Board Certification Practice Exam
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The term
... [Show More] phlebotomy comes from Greek words that mean __________.
a. draw blood c. drain blood
b. cut a vein d. dermal cut
____ 2. Most sterilization indicators operate on what principle?
a. color change will revert back when an item contaminated
b. original color reappear after 6 weeks
c. color change indicates the package has been properly sealed
d. color change indicates sterilization is complete
____ 3. Hemolysis occurs due to __________.
a. allowing alcohol to air dry prior to puncture
b. forcing syringe-drawn specimens into evacuated tubes
c. gently massaging a dermal puncture site
d. mixing the collection tube too slowly
____ 4. In a normal microscopic urine result there can be
a. nothing to report
b. so many cells they cannot be counted
c. only many RBCs
d. a few epithelial cells, occasional WBCs, rare RBC
____ 5. The main duty of a phlebotomist is to __________.
a. interpret laboratory values c. process blood specimens
b. evaluate blood specimens d. collect blood specimens
____ 6. Which of the following procedures are covered by standard precautions?
a. change gloves between patients
b. dispose of needles in sharps container
c. never recap needles
d. perform hand hygiene every third time you change gloves
____ 7. Symptoms of dehydration in infants
a. are unimportant c. include being energetic and alert
b. include dry skin d. include increased urine output
____ 8. What chart is used to measure near vision acuity?
a. snellen c. jaeger
b. pelli-robson d. ishihara
____ 9. Which of the following is NOT part of informed consent?
a. explanation of advantages and risks to the treatment
b. what might occur if there is no treatment
c. results are guaranteed
d. alternatives available to the patient
____ 10. The federal regulations for clinical laboratories specifying guidelines for quality control, qualified personnel
and quality assurance is
a. OSHA c. CDA
b. DEA d. CLIA 1988
____ 11. The slowly degenerative brain disease that leads to tremor, muscle rigidity, difficulty moving and instability is
