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Pathophysiology Chapter 12- Test Bank Questions Already passed 2023
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231 Pathophysiology Exam Questions with complete solution 2024/2025
231 Pathophysiology Exam 1 idiopathic - correct answer infection of unknown cause iatrogenic - correct answer infection induced by therapeutic ... [Show More] or diagnostic procedures acute infection - correct answer sudden onset lasting short-term with less severe effects chronic infection - correct answer lasting long-term with more severe effects nosocomial - correct answer infection obtained from a hospital or care setting communicable infection - correct answer infection received from environment, foods, people sudden disease - correct answer unexplained occurrence and sudden onset of disease insidious disease - correct answer gradual onset of disease but harmful to body chronic disease - correct answer disease lasting 3 months or longer epidemiology - correct answer the study of incidence and control of disease and other health f [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Kaplan Questions with complete solution 2023/2024
Pathophysiology Kaplan acute hypoxic injury - correct answers rise in need for glucose in the cells to maintain ATP production E: loss of hemoglobi... [Show More] n, decreased O2 in air, decreased CO --> decreased O2, poisoning of cytochromes M: increase membrane permeability, cannot maintain Na-K pumps, cell death due to influx of Ca in cells. membrane potentials cannot be maintained reperfusion injury - correct answers more damage than hypoxic injury due to the production of reactive O2 species. reactive O2 species bind with nucleic acids, protein, membrane lipids reactive oxygen species (o2 free radicals) - correct answers include superoxide O2, hydroxyl radicals, peroxide. extra e- in outer shell. ROS bind with nucleic acids, proteins, membrane lipids E: environmental pollutants, cig smoke, chemotherapeutic agents, hyperoxia, radiation exposure treatment: vitamin E, mannitol, surfactant, methylene blue infectious injury to cell - c [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 2- Test Bank Question rated A+
Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through: A) perspiration only. B) feces only. C) perspiration and expiration. D) urine and feces. C ... [Show More] When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the: A) blood into the cells. B) interstitial compartment into the cells. C) interstitial compartment into the blood. D) cells into the interstitial compartment. C Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins? A) Increased osmotic pressure B) Decreased osmotic pressure C) Increased hydrostatic pressure D) Decreased hydrostatic pressure B Which of the following would cause edema? A) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure B) Increased capillary osmotic pressure C) Decreased capillary permeability D) Increased capillary permeability D Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading? A) Fluid excess B) Fluid deficit C) Increased sodium level D) Decreased erythrocytes B Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration? A) Rapid, strong pulse B) Low hematocrit C) Increased urine output D) Rough oral mucosa D Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity? A) Dehydration B) Third-spacing C) Hypovolemia D) Water retention B Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Iron A Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia? A) Loss of the thirst mechanism B) Excessive sweating C) Excessive aldosterone secretion D) Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations B Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? A) Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps B) Oliguria C) Elevated serum pH D) Cardiac arrhythmias D Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone. A) Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones B) Increased activation of vitamin D C) Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract D) Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys C Which of the following results from hypocalcemia? 1. Low serum phosphate levels 2. Nausea and constipation 3. Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms 4. Weak cardiac contractions A) 1, 2 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 3 D) 3, 4 D Which of the following causes tetany? A) Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium B) Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) C) Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms D) Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex A [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 2- Test Bank Question 100% correct
1. While assessing a 68-year-old with ascites, the nurse also notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the patients bed elevated 45 degrees. ... [Show More] The nurse knows this finding indicates a. decreased fluid volume. b. jugular vein atherosclerosis. c. increased right atrial pressure. d. incompetent jugular vein valves. c. increased right atrial pressure. The jugular veins empty into the superior vena cava and then into the right atrium, so JVD with the patient sitting at a 45-degree angle reflects increased right atrial pressure. JVD is an indicator of excessive fluid volume (increased preload), not decreased fluid volume. JVD is not caused by incompetent jugular vein valves or atherosclerosis. 2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with severe orthopnea. Which clinical finding is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. Weight loss of 2 pounds in 24 hours b. Hourly urine output greater than 60 mL c. Reduction in patient complaints of chest pain d. Reduced dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees d. Reduced dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees Because the patients major clinical manifestation of ADHF is orthopnea (caused by the presence of fluid in the alveoli), the best indicator that the medications are effective is a decrease in dyspnea with the head of the bed at 30 degrees. The other assessment data also may indicate that diuresis or improvement in cardiac output has occurred, but are not as specific to evaluating this patients response. 3. Which topic will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient with systolic heart failure and an ejection fraction of 33%? a. Need to begin an aerobic exercise program several times weekly b. Use of salt substitutes to replace table salt when cooking and at the table c. Benefits and side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors d. Importance of making an annual appointment with the primary care provider c. Benefits and side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors The core measures for the treatment of heart failure established by The Joint Commission indicate that patients with an ejection fraction (EF) <40% receive an ACE inhibitor to decrease the progression of heart failure. Aerobic exercise may not be appropriate for a patient with this level of heart failure, salt substitutes are not usually recommended because of the risk of hyperkalemia, and the patient will need to see the primary care provider more frequently than annually. 