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TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 8TH EDITION, 9TH EDITION & 7TH EDITION, BY MCCANCE, SUE E. HUETHER | ALL CHAPTERS COVERED, COMPLETE LATEST GUIDE 2024.
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TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 7TH EDITION BY JACQUELYN L. BANASIK CHAPTER 1-54 COMPLETE GUIDE 2023.
TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 7TH EDITION BY JACQUELYN L. BANASIK |ALL CHAPTERS 1-54 COMPLETE GUIDE 2023. Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology T... [Show More] est Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3° F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustule . He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is a. a sore throat. b. streptococcal infection. c. genetic susceptibility. d. pharyngitis. ANS: B Etiology refers to the proposed cause or causes of a particular disease process. A sore throat is the manifestation of the disease process. Genetic susceptibility refers to inherited tendency to develop a disease. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the throat and is also a clinical manifestation of the disease process. REF: Pg. 2 A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. disease treatment. ANS: A Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals by providvaccination. Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease. Tertiary prevention includeehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Disease treatment involvesmanagement of the disease once it has developed. REF: Pg. 9 An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. disease treatment. ANS: B Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease such as prescribing diet and exercise for individual who has already developed obesity. Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducingexposure for susceptible individuals. Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Disease treatment involves management of the disease once it has developed. REF: Pgs. 9-10 A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. disease treatment. A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illnesscalled the _____ stage. a. prodromal b. latent c. sequela d. convalescence ANS: B Incubation refers to the interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptomIn infectious diseases, this period is often called the incubation (latent) period. Prodromal refers to the appearance of the first siand symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. These are often nonspecific, such as headache, malaise, anorexia, and nausea, which are associated with a number of different diseases. Sequela refers to subsequent pathologic condition resulting from a disease. Convalescence is the stage of recovery after a disease, injury, or surgical operation. REF: Pg. 3 7. A disease that is native to a particular region is called a. epidemic. b. endemic. c. pandemic. d. ethnographic. ANS: B A disease that is native to a particular region is called endemic. An epidemic is a disease that spreads to many individuals at the same time. Pandemics are epidemics that affect large geographic regions, perhaps spreading worldwide. REF: Pg. 6 8. In general, with aging, organ size and function a. increase. b. decrease. c. remain the same. d. is unknown. ANS: B In general, with aging, organ size and function decrease. REF: Pg. 5 The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as a. latent. b. subclinical. c. prodromal. d. convalescence. ANS: B The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is called the subclinstage. The interval between exposure of a tissue to an injurious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms may be caa latent period or, in the case of infectious diseases, an incubation period. The prodromal period, or prodrome, refers to the appearance of the first signs and symptoms indicating the onset of a disease. Convalescence is the stage of recovery after a diseainjury, or surgical operation. REF: Pg. 3 MULTIPLE RESPONSE COMPLETION 12. When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be ________. ANS: idiopathic Many diseases are idiopathic in nature. REF: Pg. 2 The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this di. in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is term________. ANS: sensitivity The sensitivity of any test refers to the probability that the test will be positive when applied to a person with the condition and wnot provide a false negative result. In contrast, specificity is the probability that a test will be negative when applied to a persondoes not have a given condition. REF: Pg. 5 Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except a. tachycardia. b. diaphoresis. c. increased peripheral resistance. d. pupil constriction. ANS: D Pupils dilate during stress from the effects of catecholamines. Tachycardia, diaphoresis, and increased peripheral resistance are indicators of stress and also occur due to catecholamine release. REF: Pg. 18 | Pg. 21 2. Which is not normally secreted in response to stress? a. Norepinephrine b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Insulin ANS: D Insulin secretion is impaired during stress to promote energy from increased blood glucose. Norepinephrine is secreted during stress as a mediator of stress and adaptation. Cortisol is secreted during stress as a mediator of stress and adaptation and stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver to supply the body with glucose. Epinephrine is secreted during stress as a mediator of stress and adaptation and increases glycogenolysis and the release of glucose from the liver. REF: Pg. 17 3. Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except a. allostasis. b. resistance. c. alarm. d. exhaustion. ANS: A Allostasis is defined as the ability to successfully adapt to challenges. Allostasis may/may not occur in response to stress. Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the three phases of the stress response as described by Selye in the general adaptation syndrome. REF: Pgs. 13-14 4. Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by a. norepinephrine. b. cortisol. https://www.coursehero.com/file/12947129/Pathophysiology-Chapter-2/ c. glucagon. d. ACTH. ANS: A Norepinephrine is secreted in response to activation of the sympathetic nervous system during stress by the adrenal medulla. Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex. Glucagon is secreted by the pancreas. ACTH is secreted by the pituitary gland. [Show Less]
