What feature is most often found with patients with a splenectomy on a Wright's stained blood smear? - Answer- Howell-Jolly bodies
Patients with
... [Show More] antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: - Answer- Surface antigen (HbSAg)
Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections: - Answer- ASO titer and Anti-DNase B
In mass spectrometry, the "appearance potential" is defined as the: - Answer- Minimum energy required for the appearance of a particular fragment ion in mass spectrum
What is generally accepted as the lower threshold value for semen pH from fertile males? - Answer- 7.2
Coulometry: - Answer- An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction
Erythroleukemia: - Answer- Also known as Acute Myelogenous Leukemia type M6. This type is associated with either the presence of both erythroid and myeloid precursors OR strictly erythroid precursors.
Myelomonocytic leukemia - Answer- Is associated with an increase in myeloid and monocytic cell precursors, but not red blood cell precursors
Species that are Lysine (+), arginine (=) and ornithine (+): - Answer- Enterobacter aerogenes, Edwardsiella species and most Serratia species
Lysine reaction for all Citrobacter: - Answer- Negative
Key identifying characteristic for Pantoa (Enterobacter) agglomerans: - Answer- negative reactions for the three decarboxylases commonly tested ( Lysine, arginine and ornithine)
Which organism is MOST likely responsible for septic reactions associated with Red Blood Cell transfusions? - Answer- Yersina entercolitica is most likely responsible for septic reactions in transfusions of Red Blood Cells. This organism is usually acquired by ingestion of contaminated food and causes mild symptoms of abdominal pain and diarrhea. Growth of Y. entercolitica is enhanced in iron-rich environments such as red cell components.
Gaucher's disease - Answer- The most common lysosomal storage disease caused by insufficient activity of the lysosomal enzyme glucocerebrosidase that leads to the deposition of glucocerebroside in cells of the macrophage-monocyte system.
Diseases associated with dysfunctions of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) - Answer- Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CH), Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), Myeloperoxidase deficiency (MPO)
Nephrotic Syndrome: - Answer- Caused by damage to the kidneys, especially the basement membrane of the glomerulus; which causes abnormal excretion of protein and red blood cells in the urine. Fats are also present in the urine in most cases. A foamy appearance of the urine is a key characteristic of this condition.
Clinical symptoms include:
Swelling
Weight gain from fluid retention
Poor appetite
High blood pressure
Key Biochemical reactions for Enterobacteriaceae: - Answer- The key biochemical reactions by which the family Enterobacteriaceae can be identified include fermentation of carbohydrates, reduction of nitrates to nitrites and the absence of cytochrome oxidase activity.
ANA - Answer- See 2 quiz #27
Prozone effect: - Answer- Results in a false positive reaction; is the result of antibody excess and dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence
Purpose of a bi-chromatic analyzer with dual wavelengths is: - Answer- Minimize the effect of interference
Key characteristics of Micrococcus: - Answer- Susceptible to bacitracin ("A") and resistant to furazolidone; gram positive cocci in tetras, bacteria cells of micrococcus luteus are larger than those of the staphylococci and can arrange in tetras
What is the glomerular filtration rate for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2 mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124 mg/dL and the urine volume was 2.2 L/24 hrs? - Answer- 95 mL/min
One method of calculating a glomerular filtration rate is using creatinine and urine volume to determine creatinine clearance. The equation is as follows:
Creatinine Clearance = (urine creatinine X urine flow rate) / plasma creatinine; where urine flow rate = volume in mL /24 hours x h/60 min)
In this case = creatinine clearance = 124 X (2200/24 x hour/60) / 2 = 94.7 or 95 ml/min
Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic information about: - Answer- Breast cancer
The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in: - Answer- Prozone effect (due to antibody excess) will result in an initial false negative in spite of the large amount of antibody in the serum, followed by a positive result as the specimen is diluted.
Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian population:
A. C
B. E
C. c
D. e - Answer- D. e
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positives and results that are true negatives. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity, but low sensitivity? - Answer- Accurately identifies the absence of disease and has few false-positives
A test with high specificity accurately detects the absence of disease. The more specific a test is, the fewer false-positive results will occur. A test with high sensitivity accurately identifies the presence of disease. The more sensitive a test, the fewer false-negative results it produces. In the case stated in this question, the immunoassay has high specificity, so it has few false-positives and will accurately detect those individuals who do not have the disease or condition that is being tested for. However, the test has low sensitivity, so it may not identify all individuals who actually have the disease; it may produce many false-negative results.
Distinguishing characteristics of Micrococcus luteus: - Answer- Resistance to furazolidone is one of the key characteristics by which members of the genus Micrococcus (resistant) can be separated from members of the genus Staphylococcus (susceptible). Micrococcus species also are susceptible to novobiocin and to bacitracin, although the zone of inhibition to the "A" disk is often small (as shown in this photograph).
The sickling phenomenon observed in erythrocytes containing hemoglobin S may be induced by which of the following? - Answer- Reducing agents actually induce the sickling phenomenon in RBCs when they contain hemoglobin S.
If an autologous blood donor weighs 35 kg, how much blood can be collected for later transfusion? - Answer- 315 mL
Volume to draw = (Donor's weight in kilograms / 50 kg (minimum weight requirement) x 450 mL (volume of unit to be donated)
In this case, Volume to draw = (35 kg / 50 kg) x 450 mL = 315 mL
Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity? - Answer- Adiponectin is a protective cytokine. This cytokine is anti-inflammatory and increases insulin sensitivity. Adiponectin is usually decreased in obesity.
Distinguishing characteristics of Mycobacterium fortuitum: - Answer- Mycobacterium fortuitum is positive for iron uptake, nitrate, arysulfatase, and growth on MacConkey agar without crystal violet in five days.
CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? - Answer- Mature T cells
Define: Congestive heart failure - Answer- A left ventricular dysfunction resulting from aging, hypertension, atherosclerosis or muscle damage from an AMI or repeated AMIs.
Define infarction: - Answer- An area of tissue death that occurs due to lack of oxygen.
Define: Ischemia - Answer- An inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen.
Define: Angina - Answer- Chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygen to heart myocardium.
Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane? - Answer- I and i antigens are related biochemically and spatially to the ABH and Lewis antigens on the red cell membrane. Anti-I is usually an autoantibody. It is common as a benign cold autoagglutinin. Strong anti-I is associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, where it may be associated with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Anti-I is characterized by its failure to react with cord red cells. Anti-i generally occurs as a cold reactive IgM antibody in the setting of infectious mononucleosis.
Distinguishing between T lymphs and B lymphs: - Answer- T lymphocytes are larger and have more vacuoles than B lymphocytes.
Define Galactosemia: - Answer- Galactosemia is an inherited metabolic disorder that affects an individual's ability to metabolize the sugar galactose effectively. Infants affected by galactosemia typically present with symptoms of lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, and jaundice. The presence of galactose in the urine sample is not picked up by the glucose pad on the urine test strip, however, the clinitest result is positive since it can detect different sugars in the urine, including galactose. True lactose intolerance will usually not become symptomatic in children until they are at least 3 years old (usually after age 7). Also, lactose intolerance is associated with diarrhea, but not closely associated with vomiting.
Distinguishing characteristics of Shigella species: - Answer- Shigella species generally do not usually exhibit motility. Shigella spp. are gram-negative rods which is known to cause Shigellosis. This is an infectious disease caused by Shigella which is associated with diarrhea, fever and stomach cramps.
For which determination is the Brilliant cresyl blue used MOST often? - Answer- Reticulocytes
Immature erythrocytes, or reticulocytes, contain nuclear remnants of RNA. To detect the presence of this RNA, the red cells must be stained while they are still living, in a process called supravital staining. With supravital staining, the RNA appears as a reticulum within the red cell.
Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in which Plasmodium? - Answer- falciparum
Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in Plasmodium falciparum. The trophozoite develops into a schizont made up of multiple ring forms (also known as merozoites) via schizogony, or asexual replication. The schizont then matures which causes the rupture of the erythrocytes- releasing merozoites into the circulation which in turn infect other erythrocytes
Define Acute phase proteins: - Answer-
What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily? - Answer- 5% to 15%
A patient experiences a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion, including urticaria, erythema (skin redness), and itching. What is the most likely source of the allergen? - Answer- Plasma proteins
Mild allergic reactions result from a patient's hypersensitivity to soluble allergens in the plasma of the donor unit. The blood recipient forms antibodies to these allergens that are bound to IgE on mast cells and cause the release of histamines. Allergen substances may be drugs or food consumed by the blood donor.
Contact dermatitis is mediated by: - Answer- T lymphocytes
Diagnosis of Diabetes: - Answer- A random glucose concentration greater than 200 mg/dL, with classical signs and symptoms of diabetes
A fasting glucose concentration greater than 126 mg/dL on more than one occasion.
An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), in which the glucose concentration is greater than 200 mg/dL 2 hours after a standard carbohydrate load.
Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following? - Answer- IgM
LIpemia in a serum smaple is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of: - Answer- Triglycerides
The incidence fo hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to anti-D would be expected to be rarest in which population? - Answer- Asians
What characteristics are often associated with alpha thalassemia intermedia? - Answer- Anemia, splenomagaly
Define Oliguria: - Answer- the production of abnormally small amounts of urine
Correlated with acute glomerulonephritis
Le(a+b-)
Le(a-b+)
Le(a-b-) - Answer- Le sese
Le Se
lele sese or Se
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from: - Answer- Hematopoietic stem cells
Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: - Answer- Ferritin (storage form of iron)
If a bacteria produces the enzyme tryptophanase to break down the amino acid tryptophan, which of the following tests will be positive with Kovacs reagent? - Answer- Indole test
Ringed sideroblast: - Answer-
The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are: - Answer- Basophiles
Dolichos biflorus: - Answer- Anti-A1 lectin is extracted from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus. This reagent will agglutinate A1 cells, but not A2 cells
Myelodysplastic syndromes can Best be described as: - Answer- A qualitative disorder of erythroid, myeloid and/ or megakaryoctic cell series
Thyroid Disorders: - Answer-
FAB M5: - Answer- Acute monoblastic leukemia
FAB M1: - Answer- Acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturaation
FAB M3: - Answer- Acute Promyelocytic leukemia
FAB M4: - Answer- Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
Criteria for blood donation (Age, hematocrit, blood pressure, pulse and temperature): - Answer- 17, 35%, no greater than 180/100, 50-100 beats per minutes and not greater than 99.5 degrees
Adiponectin: - Answer- Is aprotective cytokine. This cytokine is anti-inflammatory and increases insulin sensitivity. Adiponectin is usually decreased in obesity
Metabolic syndrome: - Answer- Includes high blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol levels
In patients with suspected primary hypothyroidism associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, one would eexpect the following laboratory test results: T4___? TSH___? and TRH stimulation______? - Answer- decreased, increased, increased
In an adult where does hematopoiesis occurs? - Answer- Vertebrae, skull, proximal ends of long bones, ribs and pelvis in adults
Granulocyte concentrates MUST be administered within _____ of collection: - Answer- 24 hours
Patients at risk for developing TA-GVHD: - Answer- Neonates less than 4 months old, fetuses, recipients with a congenital of acquired immunodeficiency, such as bone marrow or stem cell recipients and patients receiving chemotherapy and recipients of donor units from a blood relative
Iron deficiency anemia: - Answer-
Dubin-Johnson Syndrome: - Answer- An autosomal recessive disorder that causes an increase of conjugated bilirubin without elevation of liver enzymes (ALT, AST)
Crigler-Najjar syndrome: - Answer- Associated with increased levelss of bilirubin in the blood as teh disorder affect the etabolism of bilirubin
Gilbert's syndrome: - Answer- Causes an otherwise harmless jaundice, which does not require treatment, caused by hyperbilirubinemia
Distingush between Pappenheimer bodies an Howell-Jolly bodies: - Answer- Prussian blue stain would help differentiate between the two. Prussian blue stains iron. Pappenheimer bodies, which contain iron, will stain blue. Howell-Jolly bodies will not stain with Prussian blue because they do no contain iron. Both Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies will stain with Wright-Giemsa stain.
