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NURS 6551 MIDTERM EXAM, FINAL EXAMS / NURS6551 MIDTERM EXAM, FINAL EXAMS(3 VERSIONS)(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
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NURS 6551 Final Exam – Question and Answers / NURS6551 Final Exam – Question and Answers
NURS 6551 Final Exam – Question and Answers / NURS6551 Final Exam – Question and AnswersNURS 6551 Final Exam – Question and Answers • Qualitativ... [Show More] e urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably ________ days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg). • Question 2 Betsy is breastfeeding and complaints of tenderness of the nipples all the time. • Question 3 Heather, who is 5 weeks pregnant, is nauseous. She asks you how long this will last. You tell her nausea usually disappears by the • Question 4 All except which of the following are important historical questions for a 29-year-old woman in clinic for right-sided weakness? • Question 5 A 19-year-old pregnant patient, at 20 weeks gestation, complains of pain in the right lower quadrant. She is afebrile and denies nausea and vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is • Question 6 It is imperative that the nurse practitioner teach patients taking an oral contraceptive to report any of the danger signs of complications. Which of the following would be of least concern to the nurse practitioner? • Question 7 Aida, who is 29 weeks pregnant, received a blunt trauma to the abdomen during an argument with her boyfriend. She has no obvious injuries and denies pain. Aida needs to be monitored for the occurrence of • Question 8 What distinguishes pyelonephritis from cystitis? • Question 9 During nursery rounds, you examine a 12-hour-old newborn. The infant has a yellow tint to the skin and sclera. What lab test will you order to further evaluate this infant? • Question 10 Which of the following diseases is not acquired transplancentally? • Question 11 The treatment(s) with demonstrated effectiveness relieving symptoms of dysmenorrhea in women with premenstrual syndrome is (are): • Question 12 What has changed in terms of recommended antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated lower UTIs? • Question 13 In evaluating a mother-and-infant breastfeeding situation, signs of an effective latch at the breast are • Question 14 Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the postpartal woman in recognizing early signs of complications? • Question 15 Which of the following should be avoided by the pregnant woman who is constipated? • Question 16 A 19-year-old sexually active female is being counseled by the nurse practitioner about contraception. The nurse practitioner is accurate when she tells the patient that a diaphragm. • Question 17 Heger's sign, a physiological sign of pregnancy, is • Question 18 Susie, who is 16 weeks pregnant, is having mild cramps with persistent and excessive bleeding. Upon examination, you find that some portion of the products of conception (placental) remain in the uterus, but the fetus has been expelled. What type of abortion is Susie having? • Question 19 The best way for a pregnant woman to avoid injury to herself and her fetus in the event of a motor vehicle accident (MVA) is to • Question 20 What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? • Question 21 To prevent breast trauma during the breastfeeding, the nurse practitioner should stress the importance of : • Question 22 Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is based on the woman’s prepregnant BMI and: • Question 23 Samantha, who has genital herpes, just found out that she is pregnant. Although she has not had a recurrence in years, she states that she has heard that genital herpes might cause a spontaneous abortion. You know that genital herpes • Question 24 Nelda is breastfeeding her 6-week-old daughter. She comes today with pain, a lump in her right breast, and flu-like symptoms. You see that the breast is engorged, erythematous, and warm to the touch. Her temperature is 101.8°F. Your diagnosis is: • Question 25 Marci has had several abortions in the past and has been unable to carry a pregnancy to full term because of an incompetent cervix. She states that the physician mentioned cerclage to her and asks you what that means. You tell her that cerclage is: • Question 26 When evaluating Marge during her first obstetric visit, you assess the shape of her pelvis. While drawing her a picture of her android-type pelvis, you explain that it has: • Question 27 A 45-year-old patient voices concern about her hot flashes and irregular menstral periods. What diagnostic test would the nurse practitioner order to confirm the beginning of menopause? • Question 28 Which of the following laboratory tests is useful in the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion? • Question 29 The reason most often cited to explain why women who have had a usual length of stay and normal delivery discontinue breastfeeding before 8 weeks postpartum is: • Question 30 Lynn comes to the clinic for her initial prenatal visit. Based on her menstral history, the client is at 9 weeks' gestation and is scheduled to have an ultrasound for estimation of the gestational age of the fetus. Which fetal measurement is the best indicator of gestational age at this time? • Question 31 What is a common cause of leg cramps during pregnancy? • Question 32 A 15-year-old pregnant patient presents for her first prenatal visit. On physical examination, her uterus is approximately 24-week gestation size. She does not know when her last menstrual period was or when she might have conceived. Gestational age for this patient can most accurately be assessed by: • Question 33 What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? • Question 34 Margie, who has been breastfeeding for 4 weeks, has mastitis in her right breast and is taking Dixcloxacillin. She asks you what she needs to do about feeding the baby. You respond • Question 35 What is the minimum number of cafe-au-lait spot that should be of concern? • Question 36 An autosomal recessive disorder such as cystic fibrosis is expressed in the offspring when: • Question 37 A 25-year-old obese female has a history of frequent