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PN MANAGEMENT 2017 A ATI QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.
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PN MANAGEMENT 2017 A ATI QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS.
of all of the following, which would not be found in the definition of a psychological disorder? -impaired functions -medication -distress -psychologic... [Show More] al dysfunction CORRECT ANSWER medication what is true regarding the use of "normal" in the determination of a psychological disorder? CORRECT ANSWER a given behavior can be abnormal without being pathological bailey has decided that he wants to get a graduate degree that focuses on the scientific study of psychological disorders. given this ambition, to which type of program would you encourage him to apply? CORRECT ANSWER a program in psychopathology what type of mental health professional needs to have a medical degree CORRECT ANSWER a psychiatrist you are treating a man who has been suffering from a relatively short-term bout of major depressive disorder. his symptoms started after a major life stressor, and you know that in such cases proper therapy is often quite effective in bringing about a full recovery. when he asks you if he's going to be better soon, you might say to him, "the ________ is very good!" CORRECT ANSWER prognosis during the Great Persian Empire from 900 to 600 B.C., all physical and mental disorders were considered to be CORRECT ANSWER the work of the devil what concept may potentially underlie the phenomenon of mass hysteria, which occurs when there is a large-scale outbreak of bizarre and disturbed behavior? CORRECT ANSWER emotional contagion which roman physician took up the theories of Hippocrates and extended them with a theory that normal brain functioning is related to a proper balance of four bodily fluids or humors? CORRECT ANSWER Galen in the late 1800s, physicians discovered that patients suffering from a condition called general paresis could be cured by engaging in which of the following actions? CORRECT ANSWER injecting them with the blood of a person who was suffering from malaria it is 1930 and you live in Vienna, Austria. You have recently developed the symptoms of a psychosis and you are sent to physician Manfred sakel. what treatment would he probably recommend? CORRECT ANSWER insulin shock therapy while the moral treatment of those with psychological difficulties has been seen throughout history, it was formalized as a system by ________ at the Parisian hospital la bicêtre. CORRECT ANSWER Phillippe pinel what is not true regarding the spread of moral therapy to the United States? CORRECT ANSWER moral therapy was introduced at a hospital in New Hampshire after its chief physician saw the effect of such methods in London which crusader for the moral and humane treatment of mentally ill individuals campaigned tirelessly in an effort that came to be known as the mental hygiene movement? CORRECT ANSWER dorothea dix Sigmund Freud is often credited with the discovery of the unconscious mind, but many forget that ________, who worked on various forms of hypnosis, was also a key figure in this very important discovery. CORRECT ANSWER Josef breur when you are walking across campus, you see two people standing in the middle of the quad kissing passionately. completely oblivious to how inappropriate their behavior is or how uncomfortable they are making others, these two just keep kissing without a care in the world. according to Freud, the couple is at the whim of their ________. CORRECT ANSWER ids Adam is very stressed about the fact that he has not paid his taxes in several years and he knows that he owes the government several thousand dollars (that he does not have). every time he thinks about his debt he becomes upset, so he tells himself that he is really refusing to pay taxes to protest the government's foolish spending. Adam is employing the defense mechanism of CORRECT ANSWER rationalization in Freud’s psychosexual stages of development, little boys are believed to experience ________ anxiety during the phallic stage of development. this was conceptualized as a result of the fear of their father over their inappropriate desire for their mother. CORRECT ANSWER castration anxiety what was the primary emphasis of Heinz kohut's self-psychology? CORRECT ANSWER The formation of the self-concept and the crucial attributes of the self that allow one to progress toward health whose study of classical conditioning provided quite a bit of the foundation for what later became the behavioral perspective in psychology? CORRECT ANSWER Ivan Pavlov young Matthew, only 2 years of age, is learning to use the toilet. first his mother gives him smiles and hugs when he walks into the bathroom. then his father gives him songs and praise when he points to the potty. when he agrees to sit on his potty seat his parents sing and dance, making him smile and laugh. finally, when he begins to actually use the potty, his parents give him some candy that he loves. Matthew is being taught to use the potty through the process of CORRECT ANSWER shaping [Show Less]
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CLP 4110 EATING DISORDERS FSU
