A) The client states that a mole on his forehead has become larger in recent months. B) Decreased skin turgor is evident when the skin is folded and then released. C) Small, round, red spots are present on the client’s forearms bilaterally. D) There are some raised, brown areas on the backs of the client’s hands. Ans : A Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Feedback: Changes in the size or appearance of a mole always require further assessment and follow-up due to their association with skin cancer. Decreased skin turgor is an expected finding in older adults, as are diffuse red spots (cherry angioma) and raised, dark areas (senile lentigines). 5. As a component of a head to toe assessment, the nurse is preparing to assess convergence of the client’s eyes. How should the nurse conduct this assessment? A) Ask the client to follow her finger as she slowly moves it towards the client’s nose. B) Ask the client to look ahead while slowly bringing a pen light in from the side and to the client’s pupil. C) Ask the client to hold his head stationary while following a pencil from left to right. D) Ask the client to read a Snellen chart from a distance of 20 feet. Ans : A Feedback: Eye convergence is assessed by holding your finger 6″ to 8″ from the patient’s nose and asking the patient to follow it as it moves closer. A pen light is used to assess pupillary reaction. Visual acuity is assessed with the use of a Snellen chart. Following a pencil from side to side is a test for extraocular movements. 6. A nurse is conducting a health assessment. How will the information collected from the Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions client be used? A) As a basis for the nursing process B) To illustrate nursing competence C) To facilitate nurse–client caring D) As one component of medical care Ans : A Feedback: Health assessment is an integral component of nursing care and is the basis of the nursing process. Health assessments by nurses are used to plan, implement, and evaluate education and care. Nursing assessment is different from other types of health care provider assessments, as it is a holistic collection of information about a client’s level of health. 7. A home health nurse is visiting a client who recently was hospitalized for repair of a fractured hip. The client tells the nurse, “I have had a lot of pain in my abdomen.” What type of assessment would the nurse conduct? A) Comprehensive B) Ongoing partial Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions C) Focused D) Emergency Ans : C Feedback: A focused assessment is conducted to assess a specific problem. In this case, the nurse would ask the client about urinary frequency, bowel movements, and diet, and then take vital signs and assess the abdomen. Comprehensive assessments include a detailed health history and physical assessment. Ongoing partial assessments are conducted at regular intervals, and emergency assessments are carried out in emergency situations (such as prior to CPR). 8. An adolescent comes to a community health clinic with complaints of vaginal itching and discharge. She believes it is from having sex with her boyfriend. Which response should the nurse use during the health history to elicit information? A) “Tell me about the sexual activity with your boyfriend.” B) “Why did you ever have sex with someone you don’t know?” C) “You are old enough to know to use condoms.” D) “I don’t understand how you could be so careless.” Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Ans : A Feedback: The health history is used to collect subjective data about the client’s health status. Nurses use therapeutic communication skills, including open-ended statements and questions that are not threatening or negative, to establish an effective nurse–client relationship that facilitates communication. 9. A nurse is preparing a client for a physical assessment. The client appears anxious about the assessment. Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate? A) “This is nothing to worry about. I won’t hurt you.” B) “Some of the examination may be painful, but I will be gentle.” C) “Let me tell you what I will be doing. It should not be painful.” D) “I have to do this, so just relax and it won’t last long.” Ans : C Feedback: The client may be anxious for many reasons. Tell the client that the assessments should not be painful. Explaining the assessment in general terms can help decrease the client’s embarrassment, fear of possible abnormal physical findings, or fear of “failing” a test. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 10. What would a nurse ensure before beginning a health assessment? A) That the time needed for the assessment fits into the nurse’s work schedule B) That the room is private, quiet, warm, and has adequate light C) That family members are present to answer specific questions D) That there is a written physician’s order for the assessment Ans: B 12. When using assessment equipment that will touch the client, what should the nurse do before conducting the assessment? A) Describe the equipment and how it works. B) Show pictures of functions of the equipment. C) Draw pictures of the anatomy to be assessed. D) Warm the equipment with hands or warm water. Ans D Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions : Feedback: Equipment that will touch the client during a physical examination should be warmed by the examiner’s hands or warm water before use. 13. A school nurse is preparing to test the auditory function of grade school students. What equipment will be needed for this examination? A) Tuning fork B) Percussion hammer C) Speculum D) Ophthalmoscope Ans : A Feedback: A tuning fork is a two-pronged metal instrument used to test auditory function and vibratory perception. The fork is activated to vibrate by holding the base and gently tapping the prongs against the palm of the examiner’s hand. Once vibrating, the fork is held at the base to avoid diminishing the vibration. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 14. A nurse is preparing to examine the breasts of a client. In what position should the nurse place the client? A) Prone B) Standing C) Dorsal recumbent D) Lithotomy Ans : C Feedback: The dorsal recumbent position is used to assess the head, neck, anterior thorax, lungs, heart, breasts, extremities, and peripheral pulses. The prone position is used to assess the hip joint and posterior thorax. The standing position is used to assess posture, balance, and gait. The lithotomy position is used to assess female genitalia and rectum. 15. A nurse is using inspection as an assessment technique. What does the nurse use during inspection? A) Equipment such as a stethoscope B) Both hands to produce sounds Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions C) Light palpation to detect surfaces D) Senses of vision, hearing, smell Ans : D Feedback: Inspection is the process of performing deliberate, purposeful observations. The nurse observes visually but also uses hearing and smell to gather data throughout the assessment. A stethoscope is used for auscultation, and the hands are used to percuss and palpate. 16. Which of the following can a nurse assess by palpation? A) Heart sounds, lung sounds, blood pressure B) Temperature, turgor, moisture C) Vision, hearing, cranial nerves D) Tissue density, gait, reflexes Ans : B Feedback: Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Palpation is an assessment technique that uses the sense of touch. The hands and fingers can assess temperature, turgor, texture, moisture, vibrations, and shape. 17. When auscultating a client’s abdomen, a nurse notes gurgling sounds. What characteristic of sound would the nurse document? A) Resonance B) Turgor C) Quality D) Texture Ans : C Feedback: Auscultation is the act of listening with a stethoscope to sounds produced within the body. Four characteristics are assessed and documented: pitch (high to low), loudness (soft to loud), quality (gurgling or swishing), and duration (short, medium, long). Resonance is measured with percussion. Turgor and texture are assessed with palpation. 18. A nurse is performing a general survey of a client admitted to the hospital. Which of the following actions is an element of this procedure? Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions A) Taking vital signs B) Palpating the integument C) Identifying risk factors for altered health D) Assessing the head and neck Ans : A Feedback: The general survey is the first component of the physical assessment. It includes observing the client’s overall appearance and behavior, taking vital signs, and measuring height and weight. Information from the general survey provides clues to the client’s overall health. Palpating the integument and assessing the head and neck are part of the physical assessment. Identifying risk factors for altered health occurs in the health history. 19. When inspecting the skin of a client, the nurse notes a bluish tinge to the skin. What condition would the nurse document? A) Jaundice B) Cyanosis C) Erythema Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Pallor Ans : B Feedback: Cyanosis is a bluish or grayish discoloration of the skin in response to inadequate oxygenation. Jaundice is a yellow color of the skin resulting from liver and gallbladder disease, some types of anemia, and excessive hemolysis. Erythema is redness of the skin associated with sunburn, inflammation, fever, trauma, and allergic reactions. Pallor is paleness of the skin, which often results from a decrease in the amount of circulating blood or hemoglobin, causing inadequate oxygenation of the body tissues. 20. The nurse palpating the skin of a client documents a firm 1.5 cm mass on the lower right leg. What type of skin lesion does this describe? A) Macule B) Wheal C) Vesicle D) Nodule Ans : D Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Feedback: A nodule is a mass 0.5 cm to 2 cm that is firmer than a papule. A macule is a lesion that is 1 cm or smaller. A wheal is an irregular, superficial area of localized skin edema. A vesicle is a 1 cm or less lesion filled with serous fluid. 21. A nurse assesses a client’s eyes by testing the cardinal fields of vision for coordination and alignment. What eye characteristic is being assessed by this process? A) Visual acuity B) Extraocular movements C) Peripheral vision D) Existence of cataracts Ans : B Feedback: The nurse tests for extraocular movements by assessing the cardinal fields of vision for coordination and alignment. Normally both eyes move together, are coordinated, and are parallel. Visual acuity is assessed with the Snellen chart. Tests for peripheral vision (or visual fields) are used to assess retinal function and optic nerve function. Full peripheral vision is normal. Cataracts are noted by inspection (cloudiness of the lens). 