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NURS 6531N
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NURS 6531N Midterm Exam 1 – Question and Answers
Walden University NURS 6531N Midterm Exam 1 – Question and Answers 1. The most common cancer found on the auricle is: Answer: Basal Cell Carcinoma ... [Show More] 2. Which of the following medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in the patient? Answer: Antihistamines 3. A 47-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How should the nurse practitioner proceed? Answer: Refer the patient for a barium enema and sigmoidoscopy. 4. Which of the following patient characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis? Answer: Overweight, cyanosis, and normal or slightly increased respiratory rate 5. A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is: Answer: CT scan 6. A patient reports "something flew in my eye" about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all except: Answer: Purulent drainage 7. A 21-year-old college student presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect: Answer: Gonococcal conjunctivitis 8. A 35-year-old man presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should suspect: Answer: Herpes zoster and consider that this patient may be immunocompromised 9. Which type of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis? Answer: Small cell carcinoma 10. An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3-4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has: Answer: Chronic diarrhea 11. Margaret, age 32, comes into the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect? Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus 12. Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the following disease processes? Answer: Acute bronchitis 13. Lisa, age 49, has daily symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily. Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in? Answer: Moderate persistent 14. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep? Answer: Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days 15. A cashier complains of dull ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the day. What is the most likely cause of these problems? Answer: Varicose veins 16. Which statement below is correct about pertussis? Answer: It is also called whooping cough 17. Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis? Answer: Pneumonia 18. A 70 year old patient presents with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which correctly describes the suspected condition? Answer: Diverticulitis 19. Sylvia, age 83, presents with a 3-day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect? Answer: Herpes zoster 20. A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is: Answer: Gallstones 21. When a patient presents with symptoms of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner action? Answer: Order an abdominal ultrasound 22. A false-positive result with the fecal occult blood test can result from: Answer: a high dietary intake of rare cooked beef 23. A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is: Answer: Small bowel follow-through 24. A patient presents to urgent care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner knows that these findings are consistent with: Answer: Systolic heart failure 25. Maxine, Age 76, has just been given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that she should be hospitalized? Answer: Multi-lobar involvement on chest x-ray with the inability to take oral medications 26. A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him: Answer: “It can be cured with surgical excision or radiation therapy." 27. Expected spirometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include: Answer: Increased total lung capacity (TLC) 28. An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient's dysphagia is: Answer: Esophageal cancer and GERD 29. A 40 year old female with history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the nurse practitioner suspect? Answer: Malignant melanoma 30. Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis? Answer: Replace water-soluble vitamins 31. -The nurse practitioner is performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African American man. Which of the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African Americans and other dark-skinned individuals? -nails and feet 32. -An adult presents with tinea corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development? a. -Topical steroid use 33. -A patient has experienced nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response? a. -Prescribe a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as ciprofloxacin (Cipro), and symptom management. 34. -Janine, age 29, has numerous transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What do you order? a. -Antihistamines 35. -Of the following signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical manifestation is: a. -Weight gain 36. -A 16-year-old male presents with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what drug would be least appropriate to prescribe? a. -Amoxicillin 37. A 70-year-old man who walks 2 miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2-mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively, would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans? a. -"Is your leg pain relieved by rest?" 38. -Which of the following statements about malignant melanomas is true? a. -The prognosis is directly related to the thickness of the lesion 39. -Sheila, age 78, presents with a chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing, and peripheral edema. What do you suspect? a. -Heart Failure 40. -Which antibiotic would be the most effective in treating community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a young adult without any comorbid conditions? a. -Clarithromycin (Biaxin) 41. -Which of the following dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and decreasing friction? a. -Powders 42. -A 70 year old patient presents with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits to having been a "sun worshiper." The nurse practitioner suspects actinic keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to: a. -Squamous cell carcinoma 43. -An elderly patient is being seen in the clinic for complaint of "weak spells" relieved by sitting or lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical examination? a. -Compare the patient's blood pressure lying first, then sitting, and then standing. 44. -What oral medication might be used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for surgery? a. -Ursodiol 45. -A 46-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient's problem is: a. -Pseudomonas aeruginosa 46. -Which of the following is not a symptom of irritable bowel syndrome? a. -Weight loss 47. -A patient comes in complaining of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to the right. What additional history is needed? a. -Any recent trauma 48. -Marvin, age 56, is a smoker with diabetes. He has just been diagnosed as hypertensive. Which of the following drugs has the potential to cause the development of bronchial asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis? a. -Beta Blocker 49. -The differential diagnosis for a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following? Gonococcal infection, Thrush, Leukoplakia 50. -A patient presents to the primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient's right eye to his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms is: a. -Ophthalmic zoster 51. -Before initiating an HMG CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders liver function studies. The patient's aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated. What laboratory test(s) should be ordered? a. -Serologic markers for hepatitis 52. -A patient with elevated lipids has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect: a. -Rhabdomyolysis 53. -Treatment of acute vertigo includes: a. -Bedrest and an antihistamine 54. -Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following? a. -Proton pump inhibitor, Antibiotic therapy, Bismuth subsalicylate 55. -Carl, age 78, is brought to the office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly since last night. Carl reports that his vision is "like looking through a veil." He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain. What do you suspect? a. -Retinal detachment 56. -In order to decrease deaths from lung cancer: a. -Patients should be counseled