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WGU Intro exam with correct answers 2024
What is the definition of information technology (IT)? - correct answer It is the technology used to create, maintain, and make information accessible. ... [Show More] Which IT position has the responsibility of working with routers and switches? - correct answer Network administrator In which generation were silicon chips first used in computers? - correct answer Third generation Which low-level language corresponds one-to-one with assembly? - correct answer Machine language What allows an organization to use software through the Internet? - correct answer SaaS What is one of IT's roles in globalization? - correct answer It allows companies to reach a wider customer base. Which category of computer has an external flat screen monitor, optical disk drive, and a large capacity hard drive? - correct answer Desktop Which two software application packages would be classified as productivity software? - correct answer Word processor Spreadsheet program Which two computer peripherals are connected to the computer through a port? - correct answer External microphone USB flash drive Which term is defined as a collection of information used to support management of an organization? - correct answer Information System A website logs the timestamp, location, and browser of every visitor. It then aggregates this content into peak traffic times and days, minimum and maximum hits for each country and region, and popularity of certain browsers among visitors. What is the timestamp considered in this scenario? - correct answer Data A departmental manager is creating a budget estimate for the upcoming year. The manager would like to determine whether the data will be available when the decisions for the next year have to be made. Which characteristic of valuable data is the manager considering? - correct answer Timely Which two are parts of an information system? - correct answer Networks Databases What is the difference between processing and storage? - correct answer Processing involves temporary information, while storage involves permanent information. Which benefit is provided by a computer network in a business? - correct answer Costs for hardware resources are decreased A software emulator program that permits a computer user to use multiple computers and multiple platforms without the expense of purchasing multiple computers. - correct answer Virtual machines Each computer is roughly equal to every other computer. - correct answer Peer-to-peer One computer will request information from another computer, which responds with requested information - correct answer Client-server Which statement correctly describes the operating system? - correct answer Allows the user to control the actions of the software, and through the software, to access hardware Which action by application programs requires support from an operating system? - correct answer An Internet browser displays a web page. What is true about the Linux operating system? - correct answer Linux runs on both servers and workstations. The chief information officer wants to update the network server to improve Internet access while also blocking certain social media websites. What type of server will meet this need? - correct answer Proxy server Which characteristic identifies application software that is cloud-based? - correct answer Provided by third-party providers What type of software permits free temporary use followed by long-term activation for a fee? - correct answer Shareware What is the purpose of an End User License Agreement for a commercial software package? - correct answer Establishes the customer's right to use the software What is the difference between proprietary and open-source software license? - correct answer Proprietary software has a cost whereas open-source software is free. What gives the author of a software package the ability to prevent unauthorized duplication for at least 35 years? - correct answer A copyright Which two components are parts of a central processing unit (CPU)? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Control unit (CU) Arithmetic logic unit (ALU) An employee needs to edit a contract and prepare a hard copy for the project team. Which two peripheral devices should be used? - correct answer Printer Monitor Which motherboard component helps cool the CPU? - correct answer Heat Sink Which item is a storage device? - correct answer Flash Drive In which type of network topology is each networked device directly connected to every other networked device? - correct answer Mesh Which communication medium is typically used when sending data transmissions over very long distances? - correct answer Radio signals What indicates a specific Internet location? - correct answer The IP address Which description explains the role of a domain name system (DNS)? - correct answer Translates human-readable aliases into IP addresses Which part of a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) identifies the location of the document on the server? - correct answer Resource path ID Which goal of Information Assurance (IA) requires that information is accessible when needed? - correct answer Availability Which technique uses all possible combinations of letters and numbers to crack a password? - correct answer Brute force Which is a type of two-factor authentication? - correct answer Smart card Which is a characteristic of high-level languages? - correct answer They use object-oriented programs. How does a compiler work? - correct answer It requires the components of the software to be defined from the onset. On which tier of an N-Tier architecture model are user interfaces developed? - correct answer Presentation Which component facilitates communication between the other two components in the MVC architecture model? - correct answer Controller What statement is true concerning compiled and interpreted computer language? - correct answer A compiler translates an entire program into executable program, which can be run at a later time, while the interpreter does this incrementally. Which two languages have traditionally been used for automation rather than software development? Choose 2 answers - correct answer TCL Python Which is true of databases and the applications that interact with them? - correct answer Applications are interdependent with the database. What is another term for a formula that outlines how to execute a task? - correct answer Algorithm What is the role of drivers in facilitating communication between applications and databases? - correct answer They allow the application to interact with the database. Which SQL clause is used to inform the database management system (DBMS) which tables should be interrogated by the query? - correct answer FROM Which data type is used to represent product order code that comprises alphanumeric characters? - correct answer String Armando is a freelance graphic designer. He has decided to create a database of the artwork he has done throughout the years. Each of his pieces of art is sorted using an assigned name and number. Which data type will be required in order to create his database? - correct answer String data Why is it important to ensure that data support business goals? - correct answer To aid in making strategic decisions In which category of the DIKW hierarchy would business intelligence be located? - correct answer Knowledge Which field must contain a unique value in order for a relational database table to function? - correct answer Primary key What are the three main categories of databases? - correct answer Flat file, relational, hierarchal What is the database administrator's role in security? - correct answer To institute protocols to protect the databases from external threats What type of information processing allows input data to be accepted as a set of records and processed as a unit? - correct answer Batch What is the purpose of an IT department? - correct answer It helps the organization achieve strategic goals. What is a role of the systems administrator? - correct answer To install and maintain network resources Which action would be important for the IT department to take in order to help their business meet the goal of increased expansion? - correct answer Expanding the infrastructure to support additional locations What step should be taken by a business when a third-party solution is found that will benefit a project? - correct answer Contact the group to arrange a demo of their product Which risk assessment question is part of the Initiation Phase? - correct answer Could the end users reject the outcome of the project? In what phase of a project does time estimation occur? - correct answer Planning What effect does scope creep have on a project? - correct answer It increases unplanned costs for the project. Which system requirement is an example of considering user needs in the design of an information system? - correct answer Allowing easy access to customer account information Which type of systems testing includes having the customer test the system in an operational setting to see if it is useful? - correct answer User Acceptance Which type of systems conversion involves starting the conversion with a portion of end users? - correct answer Pilot What are two necessary elements of business continuity planning? Choose 2 answers - correct answer 1. Assessing key organizational activities 2. Identifying risks that may occur Which disaster recovery strategy is used to save information to multiple hard drives at the same time? - correct answer Data mirroring Which action would support confidentiality? - correct answer Updating security software Which regulation governs the actions of a company in the case of data records being compromised, lost, or stolen? - correct answer Security Breach Notification laws How can an organization assist employees with the ethical use of information technology? - correct answer By developing policies for information usage Engages in best practices for information systems - correct answer Part of the role of an IT professional association Writes laws dealing with information technology - correct answer Outside of the role of an IT professional association Provides professional standards for ethical behavior - correct answer Part of the role of an IT professional association [Show Less]
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Information Systems Management ___C724 WGU exam with correct answers 2024
Which activity is an example of how information systems support business functions of human resource departments? - correct answer An employee processes mo... [Show More] nthly payroll checks and benefits using an open-source software. There are six major components of a computer-based information system, four of which are also in the information technology component. Which two components are only parts of the information system? Choose 2 answers - correct answer People & Processes A police department at a large metropolitan city implemented an information system that analyzes historical crime data, including date and locations as well as other external, environmental, and city-related data. The system then produces daily predictive reports of the major locations around the city that are likely to require additional police attention. The police department uses the reports to plan the officers' patrol routes, targeting the areas that the system predicted to have high likelihood of incidents. Which type of computer-based information system provides a competitive advantage based on the described scenario? - correct answer A decision support system (DSS) that improves decision-making A police department at a large metropolitan city implemented an information system that integrates historical crime data, including date and locations to other external, environmental, and city-related data. The system then produces daily predictive reports of the major locations around the city that are likely to require additional police attention. The police department uses the reports to plan the officers' patrol routes, targeting the areas that the system predicted to have high likelihood of incidents. Which two strategies does the information system at the police department aim to accomplish? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Improving decision-making & Operational efficiency Which business function is primarily the responsibility of production and operations information systems? - correct answer Quality control A small company that is growing quickly into a medium-sized company is facing the challenge of consolidating and storing information received from multiple sources from the ground up in order to ensure that operations run efficiently. The company needs to hire an expert who will, in addition to the above, maintain security and apply upgrades as needed. Which IT professional does the company need to hire in order to address this challenge? - correct answer Database administrator A university is looking for ways to customize its courses to the unique needs of its students by creating various levels of hybrid online courses, such as 80% online for one student, whereas only 30% online for another. Which IT management challenge is addressed in this scenario? - correct answer Develop new products and services A ride-sharing cab company is looking for ways to generate more business by attracting more customers, both on the supply (driver) and demand (passenger) side, via a strategy of tracking their monthly miles and offering "frequent flier" bonuses, just like airline companies have done. Which IT management challenge is addressed in this scenario? - correct answer Promote competitive advantage An automobile manufacturer is considering equipping the engines of its new models with the capability of detecting early symptoms of an imminent mechanical or electric failure, automatically transmitting that warning to the dealership from which the customer purchased the car, and the dealership automatically contacting the customer to schedule a repair appointment. It is facing the challenge of whether all this is technically feasible and operationally viable. Who needs to address this challenge of value creation through technology use? - correct answer Chief technology officer A car dealership has been receiving complaints from its customers about its inflexible repair system in which customers who drop off their cars the previous evening are not properly placed in the queue and tend to be placed behind those who drop off their cars the morning of the scheduled repair. It needs technical staff members who understand the scheduling/drop-off operation so it can determine and articulate precise customer needs to the programmers who would then build the code behind the system. What type of challenge is this? - correct answer User requirements An international company is facing the challenge of its software development team working on a specific application spread across the globe in 16 countries in 12 different time zones. Flying them to the same location once a week or even once a month for coordination purposes would be prohibitively expensive. Moreover, the issues that arise tend to be urgent and in need of almost immediate resolution in communication with team members in other countries. Which communication style is necessary to resolve the issues in the given scenario? - correct answer Synchronous What business strategy relies heavily on efficient and secure software implementations? - correct answer Web sales What business function benefits from both wireless networks and cellular technologies? - correct answer Product sales support In 1965, computers had .092 MIPS, and today's computer have about 238,000 MIPS. What business practices have taken advantage of this massive increase in computer speed? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Network management systems & Database management systems A marketing manager uses a desktop publishing software to create advertising brochures that will be mailed to potential customers. To which major software category does the desktop publishing software in this scenario belong? - correct answer Application software A company needs to allow multiple computers to have access to a shared printer. Which type of computer is required to manage the print requests to a shared printer? - correct answer A server computer A large online retail store needs a computer system that can quickly process sales orders, inventory, payment, and shipping. Which computer system is required to accomplish these tasks? - correct answer Mainframe computer Which development methodologies respond to a need to expedite and scale software development, with concepts that are concerned with the reuse of one or many software objects? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Object-oriented development & Component-based development Which approach to systems development has a limited emphasis on the planning process and uses prototypes in lieu of predetermined specifications? - correct answer Rapid application development A company has many separate departments that focus on different business aspects and uses data warehouse subsets to hold data specific to each individual department. The company started a new department and created a new subset. What is this new subset called? - correct answer Data mart An auto parts manufacturer is creating a new relational database to more accurately identify their customers and vendors. The manufacturer's database design team decided to use "vendorID" to link a given vendor to a specific product, as illustrated in the diagram shown. What type of attribute is "vendorID"? - correct answer Primary key in record "Vendor" Which database type, used frequently in early style databases but much less frequently today, contained inflexible data relationships that formed a treelike structure? - correct answer Hierarchical database Amanda has been asked to regularly extract and process databases from many sources into a data warehouse, which will be used by several divisions within the company. Which data type should Amanda recognize is prevented by her data warehouse design? - correct answer Variable A national publisher of newspapers wants to mine its data warehouse (including inputs from social media) to identify which of its publications customers believe provides reliable reporting. Which tool is used for this initiative? - correct answer Sentiment analysis A marketing research firm is planning a study involving consumer preferences toward new coffee flavors. The company needs to analyze coffee data from the coffee manufacturer, as well as preference data from consumers in order to discover whether certain flavors are more or less popular among certain segments of the population. Which database technology would help the company conduct this research project? - correct answer Business intelligence system utilizing data mining technology A fast food restaurant chain is in the process of adding more restaurants in an overseas market. One of the requirements is to have a reliable and scalable database technology that allows the local restaurants, as well as the corporate office, data access regardless of the platforms and locations. Which database technology supports these business data requirements? - correct answer Cloud-based database Which aspect of data governance is used to ensure that once an online payment transaction is successfully processed, the credit card information is removed from the company servers? - correct answer Data are properly destroyed. Which aspect of data governance is used to ensure that the customer data and payment information saved in the company server are properly encrypted? - correct answer Data are properly stored. A marketing manager would like to study customer behavior and how it relates to customer's purchase products from its online store. Specifically, she would like to know which website page the majority of customers spent the most time on, when and where they decided to abandon the shopping cart, and how long (on average) a customer takes to complete a sales transaction. Which database technology supports this study? - correct answer Clickstream analysis Which telecommunication protocol is used to connect devices in a wireless local area network (LAN)? - correct answer Wi-Fi Which telecommunication protocol is used to retrieve email from a mail server? - correct answer Post Office Protocol (POP) With technology trends such as the Internet of Things (IoT), Big Data, Cloud Computing, eCommerce, and mCommerce, the Internet has become a very important and useful aspect of society. To prepare for these trends and aid in technology evolution, a necessary and critical change in telecommunications was the conversion from IPv4 to IPv6. What was the primary reason to convert to IPv6? - correct answer To increase the number of available IP addresses Which tactic defeats a war driver by barring access to your secured wireless network? - correct answer Configuring the access point to accept only specific MAC addresses A food truck wants to connect with its customers using a site that enables users and businesses to use public messages to create informed commerce. Which concept describes service to consumers and businesses in closing the feedback loop? - correct answer Social networking Interactions between buyers and sellers are often more effective when sellers intimately understand the needs of their customers, and when customers have more information to make important decisions. Thanks to the variety of beneficial resources, information, and services made possible by the Internet, such interactions may be highly individualized, and tailored to the buyer's purchasing capacity, and relative influence. What is another important advantage of a digital market over a traditional market, from a buyer's perspective? - correct answer Improved transparency Fred is an IT engineer at a small online news agency, where 35 employees carry laptops and print to the wireless printer. Recently, the company has discovered that the many Bluetooth headsets, cordless telephones, and regular usage of the breakroom microwaves are causing long-standing intermittent micro-outages at often predictable times of the day. Which solution to this problem will avoid disruption to the work environment? - correct answer Change the wireless access points to other another frequency Sasha is an IT engineer at a small online news agency, where 35 employees carry laptops and print to the wireless printer. Several wireless access points are installed in the ceiling at appropriate points throughout the office space, though they share the same Service Set Identifier (SSID). In fact, an employee can start a large download, and then carry her laptop from one end of the office space to the other without losing her connection. Which network topology configuration supports this scenario? - correct answer Mesh topology Which two network devices boost Wi-Fi strength for wireless devices in areas of low signal quality? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Wireless bridge & Wireless repeater Broadband has enabled data, voice, and video to be combined and transmitted over one network. What is the name of the standard that allows this convergence between voice and data networks? - correct answer VoIP Although WPA has been a secure encryption protocol for wireless networks, it is being replaced by a standard that offers even stronger security as the latest Wi-Fi encryption protocol. What is the name of this new standard? - correct answer WPA2 The traditional systems development lifecycle (SDLC) consists of six formal phases. Which phase of the SDLC involves developing the plan for capturing data and producing the output? - correct answer System design A hotel experiences relatively long checkout lines on Sundays when the majority of its customers check out. Replacing the hotel's existing checkout system with an expensive state-of-the-art system has crossed the mind of top management, and yet, due to its relative monopoly in that region, the hotel's customers tend to be rather loyal. The management is wondering whether the costs involved in installing a new system would be recouped by the new system in the long run. Which type of feasibility is presented in this scenario? - correct answer Economic feasibility A bowling center has implemented a new expensive system in hopes of increasing its clientele. The system stores and tracks patrons' bowling performance over time and displays for them the extent to which their performance has been improving over time. However, this new system has failed to attract more patrons. During which phase of systems development is this failure discovered? - correct answer Evaluation A large hotel chain needs to develop a system that would coordinate its airport shuttle service with its customers' needs. This requires that their systems analysis staff interacts with both customers and shuttle drivers to identify and document the necessary requirements. In which role would a systems analyst assume to address this issue? - correct answer Communicator Which tool is appropriate for use in the design phase of information systems development to specify the detailed logic of a business process in narrative form in a manner easily translatable into any programming language? - correct answer Pseudocode A company is exploring the possibility of a merger with another company and decides to create a system model of the merged companies. In which step of the model will the company create a functional flow diagram? - correct answer Process A corporation wishes to modify its current distribution system. The management team asks the information systems (IS) team to analyze the proposed distribution change. Upon approval of the proposed IS project, the IS team must choose the project implementation method. Which method allows the old system to operate while the new system is developed and tested? - correct answer Parallel adoption An organization is planning its yearly budgeting cycle. Management has requested the information systems team to validate current hardware and software performance. Which type of evaluation can the team use to perform this validation? - correct answer Function-oriented A business requires large amounts of data that are processed into information and used to maintain a competitive advantage over their competitors. As the business grows, the data storage and processing capabilities are becoming extremely challenging and costly. What external technological environment can be used to help address these issues? - correct answer Cloud computing A company is considering an expansion into a new target market. The company's management team develops a decision process to analyze current market strengths and to predict needs for the proposed new target market. Which benefit does the company gain by developing this target market decision process? - correct answer The company becomes data-centric. An online mail order company decides to create its own Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system to help management analyze customer's purchasing patterns. To be successful at managing relationships with customers, the CRM system must have access to large amounts of customer purchasing data for analysis and report generation. Which MIS tool is also useable by the company's CRM system? - correct answer Decision support system A decades-old company has several hundred employees and a modern IT infrastructure. An IT security analyst has been hired to provide a layered defense structure and must take measures to ensure confidential information remains confidential. Which activities will help the IT security analyst accomplish this goal? Choose 3 answers - correct answer Enforcing document retention and destruction policies & Requiring the use of ID badges at building access points & Mandating annual information security training for all employees A company has issued smartphones to its employees with a policy that the devices may not be used off of the company's campus. An IT analyst has been tasked with finding a way to enforce this policy. Which solution provides a fitting solution to this problem? - correct answer Proximity authentication access control Hostile or intrusive software with harmful intent can take the form of executable code and greatly damage a user's computer. Which technology can be used to minimize the chances of this happening? - correct answer Anti-malware A regional manager has received an important financial document seemingly sent by a branch manager, but he doubts whether the report was actually sent by that manager. Which technology could be used to verify that the report was indeed sent by the branch manager? - correct answer Digital signature A corporation needs to improve its security policies and has decided to limit physical access to corporate computers. What value will the corporation realize with this policy? - correct answer System protection A business wished to extend the use of its virus scanning software to the business' customers. This requires the business to allow customers enough access to the internal network so virus scanning software can be downloaded to a customer's computer. Which two security measures will the business have to take to ensure customer access for virus scanning downloads, yet protect internal systems from possible unauthorized access? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Take steps to detect any presences of malware. & Require a username and password for network access. An investment banking corporation utilizes employee passwords as a data privacy measure to secure sensitive data. The IT security team has been tasked with ensuring the data is produced and modified in the correct way. Which data privacy goal is the IT security team tasked with accomplishing in this scenario? - correct answer Integrity The information systems support team is asked to perform an analysis of corporate privacy measurers regarding a centralized relational database. The database is interconnected to several business groups via the internal data network that also supports connectivity to outside organizations. Which ethical risk is identified after a secondary analysis? - correct answer The financial system introduces unwanted liabilities. A corporation is using the encryption illustrated in the diagram below to protect business-sensitive information. What type of encryption is the corporation using? - correct answer Character shifting Interactive online communications, such as instant messaging, email, and video teleconferencing, have allowed managers at a large retailer to boost efficiency by enabling collaboration between geographically separate employees. However, such technologically assisted interactions have led to inappropriate conduct by employees, requiring the employer to implement processes or technological controls to reduce risk and encourage professionalism, but potentially invade employee privacy. Which technological action, if used, will represent an ethical challenge for this large retailer? - correct answer Reviewing instant message logs Widespread use of the Internet caused disruption and quick evolution within the music industry. Responses to widespread Internet usage included technological evolutions, such as uniquely identifiable digitally tagged files, and the passage of laws that penalized file sharing. Which type of e-commerce put music industry artists, publishers, and retailers at risk of losing potential revenue due to widespread use of the Internet? - correct answer Peer to peer Large established businesses often have networks of other businesses within their supply chains in order to maintain the flow of information and materials. Company A is an organization that hosts its own marketplace of suppliers in order to facilitate the pursuit of its own interests. Which network describes Company A's example of e-commerce? - correct answer Private industrial To help facilitate business in areas without traditional infrastructure, some companies offer devices that allow businesses to accept credit cards with their tablets and cell phones. Which business model category do these companies fall in? - correct answer Service provider Mary purchased a digital camera from an online store for her upcoming road trip. What is the e-commerce model of the online store? - correct answer Business to Consumer (B2C) Company A ordered printer toner cartridges from Company B. Company B ships the products to Company A every two months. What is the e-commerce model described in this scenario? - correct answer Business to Business (B2B) Although printed catalogues are still produced and mailed by specialty retailers, for most of these retailers a customer can place an order immediately at the website instead of mailing an order form. Which specific feature of e-business enables this opportunity? - correct answer Online order entry Customers wish to have the capability of performing tasks anytime, anywhere, without being tethered to a desktop computer. Which term describes computer programs designed specifically for this purpose? - correct answer Mobile apps Which two benefits can a business realize by using social media to connect to customers? Choose 2 answers - correct answer Detailed marketing research & Targeted sales promotions A candidate is applying for a job at a local company. His resume listed the most recent position as a supervisor at XYZ Corp. However, his social media profile indicated the position during the same time period as a manager at XYZ Corp. Which aspect of the job candidate's qualification can negatively affect his hiring potential? - correct answer Inconsistent experience Which feature of social media websites can a job seeker use to convince prospective employers that the job seeker's talents are real and are already valued by a number of other individuals and organizations? - correct answer Profile recommendation [Show Less]
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WGU Academy US History 1 - Exam 1 with correct answers 2024.
In the Great Plains region, most pre-Columbian societies - correct answer engaged in sedentary farming. Scholars estimate that human migration into the ... [Show More] Americas over the Bering Strait occurred approximately - correct answer 11,000 years ago The first truly complex society in the Americas was that of the - correct answer Olmecs Many pre-Columbian tribes east of the Mississippi River were loosely linked by - correct answer common linguistic roots Prior to European contact, the eastern third of what is today the United States - correct answer had the most abundant food resources of any region of the continent. The origins of the majority of human existence in North America began - correct answer with migrations across an ancient land bridge over the Bering Strait What condition(s) in England in the sixteenth century provided incentive for colonization? - correct answer The availability of farmland was declining, while the population was growing. African and American Indian societies tended to be matrilineal, which means - correct answer people traced their heredity through their mothers Unlike Puritans, the Quakers - correct answer rejected the doctrine of original sin King Charles I's treatment of Puritans could be characterized as - correct answer extremely hostile In 1620, the Puritan Pilgrims who came to North America - correct answer hoped to create their ideal close-knit Christian community During the early years, the survival and growth of the Plymouth colony - correct answer was due in large part to the assistance of the natives. During the seventeenth century, English colonists in the Chesapeake saw - correct answer a life expectancy for men of just over forty years The total number of Africans forcibly brought to all of the Americas as slaves is estimated to have been as many as - correct answer 11 million. Seventeenth-century southern plantations - correct answer tended to be rough and relatively small Which of the following was NOT characteristic of the English indenture system? - correct answer Most indentured servants received land upon completion of their contracts In the mid-1600s, New England Puritan ministers began preaching against the decline of - correct answer piety In colonial New England Puritan communities, the family was - correct answer highly valued In the English colonies, Jews - correct answer could not vote or hold office The witchcraft trials in Salem - correct answer saw the original accusers recant their charges. Which statement regarding slavery in English North America in 1700 is FALSE? - correct answer The demand for slaves led to a steady rise in the prices paid for them By the mid-eighteenth century, a distinct colonial merchant class came into existence, in part because of - correct answer illegal colonial trade in markets outside of the British Empire. The first North American college was - correct answer Harvard. In the English colonies, Roman Catholics - correct answer suffered their greatest persecution in Maryland Which statement regarding colonial higher education is true? - correct answer Most colleges were founded by religious groups Industrialization in colonial America was hampered by - correct answer All these answers are correct - a. English parliamentary regulations. b. a