You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans
forward, you can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What
does this type of murmur
... [Show More] most likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo
that best heard at the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated
w/ S2 and heard when Pt sits up and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic rumble & doesn't radiate. Best heard
in apex when in left lateral position. Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh
murmur midsystole, radiated down the side of neck and down
apex. Mitral regurg= loud blowing murmur heard at apex and is
pansystolic.
Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation
of osteoporosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism
a. Bone deformity
most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, &
systemic; Low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads
to increased skeletal fragility & deformity. Osteoporosis usually
not apparent until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral fractures are
painless. Fat embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma &
not common in osteoporosis.
A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat
erectile dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual
activity will take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal
four hours before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual
activity as long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below
170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients,
and may be taken 30 minutes before sexual activity.
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual
activity will take place two or more times per week.
Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Damage to endothelial cells
c. Sympathetic tone
d. Turbulent blood flow
c. Sympathetic tone
Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors
that lead to a thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those
and doesn't affect blood clotting.
Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy,
trauma, sepsis, and thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part
of Virchow's triad bc it causes blood to clot by promoting platelet
adherence to the wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury is the
second aspect of Virchow's triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a
constituent of circulatory stasis the third component of the triad,
which can be caused by atrial fibrillation, venous obstruction, and
ventricular dysfunction
A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia
and mental confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient
for which of the following?
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Conn's Syndrome
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Addison's disease
c. Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives?
a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they
are pregnancy category X drugs in pregnancy.
b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian,
endometrial, and breast cancer.
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives
may increase blood pressure.
d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline,
benzodiazepines, and tricyclic antidepressants
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives
may increase blood pressure.
estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention
& HTN. Also believed stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting renal system via elevated angiotensin &
BP. OCP are category X, but because serve no use, decrease
incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca and don't increase risk
of breast ca. OCP containing progestin may enhance effects of
theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic antidepressants by decreasing
clearance.
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barkley 3P
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a2tr4a
Upon percussion of the chest, you notice hyperresonance. Of the
following choices which would most likely be the cause?
a. Atelectasis
b. Normal Lung
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pneumothorax
What is the proper order of steps to accurately perform the Ortolani maneuver?
a. Extend the legs, adduct the legs, and abduct the knees
b. Flex the knees, abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
c. Flex the knees, adduct the legs, and abduct the legs
d. Extend the knees, abduct the legs, and adduct the knees
b. Flex the knees, abduct the knees, and adduct the legs
done on supine infant, flex knees while holding thighs. Adduct
legs until thumbs touch, follow with abduct knees until lateral part
of knee touch table.
You have four patients who all have a family history of developing
coronary heart disease at an early age. According to their blood
test results, which patient would most likely develop coronary
heart disease first?
a. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 120; Triglycerides: 120; HDL: 45
b. Cholesterol: 195; LDL: 110; Triglycerides: 135; HDL: 30
c. Cholesterol: 170; LDL: 100; Triglycerides: 140; HDL: 20
d. Cholesterol: 190; LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50
d. Cholesterol: 190; LDL: 140; Triglycerides: 151; HDL: 50
3 of the 4 measurements are above what should be; HDL <40 in
men & 50 in women increase risk, LDL aim is <130, Chol > 200 &
trig >150 attributed to increase risk heart disease.
This low-molecular-weight heparin is indicated for use with warfarin for the treatment of acute symptomatic deep vein thrombosis,
either with or without pulmonary embolism:
a. Nadroparin
b. Dalteparin
c. Tinzaparin
d. Fondaparinux
c. Tinzaparincan be combined with warfarin for DVT, aids warfarin in inhibiting
clotting of blood. Nadroparin & Dalteparin don't use w/ warfarin,
use independently. Fondaparinux is a Xa inhibitor NOT LMWH.
he main reason for discontinuance of implanted etonogestrel
(Nexplanon) is:
a. Weight gain
b. Pregnancy
c. Breast tenderness
d. Irregular bleeding
d. Irregular bleeding
For the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis, the
nurse practitioner knows that:
a. First-line therapy typically involves an immunomodulator
b. Natalizumab is one of the safest drugs to use as initial therapy
c. A patient using interferon-beta products would have to have
renal function monitored.
d. Fingolimod is given intravenously for patients with resistant
remitting-relapsing multiple sclerosis.
a. First-line therapy typically involves an immune modulator
therapy begins with interferon-beta products (fingolimod, glatiramer, natalizumab) which are immune modulator. Natalizumab
limited (assoc w/ infections in brain) are used if others don't
work. Meds are hepatotoxic and need liver function monitoring.
Fingolimod is 1st ORAL disease modifying med approved for MS.
Which of these are unique features of aripiprazole (Abilify)?
a. It causes hyperprolactinemia and gynecomastia as side effects.
b. It is a dopamine system stabilizer with affects against schizophrenia, mania, and agitation.
c. It causes agranulocytosis, which may be fatal; patient monitoring is necessary
d. It induces diabetes and myocarditis in certain patients
b. It is a dopamine system stabilizer with affects against schizophrenia, mania, and agitation.
All of the following facial movements are still possible after a
cerebrovascular accident except:
a. Raising the eyebrows
b. Wrinkling the forehead
c. Raising both sides of the mouth
d. Closing both eyes
c. Raising both sides of the mouth [Show Less]