to quit smoking 57. -John, age 33, has a total cholesterol level of 188 mg/dL. How often should he be screened for hypercholesterolemia? a. -Every 5 years 58. -Mort is hypertensive. Which of the following factors influenced your choice of using an alpha blocker as the antihypertensive medication? a. -Mort has benign prostatic hyperplasia 59. -John, age 59, presents with recurrent, sharply circumscribed red papules and plaques with a powdery white scale on the extensor aspect of his elbows and knees. What do you suspect? a. -Psoriasis 60. -Harriet, a 79-year-old woman, comes to your office every 3 months for follow up on her hypertension. Her medications include one baby aspirin daily, Lisinopril 5mg daily, and Calcium 1500 mg daily. At today's visit. Her blood pressure is 170/89. According to JNC VIII guidelines, what should you do next to control Harriet's blood pressure? a. -Add a thiazide diuretic to the Lisinopril 5mg daily 61. -An active 65-year-old man under your care has known acquired valvular aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation. He also has a history of infectious endocarditis. He has recently been told he needs elective replacement of his aortic valve. When he comes into the office you discover that he has 10 remaining teeth in poor repair. Your recommendation would be to: defer any further dental work until his valve replacement is completed a. -suggest he consult with his oral surgeon about having all the teeth removed at once and receiving appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis 62. -Appropriate therapy for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is: a. -Based on etiology 63. Shirley, age 58, has been a diabetic for 7 years. Her blood pressure is normal. Other than her diabetes medications, what would you prescribe today during her routine office visit? a. -An ACE Inhibitor 64. -Medicare is a federal program administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). The CMS has developed guidelines for Evaluation and Management coding, which all providers are expected to follow when coding patient visits for reimbursement. Which of the following is an important consideration regarding billing practices? a. -Failing to bill for billable services will lead to unnecessarily low revenues 65. -A 2 year old presents with a white pupillary reflex. What is the most likely cause of this finding? a. -Retinoblastoma 66. -Harvey has had Meniere's disease for several years. He has some hearing loss but now has persistent vertigo. What treatment might be instituted to relieve the vertigo? a. -A vestibular neurectomy 67. -Which of the following is not a risk factor for coronary arterial insufficiency? a. -Alcohol ingestion 68. -An 18-year-old female presents to the urgent care center complaining of severe pruritus in both eyes that started 2 days ago. Associated symptoms include a headache and fatigue. On examination, the nurse practitioner notes some clear discharge from both eyes and some erythema of the eyelids and surrounding skin. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? a. -Allergic conjunctivitis 69. -A 20-year-old is diagnosed with mild persistent asthma. What drug combination would be most effective in keeping him symptom-free? a. -A bronchodilator PRN and an inhaled corticosteroid 70. -Acute rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease which can follow infection with: a. -Group A Streptococcus 71. -A 60 year old male diabetic patient presents with redness, tenderness, and edema of the left lateral aspect of his face. His left eyelid is grossly edematous. He reports history of a toothache in the past week which "is better." His temperature is 100°F and pulse is 102 bpm. The most appropriate initial action is to: a. -Initiate a parenteral antibiotic and consider hospital admission 72. -If a patient presents with a deep aching, red eye and there is no discharge, you should suspect: a. -Iritis 73. -The National Cholesterol Education Program's Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than: a. -100 mg/dL 74. -A patient presents with classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is instructed on lifestyle modifications and drug therapy for 8 weeks. Three months later he returns, reporting that he was "fine" as long as he took the medication. The most appropriate next step is: a. -Investigation with endoscopy, manometry, and/or pH testing 75. -Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is most common in which age group? a. -6 to 12 years of age 76. -The most appropriate treatment for a child with mild croup is: a. -A cool mist vaporizer 77. -A child complains that his "throat hurts" with swallowing. His voice is very "throaty" and he is hyperextending his neck to talk. Examination reveals asymmetrical swelling of his tonsils. His uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. -Peritonsillar abscess 78. -Salmeterol (Servent) is prescribed for a patient with asthma. What is the most important teaching point about this medication? a. -It is not effective during an acute asthma attack. 79. -Which intervention listed below is safe for long term use by an adult with constipation? a. -Bulk-forming agents 80. -A 40-year-old presents with a hordeolum. The nurse practitioner teaches the patient to: a. -Apply a topical antibiotic and warm compresses. 81. -Sarah has allergic rhinitis and is currently being bothered by nasal congestion. Which of the following meds ordered for allergic rhinitis would be most appropriate? a. -A decongestant nasal spray 82. -What is the Gold standard for the diagnosis of asthma? a. -Spirometry 83. -A patient complains of "an aggravating cough for the past 6 weeks." There is no physiological cause for the cough. Which medication is most likely causing the cough? a. -Enalapril 84. -Stacy, age 27, states that she has painless, white, slightly raised patches in her mouth. They are probably caused by: a. -Candidiasis 85. -Risk factors for acute otitis media (AOM) include all of the following except: a. -African-American ethnicity 86. -Which of the following can result from chronic inflammation of a meibomian gland? a. -A chalazion 87. What conditions must be met for you to bill "incident to" the physician, receiving 100% reimbursement from Medicare? a. -The physician must be on-site and engaged in patient care 88. -Of the following choices, the least likely cause of cough is: a. -Acute pharyngitis 89. -The most common correlate(s) with chronic bronchitis and emphysema is(are): a. -Cigarette smoking 90. -Which choice below is least effective for alleviating symptoms of the common cold? a. - 91. -When teaching a patient with hypertension about restricting sodium, you would include which of the following instructions? a. -Seventy-five of sodium intake is derived from processed foods 92. -Which of the following heart murmurs warrants the greatest concern? a. -Diastolic murmur 93. -A patient presents with an inflamed upper eyelid margin. The conjunctiva is red and there is particulate matter along the upper eyelid. The patient complains of a sensation that "there is something in my eye." What is the diagnosis and how should it be treated? a. -Blepharitis; treat with warm compresses and gentle debridement with a cotton swab 94. -A 57-year-old male presents to urgent care complaining of substernal chest discomfort for the past hour. The EKG reveals ST elevations in Leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse practitioner is aware that these changes are consistent with which myocardial infarction territory? a. -Inferior wall 95. -The nurse practitioner observes a tympanic membrane that is opaque, has decreased mobility, and is without bulging or inflammation. The least likely diagnosis for this patient is: Answer: Acute otitis media (AOM) 96. Alan, age 54, notices a bulge in his midline every time he rises from bed in the morning. You tell him it is a ventral hernia, also known as: Answer: epigastric hernia 97. -A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett's esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient's disorder? Answer: Omeprazole 98. Larry, age 66, is a smoker with hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He is 6 months post-MI. To prevent reinfarction, the most important behavior change that he can make is to: Answer: Quit smoking 99. Risk factors for acute arterial insufficiency include which of the following? Answer: Recent myocardial infarction, Atrial fibrillation, Atherosclerosis 100. Impetigo and folliculitis are usually successfully treated with: Answer: Topical antibiotics [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6531N Midterm Exam 2 – Question and Answers
