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Test Package Bundle For Pathophysiology, Complete & Solid Test Bank
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Test Bank for Porth's Essentials of Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Tommie L Norris
Test Bank for Porth's Essentials of Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Tommie L Norris Test Bank for Porth's Essentials of Pathophysiology 5th edition by Tommi... [Show More] e L Norris 1. Chapter 1 Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by: A) Bound and transmembrane proteins B) Complex, long carbohydrate chains C) Surface antigens and hormone receptors D) A gating system of selective ion channels Feedback: The functions of plasma membrane depend on the presence of proteins that are bound in the lipid bilayer and some that have the ability to pass freely into and out of the cell. Carbohydrate chains form a cell coat that surrounds the membrane and that contain surface antigens and surface hormone receptors. Some ion channels are gated and open only when the membrane potential changes significantly. 2. Which describes the function of the nucleus? A) It is basically the site of protein synthesis in the body. B) It contains the genetic code for the individual. C) It is the transformer of cellular energy. D) It initiates the process of aerobic metabolism. Feedback: The nucleus contains DNA, which contains the genetic code that contains the information that controls cells. Ribosomes synthesize protein. Mitochondria transform organic compounds into cellular energy. Mitochondria require oxygen for aerobic metabolism, using hydrogen and carbon combined with oxygen molecules to form carbon dioxide and water as energy is released. 3. Which of the following aspects of the function of the nucleus is performed by ribosomal RNA (rRNA)? A) Copying and carrying DNA instructions for protein synthesis B) Carrying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis C) Providing the site where protein synthesis occurs D) Regulating and controlling protein synthesis Feedback: There are three types of ribonucleic acid (messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA) that move to the cytoplasm and carry out the actual synthesis of proteins. Messenger RNA (mRNA) copies and carries the DNA instructions for protein synthesis to the cytoplasm; ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is the site of protein synthesis; and transfer RNA (tRNA) transports amino acids to the site of protein synthesis for incorporation into the protein being synthesized. 4. Which accurately explains the functions of the organelles lysosomes? They: A) Are sacs filled with enzymes that breakdown and remove foreign substances and worn-out cell parts B) Function in association with the endoplasmic reticulum to modify protein end products and package them into secretory granules or vesicles C) Are small particles of nucleoproteins that are involved in the synthesis of proteins that remain in the cell as cytoplasmic structural or functional elements D) Are a dynamic system of interconnected membranous tubes that functions as a tubular communication system for transporting various substances from one part of the cell to another Feedback: Lysosomes are sacs that are filled with hydrolytic enzymes that aid in the processing and removal of unwanted substances within the cytoplasm. The Golgi apparatus functions in association with the endoplasmic reticulum to modify and package substances in preparation for secretion, whereas ribosomes are small particles of nucleoproteins that are involved in the synthesis of proteins. The ER is a tubular communication system for transporting various substances from one part of the cell to another. 5. Impairment in the function of peroxisomes would result in: A) Inadequate sites for protein synthesis B) An inability to transport cellular products across the cell membrane C) Insufficient energy production within a cell D) Accumulation of free radicals in the cytoplasm Feedback: Peroxisomes function in the control of free radicals; unless degraded, these highly unstable chemical compounds damage other cytoplasmic molecules. Peroxisomes do not directly contribute to energy production, protein synthesis, or transport of cellular secretions. 6. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the “power plants” of the cell because they: A) Contain RNA for protein synthesis B) Utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy C) Extract energy from organic compounds D) Store calcium bonds for muscle contractions Feedback: Mitochondria contain the enzymes needed for transforming organic compounds into energy that is easily accessible to the cell. Mitochondria contain their own DNA. Glycolysis is anaerobic metabolism and unrelated to oxidative energy. Mitochondria store phosphate bonds (such as in ATP) to power cellular functions. 7. Semen analysis indicates that the client's sperm have decreased motility. Which of the following cellular components may be defective within the client's sperm? A) Ribosomes B) Microtubules C) Mitochondria D) Microfilaments Feedback: Abnormalities in the structure and function of microtubules and consequent dysfunction of the flagella may contribute to impaired sperm motility. Ribosomes, microfilaments, and mitochondria do not directly contribute to movement in cells such as cilia and flagella. 8. When explaining the function of glycolysis as it relates to anaerobic metabolism, the faculty will mention which of the following key points? Select all that apply. A) Glycolysis requires the use of oxygen to begin the process. B) Glycolysis occurs in mitochondrion-lacking cells. C) Glycolysis provides the majority of the body's energy needs. D) Pyruvic acid is an end result from a series of reactions that converts glucose. , D Feedback: Glycolysis is the anaerobic process by which energy is liberated from glucose, and it is an important source of energy for cells that lack mitochondria. The process also provides a temporary source of energy for cells that are deprived of an adequate supply of oxygen. Glycolysis involves a sequence of reactions that converts glucose to pyruvic acid, with the concomitant production of ATP from ADP. It accounts for a small minority of the body's energy needs and results in NADH, hydrogen ions, ATP, and pyruvic acid. 9. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy to the body by: A) Removing the phosphate bonds from ATP B) Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water C) Activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm D) Breaking down glucose to form lactic acid Feedback: Aerobic metabolism involves the combination of carbon ions from dietary nutrients, hydrogen ions, and oxygen. The result is carbon dioxide and water as energy is released, which is stored in ATP. Phosphate bonds are added (not removed from) to ADP to form ATP. Pyruvate is formed from glucose in the anaerobic process of glycolysis and is converted to lactic acid during anaerobic metabolism. 10. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes a chemical messenger system to: A) Displace surface receptor proteins B) Accumulate within cell gap junctions C) Bind to contractile microfilaments D) Release secretions into extracellular fluid Feedback: Signals are transmitted by releasing chemical secretions into extracellular fluid. Chemical signals move through cell-to-cell junctions to reach other cells and may attach to surface receptor proteins. The cytoplasmic contractile microfilaments are incapable of transmitting communication signals. 11. Which identifies correctly how the G protein–linked receptors are similar? A) Their cytosolic domain has intrinsic enzyme activity. B) Insulin is an example of the second messenger cAMP, which binds to an enzyme-linked receptor. C) These linked receptors are involved in rapid synaptic signaling between cardiac electrical cells. D) They have a ligand-binding extracellular receptor component, which causes changes that activate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane. Feedback: Although there are differences among the G protein–linked receptors, all share a number of features. They all have a ligand-binding extracellular receptor component, which recognizes a specific ligand or first messenger. Upon ligand binding, they all undergo conformational changes that activate the G protein found on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane. Instead of having a cytosolic domain that associates with a G protein, enzyme-linked receptors have cytosolic domain either that has intrinsic enzyme activity or that associates directly with an enzyme. The binding of the hormone to a special transmembrane receptor results in activation of the enzyme adenylyl cyclase at the intracellular portion of the receptor. This enzyme then catalyzes the formation of the second messenger cAMP, which has multiple effects on cell function. Insulin, for example, acts by binding to an enzyme-linked receptor. Ion channel–linked receptors are involved in the rapid synaptic signaling between electrically excitable cells. 12. When working with a client who has end-stage renal disease (ESRD) and is receiving peritoneal dialysis, the concept of diffusion can be explained by which of the following statements? A) “If your potassium level is high, then K+ particles will move from your peritoneal cavity into the dialysis solution, where the concentration of K+ is lower.” B) “You will need to give yourself a potent diuretic so that you can pull the potassium into your blood stream and filter the potassium out in your kidneys.” C) “Your potassium molecules are lipid soluble and will dissolve in the lipid matrix of your cell membranes.” D) “If you can get very warm in a sauna, you will heat up your K+ particles, and the kinetic movement of the particles will increase and pass through the cell membranes faster.” Feedback: Diffusion refers to the passive process by which molecules and other particles in a solution become widely dispersed and reach a uniform concentration because of energy created by their spontaneous kinetic movements. In the process of reaching a uniform concentration, these molecules and particles move “downhill” from an area of higher to an area of lower concentration. Lipid-soluble molecules, such as oxygen, carbon dioxide, alcohol, and fatty acids (not K+), become dissolved in the lipid matrix of the cell membrane and diffuse through the membrane in the same manner that diffusion occurs in water. Diuretics are not very effective if a person has ESRD. The rate of diffusion depends on how many particles are available for diffusion, the kinetic movement of the particles, and the number and size of the openings in the membrane through which the molecules or ions can move. The environmental temperature does not play a role in this. 13. A male client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of glucose transporters in his cell membranes. Consequently, his cells lack intracellular glucose, and it accumulates in his blood. Which of the following processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Simple diffusion C) Secondary active transport D) Endocytosis Feedback: Transport molecules perform facilitated diffusion, in which one substance carries another substance across a cell membrane. Simple diffusion does not require a transport molecule. Glucose does not cross the cell membrane by secondary active transport or endocytosis. 