4. IV sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) is ordered for a patient with acute pulmonary edema. During the first hours of administration, the nurse will need to titrate the nitroprusside rate if the patient develops a. ventricular ectopy. b. a dry, hacking cough. c. a systolic BP <90 mm Hg. d. a heart rate <50 beats/minute. c. a systolic BP <90 mm Hg. Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator, and the major adverse effect is severe hypotension. Coughing and bradycardia are not adverse effects of this medication. Nitroprusside does not cause increased ventricular ectopy. 5. A patient who has chronic heart failure tells the nurse, I was fine when I went to bed, but I woke up in the middle of the night feeling like I was suffocating! The nurse will document this assessment finding as a. orthopnea. b. pulsus alternans. c. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. d. acute bilateral pleural effusion. c. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is caused by the reabsorption of fluid from dependent body areas when the patient is sleeping and is characterized by waking up suddenly with the feeling of suffocation. Pulsus alternans is the alternation of strong and weak peripheral pulses during palpation. Orthopnea indicates that the patient is unable to lie flat because of dyspnea. Pleural effusions develop over a longer time period. 6. During a visit to a 78-year-old with chronic heart failure, the home care nurse finds that the patient has ankle edema, a 2-kg weight gain over the past 2 days, and complains of feeling too tired to get out of bed. Based on these data, the best nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. activity intolerance related to fatigue. b. disturbed body image related to weight gain. c. impaired skin integrity related to ankle edema. d. impaired gas exchange related to dyspnea on exertion. a. activity intolerance related to fatigue. The patients statement supports the diagnosis of activity intolerance. There are no data to support the other diagnoses, although the nurse will need to assess for other patient problems. 7. The nurse working on the heart failure unit knows that teaching an older female patient with newly diagnosed heart failure is effective when the patient states that a. she will take furosemide (Lasix) every day at bedtime. b. the nitroglycerin patch is applied when any chest pain develops. c. she will call the clinic if her weight goes from 124 to 128 pounds in a week. d. an additional pillow can help her sleep if she is feeling short of breath at night. c. she will call the clinic if her weight goes from 124 to 128 pounds in a week. Teaching for a patient with heart failure includes information about the need to weigh daily and notify the health care provider about an increase of 3 pounds in 2 days or 3 to 5 pounds in a week. Nitroglycerin patches are used primarily to reduce preload (not to prevent chest pain) in patients with heart failure and should be used daily, not on an as needed basis. Diuretics should be taken earlier in the day to avoid nocturia and sleep disturbance. The patient should call the clinic if increased orthopnea develops, rather than just compensating by further elevating the head of the bed. 8. When teaching the patient with newly diagnosed heart failure about a 2000-mg sodium diet, the nurse explains that foods to be restricted include a. canned and frozen fruits. b. fresh or frozen vegetables. c. eggs and other high-protein foods. d. milk, yogurt, and other milk products. d. milk, yogurt, and other milk products. Milk and yogurt naturally contain a significant amount of sodium, and intake of these should be limited for patients on a diet that limits sodium to 2000 mg daily. Other milk products, such as processed cheeses, have very high levels of sodium and are not appropriate for a 2000-mg sodium diet. The other foods listed have minimal levels of sodium and can be eaten without restriction. 9. The nurse plans discharge teaching for a patient with chronic heart failure who has prescriptions for digoxin (Lanoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). Appropriate instructions for the patient include a. limit dietary sources of potassium. b. take the hydrochlorothiazide before bedtime. c. notify the health care provider if nausea develops. d. skip the digoxin if the pulse is below 60 beats/minute. c. notify the health care provider if nausea develops. Nausea is an indication of digoxin toxicity and should be reported so that the provider can assess the patient for toxicity and adjust the digoxin dose, if necessary. The patient will need to include potassium-containing foods in the diet to avoid hypokalemia. Patients should be taught to check their pulse daily before taking the digoxin and if the pulse is less than 60, to call their provider before taking the digoxin. Diuretics should be taken early in the day to avoid sleep disruption. 10. While admitting an 82-year-old with acute decompensated heart failure to the hospital, the nurse learns that the patient lives alone and sometimes confuses the water pill with the heart pill. When planning for the patients discharge the nurse will facilitate a a. consult with a psychologist. b. transfer to a long-term care facility. c. referral to a home health care agency. d. arrangements for around-the-clock care. c. referral to a home health care agency. The data about the patient suggest that assistance in developing a system for taking medications correctly at home is needed. A home health nurse will assess the patients home situation and help the patient develop a method for taking the two medications as directed. There is no evidence that the patient requires services such as a psychologist consult, long-term care, or around-the-clock home care. 11. Following an acute myocardial infarction, a previously healthy 63-year-old develops clinical manifestations of heart failure. The nurse anticipates discharge teaching will include information about a. digitalis preparations. b. b-adrenergic blockers. c. calcium channel blockers. d. angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. d. angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. ACE inhibitor therapy is currently recommended to prevent the development of heart failure in patients who have had a myocardial infarction and as a first-line therapy for patients with chronic heart failure. Digoxin therapy for heart failure is no longer considered a first-line measure, and digoxin is added to the treatment protocol when therapy with other medications such as ACE-inhibitors, diuretics, and b-adrenergic blockers is insufficient. Calcium channel blockers are not generally used in the treatment of heart failure. The b- adrenergic blockers are not used as initial therapy for new onset heart failure. 12. A 53-year-old patient with Stage D heart failure and type 2 diabetes asks the nurse whether heart transplant is a possible therapy. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Because you have diabetes, you would not be a candidate for a heart transplant. b. The choice of a patient for a heart transplant depends on many different factors. c. Your heart failure has not reached the stage in which heart transplants are needed. d. People who have heart transplants are at risk for multiple complications after surgery. b. The choice of a patient for a heart transplant depends on many different factors. Indications for a heart transplant include end-stage heart failure (Stage D), but other factors such as coping skills, family support, and patient motivation to follow the rigorous posttransplant regimen are also considered. Diabetic patients who have well-controlled blood glucose levels may be candidates for heart transplant. Although heart transplants can be associated with many complications, this response does not address the patients question. 13. Which diagnostic test will be most useful to the nurse in determining whether a patient admitted with acute shortness of breath has heart failure? a. Serum troponin b. Arterial blood gases c. B-type natriuretic peptide d. 12-lead electrocardiogram c. B-type natriuretic peptide B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted when ventricular pressures increase, as they do with heart failure. Elevated BNP indicates a probable or very probable diagnosis of heart failure. A twelve-lead electrocardiogram, arterial blood gases, and troponin may also be used in determining the causes or effects of heart failure but are not as clearly diagnostic of heart failure as BNP. 14. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care when caring for a patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving nesiritide (Natrecor)? a. Monitor blood pressure frequently. b. Encourage patient to ambulate in room. c. Titrate nesiritide slowly before stopping. d. Teach patient about home use of the drug. a. Monitor blood pressure frequently. Nesiritide is a potent arterial and venous dilator, and the major adverse effect is hypotension. Because the patient is likely to have orthostatic hypotension, the patient should not be encouraged to ambulate. Nesiritide does not require titration and is used for ADHF but not in a home setting. 15. A patient with heart failure has a new order for captopril (Capoten) 12.5 mg PO. After administering the first dose and teaching the patient about the drug, which statement by the patient indicates that teaching has been effective? a. I will be sure to take the medication with food. b. I will need to eat more potassium-rich foods in my diet. c. I will call for help when I need to get up to use the bathroom. d. I will expect to feel more short of breath for the next few days. c. I will call for help when I need to get up to use the bathroom. Captopril can cause hypotension, especially after the initial dose, so it is important that the patient not get up out of bed without assistance until the nurse has had a chance to evaluate the effect of the first dose. The angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are potassium sparing, and the nurse should not teach the patient to purposely increase sources of dietary potassium. Increased shortness of breath is expected with the initiation of b-adrenergic blocker therapy for heart failure, not for ACE inhibitor therapy. ACE inhibitors are best absorbed when taken an hour before eating. 16. A patient who has just been admitted with pulmonary edema is scheduled to receive the following medications. Which medication should the nurse question before giving? a. Furosemide (Lasix) 60 mg b. Captopril (Capoten) 25 mg c. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.125 mg d. Carvedilol (Coreg) 3.125 mg d. Carvedilol (Coreg) 3.125 mg Although carvedilol is appropriate for the treatment of chronic heart failure, it is not used for patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) because of the risk of worsening the heart failure. The other medications are appropriate for the patient with ADHF. 17. A patient with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with severe dyspnea and a dry, hacking cough. Which action should the nurse do first? a. Auscultate the abdomen. b. Check the capillary refill. c. Auscultate the breath sounds. d. Assess the level of orientation. c. Auscultate the breath sounds. This patients severe dyspnea and cough indicate that acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) is occurring. ADHF usually manifests as pulmonary edema, which should be detected and treated immediately to prevent ongoing hypoxemia and cardiac/respiratory arrest. The other assessments will provide useful data about the patients volume status and also should be accomplished rapidly, but detection (and treatment) of pulmonary complications is the priority. 18. A patient with chronic heart failure who is taking a diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and who is on a low-sodium diet tells the home health nurse about a 5-pound weight gain in the last 3 days. The nurses priority action will be to a. have the patient recall the dietary intake for the last 3 days. b. ask the patient about the use of the prescribed medications. c. assess the patient for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure. d. teach the patient about the importance of restricting dietary sodium. c. assess the patient for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure The 5-pound weight gain over 3 days indicates that the patients chronic heart failure may be worsening. It is important that the patient be assessed immediately for other clinical manifestations of decompensation, such as lung crackles. A dietary recall to detect hidden sodium in the diet, reinforcement of sodium restrictions, and assessment of medication compliance may be appropriate interventions but are not the first nursing actions indicated. 19. A patient in the intensive care unit with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) complains of severe dyspnea and is anxious, tachypneic, and tachycardic. All of the following medications have been ordered for the patient. The nurses priority action will be to a. give IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. b. give IV diazepam (Valium) 2.5 mg. c. increase nitroglycerin (Tridil) infusion by 5 mcg/min. d. increase dopamine (Intropin) infusion by 2 mcg/kg/min. a. give IV morphine sulfate 4 mg. Morphine improves alveolar gas exchange, improves cardiac output by reducing ventricular preload and afterload, decreases anxiety, and assists in reducing the subjective feeling of dyspnea. Diazepam may decrease patient anxiety, but it will not improve the cardiac output or gas exchange. Increasing the dopamine may improve cardiac output, but it will also increase the heart rate and myocardial oxygen consumption. Nitroglycerin will improve cardiac output and may be appropriate for this patient, but it will not directly reduce anxiety and will not act as quickly as morphine to decrease dyspnea. 