candida vaginal infections in the past year. She is in a monogamous sexual relationship and uses and intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Of the following, which is the most likely underlying condition predisposing her to recurring candida vaginitis? • Question 38 Glenda gave birth to Jack 4 weeks ago. Her postpartum course was complicated by an intrauterine infection that was successfully treated with antibiotics. Today Glenda calls the office because Jack has white patches on his tongue and gums. She is concerned that her milk has become “sour” and is causing the white patches in Jack’s mouth. Based on these data, what diagnosis do you expect for Jack? • Question 39 Sandra, who is 5 months pregnant and of average height and weight, asks you how many extra calories she should be adding to her diet per day. You tell her to add: • Question 40 A 24-year-old female insists of having a screening mammogram. Upon further questioning, the nurse practitioner discovers the patient is concerned about breast cancer because her mother has fibrocystic breast disease. The nurse practitioner would be accurate if she tells the patient that the major risk factor for development of breast cancer in women is: • Question 41 What do current theories suggest as to how cranberry products can reduce UTIs? • Question 42 When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? • Question 43 Kim states that she has heard many old wives' tales of harmful things during pregnancy. Which of the following is harmful late in pregnancy? • Question 44 NSAID use during pregnancy has been linked to which condition in newborns? • Question 45 Allie, who has asthma, just found out that she is pregnant. She is wondering whether she should continue taking her asthma medications. Which of the following is true regarding asthma and pregnancy? • Question 46 Carbohydrate intolerance and increased insulin resistance first recognized in pregnancy is known as: • Question 47 What is considered to be a common trigger of psoriasis? • Question 48 The drug of choice for the pregnant woman with diabetes is • Question 49 Which of the following antibiotics is the best choice for acute pyelonephritis when it occurs during the seventh month of pregnancy? • Question 50 Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors? • Question 51 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? [Show Less]
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NURS 6551 Final Exam: PRIMARY CARE OF WOMEN / NURS6551 Final Exam (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6551 Final Exam: PRIMARY CARE OF WOMEN / NURS6551 Final Exam (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYWhat has changed in terms of recommended antibiotic treatment... [Show More] for uncomplicated lower UTIs? a. Seven-day regimens are now recommended. b. Three times a day of oral antibiotics are now recommended. c. Three-day regimens are now recommended. d. A single dose is now recommended. What is considered to be a common trigger of psoriasis? a. Stress b. Pregnancy c. Migraines d. Menstruation The clinician is seeing a 48-year-old woman for the first time. She is overweight and has a blood pressure of 120/92. She is on no medications and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her family history is negative for heart disease. Her physical exam is unremarkable. The clinician should advise her as follows: a. Her blood pressure is high normal and does not require further follow-up at this time. b. She has prehypertension. c. She has stage 1 hypertension. d. She needs two additional blood pressure checks on two separate occasions. What tends to cause acne in adolescence? a. A decrease in estrogen b. Dietary changes c. Hormonal birth control use d. An increase in testosterone The onset of labor is indicated by regular uterine contractions and: a. Complete dilation of the cervix b. Change in the position of the fetus c. Rupture of the membranes d. Progressive cervical change The onset of labor is indicated by regular uterine contractions and: a. Complete dilation of the cervix b. Change in the position of the fetus c. Rupture of the membranes d. Progressive cervical change Which of the following statements does not support the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease? a. Crying every day b. Forgetting where she puts things c. Getting lost driving to the grocery store d. Lost ability to balance a checkbook A 23-year-old woman is seeing the clinician because of chronic headaches. These headaches are typically preceded by seeing flashing lights. These visual distortions spontaneously resolve followed by throbbing pain on either the right or left side of her head. Pain is associated with photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Cluster headache b. Migraine headache c. Temporal arteritis d. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? a. Between 6–8 weeks’ gestation b. Between 24–28 weeks’ gestation c. Between 10–12 weeks’ gestation d. Between 16–20 weeks’ gestation Postpartum depression occurs in about what percentage of women who give birth? a. 5–10% b. 25–30% c. 10–15% d. 1–5% About how many breastfeeding women are affected by lactation mastitis? a. 10% b. 20% c. 15% d. 25% What is the most typical schedule of prenatal care in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy? a. Visits scheduled every 2 weeks b. Visits scheduled every 3 weeks 3. Visits scheduled every week 4. Visits scheduled every 4 weeks About what percentage of pregnant women develop gestational hypertension, preeclampsia, or pregnancy-induced hypertensive disorder? a. 5–7% b. 10–12% c. 1–3% d. 12–15 What is the term for a postpartum disorder in which bacteria ascend from the lower genital tract and infect the uterus? a. Postpartum amenorrhea b. Postpartum endometritis c. Postpartum staphylococcus d. Postpartum lochia How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? a. Asymptomatic UTIs do not resolve themselves without treatment. b. Women tend to get UTIs when they are pregnant. c. There is a longer distance between the urethra and anus. d. Their urethras are shorter. A 60-year-old woman has a blood pressure of 144/86. This would be classified as: a. Normal blood pressure b. Prehypertensive c. Stage 1 