small domestic market. c. an inadequate labor supply. d. an inadequate transportation network. Which statement about the economy of the northern colonies is true? - correct answer The economy was more diverse than in the southern colonies. The verdict of the 1734-1735 libel trial of New York publisher John Peter Zenger - correct answer increased freedom of the press in the colonies What future American revolutionary figure surrendered to French forces in 1754 at Fort Necessity in the Ohio Valley? - correct answer George Washington In North America as a result of the Seven Years' War, England - correct answer confirmed its commercial supremacy and increased its political control of the settled regions. For most Indians in North America, the British victory in the French and Indian War - correct answer had disastrous effects on their future The Proclamation of 1763 - correct answer was supported by many Indian tribal groups. During the third phase of the French and Indian War, British leader William Pitt - correct answer gradually loosened his tight control over the colonists In the aftermath of King George's War - correct answer relations among the English, French, and Iroquois deteriorated Under the English constitution during the eighteenth century, - correct answer large areas of England had no direct political representation. In 1774, the First Continental Congress - correct answer called for the repeal of all oppressive legislation passed since 1763 In the 1760s, "country Whigs" were English colonists who - correct answer considered the British government to be corrupt and oppressive. When he became British prime minister, George Grenville - correct answer believed the American colonists had been indulged for far too long In the 1760s, the Grenville ministry increased its authority in the colonies by - correct answer stationing regular British troops permanently in America. Many colonists believed the legislation passed by the Grenville ministry in 1764-1765 - correct answer meant the British were trying to take away their tradition of self-government [Show Less]
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D076 Test with correct verified answers 2024
In which way is accounting different from finance? Accounting is backward looking, while finance is focused on the future. Accounting is focused on alloc... [Show More] ating capital, while finance is focused on bringing in capital. Accounting is about budgeting, saving, and borrowing, while finance is about investing, forecasting, and lending. - correct answer Accounting is backward looking, while finance is focused on the future. What is the main question that both individuals and companies must consider when making financial decisions to reach a goal? Will the benefits of the action outweigh the costs? Will this decision require debt or equity financing? Will utility be maximized through this decision? - correct answer Will the benefits of the action outweigh the costs? A financial manager at a company is trying to determine whether to issue new stocks or new bonds to cover the costs of a project the company is doing the next year. Which main task in business finance is this situation an example of? Making financing decisions Making investment decisions Managing interdepartmental loans - correct answer Making financing decisions How can investing help a person reach personal financial goals? It provides access to potential revenue or increases in value to help meet goals faster. It ensures money is placed in a safe, risk-free, and easily accessible financial asset. It helps a person understand how money was spent previously in order to reliably predict future expenses. - correct answer It provides access to potential revenue or increases in value to help meet goals faster. A sign company is planning to have an initial public offering (IPO). In which type of market will its stock first be sold to the public? Efficient market Secondary market Money market Primary market - correct answer Primary market Which type of economic indicator changes after the economy changes and helps identify trends in the long term? Yield curve indicator Leading indicator Coincident indicator Lagging indicator - correct answer Lagging indicator How does an investment institution, such as a mutual fund, facilitate the circulation of money in the economy? By insuring deposits in investment accounts up to $250,000 to promote public confidence By raising capital on a contractual basis, such as an insurance contract By providing individuals and firms access to financial markets to buy or sell financial securities - correct answer By providing individuals and firms access to financial markets to buy or sell financial securities Which type of economic indicator is used by governments and policymakers to implement or alter policies in an effort to avoid or minimize the effects of an economic downturn? Correlated indicator Coincident indicator Lagging indicator Leading indicator - correct answer Leading indicator What should a potential bondholder (lender) do to prevent a company (borrower) from taking on risky projects? Set strict covenants that the company cannot uphold if it chooses a risky project Encourage manipulation of accounting procedures to optimize the company's profit Separate owners from management so their interests do not conflict - correct answer Set strict covenants that the company cannot uphold if it chooses a risky project Which factor contributes to the inflation of the prices of goods and services over time? Increase in demand for goods and services Decrease in costs of production Decrease in employee demand for higher wages - correct answer Increase in demand for goods and services Why can compounding interest be a good tool but also a significant detriment? Compounding interest can be a good tool to understand the time value of money, but it is a detriment because it does not take inflation into account. Compounding interest can be a good tool because it allows a lender to gain interest on interest, but it is a detriment because it causes a borrower to pay interest on interest. Compounding interest can be a good tool because it summarizes the required return, but it is a detriment because it requires a larger cost of capital. - correct answer Compounding interest can be a good tool because it allows a lender to gain interest on interest, but it is a detriment because it causes a borrower to pay interest on interest. How is inflation calculated? Inflation is calculated by determining the rate at which the average price level of particular goods and services increases over a period of time in an economy. Inflation is calculated by determining the rate at which the demand for particular goods and services has increased over a period of time in an economy. Inflation is determined by the federal government at a target rate of 2% a year. - correct answer Inflation is calculated by determining the rate at which the average price level of particular goods and services increases over a period of time in an economy. Based on the following information about the stocks of several companies, which stock displays the greatest amount of risk? Stock A: Return = 22.22%, Standard Deviation = 9.99% Stock B: Return = 15.05%, Standard Deviation = 7.35% Stock C: Return = 38.83%, Standard Deviation = 4.54% Stock D: Return = 5.69%, Standard Deviation = 5.32% Stock A Stock B Stock C Stock D - correct answer Stock A. The higher the Standard Deviation the higher the risk. Which type of ratio should be used to examine the cost efficiency of a firm's production? Liquidity Market Efficiency Profitability - correct answer Profitability What is the process of analyzing financial data with ratios to compare a firm's performance to competitors? Evaluating Auditing Valuing Benchmarking - correct answer Benchmarking Which action will increase the return on equity of a firm? Increasing the liquidity of the firm Increasing the asset usage efficiency of the firm Decreasing the debt financing of the firm Decreasing the profitability of the firm - correct answer Increasing the asset usage efficiency of the firm Which principle of ratio analysis means that ratios are open for analyst interpretation, are not governed by rules, and allow creativity to work according to a particular company or asset? Focus Flexibility Standardization Evaluation - correct answer Flexibility As an active investor, Maria is analyzing her portfolio to decide if there are any stocks she should remove from her pool of financial securities. A company she has invested in, Quiet Flag Industries, just released its annual report. Which kind of method should Maria use to see if the company has improved? Progress measurement Trend analysis Cross-sectional analysis Focus analysis - correct answer Trend analysis Which type of ratios are banks and lenders most concerned about? Profitability Activity Liquidity Efficiency - correct answer Liquidity Which ratio helps an analyst evaluate whether a company can cover its short-term obligations? Current ratio Net margin Return on equity Market-to-book ratio - correct answer Current ratio What does the DuPont framework indicate about return on assets? Return on assets is based on the amount of the firm's debt and equity. All returns are based on the firm's profitability and efficiency. A firm can still have a high return on assets with low net income. - correct answer All returns are based on the firm's profitability and efficiency. An investment analyst is concerned about a construction company's ability to sell its inventory to meet current obligations, because much of the inventory (commercial buildings) it builds and sells takes longer than a year to construct. Which ratio should this analyst use to consider the effect of the firm's inventory on the firm's ability to meet current obligations? Quick ratio Inventory ratio Leverage ratio Current ratio - correct answer Quick ratio An employee was recently hired as a financial analyst and asked to create a cash budget for the employee's division for the next year. Which component should the employee exclude from the budget? Payment toward the line of credit that is due next month Purchase of equipment that will be bought in three years Purchase of inventory for sales that the employee will make this year - correct answer Purchase of equipment that will be bought in three years What are the benefits of using the traditional envelope method to track cash flows? It enables users to connect bank and credit card accounts to automatically update income and expenses. It requires users to carefully track specific expenses and write down their income and spending for the month. It is simple and helps ensure that users do not spend more than the cash that they have available. - correct answer It is simple and helps ensure that users do not spend more than the cash that they have available. A company calculated variances of a budget and actual cash flows that indicate the firm's strengths and weaknesses in cash flows and its budgeting process. Which major use of cash budgeting is this an example of? Standardization Assessment of future needs Corrective action Performance evaluation - correct answer Performance evaluation Which process is Li engaging in if he recently made a personal budget and is now keeping a record of his cash flows? Forecasting Tracking Monitoring Revising - correct answer Tracking Which type of expense is a magazine subscription? Fixed expense Monitored expense Asset expense Variable expense - correct answer Variable expense Which tool is forward-looking and thus helps decision makers understand how actions taken today can affect their firm's future performance? Ratio analysis Financial statements Financial forecasting - correct answer Financial forecasting A company is developing a financial forecast for the next year. The company plans to implement a new factory that will increase production and resulting sales by 20%. Since the company's assets are increasing significantly, what else must increase? Profit turnover Accounts receivable turnover Financing Gross margin - correct answer Financing Jack works for a company that manufactures televisions and must obtain financing to increase the company's inventory levels. Jack's manager knows that current investment markets are tight, and it may be difficult for the company to obtain additional financing for the next year. The manager asks Jack to propose a way for the firm to reduce its discretionary financing needed (DFN). What should Jack suggest to reduce next year's DFN? Increase sales growth, resulting in a larger amount of revenue coming into the firm Lower the amount of dividends that are paid out to shareholders next year Increase the amount spent on fixed assets to increase production capacity - correct answer Lower the amount of dividends that are paid out to shareholders next year What is the term for the rate that allows a firm to maintain its present financial ratios without issuing new equity or increasing debt? Steady state growth rate Sustainable growth rate Capital growth rate Sales growth rate - correct answer Sustainable growth rate Which method is most commonly used for determining a company's DFN? You Selected Sustainable growth rate Percent of sales Historical regression Company multiples - correct answer Percent of sales Freedom Rock Bicycles has a sales capacity of $10 million. When sales exceed this capacity, the company must invest $200,000 in new equipment. Freedom Rock Bicycles had sales of $9 million in one year, and it projects a sales growth of 10%. The net fixed assets in the year were $500,000. By how much will the company's discretionary financing need increase? $0 $50,000 $200,000 $900,000 - correct answer $0 Why are financial models helpful in financial forecasting? Models allow users to see the complex relationships between sales and other aspects of the business. Models provide credibility to a firm's financial statements for government agencies to review. Models show the future supply schedule for a firm, which allows for negotiation with suppliers. - correct answer Models allow users to see the complex relationships between sales and other aspects of the business. A firm is currently operating at 75% capacity with current sales of $34 million. Will the firm need to acquire additional fixed assets if its sales are predicted to increase by $6 million next year? No, because the increase in sales will exceed the firm's sales capacity. Yes, because the increase in sales will exceed the firm's sales capacity. Correct No, because the increase in sales will not exceed the firm's sales capacity. - correct answer No, because the increase in sales will not exceed the firm's sales capacity. How does an analyst use the hurdle rate? It is used to calculate the IRR for a project and determine its value. It is used to determine the time frame of a project. It is used to compare with the IRR to determine whether a project should be accepted. - correct answer It is used to compare with the IRR to determine whether a project should be accepted. Which term refers to the metrics and calculations that use tools such as net present value (NPV), internal rate of return (IRR), and profitability index (PI) to evaluate investments? Capital budgeting criteria Projected financing criteria Security analysis criteria - correct answer Capital budgeting criteria What would profitability index (PI) be useful for? Computing the future value of a project in the future rather than the present value Determining whether a firm should invest in projects with different initial outlays Calculating returns for a project that does not have a definite return rate for IRR or NPV - correct answer Determining whether a firm should invest in projects with different initial outlays Maria is planning to invest in some company stocks for retirement and is trying to figure out if the stocks are a good buy. She calculates the intrinsic value of one of the stocks, Quiet Flag Industries, to be $35. The stock is currently trading on the market for $30, so she decides to buy it. Why was it a good idea for Maria to buy this stock? The stock is overvalued. The stock's intrinsic value is greater than 1. The stock is undervalued. - correct answer The stock is undervalued. How do bond payments to investors differ from stock payments to investors? Stock payments have a shorter duration than bond payments. Bond payments are larger than stock payments. Bond payments are fixed, and stock payments are variable. - correct answer Bond payments are fixed, and stock payments are variable. An investor really cares about having voting rights in a firm. Which type of financial security should this investor purchase? Common stock Secured bonds Preferred stock Zero-coupon bonds - correct answer Common stock The lowest rate of return is required by which type of investor or lender? Preferred stockholder Bank Bondholder Common stockholder - correct answer Bank Which cash flow of a particular project would be a sunk cost? $20,000 market value of equipment at the end of the project $35,000 incremental cash flows for the third year of the project $50,000 marketing study conducted three months ago for the project - correct answer $50,000 marketing study conducted three months ago for the project Quiet Flag Industries has a large piece of land worth $250,000 that it is considering using for a miniature golf business. When evaluating the cash flows that would result from doing this project, should Quiet Flag consider the land value? Why or why not? Yes, the land value represents cannibalization. No, the land value represents a sunk cost. Yes, the land value represents an opportunity cost. - correct answer Yes, the land value represents an opportunity cost. What is the effect of debt financing on a firm's income? Debt interest payments reduce taxable income. Income is taxed at a lower rate when a firm has no debt. Income is taxed at a lower rate when a firm has more debt. - correct answer Debt interest payments reduce taxable income. An investor is reviewing the bonds of four different companies: Company A issues AA-rated bonds. Company B issues A-rated bonds. Company C issues BB-rated bonds. Company D issues C-rated bonds. Which company is likely to provide the lowest rate of return to the investor? Company A Company B Company C Company D - correct answer Company A How is the cost of capital used in the decision-making process for a capital investment project? It is used as the discount rate of cash flows. It is compared to the NPV. You Selected It is input into cash flow calculations. - correct answer It is used as the discount rate of cash flows. A pharmaceutical company recently spent $2 million developing a new drug. The company then conducts capital budgeting analysis to determine if it should produce the newly developed drug. The net present value (NPV) of the project is $1.5 million. Why should this company produce the drug? Because the project will provide a total value of $3.5 million to the company Because the NPV is greater than zero Because the development costs are greater than the value of the project - correct answer Because the NPV is greater than zero [Show Less]
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WGU Academy US History Graded Exam -3 with correct answers 2024
President Martin Van Buren's "subtreasury" system - correct answer consisted of a controversial, new financial system to replace the Bank of the United Sta... [Show More] tes. Which of the following statements regarding the Bank of the United States is FALSE? - correct answer President Jackson ordered the Bank closed before the expiration of its charter. Which statement regarding the American electorate during the 1820s is true? - correct answer The right to vote was expanded to include many more white males. In the 1820s, Whig support for the Anti-Mason Party demonstrated - correct answer the desire of the party to attract the largest possible number of voters. In 1832, supporters of President Jackson held a national convention in order to - correct answer renominate him for the presidency. The Whig Party was LEAST successful at - correct answer uniting behind a strong national leader. What proved to be a serious liability to Henry Clay's presidential ambitions? - correct answer his identification with the West The Black Hawk War - correct answer was notable for vicious behavior by the American military. The first of the "Five Civilized Tribes" to be removed to the West, beginning in 1830, was the - correct answer Choctaw. Compared to Irish immigrants, German immigrants to the United States before 1860 - correct answer generally arrived with more money. In 1860, the percentage of the population in free states living in towns (places of 2,500 people or more) or cities was - correct answer 26 percent. Between 1820 and 1840, the population of the United States - correct answer grew rapidly, in part due to improved public health. In the 1820s and 1830s, the labor force for factory work in the United States - correct answer None of these answers is correct. Prior to 1860, perhaps the most significant invention for middle-class American homes was the - correct answer cast-iron stove. By 1860, as a result of the social expectations expressed in the "cult of domesticity," - correct answer women became increasingly isolated from the public world. The central ideology of slavery, and the vital instrument of white control, was - correct answer paternalism. Which of the following statements regarding slave life is true? - correct answer After 1808, the proportion of blacks to whites in the nation steadily declined. The "peculiar institution" was a southern reference to - correct answer slavery In the late 1850s, many of the great landholders of the lower South were - correct answer still first-generation settlers. Sexual relationships between white southern men and female slaves was - correct answer a common practice. Tobacco cultivation in the antebellum South - correct answer was gradually moving westward. Which of the following statements about the southern aristocratic ideal is FALSE? - correct answer Wealthy southern whites prided themselves on their egalitarianism. Regarding religion, American slaves - correct answer often incorporated African features into their Christianity. Religious services for American slaves - correct answer were often more emotional than white services. The name given to the effort by whites and blacks to help runaway slaves escape was the - correct answer underground railroad. Of the following, the most common form of resistance to slavery was - correct answer subtle defiance. A runaway slave making a successful escape from the American South was - correct answer highly unlikely. One abolitionist who was murdered for his activism was - correct answer Elijah Lovejoy. The black abolitionist who called for uncompromising opposition to and a violent overthrow of slavery in his 1829 pamphlet was - correct answer David Walker. The effect of Uncle Tom's Cabin on the nation was to - correct answer spread the message of abolitionism to an enormous new audience. In the 1840s in the United States, an initial understanding of germ theory was developed by - correct answer Oliver Wendell Holmes. The American Colonization Society helped to transport blacks from the United States to - correct answer Liberia. One of the most enduring of the pre-Civil War utopian colonies was - correct answer Oneida In the American slave family, - correct answer extended kinship networks were strong and important. To "manumit" means to - correct answer set free. Prior to 1860, free blacks in the South - correct answer occasionally attained wealth and prominence and owned slaves themselves. Martin Van Buren won the presidency in 1836 because - correct answer the political opposition offered multiple candidates. The political philosophy of Whigs - correct answer favored expanding the power of the federal government. In 1841, the British government - correct answer supported the rights and freedom of mutinous slaves on the Creole. Senator Robert Hayne represented the state of - correct answer South Carolina. [Show Less]
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WGU - MEC1 Study Guide with correct answers graded A+