20. After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assessfirst? a. A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness b. A patient who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases and is receiving oxygen. c. A patient who had dizziness after receiving the first dose of captopril (Capoten) d. A patient who is receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) and has a blood pressure of 100/62 a. A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness The patient who has wet-cold clinical manifestations of heart failure is perfusing inadequately and needs rapid assessment and changes in management. The other patients also should be assessed as quickly as possible but do not have indications of severe decreases in tissue perfusion. 21. Which assessment finding in a patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. Oxygen saturation of 88% b. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) c. Heart rate of 106 beats/minute d. Urine output of 50 mL over 2 hours a. Oxygen saturation of 88% A decrease in oxygen saturation to less than 92% indicates hypoxemia. The nurse should administer supplemental oxygen immediately to the patient. An increase in apical pulse rate, 1-kg weight gain, and decreases in urine output also indicate worsening heart failure and require nursing actions, but the low oxygen saturation rate requires the most immediate nursing action. 22. A patient has recently started on digoxin (Lanoxin) in addition to furosemide (Lasix) and captopril (Capoten) for the management of heart failure. Which assessment finding by the home health nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. Presence of 1 to 2+ edema in the feet and ankles b. Palpable liver edge 2 cm below the ribs on the right side c. Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy d. Weight increase from 120 pounds to 122 pounds over 3 days c. Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy Hypokalemia can predispose the patient to life-threatening dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions), and potentiate the actions of digoxin and increase the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can also cause life-threatening dysrhythmias. The other data indicate that the patients heart failure requires more effective therapies, but they do not require nursing action as rapidly as the low serum potassium 23. An outpatient who has chronic heart failure returns to the clinic after 2 weeks of therapy with metoprolol (Toprol XL). Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. 2+ pedal edema b. Heart rate of 56 beats/minute c. Blood pressure (BP) of 88/42 mm Hg d. Complaints of fatigue c. Blood pressure (BP) of 88/42 mm Hg The patients BP indicates that the dose of metoprolol may need to be decreased because of hypotension. Bradycardia is a frequent adverse effect of b-adrenergic blockade, but the rate of 56 is not unusual with - adrenergic blocker therapy. b-Adrenergic blockade initially will worsen symptoms of heart failure in many patients, and patients should be taught that some increase in symptoms, such as fatigue and edema, is expected during the initiation of therapy with this class of drugs. 24. A patient who is receiving dobutamine (Dobutrex) for the treatment of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has the following nursing interventions included in the plan of care. Which action will be most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assess the IV insertion site for signs of extravasation. b. Teach the patient the reasons for remaining on bed rest. c. Monitor the patients blood pressure and heart rate every hour. d. Titrate the rate to keep the systolic blood pressure >90 mm Hg. c. Monitor the patients blood pressure and heart rate every hour. An experienced LPN/LVN would be able to monitor BP and heart rate and would know to report significant changes to the RN. Teaching patients, making adjustments to the drip rate for vasoactive medications, and monitoring for serious complications such as extravasation require RN level education and scope of practice. [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 1- Test Bank Question with complete solution 2023
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? A) An inherited disorder B) A combination of specific etiological factors... [Show More] C) An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug D) Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment C The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the: A) subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness. B) signs and symptoms of a disease. C) factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness. D) early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection. B The best definition of the term prognosis is the: A) precipitating factors causing an acute episode. B) number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness. C) predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease. D) exacerbations occurring during chronic illness. C Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease? A) Swelling of the knee B) Fever C) Pain in the neck D) Red rash on the face B Etiology is defined as the study of the: A) causes of a disease. B) course of a disease. C) expected complications of a disease. D) manifestations of a disease. A A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as: A) hypertrophy B) metaplasia C) anaplasia D) atrophy D A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called: A) metaplasia B) atrophy. C) dysplasia D) hypertrophy. C A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called: A) apoptosis. B) ischemia C) hypertrophy D) necrosis B When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called: A) ischemia. B) gangrene C) hypoxia D) necrosis. D Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing: A) hypertrophy. B) dysplasia. C) atrophy. D) regeneration. A The term cancer refers to: A) dysplasia. B) hyperplasia. C) metaplasia. D) malignant neoplasm. D To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer? A) Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells B) Ischemic damage to cells C) Liquefaction of necrotic tissue D) Preprogrammed cell self-destruction D Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Alteration of DNA does not change cell function. B) Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves. C) All types of cells die at the same rate. D) Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death. B Caseation necrosis refers to an area where: A) cell proteins have been denatured. B) cell are liquefied by enzymes. C) dead cells form a thick cheesy substance. D) bacterial invasion has occurred. C Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of: A) an iatrogenic cause of cancer. B) a preventive measure. C) a precipitating factor. D) a predisposing condition. B A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed: A) latent stage. B) predisposing factor. C) incidence. D) precipitating factor D The term homeostasis refers to: A) the causative factors in a particular disease. B) maintenance of a stable internal environment. C) a condition that triggers an acute episode. D) a collection of signs and symptoms. B Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established? A) Symptoms B) Occurrence C) Manifestations D) Complication D Pathophysiology involves the study of: A) the structure of the human body. B) the functions of various organs in the body. C) functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes. D) various cell structures and related functions. C Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology? A) The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases B) The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease C) Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms D) The global search for emerging diseases A Which of the following can cause cell injury or death? 