PORTAGE LEARNING
BIO 231 / BIO231
PATH 231 EXAMS REVIEWS EXAM 1 – 10 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Exam 1
True/False:
Persistent metaplasia can
... [Show More] lead to dysplasia.
True
False
True/False:
Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia.
True
Correct Answer
False
True/False:
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is a type of dysplasia.
True
False
True/False:
Endometrial hyperplasia is a normal physiologic occurrence.
True
Correct Answer
False
Match the following:
1. Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease
a. Validity
2. How likely the same result will occur if repeated
b. Reliability
3. How a tool measures what it is intended to measure
c. Sensitivity
4. People without the disease who are negative on a given test
d. Specificity
Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for that disease
How likely the same result will occur if repeated
How a tool measures what it is intended to measure
People without the disease who are negative on a given test
Multiple Choice
Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply.
It is involved in cellular respiration
They are found far from the site of energy consumption
They play a role in apoptosis
They control free radicals
Which of the following are true regarding cell communication? Select all that apply.
Paracrine signaling depends on hormones
Neurotransmitters act through synapses
Enzyme linked receptors act through an on-off switch
Autocrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity
Multiple Choice
Which of the following are false of the cell?
Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane.
Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell.
The rough ER is the site for lipid synthesis.
Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures.
Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply.
It controls shape and movement
Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions
It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes
What factors are used by epidemiologic methods? Select all that apply.
How disease is spread
How to control disease
How to prevent disease
How to eliminate disease
How to treat disease
All of the above
None of the above
Multiple Choice
A patient complains of a sore throat and headache. What are these examples of? Signs
Symptoms
Both A & B
Multiple Choice
Which of the following is NOT helpful to the clinician to make a diagnosis?
Detailed history
Physical exam
Correct Answer
Evidence based practice
Laboratory tests
Question 13
0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice
Chemical agents (poison, alcohol) are examples of which of the following?
Risk factors
Clinical manifestations
Pathogenesis Correct Answer Etiologic factors
Define primary prevention and give an example:
Your Answer:
when the risk factors has to be remove to stop the disease from occurring
example-eathing healthy / exercising to stay in shape or prevent heart disease.Giving vaccination to pervent disease in children
The goal of primary prevention is to remove risk factors to prevent disease from occurring. Examples include taking folic acid while pregnant to prevent neural tube defects, vaccinating children to prevent communicable disease, eating healthy and exercising to prevent heart disease, and wearing seatbelts or helmets.
Explain apoptosis and why it is necessary:
Your Answer:
apoptosis is the programmed of cell death.this process is necessary for cell dividing because it is removing unwanted cells to make way for new cell.
Apoptosis is programmed cell death. This process eliminates cells that are worn out, have been produced in excess, have developed improperly, or have genetic damage. Apoptosis is also responsible for several normal physiologic processes, like replacing cell in the intestinal villi and removing aging red blood cells.
Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Your Answer:
necrosis is when cell dies in an organ/tissues that is still alive .this process can interferes with the tissue regeneration and how cell can be replace.
one type of necrosis is gengrenouse necrosis which can bowel or the lower extremities that may causes changes in tussue and it functions
Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis.
Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid.
Match the type of cell injury to the cause. Some answers may be used more than once. (1 point each)
1. Sunburn a. Physical agents
2. Obesity b. Radiation injury
3. Reactive oxygen species c. Chemical injury
4. Low oxygen to tissues d. Biologic agents
5. Fractures e. Nutritional imbalances
6. OTC drugs f. Free radical injury
7. Hypothermia g. Hypoxic cell injury
8. Radiation treatment
9. Lead toxicity
10. Bacteria
Sunburn
Obesity
Reactive oxygen species
Correct Answer
f. Free radical injury
Low oxygen to tissues
Fractures
OTC drugs
Hypothermia
Radiation treatment
Lead toxicity
Bacteria
List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each.
Your Answer:
nervours tissue-can be find throughout the body and it's used for communication. muscle tissue
connective tissue
epithelial-(covers the outer surface of the body and lines the inner surfaces.
Epithelial tissue covers the body’s outer surface, lines the inner surfaces, and forms glandular tissue. Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying basement membrane. It is avascular, meaning without blood vessels. It receives oxygen and nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests.
Connective or supportive tissue is the most abundant tissue in the body. It connects and binds or supports the various tissues. Its cells produce the extracellular matrix that support and hold tissues together. Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells). The four types of connective tissue proper are loose (areolar), adipose, reticular, and dense connective tissue.