CONTENT validity - correct answer the assessment measures the content it's designed to assess Purpose of CONSTRUCT validity - correct answer Checks to s... [Show More] ee if test measures what it's supposed to and not something else Purpose of CONTENT validity in objective assessment - correct answer To determine how closely the test represents what should be assessed. Objective assessment - correct answer Question with only one answer Purpose of CRITERION-RELATED validity - correct answer Measures the degree of correlation between a first and 2nd test CONSEQUENTIAL validity - correct answer results are used for a purpose and have social significance. FACE validity - correct answer looks valid on the surface CONSTRUCT validity - correct answer Degree to which a test actually measures what it claims to measure CRITERION-RELATED validity - correct answer Validity is determined by comparing one test to another (2 types: concurrent & predictive) PREDICTIVE validity - correct answer results used to determine future achievement CONCURRENT validity - correct answer the extent to which two measures of the same trait or ability agree OR how well a new test compares to a well-established test How do you ensure validity of a test? - correct answer 1. Scoring procedures are evaluated for objectivity FAIRNESS 2. Test is evaluated for evidence bias CHECK for BIAS 3. test is evaluated for content consistency CONSISTENT Threats to validity - correct answer 1. Ambiguous test directions 2. cheating by students 3. subjective scoring methods INTERNAL reliability - correct answer consistent results across items in a test SPLIT HALF = both halves of the test "work" Kuder-Richardson Chronbach's alpha estimated from a single administration of a test check for sufficient # of items to assess reliability EQUIVALENCY reliability - correct answer the extent in which 2 or more forms of a test are consistent (version A and version B) INTER-RATER reliability - correct answer A measure of how similarly two different test scorers would score a test. Consistency of a scoring system STABILITY reliability - correct answer Measurement reliability across time; a measure that yields consistent results at different time points assuming what is being measured does not itself change STABILITY Reliability - correct answer Test-Retest reliability internal reliability - correct answer split-test reliability Reliability is essential because... - correct answer shows ability to perform and maintain effectiveness Methods that determine reliability... - correct answer 1. Inter-Rater 2. Parallel Forms 3. Split-half measure 4. Chronbach's alpha 5. Kuder-Richardson High RELIABILITY coefficients show... - correct answer highly reliable Low RELIABILITY coefficients show... - correct answer low reliability Characteristics of reliability coefficients measure... - correct answer 1. how well scores hold up over time 2. the degree to which the items on a test are homogeneous 3. the closeness of the judges' scores Constructed Response - correct answer a written response to a prompt (usually a paragraph) LOW reliability (depending on inter-rater folks) Projective Test - correct answer a personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, LOW reliability Heterogenous test group - correct answer HIGH reliability Large number of test questions - correct answer HIGH reliability a short test, a quiz - correct answer LOW reliability Significant difference in students' scores - correct answer LOW reliability Several subtest components of one larger test - correct answer LOW reliability negligible (insignificant) standard error of measurement - correct answer typical error of measurement is insignificant HIGH reliability Significant standard error of measurement - correct answer measure of how much measured test scores are spread around a "true" score. more errors = the less accurate the test LOW reliability Minor differences in students' scores - correct answer HIGH reliability Inconsistent rating of constructed response items - correct answer LOW reliability Spearman-Brown used for VALIDITY or RELIABILITY? - correct answer RELIABILITY FORMATIVE - correct answer never graded, anonymous used to guide instruction review of the interim & final project deliverable by development team (checking on if they have the right goals) review by internal & external designers to improve navigation (software) Performance-based assessment - correct answer An alternative assessment method based on a student's performance of a skill based on a real-life situation. SUMMATIVE - correct answer end-of-course test ie: survey to measure student satisfaction or achieve unit goals or multiple guess IMPACT evaluation - whether an intervention is effective or not Placement Assessment - correct answer (measures entry behavior) To determine student performance at the beginning of instruction Example: Unit Pre-test purpose of formative assessment - correct answer to improve CURRICULUM not students Implementation Evaluation - correct answer documents the evolution of a project and provide indications of what happens within a project and why it happens. Project directors use information to adjust current activities. FORMATIVE evaluation element An ELEMENT of Formative Evaluation - correct answer IMPLEMENTATION evaluation (notes the changes needed as instruction progresses) purpose of summative evaluation - correct answer To assign grades or certify mastery see if goals have been met make decisions Identify subject of the evaluation - component of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation Define the purpose of an evaluation - component of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation Who are stakeholders? Plan the eval - components of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation determine the data needed for answers - component of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation Decide where data is, how to collect it, collection instruments - components of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation Write the narrative timeline of when & how data will be collected - component of... - correct answer SUMMATIVE Evaluation SELECTED RESPONSE test - correct answer choose answer easier to grade higher reliability (WGU tests) CONSTRUCTED RESPONSE test - correct answer short answer, essay or other open ended questions pain to grade lower reliability Components of CONSTRUCTED response: - correct answer clear directions ample space for answers give details about what is required in answer INTERVIEW - correct answer A face-to-face or telephone questioning of a respondent to obtain desired information. questionaire - correct answer Provide answers to well-defined questions electronic format provide anonymity qualitative data - correct answer descriptive data discrete nominal (doesn't overlap - male/female...) Dichotomous Scoring - correct answer Only two events are possible (i.e. heads vs tails) QUANTITATIVE data Polytomous Scoring - correct answer More than two possible answers QUANTITATIVE data discrete variable - correct answer a quantitative variable that has either a finite number of possible values or a countable number of possible values Coding/Indexing - correct answer technique for quantifying QUALITATIVE data Essay exam - QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer Qualitative :o Closed end questions - QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE ### Likert Scales 1-5 - QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE #### Comparison of Pre-test vs post test scores QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE #### Summative evaluation using student test scores QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE ### Semantic differential scale on a continuum QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE #### Interview to capture scaled responses QUALITATIVE or QUANTITATIVE? - correct answer QUANTITATIVE (scaled - #s) [Show Less]
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Western Governors University exam with correct answers 2024
Oral language ability is a combination of - correct answer Comprehension and expression Comprehension - correct answer The ability to process and unders... [Show More] tand speech. Ex: story read aloud, question asked, request made. Expression - correct answer The ability to speak to others Learning Goals for Pre-K - correct answer Vocabulary of several thousand words, puts words together to make sentences, responds to questions with more than one or two word answers, understands turn taking, and can carry conversation. Through talking and listening children: - correct answer Learn vocabulary, the structure of stories, phonological awareness, letter sound relationships Teaching styles to support children's talk: - correct answer Attention and Responsiveness, Content and Stimulation, and Emotional Support Informal Assessments look for: - correct answer Confidence in speaking, breadth and depth of responses, use of rare words, ability to communicate ideas and experiences Read Aloud - correct answer Introduce children to fundamental print, help children develop listening comprehension skills, familiarize children with the alphabet, and build vocabulary. Assessing Read Aloud - correct answer Observation and questioning Phonology - correct answer the basic sounds of language Vocabulary - correct answer words and word meanings Grammar - correct answer phrases and sentences that make sense and conform to grammatical rules Pragmatics - correct answer the appropriate use of language; rules for communicating effectively in diverse social situations. Phonological Awareness - correct answer Children begin to understand the correspondences between written letters and the sounds they make Grammar Development - correct answer Contributes to listening comprehension as well as children's abilities to comprehend complex written language Pragmatic System - correct answer Emphasizes structure and narrative Vocabulary Development - correct answer connects to early literacy Help students retain new words through - correct answer EXPOSURE!!! Environmental Print - correct answer Print that surrounds us everyday; signs, posters, labels, lists, etc. Express Themselves through writing typically progresses in the following stages: - correct answer Drawing as a form of written expression, scribbling, writing with letter like forms, writing by reproducing well-learned letters or letter strings, developmental spelling, conventional spelling Picture Books - correct answer The Snowman, Corduroy, pictures and text Folktale - correct answer 3 Billy Goats Gruff, Little Red Riding Hood Fables - correct answer The Grasshopper and the Ant, Aesop's Fables Fairytale - correct answer Grimm Brothers Phonological Awareness - correct answer Identifying and producing oral rhymes, syllables in spoken words, and segmenting individual phonemes. Modeling - correct answer Thinking aloud to demonstrate the strategy Automaticity - correct answer Refers to accurate, instant word recognition Fluency - correct answer Includes rate, accuracy, and prosody. Childhood apraxia of speech (CAS) - correct answer motor speech disorder. Children with CAS have problems saying sounds, syllables, and words. Dysarthria - correct answer motor speech disorder. The muscles of the mouth, face, and respiratory system may become weak, move slowly, or not move at all after a stroke or other brain injury. Signs/symptoms: slurred speech, slow rate of speech, speaking softly, hoarseness, changes in vocal quality. Stuttering - correct answer affects the fluency of speech. It begins during childhood and, in some cases, lasts throughout life. The disorder is characterized by disruptions in the production of speech sounds, also called "disfluencies." Orofacial Myofunctional Disorders (OMD) - correct answer With OMD, the tongue moves forward in an exaggerated way during speech and/or swallowing. The tongue may lie too far forward during rest or may protrude between the upper and lower teeth during speech and swallowing, and at rest. articulation disorder - correct answer An articulation disorder involves problems making sounds. Sounds can be substituted, left off, added or changed. These errors may make it hard for people to understand you. phonological disorder - correct answer A phonological process disorder involves patterns of sound errors. For example, substituting all sounds made in the back of the mouth like "k" and "g" for those in the front of the mouth like "t" and "d" (e.g., saying "tup" for "cup" or "das" for "gas"). Conditions that lead to atypical speech development - correct answer cerebral palsy, cleft palette, functional articulation disorders, and stuttering. [Show Less]
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Biochemistry - Exam 1 Practice Questions with correct answers 2024