hypertension (per course hero) d. Stage 2 hypertension After how many weeks’ gestation is a pregnancy loss considered a fetal death or stillbirth? a. 18 weeks b. 30 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 24 weeks What can be used as a space-filling device, replacing normal pressure on the vaginal walls when levator ani support is unreliable? a. Diaphragms b. Tampons c. Kegels d. Sacral nerve stimulators All of the following symptoms are associated with chest pain and representative of coronary artery disease except: a. Diaphoresis b. Jaw pain c. Pain with inspiration d. Shortness of breath Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors a. 35 b. 40 c. 45 d. 50 What is the potential danger of a fetus born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid? a. The infant will not be able to relax its anal sphincter. b. The infant can breathe meconium into the lungs. c. The infant can get meconium caught in the esophagus. d. The infant will be born with jaundice. What does rosacea describe? a. Adult acne b. Nail fungus c. Swelling of the joints d. Pruritis Any woman with a complicated cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: a. Sensitivity test b. Blood culture c. Urine dipstick d. Parenteral culture What is the definition of a primary headache? a. A headache that occurs only before and during menstruation b. A headache is caused by a preexisting condition c. A headache that is not a symptom of, or caused by, another condition d. A headache that is characterized by muscle tension What is the leading cause of first-trimester maternal death? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Complications from prior gynecologic surgeries c. Abortion d. Complications from unresolved STIs When considering a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease, the clinician should: a. Interview her with a family member or close friend b. Interview her separately (alone) then with a family member or close friend c. Obtain the history from a family member or close friend d. Rely on client observation without obtaining a history What is the most common cause of death in women in the United States? a. Breast cancer b. Cardiovascular disease c. Cervical cancer d. Lung cancer What percentage of pregnant women in developed countries have iron-deficiency anemia? a. 20% b. 10% c. 15% d. 5% How does the third stage of labor end? a. With the birth of the baby b. With the delivery of the placenta c. With the clamping of the umbilical cord d. With the complete dilation of the cervix What is a possible cause of abdominal pain during pregnancy? a. Round ligament pain b. Diabetes c. Anemia d. Cytomegalovirus Type 2 diabetes includes insulin resistance and affects what percentage of those who have diabetes? a. 75–80% b. 65–70% c. 55–60% d. 90–95% The primary endocrine disorders affecting women are diabetes mellitus and: a. Psoriatic arthritis b. Thyroid conditions c. Melanoma d. Polydipsia When can relief from pregnancy induces nausea and vomiting be expected? a. 6–8 weeks’ gestation b. 12–14 weeks’ gestation c. 20–22 weeks’ gestation d. after 24 weeks’ gestation What is the term for the craving and purposeful consumption of nonfood items for more than one month? a. Anemia b. Toxemia c. Pica d. Torsion What significantly increases the risk of hypertension in women? a. The onset of menopause b. Hormonal replacement therapy c. Depression d. Atherosclerosis Carbohydrate intolerance and increased insulin resistance first recognized in pregnancy is known as: a. Overt diabetes b. Gestational diabetes c. Carbohydrate overload d. Iron-deficiency anemia A chronic skin disorder that is thought to be caused by an abnormal immune reaction in the skin is atopic dermatitis or: a. Rosacea b. Psoriasis c. Cellulitis d. Eczema What is a potential benefit of circumcision? a. Decreased incidence of urinary tract infections b. Prevention of prostate cancer c. Increased immunity against herpes simplex virus d. Prevention of transmission of sexually transmitted bacteria Without treatment shortly after birth, as many as 90 percent of infants born to hepatitis B–infected mothers will: a. Develop HIV b. Have cognitive difficulties c. Need blood transfusions d. Become infected Fever associated with pyelonephritis will usually resolve within how many hours of treatment with antibiotics? a. 24 hours b. 12 hours c. 72 hours d. 80 hours What is more likely to occur in women with female genital cutting? a. Low birth-weight babies b. Birth-related complications c. Miscarriages d. Premature births What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? a. To increase the capacity of the bladder b. To increase pressure on the vaginal walls c. To support and strengthen the levator ani d. To support and stabilize the urethra The clinician is ordering a lipid panel for a 50-year-old woman. The following advice should be given: a. Eat a normal breakfast the morning of the blood draw b. Fast for 12 hours prior to the blood draw c. No dietary changes d. Eat a low-fat breakfast the morning of the blood draw All except which of the following are important historical questions for a 29-year-old woman in clinic for right-sided weakness? a. Use of oral combined hormonal contraceptives b. Recent childbirth c. History of recent deep venous thrombosis d. History of pelvic inflammatory disease What is the initial symptom of Lyme disease, seen in approximately 70 to 80 percent of people infected with the bacterium? a. Red facial patches b. A circular red rash c. Rough bumps on the skin d. Shortness of breath According to the CDC, what percentage of pregnant women continues to drink alcohol during their pregnancies? a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30% What is a contributor to the increased incidence of heartburn during pregnancy? a. The increased incidence of hypertension during pregnancy b. The dilation of veins in the esophagus, due to increased blood flow c. The increased levels of magnesium and calcium in the blood d. The pregnancy hormone relaxin, which softens the lower esophageal sphincter Gender differences in heart disease can be found in: a. Diagnosis b. Treatment c. Identification of symptoms d. All of the above What is the recommended amount of Kegel contractions per day for women whose pelvic muscles are weak? a. 10 b. 50 c. 30 d. 7 What is a common cause of leg cramps during pregnancy? a. An imbalance of calcium and magnesium b. Dehydration c. An inability to sleep d. Poor nutrition What is the most common cause of medical complications in pregnancy? a. Hypertension b. Gestational diabetes c. Hepatitis d. Anemia Which of the following is a predictor of impending preterm birth? a. Positive fetal fibronectin testing b. Cervical length less than 15 mm c. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid d. Cord prolapse What is significant about cytomegalovirus (CMV)? a. It cannot be transmitted by person-to-person contact. b. It can remain dormant within the body for life. c. It is the most dangerous virus that can be transmitted to a fetus. d. It is experienced by about 25 percent of childbearing-age women before pregnancy. A 30-year-old woman comes to clinic concerned about a headache that feels like a “rubber band squeezing her head,” which occurs nearly daily. It lasts several hours and is not associated with nausea or vomiting. She has no family history of migraine headaches. Her physical exam is within normal limits. The most likely diagnosis is Tension Headaches What is the percentage of all unintended pregnancies in the United States? a. 5% b. 15% c. 25% d. 50% How often does breech presentation occur in singleton pregnancies? a. 1–2% b. 3–4% c. 6–7% d. 10–11% How are pregnancy-related DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) needs best met? a. By consuming 2 servings of fatty low-mercury-content fish per week b. By taking a prenatal vitamin supplement c. By consuming 2 to 4 servings of fruit daily d. By consuming 3 to 4 servings of dairy products daily What should be considered in order to interpret the Mini-Mental State exam when considering the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease? Education a. Education b. Family history of Alzheimer’s disease c. Medications that include estrogen d. Past history of concussion About how many infants born to mothers colonized with Group B streptococcus will become colonized as well? a. 40% b. 25% c. 10% d. 50% What is an indication of the second stage of labor? a. Complete dilation of the cervix b. Rupture of the membranes c. Emergence of the infant’s head d. Presence of bloody show Approximately how many reproductive-age women in the United States meet the BMI criteria for obesity? a. 1 in 5 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 7 What should be addressed during late postpartum maternal evaluation (weeks 2–6)? a. The healing of the mother b. The need for birth control information or supplies c. The birth plan of the mother d. The latching-on response of the infant What is important to consider when vaginal bleeding occurs during the first trimester? a. Uterine size b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Viral infection d. HIV Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is based on the woman’s prepregnant BMI and: a. Age b. Height c. Nutritional assessment d. Caloric intake What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Graves’ disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy A 72-year-old woman is presenting with chest pain. Which of the following statements best differentiates chest pain due to angina versus myocardial infarction? a. Angina pain is frequently relieved by nitroglycerin. b. Angina pain is more substernal and does not radiate to other areas. c. Myocardial pain with an infarction is always associated with fatigue. d. Myocardial pain with an infarction is more severe. At what time during pregnancy does nausea typically occur? a. At 3–6 weeks’ gestation b. At 6–8 weeks’ gestation c. At 12–15 weeks’ gestation d. At 1–3 weeks’ gestation What step can a clinician take to learn more about any chemicals used in a woman’s workplace? a. Contact OSHA (Occupational Health and Safety Administration). b. Contact the woman’s workplace. c. Ask the woman to obtain her workplace MSDs (material safety data sheets). d. Conduct research on the OSHA website. Where does edema tend to occur in the pregnant woman’s body? a. Hands b. Face c. Feet d. Abdomen What is the term for stimulation of the uterus by an external agent to enhance uterine contractions after labor has started? a. Exteriorization b. Induction c. Augmentation d. Presentation Uncomplicated acute bacterial cystitis occurs in women who: a. Are pregnant b. Have no signs of upper tract infection c. Have a high fever d. Have had recent antibiotics Chest pain associated with irritation of the myocardial nerve fibers (such as with angina pectoris or myocardial infarction) is due to an increase in: a. Blood glucose b. Lactic acid c. Serum magnesium d. Serum potassium What was the reason that prenatal care began in the early 1900s? a. To screen for preeclampsia b. To predict preterm births c. To assess women’s nutritional needs d. To test women for disease A common prenatal care model in which women have their first visit with one provider and then subsequent visits in a group setting is called: a. HolisticBirthing b. Midwifery c. CenteringPregnancy d. PathologyCare Which of the following symptoms are suggestive of a cluster headache? a. Bilateral, aching pain not associated with nausea or vomiting and not aggravated by physical activity b. Pain in the left temporal area behind the left eye associated with fever and jaw claudication c. Pulsating pain on the left side of the head associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia d. Thirty-minute episodes of right-sided pain occurring 3–5 times daily associated with rhinorrhea and conjunctival injection [Show Less]