22. While conducting a physical examination of the thorax, a nurse notes and documents breath sounds as moderate “blowing” sounds with equal inspiration and expiration. What Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions type of breath sounds are these? A) Bronchial B) Bronchovesicular C) Vesicular D) Adventitious Ans : B Feedback: Bronchial breath sounds are high pitched, with expiration longer than inspiration. Bronchovesicular sounds are moderate “blowing” sounds with equal inspiration and expiration. Vesicular sounds are soft and low-pitched, with longer inspiration than expiration. Adventitious sounds are not normally heard in the lungs. 23. A nurse is conducting a health assessment for an African American client. What should the nurse consider in terms of cultural sensitivity? A) All individuals, regardless of culture, have the same anatomy and physiology. B) Asking specific questions about race during the health history C) Cultural risk factors for alterations in health and normal racial variations Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Differences in emotional, social, and spiritual basic human needs Ans : C Feedback: The person’s culture does not affect how a health assessment is conducted, but it is an integral component of nurse–client interactions. Nurses should know risk factors for alterations in health based on racial inheritance, as well as normal variations that occur among races. 24. When conducting a physical assessment, what should the nurse assess and document about size and shape of body parts? A) Actual measurements in centimeters B) Symmetry (comparison of bilateral body parts) C) Indications of general health status D) Vital signs of all extremities (arms and legs) Ans : B Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Feedback: When conducting a physical assessment, the nurse assesses and compares all bilateral body parts. The symmetry of parts of the body (such as the skull) and the extremities (arms and legs) is an important assessment to document. 25. While assessing breath sounds, a nurse hears crackles. What causes these abnormal sounds? A) Air in the lungs B) A narrowing of the upper airway C) Narrowed small air passages D) Moisture in air passages Ans : D Feedback: Crackles are fine-to-coarse crackling sounds made as air moves through wet secretions. They are described as “fine” when air passes through moisture in small air passages, and as “coarse” when air passes through moisture in the bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea. A wheeze is produced by narrowed air passages. The lungs normally contain air. 26. When assessing the abdomen, which assessment technique is used last? Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions A) Inspection B) Auscultation C) Percussion D) Palpation Ans : D Feedback: The sequence of techniques used to assess the abdomen is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Percussion and palpation stimulate bowel sounds and thus are done after auscultation of the abdomen. 27. What is one purpose of documentation of the health assessment? A) To identify the nurse’s role in health care B) To identify actual and potential health problems C) To expand nursing knowledge and skills D) To provide a basis for evidence-based nursing Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Ans : B Feedback: The nurse organizes and documents assessment data to identify actual and potential health problems, to make nursing diagnoses, to plan appropriate care, and to evaluate the client’s response to treatment. 28. An African American client with jaundice has been admitted to the health care facility. Which of the following body areas is the best place to assess jaundice? A) Sclera B) Nailbeds C) Lips D) Palm Ans : A Feedback: In African American clients, the sclera is the best place to assess the yellowish discoloration of jaundice. Jaundice assessment cannot be done on the nailbeds, lips, or palm due to hyperpigmentation. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 29. A nurse is assessing the spine of a client with kyphosis. Which of the following would the nurse expect to observe about the client’s posture? A) The shoulder and upper back curves forward B) The lumbar region tends to curve inward C) The sacral region tends to turn outward D) A portion of the spine is curved to the side laterally Ans : A Feedback: In kyphosis, the shoulder and upper back tend to curve forward. In lordosis, the lumbar region curves inward and the sacral region curves outward. Scoliosis is a curvature of a portion of the spine to the side, laterally. 30. During a nurse’s visit to the client’s home, the client states, “I have pain in my right knee.” The nurse assesses the client’s right knee. What kind of assessment is this? A) Focused assessment B) Spiritual assessment C) Social assessment Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Comprehensive assessment Ans : A Feedback: Often, nurses must select the most important interviewing questions or assessment techniques to use, and perform a focused health assessment based on the client’s problem. 