which has thicker cortical plate, maxillary or mandibular? CORRECT ANSWER mandibular (this decreased the amount of the local anesthesia molecules that can ... [Show More] penetrate to nerves during infiltration injections) due to the thickness of cortical bone, which is a good option for local anesthetic in the mandibular arch during infiltrations? CORRECT ANSWER Articaine (Septocaine) is sometimes effective for mand. infiltrations (4% vs. 2% for lidocaine) due to the increased number of molecules hematomas are most common with which type of injection, and why? CORRECT ANSWER PSA due to nicking a vessel in the pterygoid plexus of veins what is the TX for a hematoma? CORRECT ANSWER pressure, cold compresses on/off, NSAIDS, and time. a positive aspiration when administering a PSA is due to what? CORRECT ANSWER aspirating hemorrhage caused by injection what are the three most common locations for hematomas to occur? CORRECT ANSWER 1. PSA 2. IA 3. mental blanching of the tissue following/during an injection is caused by what? CORRECT ANSWER vasospasm/vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine or brushing against autonomic nerves stimulation vasospasm the pterygomandibular space/triangle is bordered by what anatomical structures? CORRECT ANSWER ramus, lateral pterygoid muscle, and medial pterygoid muscle the pterygomandibular space/triangle is identified intra-orally by what? CORRECT ANSWER pterygoid hamulus (palpation), coronoid notch (palpation), and pterygomandibular raphe (visual) the mandibular foramen lies approx. __________________________ of the distance from the anterior border of the ramus to the posterior border CORRECT ANSWER 1/2 to 2/3 Antero-posteriorly, the greater palatine foramen is located between the ___________________________. CORRECT ANSWER middle of the maxillary second molar and the middle of the third molar in about 80-90% of patients. all arteries leading to the oral cavity receive blood from what? CORRECT ANSWER external carotid (most are direct or indirect branches from the maxillary artery with the exception of the lingula -- this is a direct branch from the external carotid) veins from the oral cavity will drain into what? CORRECT ANSWER internal jugular (both internal and external drain into the brachiocephalic veins which drain to the superior vena cava do myelinated or un-myelinated nerves create faster impulse? CORRECT ANSWER myelinated (impulses jump from node to node -- node of ranvier) what is saltatory conduction? CORRECT ANSWER the process of nerve impulses jumping from nodes of ranvier along a myelinated nerve what is the resting potential charges of a nerve? CORRECT ANSWER inside is negative and outside is positive what molecules are predominately outside/inside at resting potential? CORRECT ANSWER Na+ outside and K+ inside what is depolarization? CORRECT ANSWER Na+ channels open, Na+ flows in reversing polarity; K+ flows out to restore neutrality; the Na+ and K+ pumps restore polarity (resting potential) what is the mechanism of action for local anesthetics? CORRECT ANSWER blocks the Na+ channels preventing depolarization what is the basic structure of anesthetics? CORRECT ANSWER aromatic ring (lipid soluble), intermediate chain (amide or ester configuration), and terminal amine (able to ionize and become water soluble) lipophilic vs. hydrophyllic CORRECT ANSWER lipophilic is lipid soluble and hydrophyllic is water soluble what makes the terminal amine so important to the structure of local anesthetic? CORRECT ANSWER this allows the local anesthetic to the both lipid soluble and water soluble at the appropriate times (ex: hydrophyllic for dilution and pH control; lipophyllic in order to penetrate neuron cell membrane; hydrophyllic to block Na+ channels) what is pKa and what does it do? CORRECT ANSWER the dissociation constant - this identifies the pH at which the anesthetic exists in a 50/50 ratio of the ionized to non-ionized (hydrophyllic to lipophyllic) molecules lipid solubility of local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER the different structure of the various anesthetics confers varying degrees of lipid solubility (the greater the lipid solubility of the basic molecule the more potent it is) protein binding of local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER the greater degree of protein binding, the more molecules you have waiting in reserve for later action (the more proteins bound, the longer the duration) vasodilation and the local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER with the exception of cocaine, all anesthetics are vasodilators (undesirable as this promotes quicker vascular uptake/metabolism and therefore less anesthetic action) what is biotransformation? CORRECT ANSWER metabolism where are amides metabolized and where are esters metabolized? CORRECT ANSWER amides: liver (in order to be rendered water soluble so that they can be excreted in the kidneys) esters: plasma by cholinesterase (more rapid than hepatic leading to shorter duration) what is the only amide anesthetic that also contains an ester group, and how is it metabolized? CORRECT ANSWER Articaine (septocaine) this agent is metabolized both hepatically and by plasma cholinesterase ester onset and duration CORRECT ANSWER slow onset with short duration amide onset and duration CORRECT ANSWER fast onset and longer duration are esters or amides more likely for toxicity? CORRECT ANSWER esters are more likely to cause toxicity what does NaCl do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER makes the solution isotonic what does HCL do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER lower the pH for the addition of epinephrine what does epinephrine do the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER reduce absorption rates at site of injection (increase duration/reduce blood levels - toxicity) what do bisulfites do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER reduce the oxidation of the epinephrine (longer shelf-life) what does methylparaben do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER agent used for its antibacterial action that is no longer contained in dental cartridges, only in multiple dose vials what are all of the effects that result when epinephrine is added to a solution? CORRECT ANSWER increased heart rate, increased systolic pressure, lowers diastolic pressure what is the MCD (maximum cardiac dose) of epinephrine? CORRECT ANSWER 0.04 mg (40ug) what are the available options for lidocaine? CORRECT ANSWER 2% either with 1:100,000 or 1: 50,000 epi what are the available options for mepivacaine? CORRECT ANSWER 3% plain or 2% with 1:20,000 levonordefrin what are the available options for prilocaine? CORRECT ANSWER 4% plain and 4% with 1:200,000 epi what are the available options for articaine? CORRECT ANSWER 4% with 1:100,000 epi only what are the available options for bupivacaine? CORRECT ANSWER 0.5% with 1: 200,000 epi only what is the shortest acting anesthetic and what is the longest acting anesthetic? CORRECT ANSWER shortest: mepivacaine longest: bupivacaine [Show Less]