Walden University NURS 6531N Midterm Exam 2 – Question and Answers Question 1 0 out of 1 points A patient has experienced nausea and vomiting, hea... [Show More] dache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response? **The main focus of treatment is to prevent dehydration by drinking plenty of fluids. In severe cases, hospitalization and intravenous fluids are necessary. Over-the-counter oral rehydration solutions (OHS), such as Pedialyte, can be helpful in mild cases Question 2 1 out of 1 points Which type of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis? Small cell carcinoma Question 3 1 out of 1 points Stacy, age 27, states that she has painless, white, slightly raised patches in her mouth. They are probably caused by: Candidiasis Question 4 1 out of 1 points An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is: GERD & Cancer Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 40 year old presents with a hordeolum. The nurse practitioner teaches the patient to: Apply a topical antibiotic and warm compresses. Question 6 1 out of 1 points Marvin has sudden eye redness that occurred after a strenuous coughing episode. You diagnose a subconjunctival hemorrhage. Your next step is to: Do nothing other than provide reassurance Question 7 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis? Replace water-soluble vitamins Question 8 0 out of 1 points The most common cancer found on the auricle is: **basal cell carcinoma** Question 9 1 out of 1 points Which of the following color changes in a pigmented lesion suggests malignant transformation? **ALL COLORS Question 10 1 out of 1 points Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the following disease processes? Acute bronchitis Question 11 1 out of 1 points The Centor criteria for diagnosis of Group A B-hemolytic streptococcus includes which of the following? A and B only Question 12 1 out of 1 points When teaching a patient with hypertension about restricting sodium, you would include which of the following instructions? Seventy-five of sodium intake is derived from processed foods Question 13 1 out of 1 points Mark has just been given a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of his medications should be discontinued? Nifedipine (Procardia XL) for long-term management of his chronic stable angina. Question 14 1 out of 1 points Which of the following patient characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis? Overweight, cyanosis & normal or slighted increased resp. rate "blue bloaters" Question 15 1 out of 1 points Treatment of acute vertigo includes: -bedrest and an antihistamine Question 16 1 out of 1 points A 35 year old man presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should suspect: Herpes zoster and consider that this patient may be immunocompromised. Question 17 0 out of 1 points A 20 year old is diagnosed with mild persistent asthma. What drug combination would be most effective in keeping him symptom-free? **A bronchodilator PRN and an inhaled corticosteroid Question 18 0 out of 1 points Diagnosis of Crohn’s disease is made considering signs, symptoms and: **Intestinal obstruction demonstrated by plain x-ray of the abdomen Question 19 0 out of 1 points Which of the following is a predisposing condition for furunculosis? **Diabetes mellitus Question 20 1 out of 1 points Expected spirometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include: increased total lung capacity (TLC). Question 21 1 out of 1 points A child complains that his “throat hurts” with swallowing. His voice is very “throaty” and he is hyperextending his neck to talk. Examination reveals asymmetrical swelling of his tonsils. His uvula is deviated to the left. What is the most likely diagnosis? Peritonsillar abscess Question 22 0 out of 1 points Of the following signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical manifestation is: **weight gain. Question 23 1 out of 1 points Salmeterol (Servent) is prescribed for a patient with asthma. What is the most important teaching point about this medication? -It is not effective during an acute asthma attack Question 24 1 out of 1 points An active 65-year-old man under your care has known acquired valvular aortic stenosis and mitral regurgitation. He also has a history of infectious endocarditis. He has recently been told he needs elective replacement of his aortic valve. When he comes into the office you discover that he has 10 remaining teeth in poor repair. Your recommendation would be to: Suggest that he consult with his oral surgeon about removing all the teeth at once and receiving appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis Question 25 1 out of 1 points A middle-aged male presents to urgent care complaining of fever, dysphagia, and shortness of breath. The nurse practitioner notes the patient leaning forward in a tripod position and drooling. The clinical presentation of this patient suggests: Epiglottitis Question 26 0 out of 1 points Alan, age 54, notices a bulge in his midline every time he rises from bed in the morning. You tell him it is a ventral hernia, also known as: **epigastric hernia Question 27 0 out of 1 points The differential diagnosis for a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following? Thrush Question 28 1 out of 1 points Sheila, age 78, presents with a chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing, and peripheral edema. What do you suspect? Heart failure Question 29 1 out of 1 points The American Cancer Society recommends a flexible sigmoidoscopy for colorectal cancer screening in persons at average risk every: flexible sigmoidoscopy (FS) every 5 years, Question 30 1 out of 1 points Jennifer, age 49, who has a history of hyperlipidemia, has symptoms that lead you to suspect unstable angina. Your next action would be to: Hospitalize the client in a monitored setting with pharmacological control of ischemia, arrhythmias, and thrombosis as appropriate. Question 31 1 out of 1 points A 2 year old presents with a white pupillary reflex. What is the most likely cause of this finding? Retinoblastoma Question 32 1 out of 1 points A patient presents to urgent care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner knows that these findings are consistent with: Systolic HF Question 33 1 out of 1 points John, age 33, has a total cholesterol level of 188 mg/dL. How often should he be screened for hypercholesterolemia? OFTEN Question 34 0 out of 1 points A 55 year old man is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him: **Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is the most common type of skin cancer. It’s also the most commonly diagnosed cancer in the United States. Every year, millions of people learn that they have BCC. This skin cancer usually develops on skin that gets sun exposure, such as on the head, neck, or back of the hands. BCC is especially common on the face, often forming on the nose. While BCC often develops on skin that has had the most sun, BCC can appear on any part of the body, including the trunk, legs, and arms. People who use tanning beds also get BCC, and they also tend to get it earlier in life. This type of skin cancer grows slowly. It rarely spreads to other parts of the body. Treatment is important because BCC can grow wide and deep, destroying skin, tissue, and bone. Question 35 0 out of 1 points Your patient Jerry has gout. What do you suggest? **treating the acute attack of inflammation when one or more joints are very inflamed and painful ongoing treatment to reduce the level of urate in your blood and to get rid of urate crystals. The two most commonly used drug treatments for acute attacks of gout are non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine.Acute attacks of gout are often treated with oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can ease pain and possibly reduce some of the inflammation. Examples include ibuprofen, naproxen and etoricoxib. Question 36 1 out of 1 points Your well-nourished 75-year-old patient has come into the office for a physical exam and states that she recently had two nosebleeds. She does not take any anticoagulants, and you have ruled out any coagulopathies. The most likely cause of these nosebleeds is: Trauma or inflammation Question 37 1 out of 1 points A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is: Gallstones Question 38 0 out of 1 points A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is: **Imaging tests used to diagnose small bowel cancer include: Computerized tomography (CT) scan. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Positron emission tomography (PET) CBC, Blood chem, endoscopy, biopsy Question 39 1 out of 1 points Carl, age 78, is brought to the office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly since last night. Carl reports that his vision is “like looking through a veil.” He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain. What do you suspect? Retinal Detachment Question 40 0 out of 1 points Management of a patient with hypertension and an abdominal aortic aneurysm would include: **The goals of pharmacotherapy are to reduce morbidity and to prevent complications. Antihypertensive agents are used to reduce tension on the vessel wall in patients with abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) who have elevated blood pressure (BP). Esmolol (Brevibloc) View full drug information An ultrashort-acting beta1 blocker, esmolol is particularly useful in patients with elevated arterial pressure, especially if surgery is planned. It can be discontinued abruptly if necessary. This agent is normally used in conjunction with nitroprusside. It may be useful as a means of testing beta-blocker safety and tolerance in patients with a history of obstructive pulmonary disease who are at uncertain risk for bronchospasm from beta blockade. The elimination half-life of esmolol is 9 minutes. Labetalol (Trandate) View full drug information Labetalol blocks alpha1-, beta1-, and beta2-adrenergic receptor sites, decreasing blood pressure. Propranolol (Inderal LA, InnoPran XL) View full drug information A class II antiarrhythmic nonselective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker, propranolol has membrane-stabilizing activity and decreases the automaticity of contractions. It is not suitable for emergency treatment of hypertension; it should not be administered IV in hypertensive emergencies. Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL) View full drug information Metoprolol is a selective beta 1-adrenergic receptor blocker that decreases the automaticity of contractions. During IV administration, carefully monitor blood pressure, heart rate, and electrocardiograms. When considering conversion from IV to oral (PO) dosage forms, use the ratio of 2.5 mg PO to 1 mg IV. Nitroprusside (Nitropress) View full drug information Nitroprusside causes peripheral vasodilation by acting directly on venous and arteriolar smooth muscle, thus reducing peripheral resistance. This agent is commonly used IV because of its rapid onset and short duration of action. It is easily titrated to the desired effect. Because nitroprusside is light-sensitive, both bottle and tubing should be wrapped in aluminum foil. Before initiating nitroprusside therapy, administer a beta blocker to counteract the physiologic response of reflex tachycardia that occurs when nitroprusside is used alone. This physiologic response will increase the shear forces against the aortic wall, thus increasing dP/dt. The objective is to keep the heart rate between 60 and 80 beats/min. Morphine sulfate (Astramorph, Infumorph, Duramorph) Fentanyl citrate Question 41 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a symptom of irritable bowel syndrome? Symptoms are: Abdominal pain, cramping or bloating that is typically relieved or partially relieved by passing a bowel movement Excess gas Diarrhea or constipation — sometimes alternating bouts of diarrhea and constipation Weight loss Diarrhea at night Rectal bleeding Iron deficiency anemia Unexplained vomiting Difficulty swallowing Persistent pain that isn't relieved by passing gas or a bowel movement Mucus in the stool Question 42 1 out of 1 points Impetigo and folliculitis are usually successfully treated with: Topical antibiotics Question 43 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a risk factor for coronary arterial insufficiency? Risks are: Older age: Over age 45 years in men and over age 55 years in women Family history of early heart disease Race: Among persons with CAD, the cardiovascular death rate for African Americans is reported to be particularly high; in Asians, low levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), which are considered to be a risk factor for coronary heart disease, appear to be especially prevalent; South Asians appear to have a higher independent risk for cardiovascular disease as well. High blood cholesterol levels (specifically, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol [LDL-C]) High blood pressure Cigarette smoking: Cessation of cigarette smoking constitutes the single most important preventive measure for CAD Diabetes mellitus [1] Obesity Lack of physical activity Metabolic syndrome Mental stress and depression Question 44 1 out of 1 points The most appropriate treatment for a child with mild croup is: a cool mist vaporizer. Question 45 1 out of 1 points John, age 59, presents with recurrent, sharply circumscribed red papules and plaques with a powdery white scale on the extensor aspect of his elbows and knees. What do you suspect? psoriasis. Question 46 1 out of 1 points Appropriate therapy for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is: **In general, 6-8 weeks of therapy with a PPI is required for complete healing of a duodenal ulcer. Active ulcers associated with NSAID use are treated with an appropriate course of PPI therapy and the cessation of NSAIDs.Eradication of H. pylori is recommended in all patients with PUD Based on etiology Question 47 1 out of 1 points An AST that is more than twice the level of ALT is suggestive of: **alcoholic liver disease, Question 48 1 out of 1 points A 45 year old with diabetes has had itching and burning lesions between her toes for 2 months. Scrapings of the lesions confirm the diagnosis tinea pedis. What is the best initial treatment option for this patient? Prescribe an anti-fungal powder for application between her toes and in her shoes and a topical prescription strength anti-fungal cream for other affected areas. Monitor for a secondary bacterial infection. Question 49 0 out of 1 points An elderly patient is being seen in the clinic for complaint of “weak spells” relieved by sitting or lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical examination? Question 50 1 out of 1 points Sandra has celiac disease. You place her on which diet? Gluten-free Question 51 1 out of 1 points Larry, age 66, is a smoker with hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He is 6 months post-MI. To prevent reinfarction, the most important behavior change that he can make is to: Quit smoking Question 52 1 out of 1 points Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal (GABHS) pharyngitis is most common in which age group? 6-12 Question 53 0 out of 1 points A very active elderly patient has a documented diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans. Common expected lower extremity physical exam findings include: ** Question 54 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is a secondary cause of hyperlipidemia? Diabetes mellitus **Diet: excessive intake of saturated fat and/or calories, alcohol consumption, anorexia Drugs: diuretics, beta-blockers, cyclosporine, estrogen, glucocorticoids, anabolic steroids, retinoids, protease inhibitors Disease: chronic liver disease, primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic renal failure, nephrotic syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus Dysmetabolism: hypothyroidism, diabetes, obesity, insulin resistance Question 55 0 out of 1 points Harvey has had Meniere’s disease for several years. He has some hearing loss but now has persistent vertigo. What treatment might be instituted to relieve the vertigo? a vestibular neurectomy Question 56 1 out of 1 points An employee picnic menu includes grilled hamburgers, potato salad, and homemade ice cream sundaes. Within an hour after the meal, several children and parents begin to have nausea, vomiting and stomach cramps. None of those affected have fever. What is the most likely etiologic agent? Staphylococcus aureus Question 57 0 out of 1 points The nurse practitioner is performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and other dark-skinned individuals? The most common site of melanoma in African Americans is the feet, with 60% of patients having subungual or plantar lesions Question 58 0 out of 1 points A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s disorder? ***Periodic endoscopy to monitor the cells in your esophagus. If your biopsies show no dysplasia, you'll probably have a follow-up