1. Hypoxia 2. Exposure to excessive cold 3. Excessive pressure on a tissue 4. Chemical toxins A) 1, 2 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 D All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT: A) follow cancer screening guidelines. B) use sun block agents whenever exposed. C) participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis. D) choose high fiber, lower fat foods. C The term disease refers to: A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state. B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function. C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery. D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms. B A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an): A) acute disease. B) multiorgan disorder. C) syndrome. D) manifestation. C [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 12- Test Bank Questions Already passed 2023
Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close? A) Increased intraventricular pressure B) Depolarization at the AV node ... [Show More] C) Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood D) Contraction of the atria A When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output? A) Decreased peripheral resistance B) Increased heart rate C) Decreased venous return D) General vasodilation B Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity? A) It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart. B) It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid. C) It is lined by the endocardium. D) It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium. B Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise? A) Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart B) Forceful action of the valves in the veins C) Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle D) Peristalsis in the large veins C The function of the baroreceptors is to: A) stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the sinoatrial (SA) node as needed. B) adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance. C) sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. D) signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure. D The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for: A) preventing an excessively rapid heart rate. B) limiting the time for a myocardial contraction. C) allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria. D) completing ventricular filling. D Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine? A) Increased heart rate and force of contraction B) Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles C) Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys D) Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels A Which of the following causes increased heart rate? A) Stimulation of the vagus nerve B) Increased renin secretion C) Administration of beta-blocking drugs D) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system D The term preload refers to: A) volume of venous return. B) peripheral resistance. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. A Cardiac output refers to: A) the amount of blood passing through either of the atria. B) the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute. C) the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction. D) the total number of heartbeats in one minute. B Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from: A) decreased blood pressure. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation. C) relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles. D) increased stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors. C Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation? 1. Decreased viscosity of the blood 2. Damaged blood vessel walls 3. Immobility 4. Prosthetic valves A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 2, 3, 4 D A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause: A) pulmonary embolus. B) hypertension. C) angina attacks. D) myocardial infarction. C Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking: A) reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance. B) decreases serum lipid levels. C) promotes platelet adhesion. D) increases serum HDL levels. C The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to: A) development of atheromas in large arteries. B) intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries. C) degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries. D) ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart. C A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is: A) leading a sedentary lifestyle. B) being female and older than 40 years of age. C) excluding saturated fats from the diet. D) familial hypercholesterolemia. A An atheroma develops from: A) a torn arterial wall and blood clots. B) accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred. C) thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins. D) repeated vasospasms. B Low-density lipoproteins (LDL): A) promote atheroma development. B) contain only small amounts of cholesterol. C) transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion. D) are associated with low intake of saturated fats. A Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT: A) eating a large meal. B) engaging in an angry argument. C) taking a nap. D) shoveling snow on a cold, windy day. C When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true? A) Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis. B) Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time. C) Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI. D) Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is not. D The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as: A) cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body. B) temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery. C) total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis. D) irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries. C Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include: A) brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing. B) persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse. C) bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea. D) flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness. B The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is: A) an imbalance in calcium ions. B) an infection of the heart muscle. C) atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus. D) a disruption of the heart conduction system. C Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction? A) A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development B) The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides C) Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG D) Leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein C The size of the necrotic area resulting from myocardial infarction may be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT: A) previously established collateral circulation. B) immediate administration of thrombolytic drugs. C) maintaining maximum oxygen supply to the myocardium. D) removing the predisposing factors to atheroma development. D [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 18- test bank Question and answer 2023
Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla? A) Proximal convoluted tubule B) Glomerulus C) Loop of Henle D) Af... [Show More] ferent arteriole C Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney? A) Regulation of body fluid concentrations B) Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes C) Activation of vitamin D D) Production of albumin D Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine? A) Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder B) Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter C) Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder D) Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra A Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate? A) Increased plasma osmotic pressure B) Dilation of the efferent arteriole C) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries D) Constriction of the afferent arteriole C By what process is water reabsorbed from the filtrate? A) Osmosis B) Active transport C) Cotransport D) Capillary action A Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts? A) Renin B) Aldosterone C) Angiotensin D) Antidiuretic hormone D Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin? A) The urine pH decreases. B) Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases. C) Serum potassium levels are high. D) Serum osmotic pressure increases. B Which of the following should be present in the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule? A) Plasma proteins B) Erythrocytes C) Sodium ions D) Leukocytes C From the following, choose the substance likely to appear in the urine when the glomerulus is inflamed. A) Albumin B) Urea C) Sodium D) Creatinine A What is the cause of most cases of pyelonephritis? A) An ascending infection by E. coli B) Abnormal immune response, causing inflammation C) Dialysis or other invasive procedure D) Severe pH imbalance of urine A Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria? A) Nephrotic syndrome B) Cystitis C) Glomerulonephritis D) Urolithiasis B Why may acute pyelonephritis and cystitis follow untreated prostatitis? A) Microbes spread through the circulation. B) Antibodies have not yet formed. C) There is no effective treatment. D) There is a continuous mucosa along the involved structures. D Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of: A) microbes, leukocytes, and pus in the urine. B) painful micturition. C) urgency and frequency. D) urinary casts and flank pain. D In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain? A) Inflammation, causing ischemia in the tubules B) Inflammation, stretching the renal capsule C) Increasing glomerular permeability, creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney D) Microbes irritating the tissues B Which pathophysiological process applies to acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? A) Streptococcal infection affects both the glomerular and tubule functions B) Ischemic damage occurs in the tubules, causing obstruction and decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) C) Immune complexes deposit in glomerular tissue, causing inflammation D) Increased glomerular permeability for unknown reasons C What causes the dark urine associated with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis? A) Blood and protein leaking through the capillary into the filtrate B) Proteinuria and microscopic hematuria from the inflammation C) Pyuria from inflammatory exudate D) Bleeding from ulcerations in the kidneys A Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because: A) albuminuria increases vascular volume. B) congestion and ischemia stimulate release of renin. C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is decreased. D) damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate. B Urinary casts are present with acute post-streptococcal A) glomerulonephritis because: large numbers of microbes and leukocytes enter the filtrate. B) ruptured capillaries release debris into the tubules. C) normal reabsorption of cells and proteins cannot take place. D) inflamed tubules compress red blood cells (RBCs) and protein into a typical mass. D Which disease would cause an increased ASO titer and elevated serum ASK? A) Nephrotic syndrome B) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis C) Pyelonephritis D) Polycystic kidney B Why does metabolic acidosis develop with bilateral kidney disease? A) Tubule exchanges are impaired. B) GFR is increased. C) Serum urea is increased. D) More bicarbonate ion is produced. A What is the first indicator in the arterial blood gases of acidosis caused by glomerulonephritis? A) Increased carbonic acid B) Increased bicarbonate ion C) A pH less than 7.35 D) Decreased bicarbonate ion D What would be the long-term effects of chronic infection or inflammation of the kidneys? A) Dehydration and hypovolemia B) Gradual necrosis, fibrosis, and development of uremia C) Sudden anuria and azotemia D) Severe back or flank pain B What factors contribute to headache, anorexia, and lethargy with kidney disease? 1. Increased blood pressure 2. Elevated serum urea 3. Anemia 4. Acidosis A) 1 only B) 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 D What are the significant signs of nephrotic syndrome? A) Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria B) Pyuria and leucopenia C) Hypertension and heart failure D) Gross hematuria and pyuria A Why does blood pressure often remain near normal in patients with nephrotic syndrome? A) Massive amounts of fluid are lost from the body with polyuria. B) Renin and aldosterone are no longer secreted. C) Tubules do not respond to ADH and aldosterone. D) Hypovolemia results from fluid shift to the interstitial compartment. D Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following EXCEPT: A) hypercalcemia. B) hyperlipidemia. C) inadequate fluid intake. D) hyperuricemia. B Which of the following results from obstruction of the left ureter by a renal calculus? A) Mild flank pain on the affected side B) Hydronephrosis in both kidneys C) Immediate cessation of urine production D) An attack of renal colic D What does hydronephrosis lead to? A) Ischemia and necrosis in the compressed area B) Multiple hemorrhages in the kidney C) Severe colicky pain radiating into the groin D) Increased GFR A Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis? A) Secondary hypertension B) Chronic renal failure C) Acute renal failure D) Increased renin and aldosterone secretions C Which of the following relates to polycystic kidney disease? A) It affects only one of the kidneys. B) It results in gradual degeneration and chronic renal failure. C) The kidneys are displaced and the ureters are twisted. D) The prognosis is good because there is adequate reserve for normal life. B With severe kidney