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HOSPITAL ORIENTATION QUIZ WITH 100
The nurse is completing the admission assessment of a 3-year old who is admitted with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. Which assessment finding is e... [Show More] vidence that the child is experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? A. Tachycardia and tachypnea B. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses C. Increased head circumference and bulging fontanels D. Blood pressure fluctuations and syncope CORRECT ANSWER B. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe, piercing abdominal pain and an elevated serum amylase. Which additional information is the client most likely to report to the nurse? A. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine B. Pain lasts an hour and leaves the abdomen tender C. Right upper quadrant pain refers to right scapula D. Drinks alcohol until intoxicated at least twice weekly. CORRECT ANSWER A. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge? A. Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily. B. Signs of addiction to opioid pain medications C. Information about non-pharmaceutical pain relief measures D. Referral for social services for the child and family CORRECT ANSWER A. Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily To auscultate for a carotid bruit, the nurse places the stethoscope at what location. (Select the location on the image with a red dot). CORRECT ANSWER I placed the red dot on the base of the neck on the right side After receiving report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first? A. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds C. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid D. The client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity CORRECT ANSWER D. The client with a bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity A teenager presents to the emergency department with palpitations after vaping at a party. The client is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. The nurse anticipates the client developing which acid base imbalance? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Metabolic acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis CORRECT ANSWER D. Respiratory alkalosis A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position? A. Supine B. supine; feet elevated higher than head C. supine; head elevated higher than feet D. Fowlers CORRECT ANSWER Fowlers The nurse is taking the blood pressure measurement of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which information in the client's admission assessment is relevant to the nurse's plan for taking the blood pressure reading? (Select all the apply) A. Frequent syncope B. Occasional nocturia C. Flat affect D. Blurred vision E. Frequent drooling CORRECT ANSWER A. Frequent syncope C. Flat affect D. Blurred vision While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values? A. Serum albumin B. Culture for sensitive organisms C. Serum blood glucose level D. Creatinine level CORRECT ANSWER B. Culture for sensitive organisms A preschool-aged boy is admitted to the pediatric unit following successful resuscitation from a near-drowning incident. While providing care to the child, the nurse begins talking with his preadolescent brother who rescued the child from the swimming pool and initiated resuscitation. The nurse notices the older boy becomes withdrawn when asked about what happened. Which action should the nurse take? A. Develop a water safety teaching plan for the family B. Ask the older brother how he felt during the incident C. Tell the older brother that he seems depressed D. Commend the older brother for his heroic actions CORRECT ANSWER B. Ask the older brother how he felt during the incident A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. Which action should the nurse take? A. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply calamine lotion after soaking B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief C. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering D. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and cannot be relieved CORRECT ANSWER A. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply calamine lotion after soaking An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease (CAD), hypertension (HTN), and heart failure (HF) arrives in the Emergency Department (ED) in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expected in the client with acute HF? A. Increased cardiac contractility B. Reduced preload C. Relaxed vascular tone D. Decreased afterload CORRECT ANSWER B. Reduced preload Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child with tetanus? A. Encourage coughing and deep breathing B. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room C. Reposition from side to side every hour D. Open window shades to provide natural light CORRECT ANSWER B. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis? A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class B. incorrectly administered too much insulin C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days D. Skipped eating lunch CORRECT ANSWER C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days A client with a prescription for "do not resuscitate" (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client's status, what priority action should the nurse implement? A. The impending signs of death should be documented B. The client's status should be conveyed to the chaplain C. The client's need for pain medication should be determined D. The nurse manager should be updated on the client's status CORRECT ANSWER C. The client's need for pain medication should be determined [Show Less]
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CERTIFIED MEDICATION AIDE PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