31. Which framework is used during the focused assessment? A) Functional health assessment B) Head-to-toe framework C) Conceptual framework D) Body systems framework Ans : D Feedback: Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Body systems approach is used during the focused assessment of an acutely or critically ill client to determine function of a particular body system. 32. The nurse is preparing to assess a client’s cranial nerves. Which of the following techniques should you use to assess cranial nerve III? A) Shine a bright light in the client’s eye and observe for bilateral pupillary response. B) Ask the client to close the eyes, occlude a nostril, then identify the smell of different substances. C) Determine visual acuity using a Snellen chart D) Occlude the patient’s right ear, whisper a word into the left ear, and ask the patient to repeat it. Ans : A Feedback: This technique is used to assess CN VIII (Acoustic). 33. How would a nurse assess a client for pupillary accommodation? A) Using an ophthalmoscope, check the red reflex. B) Ask the client to focus on a finger and move the client’s eyes through the six cardinal Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions positions of gaze. C) Ask the client to focus on an object as it is brought closer to the nose. D) Ask the client to read the smallest possible line of letters on the Snellen chart. Ans : C Feedback: Chapter 26, Safety, Security, and Emergency Preparedness Fundamentals of Nursing 8th edition Taylor MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The clinical nurse educator at a long-term care facility is responsible for organizing and carrying out staff education sessions. Which of the following topics for staff education is most likely to benefit the greatest number of residents? A) Educating nurses on how to prevent falls B) Reviewing safe medication administration C) Educating nurses on how to prevent wandering by confused residents D) Reviewing resuscitation for cardiac and respiratory arrest Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Ans : A Feedback: Falls remain the leading cause of death among older adult Americans. Education that aims to reduce the incidence of falls is likely to be of more benefit than measures that address medication administration, prevention of wandering, or resuscitation procedures, even though such topics may be of importance. 2. Which of the following measures should nurses implement in a hospital setting in order to identify intimate partner violence (IPV)? A) Routine screening of newly admitted clients B) Focused physical assessment for IPV for all new clients C) Involvement of a social worker in the admission assessment of all new female clients D) Review of the definition and legal repercussions of IPV with all new female clients Ans : A Feedback: Practices related to the identification of IPV vary, but it is generally agreed that a simple screening tool can be an effective strategy. A focused physical assessment and the involvement of social work are not warranted for all clients. A review of the definition Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions and repercussions of IPV is likely not as effective as a simple and direct screening tool. 3. A nurse is admitting a client to a geriatric medicine unit following the client’s recent diagnosis of acute renal failure. Which of the following nursing actions is most likely to reduce the client’s chance of experiencing a fall while on the unit? A) Orient the client to the room and environment thoroughly upon admission. B) Provide the client with a bedpan to reduce the need to transfer to a commode or washroom. C) Administer pain medications sparingly in order to minimize cognitive or musculoskeletal side effects. D) Place the client in a shared room with a client who is stable and oriented. Ans : A Feedback: A person who is familiar with his or her surroundings is less likely to experience an accidental injury. As part of the hospital admission routine, it is important to orient the client to the safety features and equipment in the room. A bedpan should not be used for the sole reason of reducing the risk of falls, and pain medication should be provided in doses sufficient to treat the client’s pain. A client should never be charged with supervising the safety of another client. 4. Which of the following clients is most likely to face an increased risk of falls due to his or her medication regimen? Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions A) A female client age 77 years who has received a benzodiazepine to minimize her anxiety B) A male client age 79 years whose recent high blood pressure has required a PRN dose of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor C) A woman age 81 years who has required a blood transfusion to treat a gastrointestinal bleed D) A man 90 years of age whose venous ulcer has required the administration of intravenous antibiotics Ans : A Feedback: While all drugs carry some risk of adverse effects, the use of benzodiazepines and antiepileptics are more predicative of falls than are other drug families. 