ATI RN NURS Exam Questions and Answers 100%CORRECTLY/VERIFIED GUARANTEED SUCCESS Graded A+ LATEST UPDATE 2023 NGN
Question 1
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L.T.
... [Show More] is an 85-year-old male who is admitted for evaluation of profound diarrhea that has produced significant dehydration. He also complains of being very tired lately, and feeling like he is going to vomit all of the time. His vital signs are significant for a pulse of 41 b.p.m. and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. A gastrointestinal evaluation including stool for blood, white blood cells, and ova and parasites is negative. He insists that he has not started any new medications or made any diet changes; the only thing new is that he got new eye drops for his glaucoma. The AGACNP correctly assumes that his new eye drops are:
Response Feedback:
“B” is the correct answer. The accelerated GI motility and bradycardia are cholinergic adverse effects. Ophthalmic medications are readily absorbed into systemic circulation. All of these medications are used to treat glaucoma and may cause class-related adverse effects, but cholinergic drops are the only ones shown that will slow heart rate and accelerate GI motility.
Question 2
L.R. is an 84-year-old female patient being treated for pneumonia. Her condition is deteriorating despite aggressive broad spectrum antipseudomonal cephalosporin antibiotic therapy. Induced sputum culture reveals heavy growth of Legionella
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pneumophilia. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be adjusted to include coverage with:
Response Feedback:
“D” is the correct answer. While beta lactam antibiotics are typically an important part of the regimen for treating inpatient pneumonia because of Streptococcus pneumoniae; This patient has a positive culture for Legionella which is an atypical bacteria in that is has no cell wall. Therefore, “A,” “B,” and “C” are all not correct because there are all beta lactam options whose primary mechanism of action is the inhibition of cell wall synthesis. These drugs, while highly effective against most bacteria, will not be effective against organisms that do not have a cell wall.
Question 3
“B” is the correct answer. This presentation is classic acute respiratory distress syndrome and the patient requires PEEP in order to maximize alveolar-capillary contact and facilitate gas exchange. “A” is not the correct answer—the FIO2 will be increased to whatever is required, along with PEEP, to keep the patient out of respiratory failure. However, an FIO2 of 100% may cause pulmonary fibrosis and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary “C” is not correct—this is too much volume; volumes for ARDS are moderate at 6-8 mL/kg. “D” is not correct—the ventilator setting and rate is not mandated and determined based upon patient response.
0 out of 1 points Teenagers and adults with acute otitis media can often be treated with "watchful waiting"
given the high incidence of spontaneous resolution and low risk of poor outcomes.
Which of the following is an absolute indication to begin antibiotic therapy at the time of diagnosis?
Response Feedback:
“B” is the correct answer. Fever > 102.2° F or moderate to severe ear pain are indicators of severe infection in the setting of otitis media and require antibiotics at the time of diagnosis. “A” is incorrect as the fever cited is not high enough to constitute severe infection. “C” is not correct ; while two infections in the last year may warrant investigation into the cause of repeat infection in the adult population, it is not in itself a reason to go right to antibiotics. “D” is not correct—many adults have a history of perforated tympanic membrane as a child. They heal and return to normal function, and have no direct relevance to disease in adulthood. [Show Less]