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Test Bank For Pathophysiology 9th Edition McCance and Huether’s, 2023-2024 Chapter 1-49
Test Bank For Pathophysiology 9th Edition McCance and Huether’s,The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children By Julie Rodgers 2023/2024 /All Ch... [Show More] apters 1-49 Complete Guide. Chapter 1: Cellular Biology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption? a. Cells can produce proteins. c. Cells can take in and use nutrients. b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes. d. Cells can synthesize fats. ANS: C In metabolic absorption, all cells take in and use nutrients and other substances from their surroundings. The remaining options are not inclusive in their descriptions of cellular metabolic absorption. PTS: 1 REF: Page 2 2. Most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the: a. Mitochondria c. Nucleolus b. Ribosome d. Lysosome ANS: C The nucleus contains the nucleolus, a small dense structure composed largely of RNA, most of the cellular DNA, and the DNA-binding proteins, such as the histones, which regulate its activity. The other options do not contain most of a cell’s genetic information. PTS: 1 REF: Page 2 3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H 2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? a. Lysosomes c. Ribosomes b. Peroxisomes d. Oxyhydrosomes ANS: B Peroxisomes are so named because they usually contain enzymes that use oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction that produces H2O2, which is a powerful oxidant and potentially destructive if it accumulates or escapes from peroxisomes. Ribosomes are RNA-protein complexes (nucleoproteins) that are synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm through pores in the nuclear envelope called nuclear pore complexes. Lysosomes are saclike structures that originate from the Golgi complex and contain more than 40 digestive enzymes called hydrolases, which catalyze bonds in proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates. Oxyhydrosomes are involved in enzyme production. PTS: 1 REF: Page 8 4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. Ribosome c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi complex d. Lysosomes ANS: D The lysosomal membrane acts as a protective shield between the powerful digestive enzymes within the lysosome and the cytoplasm, preventing their leakage into the cytoplasmic matrix. Disruption of the membrane by various treatments or cellular injury leads to a release of the lysosomal enzymes, which can then react with their specific substrates, causing cellular self-digestion. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Pages 7-8 5. What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cell? a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane. b. The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the lysosome for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane. c. The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane. d. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in a cytosol to the cell membrane. ANS: A The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Page 7 | Figure 1-5 6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized? a. G1 c. G2 b. S d. M ANS: B The four designated phases of the cell cycle are: (1) the G1 phase (G = gap), which is the period between the M phase (M = mitosis) and the start of DNA synthesis; (2) the S phase (S = synthesis), during which DNA is synthesized in the cell nucleus; (3) the G2 phase, during which RNA and protein synthesis occurs, the period between the completion of DNA synthesis and the next phase (M); and (4) the M phase, which includes nuclear and cytoplasmic division. PTS: 1 REF: Page 37 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? a. Lipids c. Proteins b. Proteases d. Carbohydrates ANS: C Proteins act as (1) recognition and binding units (receptors) for substances moving in and out of the cell; (2) pores or transport channels for various electrically charged particles called ions or electrolytes and specific carriers for amino acids and monosaccharides; and (3) specific enzymes that drive active pumps that promote the concentration of certain ions, particularly potassium (K+ ), within the cell while keeping concentrations of other ions, for example, sodium (Na+ ), below the concentrations found in the extracellular environment. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Page 13 | Page 15 8. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades, such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascades, may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases? a. Cardiac and vascular disorders b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders c. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders d. Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders ANS: B Understanding the various steps involved in this process is crucial for designing drug interventions. Dysregulation of proteases features prominently in many human diseases, including cancer, autoimmunity, and neurodegenerative disorders. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Page 15 9. Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? a. Carbohydrate chains c. Membrane channel proteins b. Glycoprotein channels d. Lipid bilayer ANS: D The bilayer’s structure accounts for one of the essential functions of the plasma membrane. It is impermeable to most water-soluble molecules (molecules that dissolve in water) because the water-soluble molecules are insoluble in the oily core region. The bilayer serves as a barrier to the diffusion of water and hydrophilic substances while allowing lipid-soluble molecules, such as oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2), to diffuse through it readily. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Pages 12-13 10. The fluid mosaic model explains: a. How a cell membrane functions b. Why our bodies appear to be solid c. How tissue is differentiated d. How fluid moves between the intracellular and extracellular compartments ANS: A The fluid mosaic model accounts for the flexibility of cellular membranes, their selfsealing properties, and their impermeability to many substances. The remaining options do not explain the mosaic model. PTS: 1 REF: Page 12 | What's New box 11. Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact? a. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands ANS: A Cells communicate by using hundreds of kinds of signal molecules, for example, insulin. Cells communicate in three main ways; they display plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (receptors) that affect the cell itself and other cells in direct physical contact. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Page 20 12. Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away? a. Paracrine c. Neurotransmitter b. Autocrine d. Hormonal ANS: D Chemical signaling can be classified into three categories: (1) local-chemical mediator, (2) hormone, and (3) neurotransmitter. In the local-chemical mediator model, the secreted chemical acts on the cells in the immediate environment. Hormones are used for communication with distant target cells. For example, cells can secrete a chemical and rely on the blood system to deliver the signal to a distant cell. Finally, neurotransmitters are secreted by neurons to stimulate an adjoining cell. For example, a neuron might secrete acetylcholine to stimulate the movement of a muscle cell. PTS: 1 REF: Page 20 13. Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized? a. Paracrine c. Neurotransmitter b. Autocrine d. Hormone ANS: A In paracrine signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 REF: Page 20 14. Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to: a. Lipids c. Amphipathic lipids b. Ribosomes d. Receptors ANS: D In each type of chemical signaling, the target cell receives the signal by first attaching to its receptors. The other options do not correctly describe this process. 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TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 8th Edition by McCance, Sue E. Huether |All Chapters 1-50
TEST BANK FOR PATHOPHYSIOLOGY THE BIOLOGIC BASIS FOR DISEASE IN ADULTS AND CHILDREN 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance, Sue E. Huether | Questions And Compl... [Show More] ete Solutions | All Chapters 1-50. Chapter 01: Cellular Biology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption? a. Cells can produce proteins. b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes. c. Cells can take in and use nutrients. d. Cells can synthesize fats. ANS: C In metabolic absorption, all cells take in and use nutrients and other substances from their surroundings. The remaining options are not inclusive in their descriptions of cellular metabolic absorption. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 2. Where is most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Lysosome ANS: C The nucleus contains the nucleolus, a small dense structure composed largely of RNA, most of the cellular DNA, and the DNA-binding proteins, such as the histones, which regulate its activity. The mitochondria are responsible for cellular respiration and energy production. Ribosomes’ chief function is to provide sites for cellular protein synthesis. Lysosomes function as the intracellular digestive system. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? a. Lysosomes b. Peroxisomes c. Ribosomes d. Endosome ANS: B Test Bank - Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children (8th) 5 Peroxisomes are so named because they usually contain enzymes that use oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction that produces H2O2, which is a powerful oxidant and potentially destructive if it accumulates or escapes from peroxisomes. Ribosomes are RNA-protein complexes (nucleoproteins) that are synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm through pores in the nuclear envelope called nuclear pore complexes. Lysosomes are saclike structures that originate from the Golgi complex and contain more than 40 digestive enzymes called hydrolases, which catalyze bonds in proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates. An endosome is a vesical that has been pinched off from the cellular membrane. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. Ribosome b. Golgi complex c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes ANS: D The lysosomal membrane acts as a protective shield between the powerful digestive enzymes within the lysosome and the cytoplasm, preventing their leakage into the cytoplasmic matrix. Disruption of the membrane by various treatments or cellular injury leads to a release of the lysosomal enzymes, which can then react with their specific substrates, causing cellular selfdigestion. The chief function of a ribosome is to provide sites for cellular protein synthesis. The Golgi complex is a network of flattened, smooth vesicles and membranes often located near the cell nucleus. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in steroid hormone production and removing toxic substances from the cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 5. Which cAMP-mediated response is related to antidiuretic hormone? a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction b. Secretion of cortisol c. Increased retention of water d. Breakdown of fat ANS: C Antidiuretic hormone leads to increased retention of water in the body. Epinephrine causes increases in heart rate and force of contraction. Increased cortisol secretion is due to ACTH. Breakdown of fat is due to glucagon. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized? a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M Test Bank - Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children (8th) 6 ANS: B The four designated phases of the cell cycle are: (1) the G1 phase (G = gap), which is the period between the M phase (M = mitosis) and the start of DNA synthesis; (2) the S phase (S = synthesis), during which DNA is synthesized in the cell nucleus; (3) the G2 phase, during which RNA and protein synthesis occurs, the period between the completion of DNA synthesis and the next phase (M); and (4) the M phase, which includes nuclear and cytoplasmic division. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? a. Lipids b. Proteases c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates ANS: C Proteins have several functions, including acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps Lipids help act as the ―glue‖ holding cell membranes together. Proteases cause the breakdown of protein. Carbohydrates are involved in cellular protection and lubrication and help produce energy via oxidative phosphorylation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 8. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases? a. Cardiac and vascular disorders b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders c. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders d. Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders ANS: B Understanding the various steps involved in this process is crucial for designing drug interventions. Dysregulation of proteases features prominently in many human diseases, including cancer, autoimmunity, and neurodegenerative disorders. Cardiac, vascular, gastrointestinal, renal, and endocrine disorders do not involve this process. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 9. Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? a. Carbohydrate chains b. Glycoprotein channels c. Membrane channel proteins d. Lipid bilayer ANS: D Test Bank - Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children (8th) 7 The bilayer’s structure accounts for one of the essential functions of the plasma membrane. It is impermeable to most water-soluble molecules (molecules that dissolve in water) because the water-soluble molecules are insoluble in the oily core region. The bilayer serves as a barrier to the diffusion of water and hydrophilic substances while allowing lipid-soluble molecules, such as oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2), to diffuse through it readily. Carbohydrate chains, glycoprotein channels, and membrane channel proteins do not prevent water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the cell membrane. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 10. A student asks for an explanation of the absolute refractory period of the action potential. What response by the professor is best? a. A stronger than normal impulse will evoke another response. b. No stimulus is able to evoke another response at this time. c. Multiple stimuli can produce more rapid action potentials. d. The hyperpolarized state means a weaker stimulus produces a response. ANS: B During the absolute refractory state of the action potential, no stimulus is able to evoke another response from the cell. A stronger than normal impulse may generate a response in the relative refractory period. This period of time is not related to the number of stimuli. A hyperpolarized state means a stronger than normal stimulus would be needed to generate a response. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 11. Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact? a. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands ANS: B Cells communicate in three main ways; they display plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules that affect the cell itself and other cells in direct physical contact with it, they affect receptor proteins inside the target cell, and they form protein channels (gap junctions) that directly coordinate the activities of adjacent cells. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. Ligands are involved in binding processes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 12. Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurotransmitter d. Hormonal Test Bank - Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children (8th) 8 ANS: D Chemical signaling can be classified into three categories: (1) local-chemical mediator, (2) hormone, and (3) neurotransmitter. Hormones are released by one set of cells and travel through tissues or the bloodstream to another set of cells where they produce a response by those cells. In paracrine signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly absorbed, destroyed, or immobilized. Paracrine signaling requires close membrane-to-membrane contact. Paracrine signaling usually involves different cell types; however, cells also may produce signals that they, themselves, respond to, which is called autocrine signaling. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 13. Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurotransmitter d. Hormone ANS: A In paracrine signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized. Autocrine signaling occurs when the target cells produce signals that they themselves respond to. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. Hormones are released by one set of cells and travel through tissues or the bloodstream to another set of cells where they produce a response by those cells. [Show Less]
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