1. (001) What is outlined in AFI 36-2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
a. Duties and responsibilities for the Air Force Reserve
... [Show More] and Air National Guard only.
b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career fields or specialties.
c. Career progression for the materiel management career field.
d. Career progression for each military service agent. - ANSWER-B
2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
a. providing support to maintenance activities.
b. researching and identifying materiel requirements.
c. directing policy and guidance for career field.
d. preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. - ANSWER-C
3. (002) The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better
understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training,
knowledge, experience, and
a. interfaces.
b. processes.
c. perspectives.
d. provisioning. - ANSWER-C
4. (002) For you to be eligible to apply for the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program, you
may have up to but not including how many years of time-in-service?
a. 9.
b. 11.
c. 13.
d. 15. - ANSWER-D
5. (002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel
management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA).
b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.
c. GSA and Materiel Management System.
d. Materiel Management System and DLA. - ANSWER-B
6. (003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are
made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
a. One: Enterprise view.
b. Two: Integrated processes.
c. Three: Optimized resources.
d. Four: Integrated technology. - ANSWER-A
7. (003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century's (eLog21) integrated processes,
which is not a resource?
a. Financial.
b. Acquisition.
c. Technology.
d. Infrastructure. - ANSWER-C
8. (004) What source of supply has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force
weapon system?
a. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS).
b. General Services Administration (GSA).
c. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA). - ANSWER-C
9. (004) Which source of supply provides support for peacetime maintenance requirements and
wartime demands to major weapon systems?
a. Air Logistics Complex (ALC).
b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
c. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS). - ANSWER-A
10. (004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
a. designed by a local commodity center.
b. sourced from another branch of service.
c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
d. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC). - ANSWER-C
11. (004) What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community?
a. Local manufacture.
b. Local purchase.
c. Lateral support.
d. Other services. - ANSWER-B
12. (004) What section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?
a. Local purchase.
b. Local manufacture.
c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
d. Centralized repair facility.
13. (004) Who serves as the primary - ANSWER-D
13. (004) Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment
Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?
a. Flight service center (FSC).
b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
c. Centralize repair facility.
d. Maintenance support liaison (MSL). - ANSWER-D
14. (005) Which class of supply includes weapons?
a. II.
b. IV.
c. VI.
d. VIII. - ANSWER-A
15. (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
a. III.
b. V.
c. VII.
d. IX. - ANSWER-B
16. (005) What best describes Class III items?
a. Subsistence.
b. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL).
c. Construction.
d. Ammunition. - ANSWER-B
17. (005) Which class of supply consists of construction?
a. IV.
b. V.
c. VI.
d. VII. - ANSWER-A
18. (005) What best describes Class VI items?
a. Ammunition.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Personal demand items. - ANSWER-D
19. (005) What best describes Class VII items?
a. Ammunition.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Personal demand items. - ANSWER-B
20. (005) What best describes Class IX items?
a. Repair parts.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs. - ANSWER-A
21. (005) Which class of supply consists of repair parts?
a. VII.
b. VIII.
c. IX.
d. X. - ANSWER-C
22. (005) What best describes Class X items?
a. Repair parts.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs. - ANSWER-D
23. (005) What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best
practices, and people into a unified structure?
a. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR).
b. Air Expeditionary Forces (AEF).
c. Unit type code (UTC).
d. Operation plan. - ANSWER-A
24. (006) Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight consists of the Asset Management,
Maintenance Support, and Customer Support sections?
a. Fuels Management.
b. Vehicle Management.
c. Materiel Management.
d. Deployment and Distribution. - ANSWER-C
25. (006) What logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control,
planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo,
passengers, and personal property?
a. Traffic Management.
b. Materiel Management.
c. Management and Systems.
d. Deployment and Distribution. - ANSWER-D
26. (006) Which specialized center will be the hub for the integration and management of
maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
a. Air Force Test Center (AFTC).
b. Air Force Research Lab (AFRL).
c. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC).
d. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center (AFNWC). - ANSWER-C
27. (006) What is the Air Force Sustainment Center's (AFSC) mission?
a. Provide research and technology development.
b. Provide acquisition management for weapon systems.
c. Validate and improve weapon system capabilities.
d. Sustain weapon system readiness. - ANSWER-D
28. (007) Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the materiel management
system?
a. Administration.
b. Item accounting.
c. File maintenance.
d. Accounting and finance. - ANSWER-A
29. (007) What materiel management system process activates if assets are insufficient to satisfy the
requirement on the requested item?