Symptomes of Acute leukemia: - Answer- Acute leukemia is associated with bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and swollen lymph nodes. In addition, infections (causing fevers) and bleeding are common. A high white blood cell count with man blasts in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, along with a low platelet and rbc count are also highly associated with this condition.
Differentiate between group D streptococcus, Group D enterococcus, Group B strep and Group A: - Answer- Group D streptococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl -, PYR -)
Group D enterococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl +, PYR +)
Group B strep (bile esculin -, 6.5% NaCl variable, PYR -)
Group A strep is beta hemolytic
Sudan II will confirm the presence of: - Answer- Fat
How much does 1 unit of red blood cells raise the hemoglobin? - Answer- One unit of RBCs increases the hemoglobin level by approximately 1g/dL in an adult who is not actively bleeding and has no other predisposing factors that would shorten the survival of the transfused blood cells
Alpha thalassemia Major: - Answer- AKA as Hydrops Fetalis, is exhibited when all four alpha chain gene loci are deleted or non-functional. The alpha chain is crucial to the formation of hemoglobin variants that can conduct normal oxygen transport and gas exchange. The genetic code --/-- is incompatible with life.
Which part of the immunoglobulin molecule is responsible for activating complement? - Answer- Fc
Nephrotic syndrome: - Answer- Damage to the electrical charges of the glomerular membrane, allowing the passage of high molecular weight proteins and lipids occurs in nephrotic syndrome. This results in markedly increased urine protein levels, and the appearance of fatty casts and oval fat bodies that are characteristic of nephrotic syndrome.
Average life span of platelets (in the body): - Answer- 9.5 days
The anemia of chronic infection is characterized by: - Answer- decreased serum iron levels; serum Fe levels low due to sequestration in macrophages and hepatocytes
IgG Index: - Answer- The IgG index is used to determine if increased IgG in CSF is due to increased production in the CNS or contamination from a breach to the blood-brain barrier.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Factor XII deficiency? - Answer- Negative bleeding history
Patients with a deficiency of factor XII tend to have thrombotic complications. The do not have bleeding problems most likely due to the lack of activation of fibrin lysis, also due to pathway activation of IX by VIIa/TF complex as well as the activation of Factor XI by thrombin
Heinz bodies are: - Answer- Denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen.
Urobilinogen is formed in the: - Answer- Intestine
Causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency: - Answer- Pericious anemia in relapse, Patients on chronic hemodialysis and hodgkin disease
T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate which of the following T-cell functions? - Answer- Cytotoxic T cells, which are capable of destroying targets such as tumor cells and virus-infected cells, bear the CD8 surface marker, while the other cell types listed ( delayed type hypersensitivity, regulatory and helper) are positive for the CD4 surface marker
Intrinsic Pathway: - Answer- Prekallikrein, heavy molecular weight kinogen, XII, XI, X, IX, VIII, V, II and I
Measured by APTT
Leukmoid Reaction: - Answer-
Vitamin K Factors: - Answer- factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X. Anticoagulation proteins: proteins C, S
Christmas Disease: - Answer- Deficiency in Factor IX
Amorphous urates is found in: - Answer- Acidic pH urine
Amorphous phosphate crystals are found in: - Answer- Amorphous phosphate, triple phosphate (ammonium magnesium phosphate), calcium phosphate, and ammonium urate crystals are frequently found in alkaline urine specimens
Which method is the gold standard for ANA detection: - Answer- Slide-based immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or colorzyme
NASBA - Answer- Nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA) is a method in molecular biology which is used to amplify RNA sequences
Used to monitor viral load in HIV paitents
Which condition will show an increased PT with a normal aPTT? - Answer- Factor VII deficiency
A biomarker with high sensitivity: - Answer- accurately identifies the presence of disease and hos few false-negatives [Show Less]