disease, either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause: A) cardiac arrhythmias. B) encephalopathy. C) hypervolemia. D) skeletal muscle twitch or spasm. A Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure? A) Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity B) Hypotension and increased urine output C) Development of decompensated acidosis D) Very low GFR and increased serum urea D What is/are a cause(s) of acute tubule necrosis and acute renal failure? A) Prolonged circulatory shock B) Sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins C) Crush injuries or burns D) All of the above D Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure? A) Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney B) Circulatory shock C) Diabetes D) Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus C What causes polyuria during the stage of renal insufficiency? A) Loss of tubule function B) Increased blood pressure C) Decreased aldosterone secretion D) Increased GFR A What is the primary reason for hypocalcemia developing during end-stage renal failure or uremia? A) Decreased parathyroid hormone secretion B) Insufficient calcium in the diet C) Excessive excretion of calcium ions in the urine D) A deficit of activated vitamin D and hyperphosphatemia D Cystitis is more common in females because: A) the mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous. B) the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora. C) the pH of urine is more acidic in females. D) females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies. B Which of the following indicate a decreased GFR? A) Increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate B) Urine with low specific gravity and dark color C) Albuminuria and hematuria D) Hyponatremia and hypokalemia A Which of the following is NOT likely to lead to hydronephrosis? A) Renal calculi B) Pyelonephritis C) Nephrosclerosis D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy C Which factor contributes to severe anemia in individuals with chronic renal failure? A) Increased erythropoietin secretion B) Limited protein intake C) Compensatory increase in bone marrow activity D) Inability to absorb vitamin B12 and iron B [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 5- Test Bank Question already passed 2023
Tears are considered to be part of the: 1. first line of defense. 2. second line of defense. 3. third line of defense. 4. specific defenses. 5. nonspe... [Show More] cific defenses. A) 1, 4 B) 1, 5 C) 3, 4 D) 2, 5 B A specific defense for the body is: A) phagocytosis. B) sensitized T lymphocytes. C) the inflammatory response. D) intact skin and mucous membranes. B The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to: A) phagocytosis of foreign material. B) local vasodilation. C) any tissue injury. D) formation of purulent exudates. C Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include: A) albumin and fibrinogen. B) growth factors and cell enzymes. C) macrophages and neutrophils. D) histamine and prostaglandins. D Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury? 1. Pain 2. Local vasoconstriction 3. Increased capillary permeability 4. Pallor A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 2, 4 B Granulation tissue is best described as: A) highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection. B) an erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications. C) a type of adhesion with no vascularization. D) a form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes. A Edema associated with inflammation results directly from: A) increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment. B) increased phagocytes in the affected area. C) decreased capillary permeability. D) general vasoconstriction. A The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from: A) increased interstitial fluid. B) production of complement. C) a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area. D) increased blood flow into the area. D What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury? 1. Increased permeability of blood vessels 2. Dilation of blood vessels 3. Transient vasoconstriction 4. Migration of leukocytes to the area 5. Hyperemia A) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 D) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 D The process of phagocytosis involves the: A) ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes. B) shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries. C) formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area. D) movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall. A Systemic effects of severe inflammation include: A) erythema and warmth. B) loss of movement at the affected joint. C) fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever. D) abscess formation. C The term leukocytosis means: A) increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood. B) decreased WBCs in the blood. C) increased number of immature circulating leukocytes. D) significant change in the proportions of WBCs. A Which of the following statements applies to fever? A) Viral infection is usually present. B) Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated. C) It is caused by a signal to the thalamus. D) It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation. D Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include: A) general cutaneous vasodilation. B) generalized shivering. C) increased heart rate. D) increased metabolic rate. A Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed: A) fibrosis. B) regeneration. C) resolution. D) repair by scar tissue. B Scar tissue consists primarily of: A) granulation tissue. B) epithelial cells. C) collagen fibers. D) new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers. C Which of the following promotes rapid healing? A) Closely approximated edges of a wound B) Presence of foreign material C) Exposure to radiation D) Vasoconstriction in the involved area A During an inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by: A) increased blood flow in the area. B) increased capillary permeability. C) irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine. D) increased leukocytes in the area. A Purulent exudates usually contain: A) small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water. B) red blood cells & all types of white blood cells. C) numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris. D) large amounts of water containing a few cells. C Isoenzymes in the circulating blood: A) are a type of plasma protein normally present in the circulating blood. B) often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response. C) are normally released from leukocytes during the inflammatory response. D) are pyrogens, causing low-grade fever. B A serous exudate is best described as a: A) thin, watery, colorless exudate. B) thick, sticky, cloudy secretion. C) thick, greenish material containing microbes. D) brownish, clotted material. A Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include: A) edema and erythema. B) area of necrosis and loss of function. C) pain and tenderness. D) fever and malaise. D [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology Chapter 17- test bank Question and answers 2023
Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid? A) Parietal cells B) Chief cells C) Mucous cells D) ... [Show More] Gastrin cells A Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients? A) Stomach B) Duodenum C) Ileum D) Ascending colon C When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content? A) Gastrin B) Secretin C) Cholecystokinin D) Histamine B Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides? A) Amylase B) Peptidase C) Lactase D) Trypsin D In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure? A) Pancreas B) Liver C) Small intestine D) Spleen B Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract? A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Vagus nerve C) Increased saliva D) Absence of food in the system B Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions? A) Bicarbonate ion B) Hydrochloric acid C) Activated digestive enzymes D) Insulin A The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the: A) defecation reflex. B) enterogastric reflex. C) vomiting reflex. D) autodigestive reflex. B Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal? A) Lipolysis B) Ketogenesis C) Gluconeogenesis D) Glycogenesis D Which of the following statements applies to bile salts? A) They give feces the characteristic brown color. B) They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids. C) They emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins. D) They are excreted in the feces. C The visceral peritoneum: A) lines the abdominal wall. B) hangs from the stomach over the loops of small intestine. C) contains many pain receptors. D) forms the outer covering of the stomach. D The early stage of vomiting causes: A) metabolic alkalosis. B) metabolic acidosis. C) increased respirations. D) increased excretion of hydrogen ions. A Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of: A) bile. B) blood. C) protein. D) bacteria. A Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as: A) melena. B) occult blood. C) frank blood. D) hematemesis. B Severe vomiting can lead to metabolic acidosis because of increased: A) ketones produced. B) CO2 retained in the lungs and kidneys. C) hypovolemia and lactic acid production. D) metabolic rate. C What is the definition of dysphagia? A) A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle B) Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus C) Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach D) Difficulty in swallowing D What is a common cause of hiatal hernia? A) An abnormally long esophagus B) Increased intra-abdominal pressure C) Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm D) A small fundus in the stomach B What is a common sign of acute gastritis? A) Colicky right upper quadrant pain B) Vomiting and anorexia C) Projectile vomiting after eating D) Diarrhea with abdominal distention B What does the pathophysiology of chronic gastritis include? A) Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions B) Hyperchlorhydria and chronic peptic ulcers C) Frequent vomiting and diarrhea D) Episodes of acute inflammation and edema of the mucosa A What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella? A) Unrefrigerated custards or salad dressings B) Poorly canned foods C) Raw or undercooked poultry or eggs D) Contaminated water C Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis? A) A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker B) Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis C) A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa D) An individual with an allergy to shellfish D What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve? A) Absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach B) Failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum C) Hypertrophy of smooth muscle in the pylorus D) Thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation C A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely: A) have an increase in appetite. B) have chronic diarrhea. C) develop severe colicky pains. D) vomit undigested food from previous meals. D [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology 370 Midterm & Weeks 6 to 8 Quizzes with solution 2023
While hospitalized an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs.) What is the... [Show More] significance of this finding? increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease A major risk factor for the development of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) disease is? immunosuppression Sepsis has been recently defined as? a systemic inflammatory response to infection Coagulative necrosis is caused by interrupted blood supply Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as? carcinomas Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which? stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock? septic Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure? sodium Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease? myeloma The primary functions of the circulatory system are: (Select all that apply) transport O2 and nutrients throughout the body remove waste products found within the body Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2 The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is hypoxemia Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called tension pneumothorax Respiratory acidosis may be caused by hypoventilation Causes of hypermagnesemia include ... Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include Decreased urine output Cancer grading is based on cell differentiation A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely develop hypercalcemia Effects of hypernatremia on the central nervous system typically include confusion A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of hypertensive crisis Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by hypokalemia The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is dysplasia Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of β-hemolytic streptococcal infection The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is ST-segment elevation A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is pulmonary embolus An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reacction is histamine A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as tracheal shift should be evaluated for pneumothorax Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because massive histamine release from the mast cells leads to vasodilation Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)? pain in long bones infection fever bruising A 5-year-old patient patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk due to pain. The child's most likely diagnosis is acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) The cellular response indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism is intracellular accumulations Which blood pressures reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria? 128/82 (prehypertension range) Respiratory acidosis is associated with increased carbonic acid A cause of thrombocytopenia includes chemotherapy [Show Less]
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