14. The client asks the health care provider to explain phagocytosis. The provider will respond, “Phagocytosis: A) Is a cotransport system that helps with the absorption of the medication.” B) Is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration.” C) Uses proteins to form an open channel through which the drug can move into the cell.” D) Is a process where microorganisms are engulfed and subsequently degraded or killed.” Feedback: Phagocytosis, which means “cell eating,” involves the engulfment and subsequent killing or degradation of microorganisms and other particulate matter. Certain cells, such as macrophages and neutrophils, are adept at engulfing and disposing of invading organisms, damaged cells, and unneeded extracellular constituents. An example of cotransport occurs in the intestine, where the absorption of glucose and amino acids is coupled with sodium transport. The process of diffusion describes particle movement from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, resulting in an equal distribution of permeable substances across the cell membrane. Ion channels are integral proteins that span the width of the membrane and are normally composed of several polypeptides or protein subunits that form a gating system. Specific stimuli cause the protein subunits to undergo conformational changes to form an open channel or gate through which the ions can move. 15. Exocytosis allows granular content to be released into extracellular fluid by: A) Engulfing and ingesting fluid and proteins for transport B) Killing, degrading, and dissolving harmful microorganisms C) Removing cellular debris and releasing synthesized substances like hormones D) Destruction of particles by lysosomal enzymes for secretion Feedback: In exocytosis, a secretory granule fuses to the inner cell membrane to form an opening, allowing granule contents to be released. The granule contains cellular debris and synthesized substances such as hormones, which it releases into the extracellular fluid. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis—types of endocytosis—function to engulf, kill, and present particles to lysosomal enzymes for degradation. 16. The process responsible for generating and conducting membrane potentials is: A) Diffusion of current-carrying ions B) Millivoltage of electrical potential C) Polarization of charged particles D) Ion channel neurotransmission Feedback: Membrane potentials rely on the permeability of the cell membrane and the diffusion of electrically charged ions. Charged particles are polarized (positive charge on one side of the membrane and negative charge on the opposite side of the membrane), but membrane potential exists when the charges are unbalanced on the two sides. Ion channel neurotransmitters are involved with opening protein channels for purposes of cell-to-cell communication. 17. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the number of layers. Which of the following is a correctly matched description and type of epithelial tissue? A) Simple epithelium: cells in contact with the intercellular matrix; some do not extend to surface. B) Stratified epithelium: single layer of cells; all cells rest on the basement membrane. C) Glandular epithelium: arises from surface epithelia and underlying connective tissue. D) Pseudostratified epithelium: multiple layers of cells; the deepest layer rests on the basement membrane. Feedback: Glandular epithelial tissue is formed by cells to produce fluid and arises from surface epithelium, involving connective tissue. Simple epithelium is a single layer of cells resting on the basement membrane; stratified epithelium has more than one layer, with the deepest layer resting on the basement membrane. Pseudostratified epithelium is in contact with the intercellular matrix and may not extend to the surface. 18. Which body tissue exhibits the highest rate of turnover and renewal? A) The squamous epithelial cells of the skin B) The connective tissue supporting blood vessels C) The skeletal muscle that facilitates movement D) The nervous tissue that constitutes the central nervous system Feedback: Cells making up the epithelial tissues generally exhibit a high rate of turnover, which is related to their location and function. Renewal of connective and muscle tissue takes place at a much slower pace, whereas nervous tissue is incapable of postnatal regeneration. 19. While explaining to a post–surgical knee client about the various forms and function of connective tissue, the nurse gives the example of the client's surgical repair of a torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), which is due to: A) A reticular fiber problem that interrupted the framework for capillaries B) A dense regular connective tissue tear that is usually rich in collagen fibers that allows ligaments to join bone to bone C) An irregular, dense connective tissue tear of loose connective tissue that is located in the perichondrium D) Irregular filling of spaces between tissues to facilitate keeping of joints and tendons in their proper place Feedback: Dense regular connective tissues are rich in collagen fibers and form the tendons and aponeuroses that join muscles to bone or other muscles and the ligaments that join bone to bone. Dense irregular connective tissue consists of the same components found in loose connective tissue but exhibits a predominance of collagen fibers and fewer cells. This type of tissue can be found in the fibrous sheaths of cartilage (i.e., perichondrium) and bone (i.e., periosteum). Fibroblasts, the most abundant loose connective tissue cells, synthesize the gel-like substance and collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. Reticular fibers provide a fibrous framework for capillaries. Adipose tissue helps to fill spaces between tissues and keep organs in place. 