a. parkinson’s disease c. stroke
b. alzheimer’s disease d. glaucoma
____ 12. Which of the following procedures would help diagnose an infection with a blood parasite?
a. blood cultures c. bleeding time
b. blood smear d. cold agglutinins
____ 13. Bacteria require which of the following to grow?
a. disinfectants c. light
b. cool temperature d. moisture
____ 14. An illuminated instrument used to examine the ear is an __________.
a. ophthalmoscope c. otoscope
b. anoscope d. cystoscope
____ 15. A physician’s license may be revoked or suspended for the following reasons __________.
a. conviction of a crime c. unprofessional conduct
b. fraud d. all of the above
____ 16. The documentation of all clinical laboratory tests and results is important so
a. the physician can use the results
b. any interested party in the facility can see the results
c. results are available for billing purposes
d. lab director can monitor the amount of work load
____ 17. The presence of which of the following in urine may signal the onset of diabetes mellitus?
a. leukocytes c. ketones
b. glucose d. nitrates
____ 18. The rule to calculate a woman’s due date for delivery is __________.
a. the rule of nine c. naegle’s rule
b. snellen chart d. clark’s rule
____ 19. The causative agent for syphilis is __________.
a. treponema pallidum c. staphylococcus aureus
b. streptococcus pyogenes d. trichomonas vaginalis
____ 20. During normal heart activity, __________ is the primary pacemaker.
a. bundle of his c. AV node
b. SA node d. AV junction
____ 21. A plastic red-topped tube contains __________.
a. an anticoagulant c. a clot activator
b. an antiglycolytic agent d. no additives
____ 22. Which of the following is the usual site for capillary puncture in infants?
a. fingertip c. heel
b. earlobe d. toe
____ 23. Which of the following is a reason to have an ECG?
a. detects myocardial ischemia c. evaluates arrhythmia
b. estimates damage from MI d. all of the above
____ 24. To determine the kidney ability to dilute and concentrate urine, one should measure
a. glucose c. specific gravity
b. ketones d. glucose
____ 25. Civil law is concerned with __________.
a. contract law c. administrative law
b. tort law d. all of the above
____ 26. The angle used to take a blood smear is __________.
a. 10 degrees c. 30 degrees
b. 20 degrees d. 45 degrees
____ 27. How long is it necessary to wash hands prior to assisting a new patient?
a. 1 minute c. 45 minutes
b. 6 minutes d. 2-3 minutes
____ 28. Impaired color vision
a. is a factor of age c. is common in females
b. is hereditary d. is correctable
____ 29. Which of these is NOT an intentional tort?
a. fraud c. assault
b. battery d. shoplifting
____ 30. The system of scientific measurement used in medical facilities is
a. the english system c. the metric system
b. the apothecary system d. the household system
____ 31. The most important step in performing a venipuncture is __________.
a. removing the tourniquet before taking the needle out
b. drawing the correct amount of blood
c. inserting the needle in the vein properly
d. identifying the patient
____ 32. Personal protective equipment (PPE) includes all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. eyewash c. gloves
b. face shields d. gown
____ 33. The type of wound has edges that are torn in an irregular shape and can cause profuse bleeding and scarring is
a
a. puncture c. incision
b. laceration d. contusion
____ 34. The most common symptom of cardiac dysrhythmias is/are __________.
a. low blood pressure c. shortness of breath
b. lightheadedness d. palpitations
____ 35. Gloves are required while __________.
a. transporting specimen to the lab c. performing a capillary puncture
b. performing a venipuncture d. all of the above
____ 36. Testing for occult blood is performed on what type of specimen?
a. feces c. serum
b. blood d. CSF
____ 37. A postprandial specimen collection should occur __________.
a. after a blood transfusion c. early in the morning
b. before the next dose of medication d. at a specific time after eating
____ 38. What is the effect of warming the site prior to dermal puncture?
a. it may cause hemolysis on the specimen
b. it increases blood flow to the area
c. it makes the puncture less painful
d. it causes hemoconcentration
____ 39. Who decides the equipment and supplies to have stocked on a crash cart?
a. medical office manager c. clinical supervisor
b. certified medical assistant d. Physician
____ 40. The term asepsis means __________.
a. contaminated c. free of pathogens
b. needs oxygen d. needs sanitizing
____ 41. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
a. albumin c. urea
b. prothrombin d. fibrinogen
____ 42. Distinguishing between two similar diseases by comparing their symptoms is called __________.
a. physical diagnosis c. laboratory diagnosis
b. differential diagnosis d. clinical diagnosis
____ 43. Levels of laboratory testing complexity were established by __________.
a. CAP c. CLSI
b. CLIA d. COLA
____ 44. If a physician does not follow the proper steps to end the physician-patient contract, he/she may be charged
with __________.
a. professional liability c. termination of contract
b. patient abandonment d. assumption of risk
____ 45. After a gram stain, what color do gram-negative organisms stain?
a. blue c. violet
b. black d. pink
____ 46. Which of the following is an important part of the patient education when preparing a patient to wear a Holter
monitor?
a. wear it even in the shower for an accurate reading
b. remove the recorder from its case
c. keep a diary of the times of all symptomatic activities and emotions
d. depress the event marker every hour on the half hour
____ 47. The term parturition refers to __________.
a. the duration of pregnancy c. discharge after delivery
b. stages of the menstrual cycle d. birth
____ 48. PR segments are commonly described as _________________.
a. flat c. asymmetrical
b. rounded d. biphasic
____ 49. To produce a rounded drop of blood, finger punctures should be made __________.
a. before the alcohol is dry c. along or on the fingerprint
b. across the fingerprint d. on the index finger
____ 50. Barrier methods of contraception include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. condom c. morning-after pill
b. diaphragm d. contraceptive sponge
____ 51. HIV is spread mainly by __________.
a. sexual intercourse c. sitting on toilet seats
b. sharing needles d. both A and B
____ 52. The study of ova and parasites is known as
a. cytology c. mycology
b. serology d. parasitology
____ 53. Diabetes mellitus type 2 can be controlled by the following __________.
a. taking antibiotics c. frequent ECGs
b. frequent weight and height evaluation d. diet and exercise
____ 54. Specimens for tests that are ordered STAT must be __________.
a. verified with the laboratory manager prior to collection
b. collected by the physician
c. delivered tot he laboratory immediately
d. collected last when drawing several patients
____ 55. The causative agent for scarlet fever and rheumatic fever is
a. streptococcus c. neisseria
b. staphylococcus d. chlamydia
____ 56. If pulse is taken at the wrist, the artery used is the __________.
a. temporal artery c. radial artery
b. carotid artery d. popliteal artery
____ 57. When using the microscope, which of the following is correct?
a. 10X magnification is used with immersion oil
b. lower the stage after removing the slide
c. 40X setting is used for high dry power
d. only use low with every objective
____ 58. The vein most frequently used for venipuncture is __________.
a. cephalic vein c. median cubital vein
b. dorsal arch vein d. saphenous vein
____ 59. Normally in a 24 hour period an individual excretes
a. 70-100 ml of urine c. 250-2500 ml of urine
b. 500-700 ml of urine d. 1000-5000 ml of urine
____ 60. Special blood collection procedures for which most phlebotomist are trained include all of these EXCEPT
__________.
a. collection of blood cultures
b. glucose tolerance collection
c. neonatal blood screening collection
d. collection of units from blood bank donors
____ 61. A patient with COPD struggling to breath in the sitting position should be changed to which position?
a. lithotomy c. semi-fowler’s
b. dorsal recumbent d. knee-chest
____ 62. An exam that includes gloves, speculum, three glass slides, fixative, and sterile culture swabs with containers
is ready for what type of examination?