which has thicker cortical plate, maxillary or mandibular? CORRECT ANSWER mandibular (this decreased the amount of the local anesthesia molecules that can ... [Show More] penetrate to nerves during infiltration injections) due to the thickness of cortical bone, which is a good option for local anesthetic in the mandibular arch during infiltrations? CORRECT ANSWER Articaine (Septocaine) is sometimes effective for mand. infiltrations (4% vs. 2% for lidocaine) due to the increased number of molecules hematomas are most common with which type of injection, and why? CORRECT ANSWER PSA due to nicking a vessel in the pterygoid plexus of veins what is the TX for a hematoma? CORRECT ANSWER pressure, cold compresses on/off, NSAIDS, and time. a positive aspiration when administering a PSA is due to what? CORRECT ANSWER aspirating hemorrhage caused by injection what are the three most common locations for hematomas to occur? CORRECT ANSWER 1. PSA 2. IA 3. mental blanching of the tissue following/during an injection is caused by what? CORRECT ANSWER vasospasm/vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine or brushing against autonomic nerves stimulation vasospasm the pterygomandibular space/triangle is bordered by what anatomical structures? CORRECT ANSWER ramus, lateral pterygoid muscle, and medial pterygoid muscle the pterygomandibular space/triangle is identified intra-orally by what? CORRECT ANSWER pterygoid hamulus (palpation), coronoid notch (palpation), and pterygomandibular raphe (visual) the mandibular foramen lies approx. __________________________ of the distance from the anterior border of the ramus to the posterior border CORRECT ANSWER 1/2 to 2/3 Antero-posteriorly, the greater palatine foramen is located between the ___________________________. CORRECT ANSWER middle of the maxillary second molar and the middle of the third molar in about 80-90% of patients. all arteries leading to the oral cavity receive blood from what? CORRECT ANSWER external carotid (most are direct or indirect branches from the maxillary artery with the exception of the lingula -- this is a direct branch from the external carotid) veins from the oral cavity will drain into what? CORRECT ANSWER internal jugular (both internal and external drain into the brachiocephalic veins which drain to the superior vena cava do myelinated or un-myelinated nerves create faster impulse? CORRECT ANSWER myelinated (impulses jump from node to node -- node of ranvier) what is saltatory conduction? CORRECT ANSWER the process of nerve impulses jumping from nodes of ranvier along a myelinated nerve what is the resting potential charges of a nerve? CORRECT ANSWER inside is negative and outside is positive what molecules are predominately outside/inside at resting potential? CORRECT ANSWER Na+ outside and K+ inside what is depolarization? CORRECT ANSWER Na+ channels open, Na+ flows in reversing polarity; K+ flows out to restore neutrality; the Na+ and K+ pumps restore polarity (resting potential) what is the mechanism of action for local anesthetics? CORRECT ANSWER blocks the Na+ channels preventing depolarization what is the basic structure of anesthetics? CORRECT ANSWER aromatic ring (lipid soluble), intermediate chain (amide or ester configuration), and terminal amine (able to ionize and become water soluble) lipophilic vs. hydrophyllic CORRECT ANSWER lipophilic is lipid soluble and hydrophyllic is water soluble what makes the terminal amine so important to the structure of local anesthetic? CORRECT ANSWER this allows the local anesthetic to the both lipid soluble and water soluble at the appropriate times (ex: hydrophyllic for dilution and pH control; lipophyllic in order to penetrate neuron cell membrane; hydrophyllic to block Na+ channels) what is pKa and what does it do? CORRECT ANSWER the dissociation constant - this identifies the pH at which the anesthetic exists in a 50/50 ratio of the ionized to non-ionized (hydrophyllic to lipophyllic) molecules lipid solubility of local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER the different structure of the various anesthetics confers varying degrees of lipid solubility (the greater the lipid solubility of the basic molecule the more potent it is) protein binding of local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER the greater degree of protein binding, the more molecules you have waiting in reserve for later action (the more proteins bound, the longer the duration) vasodilation and the local anesthetics CORRECT ANSWER with the exception of cocaine, all anesthetics are vasodilators (undesirable as this promotes quicker vascular uptake/metabolism and therefore less anesthetic action) what is biotransformation? CORRECT ANSWER metabolism where are amides metabolized and where are esters metabolized? CORRECT ANSWER amides: liver (in order to be rendered water soluble so that they can be excreted in the kidneys) esters: plasma by cholinesterase (more rapid than hepatic leading to shorter duration) what is the only amide anesthetic that also contains an ester group, and how is it metabolized? CORRECT ANSWER Articaine (septocaine) this agent is metabolized both hepatically and by plasma cholinesterase ester onset and duration CORRECT ANSWER slow onset with short duration amide onset and duration CORRECT ANSWER fast onset and longer duration are esters or amides more likely for toxicity? CORRECT ANSWER esters are more likely to cause toxicity what does NaCl do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER makes the solution isotonic what does HCL do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER lower the pH for the addition of epinephrine what does epinephrine do the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER reduce absorption rates at site of injection (increase duration/reduce blood levels - toxicity) what do bisulfites do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER reduce the oxidation of the epinephrine (longer shelf-life) what does methylparaben do to the anesthetic solutions? CORRECT ANSWER agent used for its antibacterial action that is no longer contained in dental