endoscopy in one year and then every three years if no changes occur. Treatment for GERD. Medication and lifestyle changes can ease your signs and symptoms. Surgery to tighten the sphincter that controls the flow of stomach acid may be an option. Treating GERD doesn't treat the underlying Barrett's esophagus and likely won't decrease the risk of esophageal cancer, but can help make it easier to detect dysplasia. Endoscopic resection, which uses an endoscope to remove damaged cells. Radiofrequency ablation, which uses heat to remove abnormal esophagus tissue. Radiofrequency ablation may be recommended after endoscopic resection. Cryotherapy, which uses an endoscope to apply a cold liquid or gas to abnormal cells in the esophagus. The cells are allowed to warm up and then are frozen again. The cycle of freezing and thawing damages the abnormal cells. Photodynamic therapy, which destroys abnormal cells by making them sensitive to light. Surgery in which the damaged part of your esophagus is removed, and the remaining portion is attached to your stomach Question 59 1 out of 1 points Shirley, age 58, has been a diabetic for 7 years. Her blood pressure is normal. Other than her diabetes medications, what would you prescribe today during her routine office visit? An ACE inhibitor Question 60 1 out of 1 points A 70 year old patient presents with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits to having been a “sun worshiper.” The nurse practitioner suspects actinic keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to: Squamous cell carcinoma. Question 61 0 out of 1 points A patient presents to the office with a blood pressure 142/80. This patient is classified as having: HB stage 1 High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 1 Systolic: From 140 to 159 Diastolic: From 90 to 99 High Blood Pressure (Hypertension) Stage 2 Systolic: 160 or higher Diastolic: 100 or higher Hypertensive Crisis (Emergency care needed) Systolic: Higher than 180 Diastolic: Higher than 110 Question 62 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep? Penicillin Question 63 1 out of 1 points A patient reports “something flew in my eye” about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all except: A purulent discharge. Question 64 0 out of 1 points A patient complains of “an aggravating cough for the past 6 weeks.” There is no physiological cause for the cough. Which medication is most likely causing the cough? ** This class is called the ACE inhibitors. Some examples of ACE inhibitors include lisinopril, captopril, and ramipril. The cough is generally a dry one but can be quite annoying. enalapril? Question 65 0 out of 1 points Which choice below is least effective for alleviating symptoms of the common cold? Antibiotics Liberal intake of fluids Adequate rest Aspirin Warm clothing Question 66 0 out of 1 points An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has: ** Question 67 1 out of 1 points A patient reports to the nurse practitioner that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B a year ago and has not seen a health care provider since then. What information should this patient be given? About 10% of affected persons become carriers and are at increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma. Question 68 1 out of 1 points The most common correlate(s) with chronic bronchitis and emphysema is(are): Smoking Question 69 1 out of 1 points If a patient presents with a deep aching, red eye and there is no discharge, you should suspect: Iritis Question 70 1 out of 1 points Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following? Proton pump inhibitor Antibiotic therapy Bismuth subsalicylate A and B Question 71 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis? Pneumonia Question 72 1 out of 1 points What oral medication might be used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for surgery? Certain chemicals, such as ursodiol or chenodiol, Question 73 1 out of 1 points Which of the following best describes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A heart disease that affects the heart muscle. It causes thickening of the heart muscle (especially the ventricles, or lower heart chambers), left ventricular stiffness, mitral valve changes and cellular changes. Question 74 1 out of 1 points Amaurosis fugax is described as a: A painless temporary loss of vision in one or both eyes. Transient and periodic Question 75 1 out of 1 points The nurse practitioner observes a tympanic membrane that is opaque, has decreased mobility, and is without bulging or inflammation. The least likely diagnosis for this patient is: A common cause of conductive hearing loss in adults ages 20 - 40 is otosclerosis, a gradual hardening of the tympanic membrane that causes the footplate of the stapes to become fixed in the oval window. Presbycusis, a progressive, bilaterally symmetrical perceptive hearing loss arising from structural changes in the hearing organs, usually occurs after age 50. Trauma may result in a conductive hearing loss, but this is certainly not common. Question 76 0 out of 1 points Which of the following heart murmurs warrants the greatest concern? Murmurs that occur during diastole are NEVER INNOCENT and should always raise concern and indicate further investigation Question 77 0 out of 1 points A patient with elevated lipids has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect: Rhabdomyolysis- Drug interaction Question 78 0 out of 1 points Harriet, a 79-year-old woman, comes to your office every 3 months for follow up on her hypertension. Her medications include one baby aspirin daily, Lisinopril 5mg daily, and Calcium 1500 mg daily. At today’s visit. Her blood pressure is 170/89. According to JNC VIII guidelines, what should you do next to control Harriet’s blood pressure? (HTN stage 2) ***First-line and later-line treatments should now be limited to 4 classes of medications: thiazide-type diuretics, calcium channel blockers (CCBs), ACE inhibitors, and ARBs. • Second- and third-line alternatives included higher doses or combinations of ACE inhibitors, ARBs, thiazide-type diuretics, and CCBs. Several medications are now designated as later-line alternatives, including the following: beta-blockers, alphablockers, alpha1/beta-blockers (eg, carvedilo), vasodilating beta-blockers (eg, nebivolol), central alpha2/-adrenergic agonists (eg, clonidine), direct vasodilators (eg, hydralazine), loop diruretics (eg, furosemide), aldosterone antagoinsts (eg, spironolactone), and peripherally acting adrenergic antagonists (eg, reserpine). ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be used in the same patient simultaneously. • CCBs and thiazide-type diuretics should be used instead of ACE inhibitors and ARBs in patients over the age of 75 years with impaired kidney function due to the risk of hyperkalemia, increased creatinine, and further renal impairment. Question 79 0 out of 1 points Of the following, the patient who should be referred for periodic colonoscopy is the patient with: Question 80 0 out of 1 points Dana has ischemic arterial ulcers. What is your first priority when counseling her? Tell her to reduce risk factors to improve tissue perfusion Question 81 1 out of 1 points After thorough history, physical examination, and laboratory tests, a patient is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following initial treatment plans is currently considered most effective? A low fat, tyramine-free, caffeine-free, high fiber diet, along with a daily diary, and attention to psychosocial factors. Question 82 1 out of 1 points Margaret, age 32, comes into the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect? SLE Question 83 1 out of 1 points What is the Gold standard for the diagnosis of asthma? Spirometry Question 84 0 out of 1 points An 8 year old presents to the health clinic with history of acute onset severe sore throat and respiratory distress with stridor in the last 2 hours. The child’s history is positive for fever and pharyngitis for 2 days. What is the most likely diagnosis? Croup Question 85 1 out of 1 points The National Cholesterol Education Program’s Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than: Goal of less than 100 mg/dL with statin treatments in managed care patients at high risk for coronary heart disease Question 86 0 out of 1 points Which intervention listed below is safe for long term use by an adult with constipation? **bulk-forming laxatives, also referred to as fiber supplements, are the gentlest on your body and safest to use long term. Metamucil and Citrucel fall