20. A student asks the instructor what it means when the book states, skeletal muscles are syncytial or multinucleated? The instructor responds: A) “Each of the skeletal muscle cells has an apical, lateral, and basal surface.” B) “They are closely apposed and are joined by cell-to-cell adhesion molecules.” C) “This means that these muscles exhibit cross-striations formed by alternating segments of thick and thin protein filaments, with muscle cells having a branched appearance.” D) “If a skeletal muscle is injured and a portion dies, the adjacent sections of that same skeletal muscle fiber do not die because they have their own nuclear material.” Feedback: Skeletal muscles are syncytial or multinucleated structures, meaning there are no true cell boundaries within a skeletal muscle fiber. The multinucleated arrangement is important in pathologic states where focal necrosis (death) of a portion of skeletal muscle fibers does not result in necrosis death of the adjacent sections of that same skeletal muscle fiber, because those adjacent sections have their own nuclear material. Cardiac muscle exhibits cross-striations formed by alternating segments of thick and thin protein filaments. In contrast to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle cells may be branched instead of linear and longitudinal. The other noted qualities are associated with epithelial, not skeletal muscle, cells. produce vasoconstriction and shivering that decrease heat loss and increase heat production. [Show Less]
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Goulds Pathophysiology For The Health Professions 6th Edition Hubert Test Bank
Goulds Pathophysiology For The Health Professions 6th Edition Hubert Test Bank: 1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic d... [Show More] isease? a. An inherited disorder b. A combination of specific etiological factors c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment ANS: C [Show Less]
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PATHOPHYSIOLOGY THE BIOLOGIC BASIS FOR DISEASE IN ADULTS AND CHILDREN 8TH EDITION
MCCANCE: PATHOPHYSIOLOGY THE BIOLOGIC BASIS FOR DISEASE IN ADULTS AND CHILDREN 8TH EDITION KATHRYN L. MCCANCE TEST BANK Learn the what, how, and why of pat... [Show More] hophysiology! With in-depth descriptions of disease, disease etiology, and disease processes, Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children, 8th Edition Test Bank helps you understand the most important and most complex pathophysiology concepts [Show Less]
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TEST BANK FOR UNDERSTANDING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 7TH EDITION BY HUETHER | All Chapters Covered
TEST BANK FOR UNDERSTANDING PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 7TH EDITION BY HUETHER QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Chapter 01: Cellular Biology Huether: Understanding Pathophysiolog... [Show More] y, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student? a. A single circular chromosome b. A nucleus c. Free-floating nuclear material d. No organelles ANS: B The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A single circular chromosome called a prokaryote contains free-floating nuclear material but has no organelles. 2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy? a. Metabolic absorption b. Communication c. Secretion d. Respiration ANS: D The cell’s ability to absorb oxygen is referred to as respiration while its communication ability involves maintenance of a steadNy dynamic state, metabolic absorption provides nutrition, and secretion allows for the synthesizing of new substances. 3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Nucleus cytoplasm ANS: C The region of the cell that contains genetic material, including a large amount of ribonucleic acid, most of the DNA, and DNA-binding proteins, is the nucleolus, which is located within the cell’s nucleus. Mitochondria is associated with cellular respiration while ribosomes are involved with protein manufacturing. Cytoplasm is a fluid filling that is a component of the cell. 4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself? a. Peripheral membrane proteins b. Integral membrane proteins c. Glycoproteins d. Cell adhesion molecules ANS: B Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoprotein marks cells and does not float. 5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors? a. Oxygen b. Ribosomes c. Amphipathic lipids d. Ligands ANS: D Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane. 6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer? a. Decreased fibronectin b. Increased collagen c. Decreased elastin d. Increased glycoproteins ANS: A Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing them to travel or metastasize. 7. Which form of cell communication is used to relate to other cells in direct physical contact? a. Cell junction N b. Gap junction c. Desmosome d. Tight junction ANS: A Cell junctions hold cells together and permit molecules to pass from cell to cell. Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight junctions are associated with cellular communication. 8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurohormonal d. Hormonal ANS: A Paracrine signaling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of glucagon. None of the other options involve signaling that is associated with a local chemical mediator like insulin. 9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a: a. solute. b. substrate. c. receptor. d. ribosome. ANS: B Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and any of the remaining options. 10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which his muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that the problem is result of a deficiency of: a. GTP. b. AMP. c. ATP. d. GMP. ANS: C When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are involved in muscle contraction. 11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP? a. Digestion b. Glycolysis c. Oxidation d. Citric acid cycle ANS: D N While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP. 12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the nurse include? a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport c. S phase, G phase, and M phase d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion ANS: A Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular catabolism. 