5. A girl age 4 years has been admitted to the emergency department after accidently ingesting a cleaning product. Which of the following treatments is most likely appropriate in the immediate treatment of the girl’s poisoning? A) Administration of activated charcoal B) Inducing vomiting C) Gastric lavage Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Intravenous rehydration Ans : A Feedback: Activated charcoal is the most common treatment for many poisonings and is more effective and safe than induced vomiting or gastric lavage. Rehydration is likely necessary, but this does not actively treat the girl’s poisoning. 6. In light of the failure of alternatives, a nurse has been forced to physically restrain an agitated client. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform when applying and maintaining the restraints? A) Tie the client’s hand restraint to the bed frame rather than the side rail. B) Obtain a physician’s order for the restraints within 24 hours. C) Ensure the client is under continuous surveillance while restrained. D) Choose a restraint device that best minimizes the client’s mobility. Ans : A Feedback: Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Restraints should be tied to the frame of the bed rather than to the side rails. A physician’s order is needed for restraints, except in emergencies when an order must be obtained within one hour of application. Frequent assessment of the client is needed, but continuous surveillance is not necessarily required. The least restrictive type of device that allows the greatest mobility, while still ensuring safety, is chosen. 7. A client is very anxious and states, “I am so stressed.” Why do these factors affect the client’s safety? A) Stress increases retention of information B) Stress affects interpersonal relationships C) Stress increases concern about hazards D) Stress tends to narrow the attention span Ans : D Feedback: Stressful situations tend to narrow a person’s attention span and make him or her more prone to accidents. Stress does not increase retention of information or concern about hazards. Although stress may affect interpersonal relationships, that is not the same as safety. 8. A client with diabetes has impaired sensation in her lower extremities. What education would be necessary to reduce her risk of injury? Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions A) “Always test the temperature of bath water before stepping in.” B) “Take your insulin twice a day as we have discussed.” C) “Remember to follow your diet so you lose weight this month.” D) “Rub lotion on the skin of your legs and feet twice a day.” Ans : A Feedback: Alterations in sensory perception can have a serious effect on safety. A client whose tactile sense is impaired may not perceive temperature extremes that are a threat to safety. Although all the other statements may be necessary, they do not promote safety. 9. Which of the following people has the greatest risk for accidental injury? A) An infant just learning to crawl B) An older adult who walks two miles a day C) An athlete who exercises on a regular basis D) A worker who operates industrial machines Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Ans : D Feedback: Certain occupations, lifestyles, and environments place people in more hazardous situations. A worker who operates industrial machines is at greater risk for accidental injury as well as for hearing loss. 10. What age group is most vulnerable to toxic fumes or asphyxiation? A) Young children B) Adolescents C) Toung adults D) Middle adults Ans : A Feedback: Most exposure to toxic fumes, such as carbon monoxide, occurs in the home. Young children and older adults are more vulnerable to toxic fumes. Suffocation, or asphyxiation, can occur at any age, but the incidence is greater in children. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 11. What safety device for children is mandated by law in all 50 states? A) Bumper pads in baby cribs B) Infant car seats and carriers C) Automatic hot water heater controls D) Parental controls for Internet access Ans : B Feedback: All 50 states mandate the use of infant car seats and carriers when transporting a child in a motor vehicle. 12. An emergency room nurse is assessing a toddler with multiple bruises and burns. The nurse suspects the toddler has been abused. What is legally required of the nurse? A) Nothing; the nurse has no control over the toddler’s home. B) Refer the caregivers of the toddler to a home health nurse. C) Verbally confront the caregivers about the suspicions. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Report suspicions about the abuse to proper authorities. Ans : D Feedback: Nurses are both legally and ethically obligated to report abuse, either suspected or confirmed. In many states, the failure to report actual or suspected abuse is a crime. The role of the nurse does not include confrontation. 