In a bacterial cell, the DNA is in the: A) cell envelope. B) cell membrane. C) nucleoid. D) nucleus. E) ribosomes. - answer-nucleoid A major c... [Show More] hange occurring in the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes was the development of: A) DNA. B) photosynthetic capability. C) plasma membranes. D) ribosomes. E) the nucleus - answer-the nucleus In eukaryotes, the nucleus is enclosed by a double membrane called the: A) cell membrane. B) nuclear envelope. C) nucleolus. D) nucleoplasm. E) nucleosome. - answer-nuclear envelope The dimensions of living cells are limited, on the lower end by the minimum number of biomolecules necessary for function, and on the upper end by the rate of diffusion of solutes such as oxygen. Except for highly elongated cells, they usually have lengths and diameters in the range of: A) 0.1 µm to 10 µm. B) 0.3 µm to 30 µm. C) 0.3 µm to 100 µm. D) 1 µm to 100 µm. E) 1 µm to 300 µm - answer-0.3 µm to 100 µm The bacterium E. coli requires simple organic molecules for growth and energy—it is therefore a: A) chemoautotroph. B) chemoheterotroph. C) lithotroph. D) photoautotroph. E) photoheterotroph - answer-chemoheterotroph Which one of the following has the cellular components arranged in order of increasing size? A) Amino acid < protein < mitochondrion < ribosome B) Amino acid < protein < ribosome < mitochondrion C) Amino acid < ribosome < protein < mitochondrion D) Protein < amino acid < mitochondrion < ribosome E) Protein < ribosome < mitochondrion < amino acid - answer-Amino acid < protein < ribosome < mitochondrion The three-dimensional structure of macromolecules is formed and maintained primarily through noncovalent interactions. Which one of the following is not considered a noncovalent interaction? A) carbon-carbon bonds B) hydrogen bonds C) hydrophobic interactions D) ionic interactions E) van der Waals interactions - answer-carbon-carbon bonds Which one of the following is not among the four most abundant elements in living organisms? A) Carbon B) Hydrogen C) Nitrogen D) Oxygen E) Phosphorus - answer-Phosphorus The four covalent bonds in methane (CH4) are arranged around carbon to give which one of the following geometries? A) linear B) tetrahedral C) trigonal bipyramidal D) trigonal planar E) trigonal pyramidal - answer-tetrahedral The macromolecules that serve in the storage and transmission of genetic information are: A) carbohydrates. B) lipids. C) membranes. D) nucleic acids. E) proteins - answer-nucleic acids Stereoisomers that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other are known as: A) anomers. B) cis-trans isomers. C) diastereoisomers. D) enantiomers. E) geometric isomers - answer-enantiomers The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the reversible hydration of fumaric acid to l-malate, but it will not catalyze the hydration of maleic acid, the cis isomer of fumaric acid. This is an example of: A) biological activity. B) chiral activity. C) racemization. D) stereoisomerization. E) stereospecificity. - answer-stereospecificity Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and degrading it. This is an example of a(n): A) dynamic steady state. B) equilibrium state. C) exergonic change. D) free-energy change. E) waste of energy - answer-dynamic steady state If heat energy is absorbed by the system during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be: A) at equilibrium. B) endergonic. C) endothermic. D) exergonic. E) exothermic - answer-endothermic If the free energy change ∆G for a reaction is -46.11 kJ/mol, the reaction is: A) at equilibrium. B) endergonic. C) endothermic. D) exergonic. E) exothermic - answer-exergonic The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is: A) acetyl triphosphate. B) adenosine monophosphate. C) adenosine triphosphate. D) cytosine tetraphosphate. E) uridine diphosphate - answer-adenosine triphosphate Enzymes are biological catalysts that enhance the rate of a reaction by: A) decreasing the activation energy. B) decreasing the amount of free energy released. C) increasing the activation energy. D) increasing the amount of free energy released. E) increasing the energy of the transition state - answer-decreasing the activation energy Energy requiring metabolic pathways that yield complex molecules from simpler precursors are: A) amphibolic. B) anabolic. C) autotrophic. D) catabolic. E) heterotrophic - answer-anabolic Hereditary information (with the exception of some viruses) is preserved in: A) deoxyribonucleic acid. B) membrane structures. C) nuclei. D) polysaccharides. E) ribonucleic acid. - answer-deoxyribonucleic acid When a region of DNA must be repaired by removing and replacing some of the nucleotides, what ensures that the new nucleotides are in the correct sequence? A) DNA cannot be repaired and this explains why mutations occur. B) Specific enzymes bind the correct nucleotides. C) The new nucleotides base-pair accurately with those on the complementary strand. D) The repair enzyme recognizes the removed nucleotide and brings in an identical one to replace it. E) The three-dimensional structure determines the order of nucleotides. - answer-The new nucleotides base-pair accurately with those on the complementary strand The three-dimensional structure of a protein is determined primarily by: A) electrostatic guidance from nucleic acid structure. B) how many amino acids are in the protein. C) hydrophobic interaction with lipids that provide a folding framework. D) modification during interactions with ribosomes. E) the sequence of amino acids in the protein. - answer-the sequence of amino acids in the protein According to Oparin's theory for the origin of life, the prebiotic atmosphere: A) already contained some primitive RNA molecules. B) basically was very similar to the atmosphere of today. C) contained many amino acids. D) had an abundance of methane, ammonia, and water. E) was rich in oxygen. - answer-had an abundance of methane, ammonia, and water What six characteristics distinguish living organisms from inanimate objects? - answer-- are chemically complex and highly organized; - extract, transform, and use energy from their environment; - have the capacity to precisely self-replicate and self-assemble; - exploit a chemical interplay with their environment; - possess programmatically defined functions; and - evolve to new forms over many generations The chirality of an amino acid results from the fact that its α carbon: A) has no net charge. B) is a carboxylic acid. C) is bonded to four different chemical groups. D) is in the L absolute configuration in naturally occurring proteins. E) is symmetric. - answer-is bonded to four different chemical groups Of the 20 standard amino acids, only ___________ is not optically active. The reason is that its side chain ___________. A) alanine; is a simple methyl group B) glycine; is a hydrogen atom C) glycine; is unbranched D) lysine; contains only nitrogen E) proline; forms a covalent bond with the amino group - answer-glycine; is a hydrogen atom Two amino acids of the standard 20 contain sulfur atoms. They are: A) cysteine and serine. B) cysteine and threonine. C) methionine and cysteine D) methionine and serine E) threonine and serine. - answer-methionine and cysteine All of the amino acids that are found in proteins, except for proline, contain a(n): A) amino group. B) carbonyl group. C) carboxyl group. D) ester group. E) thiol group. - answer-amino group Which of the following statements about aromatic amino acids is correct? A) All are strongly hydrophilic. B) Histidine's ring structure results in its being categorized as aromatic or basic, depending on pH. C) On a molar basis, tryptophan absorbs more ultraviolet light than tyrosine. D) The major contribution to the characteristic absorption of light at 280 nm by proteins is the phenylalanine R group. E) The presence of a ring structure in its R group determines whether or not an amino acid is aromatic. - answer-On a molar basis, tryptophan absorbs more ultraviolet light than tyrosine. Which of the following statements about cysteine is correct? A) Cysteine forms when the -CH2-SH R group is oxidized to form a -CH2-S-S-CH2- disulfide bridge between two cysteines. B) Cysteine is an example of a nonstandard amino acid, derived by linking two standard amino acids. C) Cysteine is formed by the oxidation of the carboxylic acid group on cysteine. D) Cysteine is formed through a peptide linkage between two cysteines. E) Two cysteines are released when a -CH2-S-S-CH2- disulfide bridge is reduced to -CH2-SH. - answer-Cysteine forms when the -CH2-SH R group is oxidized to form a -CH2-S-S-CH2- disulfide bridge between two cysteines The uncommon amino acid selenocysteine has an R group with the structure -CH2-SeH (pKa ≈ 5). In an aqueous solution, pH = 7.0, selenocysteine would: A) be a fully ionized zwitterion with no net charge. B) be found in proteins as D-selenocysteine. C) never be found in a protein. D) be nonionic. E) not be optically active. - answer-be a fully ionized zwitterion with no net charge Amino acids are ampholytes because they can function as either a(n): A) acid or a base. B) neutral molecule or an ion. C) polar or a nonpolar molecule. D) standard or a nonstandard monomer in proteins. E) transparent or a light-absorbing compound - answer-acid or a base Titration of valine by a strong base, for example NaOH, reveals two pK's. The titration reaction occurring at pK2 (pK2 = 9.62) is: A) —COOH + OH− → —COO− + H2O. B) —COOH + —NH2 → —COO− + —NH2+. C) —COO− + —NH2+ → —COOH + —NH2. D) —NH3+ + OH− → —NH2 + H2O. E) —NH2 + OH− → —NH− + H2O. - answer-—NH3+ + OH− → —NH2 + H2O In a highly basic solution, pH = 13, the dominant form of glycine is: A) NH2—CH2—COOH. B) NH2—CH2—COO−. C) NH2—CH3+—COO−. D) NH3+—CH2—COOH. E) NH3+—CH2—COO−. - answer-NH2—CH3+—COO− For amino acids with neutral R groups, at any pH below the pI of the amino acid, the population of amino acids in solution will have: A) a net negative charge. B) a net positive charge. C) no charged groups. D) no net charge. E) positive and negative charges in equal concentration - answer-a net positive charge What is the approximate charge difference between glutamic acid and α-ketoglutarate at pH 9.5? A) 0 B) ½ C) 1 D) 1½ E) 2 - answer-½ The formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is an example of a(n) ______________reaction. A) cleavage B) condensation C) group transfer D) isomerization E) oxidation reduction - answer-condensation The peptide alanylglutamylglycylalanylleucine has: A) a disulfide bridge. B) five peptide bonds. C) four peptide bonds. D) no free carboxyl group. E) two free amino groups. - answer-four peptide bonds An octapeptide composed of four repeating glycylalanyl units has: A) one free amino group on an alanyl residue. B) one free amino group on an alanyl residue and one free carboxyl group on a glycyl residue. C) one free amino group on a glycyl residue and one free carboxyl group on an alanyl residue. D) two free amino and two free carboxyl groups. E) two free carboxyl groups, both on glycyl residues - answer-one free amino group on a glycyl residue and one free carboxyl group on an alanyl residue At the isoelectric pH of a tetrapeptide: A) only the amino and carboxyl termini contribute charge. B) the amino and carboxyl termini are not charged. C) the total net charge is zero. D) there are four ionic charges. E) two internal amino acids of the tetrapeptide cannot have ionizable R groups - answer-the total net charge is zero Which of the following is correct with respect to the amino acid composition of proteins? A) Larger proteins have a more uniform distribution of amino acids than smaller proteins. B) Proteins contain at least one each of the 20 different standard amino acids. C) Proteins with different functions usually differ significantly in their amino acid composition. D) Proteins with the same molecular weight have the same amino acid composition. E) The average molecular weight of an amino acid in a protein increases with the size of the protein. - answer-Proteins with different functions usually differ significantly in their amino acid composition The average molecular weight of the 20 standard amino acids is 138, but biochemists use 110 when estimating the number of amino acids in a protein of known molecular weight. Why? A) The number 110 is based on the fact that the average molecular weight of a protein is 110,000 with an average of 1,000 amino acids. B) The number 110 reflects the higher proportion of small amino acids in proteins, as well as the loss of water when the peptide bond forms. C) The number 110 reflects the number of amino acids found in the typical small protein, and only small proteins have their molecular weight estimated this way. D) The number 110 takes into account the relatively small size of nonstandard amino acids. E) The number 138 represents