a. rectal c. gastrointestinal
b. pelvic d. neurological
____ 63. An organism that can live with or without oxygen in its environment is
a. aerobic c. gram negative
b. gram positive d. a facultative anaerobic
____ 64. Normal pulse rate for an adult is __________.
a. 40-60 c. 80-100
b. 60-90 d. 90-100
____ 65. Which of the following is considered a soft skill?
a. critical thinking c. labeling an anatomical diagram
b. memorizing medical terminology d. keying patient data into a computer
____ 66. To change the magnification to a higher objective you would use a
a. diaphragm c. revolving nosepiece
b. stage d. Condenser
____ 67. Ear irrigation are performed __________.
a. daily
b. to remove cerumen and foreign matter
c. as part of every physical examination
d. to relieve conjunctivitis
____ 68. Hearing loss associated with age is __________.
a. myopia c. presbyopia
b. myringa d. presbycusis
____ 69. Which of the following tests is NOT required for prenatal testing?
a. syphilis c. antibody for rubella
b. blood group, Rh factor d. cardiac enzymes
____ 70. What are the three parts of a contract?
a. offer, acceptance, renegotiation c. offer, acceptance, consideration
b. offer, counteroffer, acceptance d. offer, refusal, consideration
____ 71. Improper care of a spirometer may result in which of the following?
a. coronary insufficiency c. coronary embolism
b. cross-contamination/infection d. thyroid efficiency
____ 72. A normal 1 year old
a. prepared to play alone
b. can wave bye-bye and can walk with assistance
c. cannot say any words
d. prefer to lie in the crib
____ 73. __________ are used to grasp foreign bodies.
a. splinter forceps c. sponge forceps
b. tissue forceps d. thumb forceps
____ 74. Which of the following best describes how a tube with anticoagulants is identified?
a. size of the tube c. test name on label
b. tube stopper color d. laboratory use
____ 75. Which of the following is caused by a virus?
a. candidiasis c. herpes zoster
b. malaria d. gonorrhea
____ 76. An abnormally slow pulse rate is __________.
a. extrasystole c. thread pulse
b. tachycardia d. bradycardia
____ 77. The test that checks for the susceptibility of an organism to specific antibiotic is the
a. culture test c. isolation test
b. sensitivity test d. inoculation test
____ 78. Another term for an abrasion is
a. avulsion c. laceration
b. amputation d. puncture
____ 79. The term used to describe a person who is nearsighted is
a. hyperopic c. presbyopic
b. myopic d. astigmatic
____ 80. Systolic pressure of 140 or above is referred to as __________.
a. bradycardia c. hypertension
b. tachycardia d. Hypotension
____ 81. Syncope is another term for
a. vomiting c. dizziness
b. fainting d. a blood infection
____ 82. To use “counting the small square methods”, you _______________.
a. count the number of small squares between the peaks of two consecutive R waves and then
compare that to the other R-R intervals
b. find an R wave that falls on a bold line and begin counting small squares
c. count the number of small squares in a 6-second section of the ECG tracing
d. divide by 1500 the number of QRS complexes in each 6-second section of the ECG tracing