cartridges, only in multiple dose vials what are all of the effects that result when epinephrine is added to a solution? CORRECT ANSWER increased heart rate, increased systolic pressure, lowers diastolic pressure what is the MCD (maximum cardiac dose) of epinephrine? CORRECT ANSWER 0.04 mg (40ug) what are the available options for lidocaine? CORRECT ANSWER 2% either with 1:100,000 or 1: 50,000 epi what are the available options for mepivacaine? CORRECT ANSWER 3% plain or 2% with 1:20,000 levonordefrin what are the available options for prilocaine? CORRECT ANSWER 4% plain and 4% with 1:200,000 epi what are the available options for articaine? CORRECT ANSWER 4% with 1:100,000 epi only what are the available options for bupivacaine? CORRECT ANSWER 0.5% with 1: 200,000 epi only what is the shortest acting anesthetic and what is the longest acting anesthetic? CORRECT ANSWER shortest: mepivacaine longest: bupivacaine [Show Less]
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ATI
What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin? a. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption b. Increases sensitivity to ... [Show More] insulin c. Short term sedation d. Both A and B CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and B When administering the drug Senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensive b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension CORRECT ANSWER b. This drug is not intended for long term use When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity a. Naloxone b. Vitamin K c. Digibind d. Fluemanzil CORRECT ANSWER c. Digibind While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs d. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin CORRECT ANSWER a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. NPH (Humulin N) c. Regular insulin (Humulin R) d. Glargine (Lantus) CORRECT ANSWER d. Glargine (Lantus) 1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin? A. Lower blood pressure. B. To diminish seizure activity. C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions. CORRECT ANSWER C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. 1. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug? A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body. B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs. C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter. D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body 2. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply. A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. E. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply. A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug. CORRECT ANSWER A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. 1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT: a. Hypertension b. Heart Failure c. Hypotension d. Diabetic nephropathy CORRECT ANSWER c. Hypotension 2. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches? a. Beta-blockers b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors c. ACE inhibitors d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) CORRECT ANSWER a. Beta-blockers 3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for a. Intake and output b. Mental status changes c. Respiratory rate d. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER b. Mental status changes 4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin K c. Naloxone d. Toradol CORRECT ANSWER a. Protamine sulfate A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity? A. Naloxone B. N-acetylcysteine C. Atropine D. Digoxin immune Fab CORRECT ANSWER A. Naloxone A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education? A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects B. Take this at the same time every day C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction CORRECT ANSWER B. Take this at the same time every day A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Lithium C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Spironolactone CORRECT ANSWER C. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen CORRECT ANSWER D. Acetaminophen Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure CORRECT ANSWER C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure [Show Less]
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ATI TEAS 7
What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin? a. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption b. Increases sensitivity to ... [Show More] insulin c. Short term sedation d. Both A and B CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and B When administering the drug Senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensive b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension CORRECT ANSWER b. This drug is not intended for long term use When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity a. Naloxone b. Vitamin K c. Digibind d. Fluemanzil CORRECT ANSWER c. Digibind While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs d. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin CORRECT ANSWER a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. NPH (Humulin N) c. Regular insulin (Humulin R) d. Glargine (Lantus) CORRECT ANSWER d. Glargine (Lantus) 1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin? A. Lower blood pressure. B. To diminish seizure activity. C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions. CORRECT ANSWER C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. 1. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug? A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body. B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs. C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter. D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body 2. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply. A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. E. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply. A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug. CORRECT ANSWER A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. 