AAFP Board Exam Review Questions and Answers
(All Correct Answers) 2022
-What screening test has most potential for overdx?
{{Correct Ans- PSA-
... [Show More] Overdiagnosis is the diagnosis of a disease that will not produce symptoms during a
patient's lifetime. It tends to occur with cancers that have very slow rates of growth.
Prostate cancer is most often a slow-growing cancer and is often present without
symptoms in older men. The introduction of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening was
accompanied by a marked rise in the rate of diagnosis of prostate cancer while mortality
decreased much less significantly, and this decrease was probably largely attributable to
improved treatment.
-What is the treatment for mallet fracture?
{{Correct Ans- The recommended treatment for a mallet fracture is splinting the distal interphalangeal
(DIP) joint in
extension (SOR B). The usual duration of splinting is 8 weeks. It is important that extension be
maintained
throughout the duration of treatment because flexion can affect healing and prolong the time needed
for
treatment. If the finger fracture involves >30% of the intra-articular surface, referral to a hand or
orthopedic surgeon can be considered. However, conservative therapy appears to have outcomes
similar
to those of surgical treatment and therefore is generally preferred.
-If subluxed radial head is suspected in a child, is imaging needed?
{{Correct Ans- As long as there are no outward signs of fracture or abuse it is considered safe and
appropriate to attempt reduction of the radial head before moving on to imaging studies. With the
child's elbow in 90° of flexion, the hand is fully supinated by the examiner and the elbow is then brought
into full flexion. Usually the child will begin to use the affected arm again within a couple of minutes. Ifecchymosis, significant swelling, or pain away from the joint is present, or if symptoms do not improve
after attempts at reduction, then a plain radiograph is recommended.
-A 17-year-old female sees you for a preparticipation evaluation. She has run 5 miles a day for the last 6
months, and has lost 6 lb over the past 2 months. Her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. Other
than the fact that she appears to be slightly underweight, her examination is normal.
To fit the criteria for the female athlete triad, she must have which one of the following?
{{Correct Ans- The initial definition of the female athlete triad was amenorrhea, osteoporosis, and
disordered eating. The American College of Sports Medicine modified this in 2007, emphasizing that the
triad components occur on a continuum rather than as individual pathologic conditions. The definitions
have therefore expanded. Disordered eating is no longer defined as the formal diagnosis of an eating
disorder. Energy availability,defined as dietary energy intake minus exercise energy expenditures, is now
considered a risk factor for the triad, as dietary restrictions and substantial energy expenditures disrupt
pituitary and ovarian function.
Athletes who have amenorrhea for 6 months, disordered eating, and/or a history of a stress fracture
resulting from minimal trauma should have a bone density test. Low bone mineral density for age is the
term used to describe at-risk female athletes with a Z-score of -1 to -2. Osteoporosis is defined as having
clinical risk factors for experiencing a fracture, along with a Z-score <-2. [Show Less]