____ 83. Infection of the ear involving fluid building behind the ear drum is __________.
a. otitis externa c. ossicles
b. otitis media d. pruritis
____ 84. Pediatric blood pressure is measured
a. at the desertion of the parent
b. only in newborns
c. only during yearly exam in teens
d. yearly after three years or at the discretion of the physician
____ 85. The presence of many RBCs in urine microscopic examination is referred to as
a. hematuria c. polyuria
b. pyuria d. albuminuria
____ 86. Which type of physical examination will reveal abnormalities of the nervous system?
a. urological c. oncological
b. neurological d. proctological
____ 87. Vasectomy involves the severing and tying the __________.
a. fallopian tubes c. vas deferens
b. scrotum d. epididymis
____ 88. The best urine specimen to use for general health assessment is the __________.
a. 24-hour collection c. first morning void
b. clean-catch specimen d. random void
____ 89. The elderly have __________ acute illness than younger age groups.
a. many more c. fewer
b. the same number of d. a few more
____ 90. The normal rate of respiration for an adult is __________.
a. 6-10 c. 14-20
b. 10-13 d. 18-22
____ 91. A microhematocrit test is used to screen for __________.
a. anemia c. occult blood
b. diabetes d. strep infection
____ 92. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that
a. affects only males
b. is characterized by binging and purging
c. is curable with antibiotic medication
d. is characterized by extreme weight loss in all patients
____ 93. Where does deoxygenated blood enter the heart?
a. pulmonary artery c. right atrium
b. pulmonary vein d. right ventricle
____ 94. The T wave represents ___________________.
a. ventricular depolarization c. ventricular repolarization
b. atrial repolarization d. abnormal electrical activity
____ 95. The practice of medicine within each state is regulated by __________.
a. the surgeon general of the united states c. the american medical association
b. the State itself d. the U.S. attorney general
____ 96. Double-bagging is __________.
a. using a bag inside a bag to transport a specimen
b. placing biohazard material in a bag and that bag into another
c. placing normal waste in two bags
d. none of the above
____ 97. The phlebotomist has the greatest impact on which phase of laboratory testing?
a. the postanalytical phase c. has no impact on lab testing
b. the preanalytical phase d. result reporting
____ 98. A severe allergic reaction to a substance is known as
a. metabolic shock c. hypoallergenic shock
b. anaphylactic shock d. neurological shock
____ 99. Hyperthermia occurs when the body temperature reaches
a. 105 degrees F c. 109 degrees F
b. 95 degrees F d. 103 degrees F
____ 100. Serum differs from plasma because serum does not contain __________.
a. electrolytes c. nutrients
b. fibrinogen d. water
____ 101. Staphylococcus aureus is
a. gram-negative bacilli c. gram-negative diplococci
b. gram-positive cocci d. acid-fast bacilli
____ 102. Material for a CSF specimen is collected from what area?
a. spinal column c. throat
b. mouth d. pharynx
____ 103. Education that occurs after a healthcare professional’s initial certification training is called __________.
a. career education c. degreed education
b. continuing education d. supplemental education
____ 104. Pregnancy test detects pregnancy by the presence of
a. hetrophile antibodies c. febrile agglutination
b. human chorionic gonadotrophins d. anti Rh antibodies
____ 105. How many types of white blood cells are there?
a. 5 c. 4
b. 1 d. 3
____ 106. If gray, green, and lavender tubes are needed, the correct order of draw is __________.
a. green, lavender, gray c. lavender, gray, green
b. gray, lavender, green d. gray, green, lavender
____ 107. A permanent pacemaker is implanted in a surgically created pocket beneath the skin in the patient’s
a. abdomen c. neck
b. chest d. upper thigh
____ 108. __________ is used to remove tissue for examination and biopsy to detect cancerous cells
a. speculum c. punch
b. trocar d. Probe
____ 109. An increase in the pulse rate may be caused by __________.
a. fever c. rest
b. poisons d. mental depression
____ 110. The term used to describe difficult or labored breathing is __________.
a. apnea c. orthopnea
b. eupnea d. dyspnea
____ 111. The PR interval represents __________.
a. repolarization of the ventricles
b. depolarization of the heart from the SA node through the atria, AV node, the His-Purkinje
system
c. depolarization of the atria
d. movement of the electrical impulse through the ventricles
____ 112. To open a sterile packet you may do all EXCEPT
a. touch the outside with bare hands
b. open the sterile packet away from you
c. rewrap any unused packets
d. touch the outside with sterile gloves only
____ 113. Which of the following answer is a correct safety rule in the laboratory?
a. it is unnecessary to supervise new lab personnel
b. hands must be thoroughly washed frequently
c. eating and drinking are accepted in the lab
d. gloves are unnecessary when working with patients samples
____ 114. Which of these is NOT one of the four Ds of negligence?
a. duty c. duplicity
b. direct cause d. damages
____ 115. Some factors that lead tot he development of heart disease are all of the following EXCEPT __________.
a. heredity c. flatus
b. obesity d. smoking
____ 116. To measure intraocular pressure the instrument used is __________.
a. ophthalmoscope c. probe
b. tonometer d. otoscope
____ 117. One common symptom of coronary artery disease is __________.
a. dyspnea c. dysphagia
b. polydipsia d. digitalis
____ 118. The respiratory rate of an infant
a. is lower than that of an adult c. is higher than that of an adult
b. is the same as that of an adult d. is measured by the parent
____ 119. Which of the following is an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS?
a. cold c. pheumocystis carinii
b. measles d. whooping cough
____ 120. What legislative act protects healthcare workers from liability when they provide first aid in an emergency
situation?
