Which disease is spread from human to human via droplet infections through coughing or sneezing?
1. Mumps
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Herpes simplex
4. West
... [Show More] Nile virus infection
____ 2. Which diagnosis does the nurse recognize as a protozoan infection?
1. Enterobiasis
2. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
3. Giardiasis
4. Coccidiomycosis
____ 3. The nurse in an acute care facility is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with
community-acquired Staphylococcus aureus manifested as osteomyelitis. Which nursing
intervention is most important?
1. Monitor for signs of septicemia
2. Initiate airborne precautions
3. Perform diligent hand washing
4. Carefully monitor culture results
____ 4. Which is a key symptom of meningitis when the nurse is assessing a client suspected of the
condition?
1. Abdominal pain
2. Nuchal rigidity
3. Sensitivity to sound
4. Dysuria
____ 5. The nurse is teaching a community program about prevention of vector-transmitted disease. Which
preventive measure does the nurse include for leishmaniasis?
1. Using insect repellant
2. Using vaccines
3. Avoiding vector-infested areas
4. Isolating the client
____ 6. The nurse is notified a client has a bacterial infection. The health-care provider prescribes diagnostic
testing. For which diagnostic procedure does the nurse prepare the client?
1. Tissue biopsy
2. Ultrasonography
3. Serological test
4. Radiography
____ 7. Which cellular structure secretes a natural antiviral defense?
1. Ciliated respiratory tract cells
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2. Alveolar macrophages
3. Respiratory epithelial cells
4. Cervical lymph nodes
____ 8. A nurse demonstrates understanding of predisposing factors to Pseudomonas aeruginosa by
selecting which option?
1. Urinary tract catheterization
2. Hospital food
3. Nebulizer
4. Hospital linens
____ 9. Which diagnostic test is required to detect Legionnaire’s disease?
1. Neurological tests
2. Tissue sampling
3. Antibody titers
4. Arterial blood gases
____ 10. Which description is appropriate for the distinctive rash of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)?
1. Pinpoint red macules and petechiae
2. Dewdrops on a rose petal
3. Slapped-cheek appearance
4. Purpura and ecchymotic rash
____ 11. Based on which manifestation does the nurse recognize that rubella causes teratogenic side effects?
1. Microcephaly in the fetus
2. Retinitis in the fetus
3. Vision impairment in the fetus
4. Spontaneous abortion of the fetus
____ 12. Which is the diagnostic goal for malaria considering that the pathogen multiplies in the red blood
cells (RBCs)?
1. Identify anemia
2. Determine level of bilirubin
3. Identify specific antibodies
4. Determine white blood cell (WBC) count
____ 13. The nurse is aware that both a reservoir and a vector may be involved in infection transmission.
Which does the nurse recognize as a vector?
1. A dirty bathroom
2. A child with chickenpox
3. A living being not infected
4. Unsanitary food preparation
____ 14. The nurse works in a college infirmary. Which reason does the nurse identify for the incidences of
Neisseria meningitides within the college population?
1. College living quarters are frequently unclean
2. College students experience high stress levels
3. College student nutrition is vitamin deficient
4. College living exists in close, crowded quarters
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____ 15. Which is the definition for prions?
1. They are bacterial spores.
2. They are abnormal proteins.
3. They are fungal agents.
4. They are helminths.
____ 16. For which reason does the nurse classify both the Ebola and Marburg viruses as Category A
bioterrorism agents?
1. They cause hemorrhagic fevers.
2. They are virulent, stable, and infective as small-particle aerosols.
3. They are transmitted by direct contact through blood and body fluids.
4. Currently there is no standard treatment.
____ 17. Which symptom does the nurse specifically expect in a client diagnosed with variant
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
1. Mental confusion
2. Personality changes
3. Problems with hearing, seeing, and smelling
4. Jerky muscle movements
____ 18. The nurse in a third world missionary hospital sees many clients with a self-diagnosis of “worms.”
The clients present with abdominal pain, nausea, anorexia, weight loss, and passage of eggs in the
stool. Which diagnostic test does the nurse use to confirm tapeworm infection?
1. Blood test
2. Stool test
3. Urine test
4. Antibody titers
____ 19. Coccidiomycosis is an airborne disease. Which conclusion does the nurse draw about its mode of
transmission?
1. Transmitted by fungal spores
2. Transmitted by vector bites
3. Transmitted by prions
4. Transmitted by contaminated food
____ 20. The nurse is providing care for an older adult female diagnosed with vaginal candidiasis. The client
expresses dismay about having a sexually transmitted infection (STI). Which knowledge does the
nurse use to assure the client that vaginal candidiasis is a side effect of long-term antibiotic use?
1. It is an opportunistic infection.
2. It eradicates Lactobacillus in the vagina.
3. It is caused by an antibiotic-resistant bacteria in the vagina.
4. It is caused by decreased vaginal pH due to antibiotic use.
Multiple Response
Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question.
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____ 21. At which point does the nurse recommend medical therapy in the treatment of infection? Select all
that apply.
1. Prolonged manifestation of an infection
2. No vaccines to prevent the infection
3. Undue risk to the people in contact with the client
4. Undue risk to the client
5. First line of defense fails to contain the infection
____ 22. The human body includes two mechanisms for defending the body against infection. Which factors
does the nurse accredit to the function of innate immunity? Select all that apply.
1. Sensitized T and B lymphocytes
2. Is a nonspecific mechanism
3. Involves natural defensive barriers
4. Immediate defense from all types of pathogens
5. Has mediators of the inflammatory reaction
____ 23. Which data is used to distinguish serological testing from other laboratory studies? Select all that
apply.
1. Quantifying based on antibody titers
2. Analyzing for cell changes
3. Quantifying levels of immunoglobulin
4. Identifying for the presence of an antigen
5. Detecting the microorganism’s genetic material
____ 24. In which manner does the nurse justify that an emerging infectious disease is not always a new
disease? Select all that apply.
1. The disease may have been previously undetected
2. A reappearance of the disease occurs
3. Antibiotic-resistant bacteria resist treatment
4. A breakdown in public health measures takes place
5. New realization about the mechanism of the disease process occurs
Other
25. An infectious process has several different stages before it progresses to a full-blown disease. (Enter
the letter of each step in the proper sequence; do not use commas or spaces.)
A. Prodromal stage
B. Resolution phase
C. Convalescent stage
D. Incubation period
E. Acute stage
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Chapter 10, Infectious Diseases
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: 1
Chapter: Chapter 10, Infectious Diseases
Objective: Recognize common bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic, and prion-mediated infections
Page: 195
Heading: Selected Viral Infections>Measles, Mumps, and Rubella>Mumps
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Infection
Difficulty: Moderate
Feedback
1 This is correct. Mumps is transmitted by droplet infection from a cough or a
sneeze.
2 This is incorrect. Polio enters the body through a fecal-oral route from
contaminated food.
3 This is incorrect. Herpes simplex is transmitted through close skin contact.
4 This is incorrect. West Nile virus is spread through mosquito bites.
PTS: 1 CON: Infection
2. ANS: 3
Chapter: Chapter 10, Infectious Diseases
Objective: Recognize common bacterial, viral, fungal, parasitic, and prion-mediated infections.
Page: 203
Heading: Selected Parasitic Infections>Amebiasis and Giardiasis
Integrated Processes: Nursing Process
Client Need: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Safety and Infection Control
Cognitive Level: Comprehension [Understanding]
Concept: Infection
Difficulty: Moderat [Show Less]