into this category Question 87 1 out of 1 points The nurse practitioner is reviewing a patient’s lab report who completed the hepatitis B series 3 months ago. Which of the following lab results would you expect to see in this patient? Positive hepatitis B surface antibody and negative core antibody- my answer Question 88 0 out of 1 points Sarah has allergic rhinitis and is currently being bothered by nasal congestion. Which of the following meds ordered for allergic rhinitis would be most appropriate? OTC oral antihistamines such as loratadine, cetirizine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, levocetirizine, and diphenhydramine. These medications are most effective at decreasing rhinorrhea, nasal itching, and sneezing. Question 89 0 out of 1 points A cashier complains of dull ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the day. What is the most likely cause of these problems? superficial venous insufficiency (SVI) or deep venous insufficiency (DVI), and to a lesser extent peripheral artery disease (PAD). Question 90 0 out of 1 points A 46-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient’s problem is: Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Question 91 0 out of 1 points A 60 year old male diabetic patient presents with redness, tenderness, and edema of the left lateral aspect of his face. His left eyelid is grossly edematous. He reports history of a toothache in the past week which “is better.” His temperature is 100°F and pulse is 102 bpm. The most appropriate initial action is to: ** Question 92 0 out of 1 points A 57-year-old male presents to urgent care complaining of substernal chest discomfort for the past hour. The EKG reveals ST elevations in Leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse practitioner is aware that these changes are consistent with which myocardial infarction territory? acute inferior myocardial infarction -occurs when inferior myocardial tissue supplied by the right coronary artery, or RCA, is injured due to thrombosis of that vessel. Question 93 0 out of 1 points Which of the following can result from chronic inflammation of a meibomian gland? Blepharitis Dry eye syndrom Stasis, loss of function of glands Question 94 0 out of 1 points A 15 year old male presents with abdominal pain that began in the peri-umbilical area then localized to the right lower quadrant (RLQ). He complains of anorexia, and low grade fever. A complete blood count (CBC) reveals moderate leukocytosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? Acute appendicitis Question 95 0 out of 1 points Which of the following medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in the patient? Question 96 1 out of 1 points A false-positive result with the fecal occult blood test can result from: A high dietary intake of rare cooked beef Question 97 0 out of 1 points A patient presents with classic symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). He is instructed on life style modifications and drug therapy for 8 weeks. Three months later he returns, reporting that he was “fine” as long as he took the medication. The most appropriate next step is: ** Question 98 0 out of 1 points Risk factors for acute arterial insufficiency include which of the following? Question 99 1 out of 1 points A patient presents to the primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is: OPthalmic zoster Question 100 0 out of 1 points Which of the following are classic features of ulcerative colitis? Signs and symptoms include bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps and pain, and an inability to move the bowels in spite of the urge to do so (tenesmus). Left-sided colitis. Inflammation extends from the rectum up through the sigmoid and descending colon. [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Walden University Week 1 Grade A Plus 2020
NURS 6531N Walden University Week 1 Grade A Plus 2020 Question 1 I can roll over, grasp a rattle, and reach for things and have begun feeding myself fi... [Show More] nger foods, but I can’t wave bye-bye yet. How old am I? a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months 1 points Question 2 Question 2 Which of the following children has abnormal language development? a. Repeats simple phrases at 32 months b. Stutters when excited or tired at 4 years of age c. Has a 10-word vocabulary at 12 months d. Speech is 50% understandable at 36 months of age 1 points Question 3 You see a 13-year-old who reports she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability to successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget developmental stage? a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Concrete operational d. Formal operational 1 points Question 4 I can walk well on tiptoes, my speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I can’t balance on one foot for 1 second. I am: a. 2 years old (24 months) b. 2½ years old (30 months) c. 3 years old (36 months) d. 4 years old (48 months) 1 points Question 5 The first sign of the onset of female puberty is usually: a. Sparsely distributed fine, pale pubic hairs b. Breast buds c. Menarche d. Peak height growth velocity 1 points Question 6 You see a 3-year-old for a well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry, and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which aspect of temperament? a. Activity b. Rhythmicity c. Adaptability d. Threshold of response 1 points Question 7 You see a 6-month-old for a well-child visit and the mother tells you the child’s grandmother recommends that she give the infant whole milk and eggs when he starts solids. What should you tell the mother? a. It is okay to begin weaning to whole milk between 9 and 12 months of age. b. The most important thing to add at this time is table foods; discussion of other dietary issues will happen at 9 months of age. c. The baby should remain on infant formula and stage 2 and 3 baby foods for now. d. It is a good idea to introduce whole eggs to the diet of 5- to 6-month-olds. 1 points Question 8 A typically developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital development? a. No pubic hair at all b. Small amount of long, downy pubic hair along the labia majora c. Coarse, curly pubic hair that extends laterally from the labia majora d. Adult-like pubic hair that extends along the mons pubis but does not include the medial thighs 1 points Question 9 Most children can independently get dressed by themselves by age: a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 1 points Question 10 The most likely weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6½ pounds would be: a. 13 to 14 pounds b. 19 to 20 pounds c. 25 to 25 pounds d. Impossible to estimate 1 points Question 11 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Walden University Week 1 Grade A Plus 2020
NURS 6531N Walden University Week 1 Grade A Plus 2020 Question 1 I can roll over, grasp a rattle, and reach for things and have begun feeding myself ... [Show More] finger foods, but I can’t wave bye-bye yet. How old am I? a. 5 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months 1 points Question 2 Which of the following children has abnormal language development? a. Repeats simple phrases at 32 months b. Stutters when excited or tired at 4 years of age c. Has a 10-word vocabulary at 12 months d. Speech is 50% understandable at 36 months of age 1 points Question 3 You see a 13-year-old who reports she is learning some basic geometry (areas, volume etc.). The ability to successfully master these concepts occurs during which Piaget developmental stage? a. Sensorimotor b. Preoperational c. Concrete operational d. Formal operational 1 points Question 4 I can walk well on tiptoes, my speech is 50% understandable, I know six body parts, but I can’t balance on one foot for 1 second. I am: a. 2 years old (24 months) b. 2½ years old (30 months) c. 3 years old (36 months) d. 4 years old (48 months) 1 points Question 5 The first sign of the onset of female puberty is usually: a. Sparsely distributed fine, pale pubic hairs b. Breast buds c. Menarche d. Peak height growth velocity 1 points Question 6 You see a 3-year-old for a well-child visit. His mother informs you that potty training has been very easy because he “has an amazing internal clock. He falls asleep, gets hungry, and has bowel movements at the same time every day.” This describes which aspect of temperament? a. Activity b. Rhythmicity c. Adaptability d. Threshold of response 1 points Question 7 You see a 6-month-old for a well-child visit and the mother tells you the