1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT: a. Hypertension b. Heart Failure c. Hypotension d. Diabetic nephropathy CORRECT ANSWER c. Hypotension 2. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches? a. Beta-blockers b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors c. ACE inhibitors d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) CORRECT ANSWER a. Beta-blockers 3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for a. Intake and output b. Mental status changes c. Respiratory rate d. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER b. Mental status changes 4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin K c. Naloxone d. Toradol CORRECT ANSWER a. Protamine sulfate A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity? A. Naloxone B. N-acetylcysteine C. Atropine D. Digoxin immune Fab CORRECT ANSWER A. Naloxone A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education? A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects B. Take this at the same time every day C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction CORRECT ANSWER B. Take this at the same time every day A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Lithium C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Spironolactone CORRECT ANSWER C. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen CORRECT ANSWER D. Acetaminophen Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure CORRECT ANSWER C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure [Show Less]
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ATI PROCTORED ASSESSMENT LEADERSHIP 2019 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin? a. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption b. Increases sensitivity to ... [Show More] insulin c. Short term sedation d. Both A and B CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and B When administering the drug Senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensive b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension CORRECT ANSWER b. This drug is not intended for long term use When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity a. Naloxone b. Vitamin K c. Digibind d. Fluemanzil CORRECT ANSWER c. Digibind While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs d. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin CORRECT ANSWER a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. NPH (Humulin N) c. Regular insulin (Humulin R) d. Glargine (Lantus) CORRECT ANSWER d. Glargine (Lantus) 1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin? A. Lower blood pressure. B. To diminish seizure activity. C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions. CORRECT ANSWER C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. 1. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug? A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body. B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs. C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter. D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body 2. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply. A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. E. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply. A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug. CORRECT ANSWER A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. 1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT: a. Hypertension b. Heart Failure c. Hypotension d. Diabetic nephropathy CORRECT ANSWER c. Hypotension 2. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches? a. Beta-blockers b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors c. ACE inhibitors d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) CORRECT ANSWER a. Beta-blockers 3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for a. Intake and output b. Mental status changes c. Respiratory rate d. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER b. Mental status changes 4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin K c. Naloxone d. Toradol CORRECT ANSWER a. Protamine sulfate A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity? A. Naloxone B. N-acetylcysteine C. Atropine D. Digoxin immune Fab CORRECT ANSWER A. Naloxone A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education? A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects B. Take this at the same time every day C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction CORRECT ANSWER B. Take this at the same time every day A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Lithium C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Spironolactone CORRECT ANSWER C. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen CORRECT ANSWER D. Acetaminophen Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure CORRECT ANSWER C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure [Show Less]
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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTOR 2019 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin? a. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption b. Increases sensitivity to ... [Show More] insulin c. Short term sedation d. Both A and B CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and B When administering the drug Senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensive b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension CORRECT ANSWER b. This drug is not intended for long term use When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity a. Naloxone b. Vitamin K c. Digibind d. Fluemanzil CORRECT ANSWER c. Digibind While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs d. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin CORRECT ANSWER a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. NPH (Humulin N) c. Regular insulin (Humulin R) d. Glargine (Lantus) CORRECT ANSWER d. Glargine (Lantus) 1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin? A. Lower blood pressure. B. To diminish seizure activity. C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions. CORRECT ANSWER C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. 1. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug? A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body. B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs. C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter. D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body 2. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply. A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. E. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply. A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug. CORRECT ANSWER A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. 1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT: a. Hypertension b. Heart Failure c. Hypotension d. Diabetic nephropathy CORRECT ANSWER c. Hypotension 2. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches? a. Beta-blockers b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors c. ACE inhibitors d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) CORRECT ANSWER a. Beta-blockers 3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for a. Intake and output b. Mental status changes c. Respiratory rate d. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER b. Mental status changes 4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin K c. Naloxone d. Toradol CORRECT ANSWER a. Protamine sulfate A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity? A. Naloxone B. N-acetylcysteine C. Atropine D. Digoxin immune Fab CORRECT ANSWER A. Naloxone A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education? A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects B. Take this at the same time every day C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction CORRECT ANSWER B. Take this at the same time every day A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Lithium C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Spironolactone CORRECT ANSWER C. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen CORRECT ANSWER D. Acetaminophen Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure CORRECT ANSWER C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure [Show Less]
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ATI COMPREHENSIVE ONLINE PRACTICE 2019 A WIH CORRECT ANSWERS
The most common cancer found on the auricle is: CORRECT ANSWER Basal cell carcinoma Which of the following medication classes should be avoided in patie... [Show More] nts with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in the patient? CORRECT ANSWER Antihistimines A 47-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? CORRECT ANSWER Refer the patient for a barium enema and sigmoidoscopy. Which of the following patient characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis? CORRECT ANSWER Overweight, cyanosis, and normal or slightly increased respiratory rate A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is: CORRECT ANSWER CT scan A patient reports "something flew in my eye" about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all except: CORRECT ANSWER Purulent drainage A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect: CORRECT ANSWER Gonococcal conjunctivitis A 35-year-old man presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should suspect: CORRECT ANSWER Herpes zoster and consider that this patient may be immunocompromised Which type of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis? CORRECT ANSWER Small cell carcinoma An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3-4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has: CORRECT ANSWER Chronic diarrhea Margaret, age 32, comes into the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect? CORRECT ANSWER Systemic lupus erythematosus Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the following disease processes? CORRECT ANSWER Acute bronchitis Lisa, age 49, has daily symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily. Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in? CORRECT ANSWER Moderate persistent Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep? CORRECT ANSWER Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days A cashier complains of dull ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the day. What is the most likely cause of these problems? CORRECT ANSWER Varicose veins Which statement below is correct about pertussis? CORRECT ANSWER It is also called whooping cough Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis? CORRECT ANSWER Pneumonia A 70-year-old patient presents with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which correctly describes the suspected condition? CORRECT ANSWER Diverticulitis Sylvia, age 83, presents with a 3-day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect? CORRECT ANSWER Herpes zoster A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is: CORRECT ANSWER Gallstones When a patient present with symptoms of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner action? CORRECT ANSWER Order an abdominal ultrasound A false-positive result with the fecal occult blood test can result from: CORRECT ANSWER a high dietary intake of rare cooked beef A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is: CORRECT ANSWER Small bowel follow-through A patient present to urgent care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner knows that these findings are consistent with: CORRECT ANSWER Systolic heart failure Maxine, Age 76, has just been given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that she should be hospitalized? CORRECT ANSWER Multipolar involvement on chest x-ray with the inability to take oral medications A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him: CORRECT ANSWER "It can be cured with surgical excision or radiation therapy." Expected spirometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include: CORRECT ANSWER Increased total lung capacity (TLC) An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient's dysphagia is: CORRECT ANSWER A and C (Esophageal cancer, GERD) A 40-year-old female