a. Receipt.
b. Turn-in.
c. Due-out.
d. Shipment - ANSWER-C
30. (007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item
records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
a. Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG).
b. Miscellaneous file maintenance.
c. Follow-up.
d. Status. - ANSWER-B
31. (007) How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management
computer system?
a. Five.
b. Six.
c. Seven.
d. Eight. - ANSWER-A
32. (008) What Department of Defense (DOD) instruction implements requirements and procedures
for materiel manager and others who need to work within the supply system?
a. 4100.39-M, Management.
b. 4120.24-M, Defense Management System.
c. 4140.1-R, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Regulation.
d. 4500.9-R, Defense Logistics Systems Manual. - ANSWER-C
33. (008) Which functional area does Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics
Management System Manual, not pertain to?
a. Maintenance.
b. Finance.
c. Supply.
d. Safety. - ANSWER-D
34. (008) What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?
a. Defense logistics management system.
b. Supply management activity group.
c. Degraded operations.
d. Mission capable - ANSWER-A
35. (008) Which research process provides chapters and sections on the publication requested
allowing you to scroll to the corresponding document?
a. Inquiry.
b. Find tool.
c. Table of contents.
d. Consolidated transaction history - ANSWER-C
36. (009) How many characters make up a national stock number (NSN)?
a. 12.
b. 13.
c. 14.
d. 15. - ANSWER-B
37. (009) What two entities make up the national stock number?
a. National item identification number (NIIN) and materiel management code (MMC).
b. Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN.
c. FSC and MMC.
d. MMC and commercial and government entity (CGE). - ANSWER-B
38. (010) How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system?
a. Four.
b. Three.
c. Two.
d. One. - ANSWER-A
39. (010) Which action code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to
obtain specific information?
a. Record retrieval.
b. Supply management.
c. Type record account.
d. Transaction exception. - ANSWER-A
40. (010) Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction
history when processing an inquiry?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four. - ANSWER-D
41. (010) What data can be obtained when using record retrieval code 5 on an item record inquiry?
a. Detail record.
b. Part number record.
c. Repair cycle record.
d. Consolidated transaction history. - ANSWER-C
42. (010) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel
management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
a. C.
b. D.
c. F.
d. R. - ANSWER-D
43. (011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to
select records using the stock number and transaction date?
a. Stock number.
b. Transaction serial number.
c. Batch miscellaneous option.
d. Batch transaction date and serial number - ANSWER-A
44. (012) Which program in the materiel management system takes control of computer processing
when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
a. Reject.
b. Inquiry.
c. Management notice.
d. Management support - ANSWER-A
45. (012) Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?
a. Flight chief.
b. Logistics manager.
c. Operations officer.
d. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. - ANSWER-A
46. (012) Which chapter in AFH 23-123, Materiel Management Handbook, volume 2, part 2,
identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system's rejects created during
processing?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven. - ANSWER-D
47. (012) Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management
code and phrase?
a. MAN.
b. MGT.
c. MNT.
d. MMT - ANSWER-B
48. (012) Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in
a timely manner?
a. D818.
b. D097.
c. D043.
d. D019 - ANSWER-A
49. (012) What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?
a. D04.
b. D20.
c. Q09.
d. Q10. - ANSWER-B
50. (012) Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are
processed for valid reason only?
a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Squadron superintendent.
c. Operations officer.
d. Flight chief. - ANSWER-D
51. (013) Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled
transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security
manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
a. Computer operations supervisor.
b. Terminal security monitors.
c. Accountable officer.
d. Logistics manager. - ANSWER-B
52. (013) Who is responsible for reviewing part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to
process a controlled TRIC?
a. Flight chief.
b. Logistics manager.
c. Data processing center.
d. Management and systems officer - ANSWER-D
53. (014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings
must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-122, Materiel Management
Procedures; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
a. a flight request.
b. a job order number.
c. a cumulative reject.
d. an approved supplement. - ANSWER-D
54. (014) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer
room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?
a. 30th.
b. 20th.
c. 15th.
d. 10th. - ANSWER-C
55. (015) When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer's funds into the Supply
Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?
a. Debit.
b. Saving.
c. Storing.
d. Revolving - ANSWER-D
56. (015) Which of the following is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-
Retail (SMAG-R)?
a. Medical-Dental.
b. General Support Division.
c. United States Air Force Academy.
d. Air Force Working Capital Fund. - ANSWER-D
57. (016) The quality assurance (QA) program will help identify any area, program, or equipment and
system that are not compliant with
a. guidelines.