child’s grandmother recommends that she give the infant whole milk and eggs when he starts solids. What should you tell the mother? a. It is okay to begin weaning to whole milk between 9 and 12 months of age. b. The most important thing to add at this time is table foods; discussion of other dietary issues will happen at 9 months of age. c. The baby should remain on infant formula and stage 2 and 3 baby foods for now. d. It is a good idea to introduce whole eggs to the diet of 5- to 6-month-olds. 1 points Question 8 A typically developing 8-year-old girl will have which of the following genital development? a. No pubic hair at all b. Small amount of long, downy pubic hair along the labia majora c. Coarse, curly pubic hair that extends laterally from the labia majora d. Adult-like pubic hair that extends along the mons pubis but does not include the medial thighs 1 points Question 9 Most children can independently get dressed by themselves by age: a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years 1 points Question 10 The most likely weight of a 1-year-old whose birth weight was 6½ pounds would be: a. 13 to 14 pounds b. 19 to 20 pounds c. 25 to 25 pounds d. Impossible to estimate 1 points Question 11 When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 3 Quiz – Question and Answers (100% Correct)
NURS 6531N Week 3 Quiz – Question and Answers (100% Correct) QUESTION 1 1. A 9-year-old who weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front... [Show More] passenger seat of the family car. Your best response is: a. The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is the backseat of the car. b. Air bags are not effective for children this age and will often not reach the child. c. It’s okay to sit in the front seat as long as air bags are not present or are turned off. d. Booster seats should never be used after 8 years of age. 1 points QUESTION 2 1. Which of the following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and adolescents to have healthy sexual development? a. Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development in the early school-age visits. b. Inform parents about a child’s risky sexual behaviors. c. Ask teenage girls if they have a boyfriend. d. Assessing parental beliefs regarding sexual education. 1 points QUESTION 3 1. For adolescent girls, peak height velocity should occur by Tanner Stage (SMR): a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 1 points QUESTION 4 1. Which of the following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true? a. A negative drug screen effectively rules out drug use. b. Taking drug screen samples from adolescents without their assent is acceptable in pediatrics. c. Tobacco is the most commonly abused substance during adolescence. d. Most teen alcohol abusers are not “functional” alcoholics. 1 points QUESTION 5 1. Which of the following statements about bullying is true? a. About 35% of second graders report having been bullied. b. It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.). c. Boys are more likely to indirectly bully while girls usually directly bully. d. Victims rarely have physical symptoms. 1 points QUESTION 6 1. Which of the following screenings should adolescents have done annually? a. Psychosocial screening, blood pressure, body mass index b. Blood pressure, hemoglobin, complete physical exam c. Complete physical exam, psychosocial screening, drug testing d. Psychosocial screening, cholesterol screening, blood pressure 1 points QUESTION 7 1. The mother of a 5-year-old informs you her daughter cheats when playing board games. What is the best response? a. Encourage the parents to use timeouts when cheating occurs. b. Explain that this is developmentally normal until the child is old enough to understand complex game rules. c. Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before starting games. d. Have the mother explain to her daughter that cheating, like lying, is unacceptable behavior and make her stop playing. 1 points QUESTION 8 1. A 12-year-old male states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling him about the next step in pubertal development, you state: a. The penis will grow in length and width b. The penis will grow in width. c. Facial hair will appear. d. Changes in your voice will occur. 1 points QUESTION 9 1. Which of the following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child? a. Operational thinking b. Erikson’s initiative versus guilt c. Formal operational thinking d. Conservation, classification, and seriation 1 points QUESTION 10 1. Appropriate anticipatory guidance for the parents of an 8-year-old girl includes: a. Preparation for an increase in nervous mannerisms and activity b. Preparation for decreased needs for parental guidance and supervision c. Information that the child will start to value personal idols and role models d. Information on menstrual hygiene practices 1 points QUESTION 11 1. When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 4 Quiz – Question and Answers
NURS 6531N Week 4 Quiz – Question and Answers QUESTION 1 1. A 9-year-old who weighs 70 pounds asks why she can’t sit in the front passenger seat o... [Show More] f the family car. Your best response is: a. The safest place for children under 12 years old and 100 pounds is the backseat of the car. b. Air bags are not effective for children this age and will often not reach the child. c. It’s okay to sit in the front seat as long as air bags are not present or are turned off. d. Booster seats should never be used after 8 years of age. 1 points QUESTION 2 1. Which of the following is a priority nurse practitioner role to help children and adolescents to have healthy sexual development? a. Begin anticipatory guidance related to sexuality and normal pubertal development in the early school-age visits. b. Inform parents about a child’s risky sexual behaviors. c. Ask teenage girls if they have a boyfriend. d. Assessing parental beliefs regarding sexual education. 1 points QUESTION 3 1. For adolescent girls, peak height velocity should occur by Tanner Stage (SMR): a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 1 points QUESTION 4 1. Which of the following statements regarding adolescent substance use is true? a. A negative drug screen effectively rules out drug use. b. Taking drug screen samples from adolescents without their assent is acceptable in pediatrics. c. Tobacco is the most commonly abused substance during adolescence. d. Most teen alcohol abusers are not “functional” alcoholics. 1 points QUESTION 5 1. Which of the following statements about bullying is true? a. About 35% of second graders report having been bullied. b. It occurs most commonly during unstructured times (lunch, recess, etc.). c. Boys are more likely to indirectly bully while girls usually directly bully. d. Victims rarely have physical symptoms. 1 points QUESTION 6 1. Which of the following screenings should adolescents have done annually? a. Psychosocial screening, blood pressure, body mass index b. Blood pressure, hemoglobin, complete physical exam c. Complete physical exam, psychosocial screening, drug testing d. Psychosocial screening, cholesterol screening, blood pressure 1 points QUESTION 7 1. The mother of a 5-year-old informs you her daughter cheats when playing board games. What is the best response? a. Encourage the parents to use timeouts when cheating occurs. b. Explain that this is developmentally normal until the child is old enough to understand complex game rules. c. Tell the mother to spend time clarifying board game rules before starting games. d. Have the mother explain to her daughter that cheating, like lying, is unacceptable behavior and make her stop playing. 1 points QUESTION 8 1. A 12-year-old male states he noticed an enlargement of his testes and scrotum. When counseling him about the next step in pubertal development, you state: a. The penis will grow in length and width b. The penis will grow in width. c. Facial hair will appear. d. Changes in your voice will occur. 1 points QUESTION 9 1. Which of the following issues or concepts is relevant to the school-age child? a. Operational thinking b. Erikson’s initiative versus guilt c. Formal operational thinking d. Conservation, classification, and seriation 1 points QUESTION 10 1. Appropriate anticipatory guidance for the parents of an 8-year-old girl includes: a. Preparation for an increase in nervous mannerisms and activity b. Preparation for decreased needs for parental guidance and supervision c. Information that the child will start to value personal idols and role models d. Information on menstrual hygiene practices 1 points QUESTION 11 1. When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Yes No [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 2 Quiz 2 – Question and Answers (Graded A)