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NURS 6551 MIDTERM EXAM / NURS6551 MIDTERM EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6551 MIDTERM EXAM / NURS6551 MIDTERM EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYNURS 6551 MIDTERM EXAM How can liver and renal diseases result in abnormal u... [Show More] terine bleeding (AUB)? a. They cause an imbalance in platelet aggregation. b. They result in an inability to adequately clear estrogen from the body. c. They cause thyroid dysfunction, which leads to bleeding abnormalities. d. They result in elevated prolactin levels, which lead to bleeding abnormalities. What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer? a. PCOS b. Vulvar cancer c. Herpes simplex An initial or primary genital herpes infection characteristically lasts about: a. 1 week weeks c. 1 month d. 6 weeks Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? a. None b. Some d. All except sterilization Why do adolescents have the highest risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? a. They have the highest risk for bacterial vaginosis. b. They are the least at risk for developing other STIs. c. They are the most sexually active. d. They have decreased immunity to infectious organisms. Exercise-induced amenorrhea is probably due to the combination of low body fat and decreased secretion of: a. Estrogen b. Prolactin c. Progesterone d. GnRH What can result from an imbalance in the vaginal flora? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Human papillomavirus c. Chlamydia d. Bacterial vaginosis The most effective means of obtaining the history of abuse is to use a communication model that: a. Avoids having the patient’s children present during the discussion b. Signals someone is interested and that the woman is not alone c. Emphasizes the belief that violence is not acceptable, no matter what the batterer might have said to the patient d. Allows the patient to talk without interruption and with time to relate, emphasize, and repeat her full story What is the most common STI in the United States? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Herpes simplex virus Progestin-only pills (POPs): a. Have no possible side effects b. Suppress ovulation as reliably as COCs c. May be taken earlier or later than prescribed d. In combination with lactation are nearly 100% effective According to the World Health Organization (WHO), the presence of a disease state: a. Necessitates prompt medical attention b. Excludes a person from being considered healthy c. Does not exclude a person from being considered healthy d. Classifies a person as in poor health Which of the following might be a sign of hyperandrogenism? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Decreased sebum secretion in the skin c. Decreased muscle mass d. Acne associated with menstrual dysfunction Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond: a. 8 weeks’ gestation b. 12 weeks’ gestation c. 4 weeks’ gestation d. 15 weeks’ gestation How can weight loss specifically control symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)? a. It decreases SHBG. b. It increases insulin resistance. c. It decreases androgen levels. d. It increases estrogen levels. Why is acknowledging the oppression of women more difficult within Western societies? a. The multiplicity of minority groups complicates the issue. b. The availability of health care makes acknowledgment more difficult. c. The diversity of the news media clouds the issue. d. Affluence and increased opportunities mask oppression. How does vaginosis differ from vaginitis? a. It must be treated with metronidazole. b. The discharge does not contain white blood cells. c. The discharge does not have an odor. d. It causes itching and/or burning. What area of injury prevention is a focus of the USPSTF’s guidelines for counseling all healthy, asymptomatic women? a. Motor vehicle accidents c. Domestic violence d. All of the above What approach does Healthy People 2020 use to achieve its goals and objectives? a. Social determinants of health b. Evidence-based determinants of health c. Quality-of-life determinants of health d. Longevity promotion determinants of health Approximately what percentage of women with bacterial vaginosis are asymptomatic? a. 25% b. 40% c. 75% d. 50% The genetic counselor has a significant role in the care of women because BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic mutations account for 5 to 10 percent of all _______ cancer cases. a. Breast b. Ovarian c. Uterine d. Pancreatic Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women? a. Candida tropicalis b. Candida albicans c. Candida glabrata d. Candida krusei What term refers to the period from about 7 to 10 days before menstrual flow begins until the first or second day of menstrual flow? a. Amenorrhea b. Premenstrual c. Dysmenorrhea d. Perimenstrua l The ParaGard IUD is impregnated with copper and is effective for: a. 15 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years What is the danger of giving estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) to menopausal women with an intact uterus? a. A higher risk of heart disease b. An increased likelihood of blood clots c. An increased likelihood of osteoporosis d. A higher risk of endometrial cancer Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they: a. Can help protect against STIs, including HIV b. Are coitus dependent and require planning c. Are nonallergenic and male controlled d. Involve the use of hormones A risk factor that could lead to endometrial cancer is: a. Early menopause b. Late menopause c. High blood pressure d. Cervical cancer Of the two intrauterine contraceptive devices currently available in the United States only one provides a local delivery of protestin. It is the: a. Combined contraceptive patch (Ortho Evra) b. Copper IUD (T380A, ParaGard) c. LNG-IUS (Mirena) d. Dalkon Shield Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50? a. 50% b. 70% c. 85% d. 60% What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? a. Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found b. Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle c. Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency d. Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions The most common benign breast masses are: a. Galactoceles b. Hamartomas c. Fibroadenomas and cysts d. Lipomas and phyllodes tumors Which cancer has the highest mortality rate of all gynecological cancers? a. Vulvar cancer b. Endometrial cancer c. Cervical cancer d. Ovarian cancer Vulvovaginal candidiasis accounts for what percentage of all vaginal infections? A. 10–15% B. 20–25% C. 50–55% D. 60–65% Which type of counseling results in a statistically significant reduction in STIs? a. Abstinence-only education b. Counseling delivered in multiple individual or group sessions totaling more than 3 hours c. Remote counseling via Internet or phone d. Brief, individual sessions in the primary care setting Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre-implantation testing with ART? a. Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced b. A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant c. Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders d. The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman What symptom is present in 80 to 90 percent of women with cervical cancer? a. Abnormal vaginal bleeding b. Abnormal vaginal discharge c. Pelvic pain d. Ectopic pregnancy If a patient has not reported a sexual assault to law enforcement, all of the following clinician actions are important except: a. Asking if reporting is something she wants to consider b. Discussing any fears or concerns that she may have about reporting c. Explaining that only some forced sexual contacts are reportable crimes d. Telling her that women who report do better psychologically than those who do not What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test b. Nucleic acid amplification test c. Complete blood count d. Prolactin level test What had been a significant problem in medical research well into the 1990s? a. The focus on randomized clinical trials over epidemiological investigations b. The lack of representation of women in research trials c. The lack of research related to gynecology d. The focus on randomized clinical trials over observational research What is the definitive diagnostic technique for vulvar dermatoses? a. Pap test b. Biopsy c. Colposcopy d. Physical exam Where in the breast do most malignancies develop? a. Upper inner quadrant b. Upper outer quadrant c. Lower outer quadrant d. Lower inner quadrant Approximately how many Americans will contract one or more sexually transmitted infections during their lifetime? a. 50% b. 25% c. 40% d. 60% In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: a. Term births b. Terminal pregnancies c. Total number of pregnancies d. Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean) Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims: a. Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws b. never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms c. Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do d. Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups What is one of the side effects of hormonal contraceptives? a. Reduction in ovarian cancer risk b. Increased menstrual blood loss c. Increased risk of endometrial cancer d. Heavier menstrual flow Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: a. Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services. b. There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects. d. The surgery is not covered by insurance. What is the current (2006) recommendation by the CDC regarding HIV testing? a. Test all patients who report risk behaviors associated with HIV. b. Test all patients unless they explicitly decline to be tested. c. Test all patients. d. Test only those patients who ask to be tested. What is generally the cause of Bartholin’s cyst? a. Complications from gonorrhea b. Cystic fluid in Bartholin’s gland becomes infected c. A fungal infection in Bartholin’s gland d. Obstruction of a duct in Bartholin’s gland Which of the following factors associated with increased risk for developing osteoporosis appears to be the best predictor of risk? a. Smoking b. Low body weight c. Sedentary lifestyle d. Family history What is the definition of primary amenorrhea? a. The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months b. The failure to begin menses by age 14 c. The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction d. The failure to begin menses by age 16 In respect to an evidentiary examination: a. The patient may not withhold consent if the clinician is a mandated reporter. b. The clinician is required to strictly follow local agency protocols, no others. c. The time frame within which it must take place depends on local standards. d. Maintaining the chain of custody of all evidence collected is recommended, not required. QUESTION 1 1. Which of the following is a diagnostic label that is listed in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual IV-TR? 2 4. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder 5 7. Premenstrual magnification 8 10. Dysmenorrhea 1 13. Premenstrual syndrome 1. About half of all pregnancies in the United States are unintended and occur most frequently in women who: 2 4. Are married or divorced 5 7. Have finished high school 8 10. Are between the ages of 18 and 24 1 13. Are members of the majority group What is one factor that can reduce the risk for the development of ovarian cancer? a. Multiple pregnancies b. Transvaginal ultrasounds c. Identification of recurrence d. Weight loss What percentage of toxic shock syndrome cases are related to menses? a. 50% b. 25% c. 75% d. 90% Tubal sterilization for women who have completed their families is highly effective, but there are disadvantages such as: a. Women are less likely to use condoms or return for health services. b. There is a decreased risk of ovarian cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. c. There is a high likelihood of complications and side effects. d. The surgery is not covered by insurance. Women who report experiencing the most severe symptoms of PMS tend to be: In their late 40s 1 3. In their late 40s 4 6. In their early 20s 7 9. In their late teens 1 12. In their late 30s What is the definition of primary amenorrhea? a. The cessation of menses for an interval of 6 months b. The failure to begin menses by age 14 c. The cessation of menses due to outflow tract obstruction d. The failure to begin menses by age 16 How many stages does the Tanner scale use to stage sexual maturity? a. 3 stages b. 5 stages c. 6 stages d. 8 stages Which contraceptive methods have inherent failure rates? 