b. principles.
c. standards.
d. quality. - ANSWER-C
58. (016) Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support
visits?
a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership.
b. Training section.
c. Customer support section.
d. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG). - ANSWER-A
59. (017) When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should,
what Air Force form is used to report the problem?
a. 1810, Assurance Activity.
b. 1815, Difficulty Report.
c. 1820, Supply Management Report.
d. 1825, Supply Command. - ANSWER-B
60. (017) What activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management
(SCM)-retail community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty
reports?
a. Stock control.
b. Quality assurance.
c. Computer operations.
d. Information technology. - ANSWER-B
61. (017) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected
a. as workload permits.
b. in the next scheduled release.
c. on an Air Force suggestion form.
d. over the phone with the materiel management system control center. - ANSWER-B
62. (018) What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing
statistical data with standards and norms?
a. Trend analysis.
b. Special studies.
c. Problem analysis.
d. Document analysis. - ANSWER-A
63. (018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a
specific problem?
a. Trend analysis.
b. Special studies.
c. Problem analysis.
d. Document analysis. - ANSWER-B
64. (018) Which of the following best describes what is required to perform an analysis?
a. Inquiries.
b. Difficulty reports.
c. Problem analysis.
d. Source documents. - ANSWER-D
65. (018) What is used when selecting key information for monitoring performance measures?
a. Inquiries.
b. Difficulty reports.
c. Source documents.
d. Management indicators. - ANSWER-D
66. (018) Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop
local programs for solving problems identified by management?
a. Training.
b. Stock control.
c. Customer service.
d. Resource management. - ANSWER-A
67. (018) Which best describes the next step after an assessment has been conducted by quality
assurance (QA) with discrepancies?
a. Gather data.
b. Prepare reports.
c. Identify deficiencies.
d. Review training requirements - ANSWER-D
68. (018) What section is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that
can be used to determine the account's effectiveness?
a. Training.
b. Customer service.
c. Quality assurance (QA).
d. Resource management. - ANSWER-C
69. (018) What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an
organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future
efforts?
a. Analysis program.
b. Difficulty reports.
c. Training requirements.
d. Customer support visits. - ANSWER-A
70. (019) What section should be contacted to ensure an item is physically available for a customer?
a. Stock control.
b. Customer service.
c. Storage and issue.
d. Mission capability (MICAP). - ANSWER-C
71. (019) What must match the reports or accountable documents with what is reflected on computer
products and forms during quality control?
a. Reports.
b. Inquiries.
c. Input images.
d. Training requirements - ANSWER-C
72. (019) Who will ensure each item has a valid location assigned prior to the actual inventory date?
a. Stock control.
b. Storage facility.
c. Quality assurance.
d. Customer service. - ANSWER-B
73. (019) Who ensures data required to support degraded operations is updated and downloaded as
needed and readily available when degraded operations are initiated?
a. Flight chief.
b. Control team chief.
c. Logistics manager.
d. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. - ANSWER-B
74. (019) What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception (TEX)
7 issue document?
a. Issue request (ISU).
b. Item record load (FIL).
c. Due-out release (DOR).
d. Special requisition (SPR). - ANSWER-D
75. (019) What transaction exception (TEX) is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or
nondirected transfer to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)?
a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven. - ANSWER-C
76. (019) What takes place once the computer is back on-line after degraded operations?
a. Recovery.
b. Sequencing.
c. Trend analysis.
d. Problem analysis. - ANSWER-A
77. (019) Which process is very important to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed
during recovery?
a. Research.
b. Sequencing.
c. Accountability.
d. Reconciliation. - ANSWER-B
78. (019) Who can elect not to formally activate the control team (CT) when the system is off-line
less than 24 hours?
a. Flight chief.
b. LRS commander.
c. Logistics manager.
d. Control team chief. - ANSWER-D
79. (020) How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are
authorized to receipt for classified property?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually. - ANSWER-C
80. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent
document file?
a. Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU.
b. Source documents with file indicator D.
c. TRIC FCU.
d. TRIC FIC. - ANSWER-B
81. (021) What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction
Register (D06)?
a. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).
b. Daily Document Control (D04), part 1.
c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
d. Conversion Audit List (R22). - ANSWER-C
82. (021) What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the
daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
a. Priority Monitor Report (D18).
b. Daily Document Control (D04).
c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
d. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10). - ANSWER-B [Show Less]