with history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the nurse practitioner suspect? CORRECT ANSWER Malignant melanoma Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis? CORRECT ANSWER Replace water-soluble vitamins The nurse practitioner is performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and other dark-skinned individuals? CORRECT ANSWER B and C (Nails and feet) An adult presents with tinea corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development? CORRECT ANSWER Topical steroid use A patient has experienced nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response? CORRECT ANSWER Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and symptom management. Janine, age 29, has numerous transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What do you order? CORRECT ANSWER Antihistamines Of the following signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical manifestation is: CORRECT ANSWER Weight gain A 16-year-old male presents with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what drug would be least appropriate to prescribe? CORRECT ANSWER Amoxicillin A 70-year-old man who walks 2 miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2 mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively, would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans? CORRECT ANSWER "Is your leg pain relieved by rest?" [Show Less]
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ATI MENTAL HEALTH PROCTORED EXAM 2019 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
What is/are the action(s) of the drug metformin? a. Decreases Hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption b. Increases sensitivity to ... [Show More] insulin c. Short term sedation d. Both A and B CORRECT ANSWER d. Both A and B When administering the drug Senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensive b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension CORRECT ANSWER b. This drug is not intended for long term use When giving digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the health care provider notices various signs and symptoms of an overdose. The health care provider knows to give which of the following to reverse digoxin toxicity a. Naloxone b. Vitamin K c. Digibind d. Fluemanzil CORRECT ANSWER c. Digibind While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs d. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin CORRECT ANSWER a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II Which of the following types of insulin is "long-acting"? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. NPH (Humulin N) c. Regular insulin (Humulin R) d. Glargine (Lantus) CORRECT ANSWER d. Glargine (Lantus) 1. What is the therapeutic use of metformin? A. Lower blood pressure. B. To diminish seizure activity. C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. D. Increase heart rate and decrease gastrointestinal secretions. CORRECT ANSWER C. The maintenance of a person's blood glucose. 1. What is the correct definition for absorption of a drug? A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body. B. Describes the absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion of drugs. C. These types of drugs can be taken over the counter. D. This addresses how various drugs affect different forms of the body CORRECT ANSWER A. Movement of drug from site of administration to various tissues of the body 2. What do you assess for in a patient who is on Valproate? Select all that apply. A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. E. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER A. Suicidal thoughts B. Monitor for seizures. C. Bipolar disorder. D. Migraines. What is true about food and drug precautions? Select all that apply. A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. D. When one drug changes the way, another drug affects that drug. CORRECT ANSWER A. You must limit certain types of food or concurrent administration of certain types of drugs. B. Certain combinations of food and drugs can cause adverse reactions. C. Precautions may require limiting certain types of food or concurring drugs rather than restricting the drug itself. 1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT: a. Hypertension b. Heart Failure c. Hypotension d. Diabetic nephropathy CORRECT ANSWER c. Hypotension 2. Which of the following is used to treat migraine headaches? a. Beta-blockers b. Cholinesterase Inhibitors c. ACE inhibitors d. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) CORRECT ANSWER a. Beta-blockers 3. When administering a Serotonin Antagonist it is important to monitor for a. Intake and output b. Mental status changes c. Respiratory rate d. Anorexia CORRECT ANSWER b. Mental status changes 4. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin? a. Protamine sulfate b. Vitamin K c. Naloxone d. Toradol CORRECT ANSWER a. Protamine sulfate A patient has been taking hydrocodone, and opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken over their prescribed dose. What should you give as the antidote if they experience toxicity? A. Naloxone B. N-acetylcysteine C. Atropine D. Digoxin immune Fab CORRECT ANSWER A. Naloxone A patient is being educated on taking levothyroxine, a drug used to balance thyroid activity. What should you include in their education? A. Don't bother your health care professionals if you experience side effects B. Take this at the same time every day C. Thyroid tests are unnecessary while taking this drug D. It is okay to take this drug if you have recently had a myocardial infarction CORRECT ANSWER B. Take this at the same time every day A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient? A. Phenytoin (Dilantin) B. Lithium C. Alprazolam (Xanax) D. Spironolactone CORRECT ANSWER C. Alprazolam (Xanax) Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen CORRECT ANSWER D. Acetaminophen Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure CORRECT ANSWER C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure [Show Less]
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