the molecular weight of conjugated amino acids. - answer-The number 110 reflects the higher proportion of small amino acids in proteins, as well as the loss of water when the peptide bond forms. In a conjugated protein, a prosthetic group is: A) a fibrous region of a globular protein. B) a nonidentical subunit of a protein with many identical subunits. C) a part of the protein that is not composed of amino acids. D) a subunit of an oligomeric protein. E) synonymous with "protomer." - answer-a subunit of an oligomeric protein Prosthetic groups in the class of proteins known as glycoproteins are composed of: A) carbohydrates. B) flavin nucleotides. C) lipids. D) metals . E) phosphates. - answer-carbohydrates Which of the following refers to particularly stable arrangements of amino acid residues in a protein that give rise to recurring patterns? A) Primary structure B) Secondary structure C) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure E) None of the above - answer-Secondary structure Which of the following describes the overall three-dimensional folding of a polypeptide? A) Primary structure B) Secondary structure C) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure E) None of the above - answer-Tertiary structure For the study of a protein in detail, an effort is usually made to first: A) conjugate the protein to a known molecule. B) determine its amino acid composition. C) determine its amino acid sequence. D) determine its molecular weight. E) purify the protein. - answer-purify the protein By adding SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) during the electrophoresis of proteins, it is possible to: A) determine a protein's isoelectric point. B) determine an enzyme's specific activity. C) determine the amino acid composition of the protein. D) preserve a protein's native structure and biological activity. E) separate proteins exclusively on the basis of molecular weight. - answer-separate proteins exclusively on the basis of molecular weight To determine the isoelectric point of a protein, first establish that a gel: A) contains a denaturing detergent that can distribute uniform negative charges over the protein's surface. B) exhibits a stable pH gradient when ampholytes become distributed in an electric field. C) is washed with an antibody specific to the protein of interest. D) neutralizes all ionic groups on a protein by titrating them with strong bases. E) relates the unknown protein to a series of protein markers with known molecular weights - answer-exhibits a stable pH gradient when ampholytes become distributed in an electric field The term specific activity differs from the term activity in that specific activity: A) is measured only under optimal conditions. B) is the activity (enzyme units) in a milligram of protein. C) is the activity (enzyme units) of a specific protein. D) refers only to a purified protein. E) refers to proteins other than enzymes. - answer-is the activity (enzyme units) in a milligram of protein The functional differences, as well as differences in three-dimensional structures, between two different enzymes from E. coli result directly from their different: A) affinities for ATP. B) amino acid sequences. C) roles in DNA metabolism. D) roles in the metabolism of E. coli. E) secondary structures. - answer-amino acid sequences One method used to prevent disulfide bond interference with protein sequencing procedures is: A) cleaving proteins with proteases that specifically recognize disulfide bonds. B) protecting the disulfide bridge against spontaneous reduction to cysteinyl sulfhydryl groups. C) reducing disulfide bridges and preventing their re-formation by further modifying the —SH groups. D) removing cystines from protein sequences by proteolytic cleavage. E) sequencing proteins that do not contain cysteinyl residues. - answer-reducing disulfide bridges and preventing their re-formation by further modifying the —SH groups Even when a gene is available and its sequence of nucleotides is known, chemical studies of the protein are still required to determine: A) molecular weight of the protein. B) the amino-terminal amino acid. C) the location of disulfide bonds. D) the number of amino acids in the protein. E) whether the protein has the amino acid methionine in its sequence. - answer-the location of disulfide bonds [Show Less]
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Biochemistry Test Review Grade 10 with correct verified answers 2024
Elements Found in Carbohydrates and Lipids - answer-Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen Elements Found in Proteins - answer-Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitro... [Show More] gen Elements Found in Nucleic Acids - answer-Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Phosphorous Three Monosaccharides - answer-Fructose, Glucose, and Galactose The Formula of a Monosaccharide - answer-C6H12O6 The Formula of a Disaccharide - answer-C12H22O11 Three Disaccharides - answer-Lactose, Sucrose, and Maltose Table Sugar - answer-Sucrose Three Polysaccharides - answer-Cellulose, Starch, and Glycogen Glucose + Fructose= - answer-Sucrose + Water Cellulose - answer-A structural polysaccharide in plants that is probably the most plentiful sugar on earth but provides no energy to humans. Glycogen - answer-An energy storage polysaccharide found in liver and muscle cells that is used when glucose is in short supply. Triglyceride - answer-A lipid that is composed of 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol. Solid at room temperature - answer-Saturated Fats Essential Amino Acids - answer-Amino acids that your body is unable to create but you need to survive. Nonessential Amino Acids - answer-Amino acids that are created in your body and don't need to be consumed. Keratin - answer-An example of structural proteins found in your hair Myelin - answer-A fatty covering over neurons that provides electrical insolation. A Complete Protein - answer-A protein that contains all essential amino acids. Starch - answer-A large energy storage polysaccharide found in potatoes and other plants. Unsaturated Bonds - answer-Healthiest fat of the three that contains a double bond between Carbon atoms. Nucleic Acids - answer-Contains a 5 Carbon sugar, Nitrogen ring base, and a Phosphate Molecule Monomers of Nucleic Acids - answer-Nucleotides Monomers of Proteins - answer-Amino Acids Trans Fats - answer-Unsaturated Fats that are very bad for your health. Phospholipids - answer-Lipids found in cell membranes. Actin and Myosin - answer-Proteins found in muscles that allow contractions. Peptide Bond - answer-Links amino acids together. Amount of amino acids that are used to make proteins - answer-20 Hydrogen's Charge - answer-Positive Oxygen's Charge - answer-Negative Lactase - answer-An enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose. Formula for Photosynthesis - answer-6H2O + 6O2= C6H12O6 + 6O2 Water - answer-Polar Compound [Show Less]
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Biochemistry Quiz with correct answers 2024.
carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids - answer-What are the four types of organic macromolecules? biochemical organic macromolecules - answ... [Show More] er-What is the official name for carbs, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids? carbon, hydrogen, oxygen - answer-What are the three elements that make up carbohydrates? monosaccharide - answer-What is the general term for a carbohydrate? glucose, galactose, fructose - answer-What are three examples of simple carbohydrates? hexagon, pentagon, hexagon - answer-What are the shapes of glucose, fructose, and galactose? C₆H₁₂O₆ - answer-What is the formula for carbohydrates? polymer - answer-What is a complex structure? monomer - answer-What is the simplest unit of a polymer? monosaccharides, disaccharides - answer-What types of carbohydrates are bad for you? polysaccharides - answer-What types of carbohydrates are good for you? glucose - answer-What is an example of a monosaccharide? sucrose - answer-What is an example of a disaccharide? amylose starch - answer-What is an example of a polysaccharide? disaccharide - answer-Which carbohydrate contains 2 monomers? C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ - answer-What is the formula for a disaccharide? polysaccharide - answer-Which carbohydrate contains 3 or more monomers? multiple C₆H₁₂O₆ by number of monomers, multiple H₂O by 1 less than number of monomers, subtract second number from first - answer-How do you find the formula for a polysaccharide? grains, fruits, veggies, sugars, blood sugar, cell membrane - answer-What are 6 examples of carbohydrates? name tag - answer-What do carbohydrates work as in the cell membrane? carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen - answer-Which elements make up proteins? H₂O - answer-What is released when two macromolecules bond together? amino acid - answer-What is the general term for a protein? 20 - answer-How many different types of amino acids are there? r group - answer-What part of the amino acid structure dictates what type of amino acid it becomes? amino acid - answer-What is this? dipeptide - answer-Which protein has 2 monomers? polypeptide - answer-Which protein has 3 or more monomers? primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary - answer-What are the 4 structural stages that a polypeptide goes through when it is folded? function - answer-What dictates the structure that a polypeptide will fold into? β pleated sheet - answer-What is the name of the parallel structures that polypeptides sometimes fold into? α helix - answer-What are the cylindrical sections that polypeptides sometimes fold into? domain - answer-What is the shape that polypeptides fold into during the tertiary phase? two or more chains bond together to make a protein - answer-How do the folded polypeptide chains form a protein in the quaternary phase? meat, poultry, fish, quinoa, muscles, hair, nails, cell membrane - answer-What are 8 examples of proteins? doors - answer-What do proteins act as in the cell membrane? carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, nitrogen - answer-What elements make up nucleic acids? nucleotide - answer-What is the general term for a nucleic acid? dinucleotide, polynucleotide - answer-What is the name of a nucleic acid that has 2 monomers? What is its name if it has 3 or more monomers? RNA - answer-What is the name when two nucleotides bond together? DNA - answer-What is the name when RNA bonds together in a chain? nucleic acid - answer-What is this? lipids - answer-Which organic macromolecule has more protein than the other two? carbon, hydrogen, oxygen - answer-What elements make up lipids? glycerol, fatty acid chains - answer-What are the building blocks of lipids? lipid - answer-What is this? they don't bond - answer-What is the name for a lipid with 2 or more monomers? butter, shortening, fat on meats, oils, nuts, cell membrane - answer-What are 6 examples of lipids? guards - answer-What do lipids act as in the cell membrane? L-tryptophan - answer-What is the amino acid found in some poultry that makes you tired? an amino acid found in poultry that makes you sleepy - answer-What is L-tryptophan? in the molecules of things we ingest - answer-How do we absorb nucleic acids? nucleic acids - answer-Which of the organic macromolecules do we not ingest purposely? ATP - answer-What are proteins, carbs, and lipids converted to? tertiary - answer-What is the polypeptide folding stage where everything compresses into a domain? quaternary - answer-What is the polypeptide folding stage where two folded structures bond together to form a protein? phosphate, sugar, base - answer-What three things make up a nucleic acid? unsaturated - answer-What does it mean when a fatty acid chain is not filled with hydrogens? saturated - answer-What does it mean when a fatty acid is completely filled with hydrogen? oxygen - answer-What part of glycerol do fatty acid chains bond to in lipids? first C double bonded to O, other Cs bonded to each other and Hs, last C bonded to H on end - answer-What dose the fatty acid chain look like? first C bonded to H on top and 1 side with O on other, second C bonded to H on 1 side and O on other, last C same as first - answer-What does glycerol look like? N bonded to two Hs and C, first C bonded to H and r, last C bonded to O and OH - answer-What does an amino acid look like? [Show Less]
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