1 3. None 4 6. Some 7 9. All 1 12. All except sterilization What is the most common type of menstrual dysfunction related to hyperandrogenism? a. Painful menstruation b. Absence of menses c. Irregular bleeding d. Early menopause Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are among the most extensively studied medications available. Which one of the following statements about their use has been found to be true? a. Broad-spectrum antibiotics may enhance their efficacy. b. They do not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. c. They decrease the relative risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers. d. Among possible side effects are acne, hirsuitism, and benign breast conditions. Many patients experiencing intimate partner violence (IPV) meet the criteria for diagnosing PTSD. Those criteria include all of the following except: 1 3. Experiencing a traumatic event 4 6. Reexperiencing the traumatic event 7 9. Numbness and avoidance 1 12. Hypovigilance Which of the following is an ethical issue that is specifically associated with pre-implantation testing with ART? 1 3. Ownership of frozen embryos after the couple has divorced 4 6. A surrogate deciding she does not want to relinquish the infant 7 9. Genetic engineering and the ability to reject embryos affected by inherited disorders 1 12. The implantation of multiple embryos, which can create high risk for the embryos and the woman The ________ is probably the most widely used intimate partner violence (IPV) screen. a. Three-question AAS (McFarlane et al., 1992) b. Campbell’s Danger Assessment (2003) c. Sheridan’s HARASS Instrument d. Helton’s nine-question AAS What is the term for the absence of menses for 3 to 6 months in a woman who has previously menstruated and is not pregnant, breastfeeding, or menopausal? 1 3. Primary amenorrhea 4 6. Initial dysmenorrhea 7 9. Secondary amenorrhea 1 12. Primary dysmenorrhea Among women age 55 years and older: a. Macromastia is the most common cause of breast masses. b. Breast masses are presumed malignant until proven otherwise. c. Most breast masses decrease in size over time and many resolve completely. d. Diagnostic imaging of a breast mass and tissue sampling should be deferred. Both very young and elderly sexual assault victims: 1 3. Are addressed in most state mandatory reporting laws 4 6. never has any difficulty describing the incident and related symptoms 7 9. Require the same equipment for proper examination that others do 1 12. Have fewer injuries than victims of other age groups What is the major source of normal vaginal secretions? a. Bartholin’s glands b. Apocrine glands c. Sebaceous glands d. Cervical mucosa Which one of the following statements about intimate partner violence (IPV) is false? 1 3. It refers to an escalating pattern of abuse. 4 6. It includes emotional abuse, such as disregarding what a woman wants. 7 9. It includes using physical force to make a woman engage in a sexual act against her will. 1 12. It refers to a current or former spouse or dating partner of the opposite sex, not someone of the same sex. How is being overweight defined on the BMI table? a. 18–29.9 b. 20–29.9 c. 25–29.9 d. 30 or greater What has contributed to the decreased incidence of hepatitis B over the past 20 years? 1 3. The decrease in PID 4 6. The HBV vaccination 7 9. The increase in condom use 1 12. More precise screening methods Which are the most common forms of hepatitis seen in women’s health practices? a. A and B b. A and D c. B, C, and D d. B and C The factors that enable women to enjoy and control their sexual and reproductive lives, including a physical and emotional state of well-being and the quality of sexual and other close relationships, make up a woman’s: 1 3. Sexual health 4 6. Gender identity 7 9. Gender role behaviors 1 12. Psychosocial orientation What test should be ordered for a woman who is experiencing abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) as well as headaches and peripheral vision changes? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test b. Nucleic acid amplification test c. Complete blood count d. Prolactin level test Surgical abortion represents an option for women who desire termination of pregnancy beyond: 1 3. 8 weeks’ gestation 4 6. 12 weeks’ gestation 7 9. 4 weeks’ gestation 1 12. 15 weeks’ gestation What population of women should be screened for signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction? 1 3. All women 4 6. Older women 7 9. Older women, smokers, and women with diabetes 1 12. Older women, postpartum women, and women with Down syndrome All of the following diagnostic testing and procedures are now infrequently performed in clinical practice except: 1 3. Hysterosalpingo gram 4 6. Sperm penetration assay 7 9. The postcoital test (PCT) 1 12. Endometrial biopsy (EMB) The most common site for endometrial implants found in other parts of the body is: 1 3. The appendix 4 6. The uterus 7 9. The ovaries 1 12. The fallopian tubes Women who have had toxic shock syndrome should be instructed not to use tampons or: a. Barrier contraception methods b. Hormonal contraception methods c. Intravaginal antibiotic cream d. Oral antibiotics Cyclic mastalgia: a. More likely causes unilateral, localized pain that is sharp or burning in nature b. Has an increased risk of occurrence in women whose diets are low in fat c. Occurs most frequently in women who are 18 to 30 years old d. Is caused by hormonal changes associated with menstruation The incidence of uterine fibroids: 1 3. Increases with age 4 6. Decreases with age 7 9. Is often caused by early menopause 1 12. Is related to the age of first menses Patients presenting for STI treatment should be screened for HIV: a. At each visit b. At the end of treatment c. At the beginning of treatment d. Each year 1. What screening recommendation is similar across all groups for colorectal cancer? 2 4. Screening women age 76 to 85 based on risk factors 5 7. Screening only for those women at increased risk 8 10. Screening for all women starting at age 50 1 13. Against routine screening in adults age 76 and over Approximately what percentage of vulvar cancers occur in women older than the age of 50? a. 50% b. 70% c. 85% d. 60% Signs of endometrial or cervical cancer may present abnormal uterine bleeding, often as heavy, prolonged bleeding or: 1 3. Menomet rorrhagia 4 6. Amenorrh ea 7 9. Oligome norrhea 1 12. Polymeno rrhea In the GTPAL system for recording pregnancy history, the “T” stands for: a. Term births b. Terminal pregnancies c. Total number of pregnancies d. Type of birth (spontaneous, assisted, or cesarean) What is now thought to be the most important causative agent in cervical cancer? a. PCOS b. Vulvar cancer c. Herpes simplex d. HPV The most common sites of metastatic spread of invasive breast cancer include all of the following except: 1 3. Bone s 4 6. Lung s 7 9. Pitui tary 1 12. Lym ph node s Who should be screened regularly for STIs? a. Women who have more than one sexual partner b. Women over the age of 21 c. Women who are sexually active d. Women over the age of 15 What is a common vasomotor symptom of menopause? 