13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance? a. Electron-transport chain b. Aerobic glycolysis c. Anaerobic glycolysis d. Oxidative phosphorylation ANS: C When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance. 14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student understood the teaching? a. Osmosis b. Diffusion c. Hydrostatic pressure d. Active transport ANS: B Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient. 15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes? a. Small lipid-soluble molecules b. Large protein molecules c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP d. Electrically charged molecules ANS: D Electrolytes are electrically chaNrged molecules. They are not lipid soluble, they are not made up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production. 16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by: a. the concentration of sodium. b. plasma proteins. c. hydrostatic pressure. d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins. ANS: B Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. The concentration of sodium plays a role in tonicity. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel. Membrane transporter proteins are involved in active transport within a concentration gradient. 17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring: a. osmolality. b. osmolarity. c. osmotic pressure. d. oncotic pressure. ANS: A Osmolality measures the number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water, or the concentration of molecules per weight of water, while osmolarity measures the number of milliosmoles per liter of solution, or the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. Osmotic pressure is the amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water. Oncotic pressure is from plasma proteins, not body fluids. 18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the nurse describing? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Active transport ANS: A Blood reaching the capillary bed has a hydrostatic pressure of 25–30 mm Hg, which is sufficient force to push water across the thin capillary membranes into the interstitial space. Osmosis involves the movement of fluid from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. It does not involve pressure or force. Diffusion is the passive movement of a solute from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration. Active transport involves movement up a concentration gradient. 19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes? a. By passive electrolyte channels b. By coupled channels c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase) d. By diffusion N ANS: C The transporter protein ATPase is directly related to sodium and potassium transport via active transport. Electrolyte movements require energy and do not move passively, nor are they transported by diffusion. Enzymes, not electrolytes, are passed via coupled channels. 20. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an example of which of the following types of transport? a. Biport b. Uniport c. Antiport d. Symport ANS: D When ions are transported in one direction, it is termed symport. There is no such term as biport. Uniport refers to the movement of a single molecule. Antiport refers to the movement of molecules in the opposite direction. 21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis ANS: C Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles. 22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions occur. What is this cell cycle phase called? a. G1 b. S c. M d. G2 ANS: C The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis. 23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential? a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to nNegative. d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. ANS: B When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation. The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate. 24. A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is –70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential? a. K+ rushing into the cell b. Na+ rushing into the cell c. Na+ rushing out of the cell d. K+ rushing out of the cell ANS: A With voltage change, potassium rushes into, not out of, the cell. Sodium movement is not related to this process. 25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of: a. platelets. b. epidermal cells. c. connective tissue cells. d. fibroblast cells. ANS: C Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or fibroblast cells. 26. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as: a. anaphase. b. telophase. c. prophase. d. metaphase. ANS: A Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During telophase, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the spindle fibers disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell. 27. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction? a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development. b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle. c. Restrain cell growth and development. d. Provide nutrients for cell grNowth and development. ANS: A Cytokines play a major role in the regulation of tissue growth and development but do not restrain it. Cytokines help overcome intracellular braking mechanisms that restrain cell growth and promote cell growth, but they do not provide nutrients. 28. A student is reviewing functions of the cell. The student would be correct in identifying a chief function of the nerve cell as: a. sensory interpretation. b. conductivity. c. maintenance of homeostasis. d. communication. ANS: B Conductivity, not sensory interpretation, homeostasis, or communication, is one of the eight chief functions of nerve cells. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse recalls that the basic types of tissues are: (Select all that apply.) a. nerve. b. epithelial. c. mucosal. d. connective. e. skeletal. f. muscle. ANS: A, B, D, F The basic tissue types include nerve, epithelial, connective, and muscle. Mucosal is a type of epithelial cell while skeletal is a type of connective tissue. 2. Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. They contain no organelles. b. Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane. c. They contain a distinct nucleus. d. They contain histones. e. They contain a cellular membrane. ANS: A, B The prokaryotes lack a cellular membrane that encases nuclear material, thus they have no distinct nucleus; organelles and histones are also missing. N Chapter 02: Genes and Genetic Diseases Huether: Understanding Pathophysiology, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse recalls the basic components of DNA are: a. pentose sugars and four phosphate bases. b. a phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases. c. adenine, guanine, and purine. d. codons, oxygen, and cytosine. ANS: B The three basic components of DNA are deoxyribose; a phosphate molecule; and four types of nitrogenous, not phosphate, bases. DNA does not contain condone. 2. Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? a. Base pair substitutions b. Silent mutations c. Intron mutations d. Frameshift mutations ANS: D The frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs of the DNA molecule. This greatly alters the amino acid sequence, which affects protein synthesis. The base pair substitution is a type of mutation in which one base pair replaces another. Silent mutations do not change amino acids or protein synthesis. Intron mutations are part of RNA sequencing. N 3. The base components of DNA are: a. A, G, C, and U. b. P, G, C, and T. c. A, G, C, and T. d. X, XX, XY, and YY. ANS: C The four base components of DNA are cytosine, thymine, adenine, and guanine, and are commonly represented by their first letters (A, C, T, and G) and not components identified as P or U. X, XX, XY, and YY are components of human chromosomes. 4. A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand? a. CGATACGT b. TAGCCTAG c. TUGCCTUG d. UAGCCUAG ANS: B The consistent pairing of adenine with thymine and of guanine with cytosine is known as complementary base pairing; thus, A complements to T and C to G and vice versa throughout the strand. A complements to T; thus, the first letter must be a T. U does not represent a complement in the sequence. 5. A biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein. Which process is the biologist describing? a. Termination b. Transcription c. Translocation d. Translation ANS: D In translation, RNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide, interacting with transfer RNA (tRNA), a cloverleaf-shaped strand of about 80 nucleotides. Termination does not involve synthesis of protein. Transcription is the process by which DNA specifies a sequence of messenger RNA (mRNA). Translocation is the interchange of genetic material between nonhomologous chromosomes. 6. What is the result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis? a. Neurofibromatosis b. Nondisjunction c. Polyploidy d. Conjoined twins ANS: B Nondisjunction is an error in which homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate normally during meiosNis or mitosis. Neurofibromatosis is not due to chromosome failure during meiosis. Polyploidy occurs when a euploid cell has more than the diploid number of chromosomes. Conjoined twins are not due to chromosome failure during meiosis. 7. A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a cell. a. diploid b. euploid c. polyploid d. haploid ANS: C A polyploid cell is one in which a euploid cell has more than 23 pairs of chromosomes. A diploid cell is when the somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. A euploid cell is a cell with multiples of the normal number of chromosomes. A haploid cell has only one member of each chromosome pair, for a total of 23 chromosomes. 8. A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? a. Biploidy b. Triploidy c. Tetraploidy d. Aneuploidy ANS: C Tetraploidy is a condition in which euploid cells have 92 chromosomes. Biploidy is a euploid cell with two times more chromosomes, or 46. Triploidy is a zygote that has three copies of each chromosome, rather than the usual two. Aneuploidy is when an aneuploid cell does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. 9. The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called: a. reciprocal translocation. b. partial trisomy. c. inversion. d. Down syndrome. ANS: B Partial trisomy is a condition in which only an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell. A reciprocal translocation occurs when breaks take place in two different chromosomes and the material is exchanged. An inversion occurs when two breaks take place on a chromosome, followed by the reinsertion of the missing fragment at its original site, but in inverted order. Down syndrome is an aneuploidy of the twenty-first chromosome. 10. After a geneticist talks to a patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may genetic disease(s). a. only be a carrier of the b. have a mild form of the c. have two d. be sterile as a result of the ANS: B A chromosomal mosaic means the body has two or more different cell lines, each of which has a different karyotype; thus,Nthe person has a mild form of the disease. Mosaics are not only carriers; they have the disease; they have two different lines but not two different diseases; and they are not necessarily sterile. 11. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocations ANS: C The most common cause of Down syndrome is maternal, not paternal, nondisjunction. Translocation is not a cause of this syndrome. 12. A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the nurse’s best response? a. Fetal exposure to mutagens in the uterus b. Increased paternal age c. Family history of Down syndrome d. Pregnancy in women over age 35 ANS: D [Show Less]
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