a. good samaritan act c. occupational safety and health act
b. patient’s bill of right d. red cross act
____ 121. The standard electrocardiogram shows the heart’s electrical activity from different angles through “leads”.
How many leads are recorded?
a. 5 c. 10
b. 7 d. 12
____ 122. How much time without food or drink is considered fasting?
a. 4 to 6 hours c. 6 to 7 hours
b. 2 to 4 hours d. 8 to 12 hours
____ 123. Conditions of microcephaly or hydrocephaly may be evaluated by
a. diameter of the infant chest c. the weight of the infant
b. the length of the infant d. the circumference of the infant’s head
____ 124. Which of the following is the lead that records electrical activity between the right arm and the left leg?
a. lead I c. AVF
b. AVL d. lead II
____ 125. The average infant doubles his/her weight
a. at 3 months c. at 1 year
b. at 6 months d. at 2 years
____ 126. Which of the following is NEVER considered an outpatient surgery?
a. elective c. optional
b. urgent d. organ transplant
____ 127. Diabetes mellitus type 2 (NIDDM) is the result of impaired action of what hormone?
a. insulin c. adrenaline
b. thyroxine d. testosterone
____ 128. Leads __________, __________, __________, are referred to as the standard limb leads
a. I, II, and III c. I and II
b. aVR, aVL, and aVF d. V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V6
____ 129. To diagnose ventricular hypertrophy, we assess the
a. P waves c. QRS complexes
b. T waves d. P wave axis
____ 130. Arterial bleeding is
a. slow and bright red c. rapid and bright red
b. rapid and dark red d. slow and dark red
____ 131. Educating employees about the use of a new piece of equipment is an example of __________.
a. audit and evaluation c. competency assessment
b. corrective action d. training
____ 132. Which of the following is NOT appropriate dress for the office?
a. name tag with “medical assistant” on it c. sandals
b. white socks d. short nails
____ 133. If the QRS complexes are close together the heart rate is _____________________.
a. slow c. profoundly slow
b. normal d. fast
____ 134. Peripheral edema is seen in what conditions?
a. gastroenteritis c. pediculosis
b. congestive heart failure d. allergic rhinitis
____ 135. On the snellen eye chart, the symbol on the top line can be read by people with normal vision at a distance of
__________.
a. 100 feet c. 20 feet
b. 200 feet d. 150 feet
____ 136. Which of the following blood tests aids in the evaluation of the digestive system?
a. albumin c. hemoglobin
b. bilirubin d. uric acid
____ 137. Turbidy of urine refers to
a. odor c. cloudiness
b. color d. specific gravity
____ 138. Which of the following should NOT be brought to an interview?
a. photo ID c. children
b. proof of certification d. grades received in school
____ 139. Older patients take an average of __________ to __________ different medications and one to two over-thecounter medications daily.
a. 2,3 c. 4,5
b. 3,4 d. 3,5
____ 140. Which of the following would need to be recorded in the Holter monitor activity diary?
a. eating meals c. time of sleep
b. bowel movement d. all of the above
____ 141. Invasion of the body by any pathogen is called
a. contagion c. epidemic
b. infection d. pandemic
____ 142. A condition that may cause urinary retention and weak stream of urine in men over age fifty is known as
__________.
a. syphilis c. renal calculi
b. benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) d. human papillomavirus
____ 143. In which of the following radiology positions is the x-ray beam directed front to back?
a. axial c. posteroanterior (PA)
b. lateral d. anteroposterior (AP)
____ 144. There are many degrees of felonies. Which is the most serious?
a. first c. third
b. second d. they are all equal
____ 145. After an interview, which of the following should be done?
a. send a thank you letter
b. send six copies of your resume
c. make a thank you phone call
d. inform the workplace of other job offers you have received
____ 146. Cocci occurring in chains are
a. micrococci c. streptococci
b. diplococci d. staphylococci
____ 147. An irregular rhythm
a. is considered normal c. produces a fast heart rate
b. is caused only by few conditions d. should be properly investigated
____ 148. Which vaccine guards against whooping cough?
a. DTP c. tetanus
b. varicella d. CPV
____ 149. Which of the following would NOT be included in the vital signs?
a. weight c. temperature
b. pulse d. blood pressure
____ 150. To reduce the risk of infection in a pediatric waiting room
a. only see well patients on specific days
b. make ill patients wait in a hallway
c. place ill patients in an examination room at once
d. spray room with air freshener [Show Less]