13. A grade school nurse is addressing parents at a PTA meeting regarding car safety. Which of the following is a recommended safety guideline for this age group? A) All school-age children need to be secured in safety seats. B) Booster seats should be used for children until they are 4 feet 9 inches tall or at least 8 years of age. C) Children under 8 years old should ride in the back seat. D) All school-age children need to be secured in lap seat belts. Ans : B Feedback: Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions All school-age children need to be secured in safety seats, belt-positioning booster seats, or shoulder lap belts for their size. The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration recommends booster seats for children until they are 4 feet 9 inches tall or at least 8 years of age, and all children 12 and under should ride in the back seat to eliminate the risk of injury from airbag deployment (National Highway Traffic Safety Administration [NHTSA], 2008). 14. An adolescent has recently had a ring inserted into her navel. Which of the following is the greatest risk facing the adolescent as a result of this activity? A) A scar over the navel B) A local and/or systemic infection C) A greater acceptance by peers D) A strained relationship with parents Ans : B Feedback: Body piercing is a quick procedure that does not require anesthesia, but the risk for infection is great. This risk includes local infection, hepatitis B virus, and HIV. 15. Nurses provide many interventions to prevent falls in health care settings. Which of the following would be an appropriate intervention to prevent falls? A) Keep bed in the high position. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions B) Keep side rails up at all times. C) Apply restraints to all confused clients. D) Lock wheels on beds and wheelchairs. Ans : D Feedback: Locking wheels on beds and wheelchairs prevents them from rolling and precipitating a fall. Beds should be kept in low positions with the side rails down in most situations; restraints should be applied only as a last resort. 16. A nurse makes a medication error and fills out an incident report. What will the nurse do with the incident report once it is filled out? A) Place it in the client’s medical record. B) Take it home and keep it locked up. C) Maintain it according to agency policy. D) Include it with documentation of the error. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Ans : C Feedback: An accident in a health care agency requires filling out an incident report, a confidential document that objectively describes the circumstances of the accident. The incident report is not a part of the medical record and should not be mentioned in the documentation. The report is maintained by the agency. 17. In what situation would the use of side rails not be considered a restraint? A) The nurse keeps them raised at all times. B) The institution’s policies mandate using side rails. C) A visitor requests their use. D) A client requests they be up at night. Ans : D Feedback: It is now recognized that side rails can pose serious risks for some clients. However, side rails are not considered restraints if the client requests they be put up at night to increase feelings of security while asleep. Agency policies help nurses determine when to apply restraints and what type to use. Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions 18. Bioterrorism has become a commonly used term. What is the definition of bioterrorism? A) A verbal threat by those wishing to harm specific individuals B) A written threat calculated to produce terror in a family C) The deliberate spread of pathogens into a community D) A worldwide plan to produce illness and injury Ans: C Feedback: Bioterrorism involves the deliberate spread of pathogenic organisms into a community. 19. A client arrives at the emergency department with nausea, hematemesis, fever, abdominal pain, and severe diarrhea. There is a suspicion the client has been exposed to the anthrax bacillus. What category of medications will be administered? A) Antimicrobials B) Narcotics C) Antihistamines Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions D) Antacids Ans : A Feedback: Anthrax is a potentially fatal bacterial infection. The recommended treatment for exposure to, as well as symptoms of, an anthrax infection is with rapid administration of antimicrobial therapy. Narcotics are administered to manage pain. Antihistamines are prescribed to manage allergy conditions. Antacids are prescribed to manage gastrointestinal disorders. 20. What statement by a client would indicate that a nurse had successfully implemented a educating/learning strategy to prevent injury in the home? A) “I will turn off the outside lights and lock the doors every night.” B) “Do you think it would be best for me to buy a gun?” C) “I am going to remove all those throw rugs on the floor.” D) “Well, I always let the boys play in the bathtub; they love it.” Ans : C Feedback: Prime yourself for your Tests – Study Questions Nurses must evaluate the effectiveness of their interventions to promote safety and prevent injury. If the expected client outcomes have been met and evaluative criteria satisfied, the client should be able to correctly identify real and potential unsafe environmental situations, and implement safety measures in the environment. 21. A nurse is caring for a stable toddler diagnosed with accidental poisoning, due to the ingestion of cleaning solution. What must be included in educating parents about how to protect a toddler from accidental poisoning? A) Closely monitor the toddler’s activity. B) Label poisonous solutions. C) Kee [Show Less]