The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and contract the blood vessels and visceral organs. Muscle tissue can accomplish this by contraction. The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments.
Thin filaments are called actin, and the thick filaments are myosin. The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.
Nervous tissue is distributed throughout the body for communication. It provides the means for controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment.
The two types of cells are neuron and glial cells. Neurons function is communication. Glial (meaning glue) cells support the neurons.
What term means “cell eating” and engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter?
Your Answer:
cell eating is refered to phagocytosis
Phagocytosis
What term means “cell drinking,” and engulfs small solid or fluid particles, as seen with proteins and electrolytes?
Your Answer:
cell drinking is refrered to pinocytosis
Pinocytosis
Give one function of a membrane potential:
Your Answer:
membrane potential can causes music contractions
Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion
What is the term that best describes the following process?
A transport protein aiding a lipid insoluble or large molecule across the cell membrane that would otherwise not be able to pass through on its own.
Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion facilitated diffusion Exam 2
True/False:
Blood tests for tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? Your Answer:
false,because tumor are usually elevated in benign conditions ,and in the early stages of malignancy they can't be elevated.
False, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence.
What is the most important procedure in diagnosing the correct cancer and histology? Your Answer:
tissue biopsy because they play a critical role in dignosing the right cancer and histology
tissue biopsy
Explain the TNM system:
Your Answer:
is a staging system that was created by AJCC for the help study cancer.It is also very effective in classifieng cancers tumor componments.
Classification goes as such:
T relates to the local spread of the primary of the tumor and the size
N relates to the involvement of the regional/location of the lymph nodes M is the extent of the metastatic invilvement
T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor.
N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes.
M is the extent of the metastatic involvement.
1. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis:
2. What are two side effects commonly experienced by cancer patients? Your Answer:
1) Bleeding and weight loss
2) hair loss and sleep disturbances
1. Bleeding; sore that doesn’t heal; fluid in the pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal spaces; chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal discomfort or swelling. Other possible answers can include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss
2. Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances
1. What are the three possible goals of cancer treatment?
2. How does radiation kill cancer cells? Your Answer:
1) the three goal is to curative,control and palliative
2) radiation kill cancer cells by using high energy/waves particles to destroy/damage cancer cells.However this treatment can sometimes interrupt the cells cycle by killing good cells or damaging DNA cells
1. Curative, control, palliative
2. Radiation therapy uses high-energy particles or waves to destroy or damage cancer cells. This leads to the creation of free radicals, which damage cell structures. Radiation can interrupt the cell cycle process, kill cells, or damage DNA in the cells.
True/False:
Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True
False
False, cell differentiation
True/False:
Cell differentiation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types.
Correct Answer
True
False
This type of cell remains incompletely differentiated throughout life: Your Answer:
stem cell
stem cell
These are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have
lost their ability to divide: Your Answer:
they are progenitor
progenitor or parent cells
What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it?
Your Answer:
angiogenesis is the delovement of new blood vessels with a tumor and tumorns need angiogenesis to grow
development of new blood vessels within the tumor. They need it to continue to grow.
What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Your Answer:
proto-oncogenes
protooncogenes
What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example. Your Answer:
they're gene that are associated with gene underactivity because of this it slows down cell division or may tell cell when to die.
Tumor suppressor genes are associated with gene underactivity. These genes slow down cell division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die. BRCA1 or 2, TP53
A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor.
Your Answer:
I will tell her not to worry because leiomyoma is a non-cancerous tumor and it can be surgically remove and to always have a regular doctor visit
two differences between a benign and malignant tumor is that has a well-differentiated cells and have slow progressive growth rate.Malignant tumor is more aggressive because it destroy tissue,grows rapidly and spread to other body parts and lacks well defined margins
Leiomyoma is a benign tumor. (Leiomyosarcoma is malignant) Student can add any of the following: Benign tumors are well-differentiated cells, resemble the cells of tissues of origin, and have a slow, progressive rate of growth. They grow by expansion and remain localized to their site of origin, not capable of metastasizing. They develop a rim of connective tissue around the tumor called a fibrous capsule, which aids in surgical removal. Benign tumors are less of a threat unless they interfere with vital functions
Malignant neoplasms invade and destroy tissue. They grow rapidly, spread to other parts of the body, and lack well-defined margins. They can compress blood vessels and outgrow their blood supply, causing ischemia and tissue injury. Surgery can be more difficult if it has spread.
A 62-year-old man with a 30-pack year smoking history is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer with metastasis to the bone. (1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically. (2) What symptoms might he have presented with? (3) Which screening test would he have benefited from? [Show Less]