1 3. Bloo d clots 4 6. Nigh t swea ts 7 9. Oste opor osis 1 12. Hyst erect omy What is the best definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? a. Uterine bleeding for which no pelvic pathology is found b. Uterine bleeding that is irregular during a woman’s menstrual cycle c. Uterine bleeding that is irregular in amount or frequency d. Uterine bleeding that is related to systemic conditions What should be the clinician’s first objective after learning the chief reason the woman desires care? a. To give the reason or problem a structural and chronological framework b. To probe for any additional concerns missed c. To take a family history related to the presenting concern d. To gain insight into the woman’s cultural and social influences No risk factors other than age are identifiable in ______ of women with breast cancer. a. 100% b. 85% c. 60% d. 24% The highest prevalence of human papillomavirus (HPV) is found among women ages: a. 18–20 b. 20–24 c. 25–30 d. 30–35 Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventing pregnancy than more modern methods, interest in them is on the rise because they: a. Can help protect against STIs, including HIV b. Are coitus dependent and require planning c. Are nonallergenic and male controlled d. Involve the use of hormones [Show Less]
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NURS 6551 FINAL EXAM / NURS6551 FINAL EXAM
NURS 6551 FINAL EXAM / NURS6551 FINAL EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY1. The majority of early pregnancy losses are due to: 2. Any woman with a complicated... [Show More] cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: 3. What is significant about cytomegalovirus (CMV)? 4. How can hormonal influences during pregnancy cause backache? 5. In the formula to estimate gestational age, woman are consider pregnant from: ___________________________ 6. What is considered to be a common trigger of psoriasis? 7. What is a contributor to the increase incidence of heartburn during pregnancy? 8. When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? 9. What is an indication of the second stage of labor? 10. How are pregnancy-related DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) needs best met? 11. Qualitative urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably ________ days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg). 12. What is the most typical schedule of prenatal care in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy? 13. Carbohydrate intolerance and increase insulin resistance first recognized in pregnancy is known as: 14. What is a common cause of leg cramps during pregnancy? 15. At what time during pregnancy does nausea typically occur? 16. What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? 17. What is the most common cause of medical complications in pregnancy? 18. In order to maintain continence bladder pressure must be 19. What is the term for a postpartum disorder in which bacteria ascend from the lower genital tract and infect the uterus? 20. What has changed in terms of recommend antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated lower UTIs? 21. Which of the following is a predictor of impending preterm birth? 22. What tends to cause acne in adolescence? 23. When can relief from pregnancy induces nausea and vomiting be …..? 24. What is the most common type of UTI that affects women? 25. The onset of labor is indicate by regular uterine contractions and: 26. What is more likely to occur in women with female genital cutting? 27. Fever associated with pyelonephritis will usually resolve within how many hours of treatment with antibiotics? 28. What is a possible cause of abdominal pain during pregnancy? 29. Uncomplicated acute bacterial cystitis occurs in women who: 30. What is the term for stimulation of the uterus by an external agent to enhance uterine contractions after labor has started? 31. Gender differences in heart disease can be found in: nurs 6551 final exam 32. What is the potential danger of a fetus born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid? 33. What is the term for the craving and purposeful consumption of nonfood items for more than one month? 34. The primary endocrine disorders affecting women are diabetes mellitus and: 35. What is a potential benefit of circumcision? 36. What was the reason that prenatal care began in the early 1900s? 37. Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommend to begin at what age for women with no risk factors? 38. What do current theories suggest as to how cranberry products can reduce UTIs? 39. What can be use as a space-filling device, replacing normal pressure on the vaginal walls when levatorani support is unreliable? 40. After how many weeks’ gestation is a pregnancy loss consider a fetal death or stillbirth? 41. What is important to consider when vaginal bleeding occurs during the first trimester? 42. How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? nurs 6551 final exam 43. What significantly increases the risk of hypertension in women? 44. A common prenatal care model in which women have their first visit with one provider and then subsequent visits in a group setting is ……. 45. Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is base on the woman’s prepregnant BMI and: 46. What should be address during late postpartum maternal evaluation (weeks 2–6)? 47. What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? 48. How does the third stage of labor end? 49. What step can a clinician take to learn more about any chemicals used in a woman’s workplace? 50. What is the leading cause of first-trimester maternal death? [Show Less]
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