NURS 6531N Week 2 Quiz 2 – Question and Answers (Graded A) Results Displayed: Selected Answers and Correct Answers Question 1 1 out of 1 point... [Show More] s A middle-aged male presents to urgent care complaining of fever, dysphagia, and shortness of breath. The nurse practitioner notes the patient leaning forward in a tripod position and drooling. The clinical presentation of this patient suggests: Answer Selected Answer: A. Epiglottitis Correct Answer: A. Epiglottitis Question 2 1 out of 1 points An 18-year-old female presents to the urgent care center complaining of severe pruritus in both eyes that started 2 days ago. Associated symptoms include a headache and fatigue. On examination, the nurse practitioner notes some clear discharge from both eyes and some erythema of the eyelids and surrounding skin. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms? Answer Selected Answer: A. Allergic conjunctivitis Correct Answer: A. Allergic conjunctivitis Question 3 1 out of 1 points A patient presents to the primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is: Answer Selected Answer: B. Ophthalmic zoster Correct Answer: B. Ophthalmic zoster Question 4 1 out of 1 points Amaurosis fugax is described as a: Answer Selected Answer: B. Transient, periodic visual loss Correct Answer: B. Transient, periodic visual loss Question 5 1 out of 1 points In adults, the most common cause of cellulitis is: Answer Selected Answer: C. Staphylococcus aureus Correct Answer: C. Staphylococcus aureus Question 6 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep? Answer Selected Answer: A. Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days Correct Answer: A. Penicillin V 500 milligrams PO every 8 hours for 10 days Question 7 1 out of 1 points Which of the following dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and decreasing friction? Answer Selected Answer: A. Powders Correct Answer: A. Powders Question 8 1 out of 1 points Potential complications of sinusitis include: Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 9 1 out of 1 points A patient is unable to read any letters on the Snellen chart with both eyes. The nurse practitioner records the patient’s visual acuity as: Answer Selected Answer: B. < 20/200 OU Correct Answer: B. < 20/200 OU Question 10 0 out of 1 points The Centor criteria for diagnosis of Group A B-hemolytic streptococcus includes which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: E. A, B, and C Correct Answer: D. A and B only Wednesday, November 27, 2013 9:29:44 PM EST [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 4 Quiz 2 – Question and Answers (Graded A)
NURS 6531N Week 4 Quiz 2 – Question and Answers (Graded A) Results Displayed: Selected Answers and Correct Answers Question 1 1 out of 1 points ... [Show More] Characteristics associated with the murmur of aortic stenosis include: Answer Selected Answer: E. A and C Correct Answer: E. A and C Question 2 1 out of 1 points A 28-year-old female presents to urgent care complaining of a fluttering feeling in her chest. She has been ill with vomiting and diarrhea for two days, but states the GI symptoms have now stopped. She just is concerned about the heart rate. The EKG reveals multifocal PVCs. The patient’s laboratory values are: serum potassium 2.6 mEq/L, serum sodium 144 mEq/L, serum chloride 90 mEq/L, and blood glucose 98 mg/dl. The nurse practitioner believes that the patient’s PVCs are likely caused by which of the following: Answer Selected Answer: C. Hypokalemia Correct Answer: C. Hypokalemia Question 3 0 out of 1 points Which of the following disorders is associated with genetic cardiovascular disease? Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Question 4 1 out of 1 points Diastolic murmurs are best heard with: Answer Selected Answer: B. The diaphragm of the stethoscope Correct Answer: B. The diaphragm of the stethoscope Question 5 0 out of 1 points A 58-year-old female presents to the office complaining about heaviness in both legs. She works at a local department store and complains of discomfort when standing. She states that her mother had similar problems with her legs. Physical exam findings reveal no varicosities or edema. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following in the differential diagnosis? Answer Selected Answer: E. A, B, and C Correct Answer: D. A and c Question 6 0 out of 1 points During the physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of an S4 gallop. The nurse practitioner realizes that an S4 occurs: Answer Selected Answer: D. Before the S3 Correct Answer: B. Before the S1 Question 7 0 out of 1 points Clinical diagnosis of an aortic aneurysm is suspected when the aorta is: Answer Selected Answer: D. At least 6 cm in diameter Correct Answer: B. At least 3 cm in diameter Question 8 1 out of 1 points An 88-year-old female presents complaining of “liquid” draining from her leg. She denies pain or injury. The physical exam reveals an irregularly shaped shallow ulceration on the posterior left lower extremity above the ankle. An area of warmth and erythema surround the lesion. The nurse practitioner suspects: Answer Selected Answer: A. A venous stasis ulcer Correct Answer: A. A venous stasis ulcer Question 9 0 out of 1 points The National Cholesterol Education Program’s Adult Treatment Panel III recommends that the goal for low density lipoproteins in high risk patients be less than: Answer Selected Answer: B. 130 mg/dL Correct Answer: C. 100 mg/dL Question 10 1 out of 1 points Which of the following are essential components of the vascular physical exam? Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 11 0 out of 1 points Important education for patients with moderate or severe aortic stenosis includes: Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: A. Avoiding competitive sports Question 12 1 out of 1 points Which of the following best describes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? Answer Selected Answer: C. Enlarged left ventricle and septum Correct Answer: C. Enlarged left ventricle and septum Question 13 1 out of 1 points Which of the following physical disorders are associated with obesity? Answer Selected Answer: E. All of the above Correct Answer: E. All of the above Question 14 0 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a risk factor for coronary arterial insufficiency? Answer Selected Answer: A. Hyperhomocysteinemia Correct Answer: D. Alcohol ingestion Question 15 1 out of 1 points Differential diagnosis of an abdominal aortic aneurysm includes which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: E. A, B, and C Correct Answer: E. A, B, and C Question 16 0 out of 1 points A 57-year-old male presents to urgent care complaining of substernal chest discomfort for the past hour. The EKG reveals ST elevations in Leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse practitioner is aware that these changes are consistent with which myocardial infarction territory? Answer Selected Answer: B. Anterior wall Correct Answer: A. Inferior wall Question 17 0 out of 1 points Which of the following physical exam findings suggests the presence of heart failure? Answer Selected Answer: C. Pericardial friction rub Correct Answer: B. S3 Question 18 1 out of 1 points Studies have documented that cardiovascular disease is a leading cause of death in women. Which of the following are potential causes for the prevalence of this disease in women? Answer Selected Answer: D. A and B Correct Answer: D. A and B Question 19 1 out of 1 points Causes of lipid disorders include: Answer Selected Answer: E. All of the above Correct Answer: E. All of the above Question 20 0 out of 1 points Which of the following is not a risk factor for development of an abdominal aortic aneurysm? Answer Selected Answer: D. Family history Correct Answer: A. Obesity Wednesday, November 27, 2013 9:49:51 PM EST OK [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 7 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A)
NURS 6531N Week 7 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A) Results Displayed: Selected Answers and Correct Answers. Question 1 1 out of 1 points ... [Show More] Urine cultures should be obtained for which of the following patients? Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 2 0 out of 1 points The organism most often associated with prostatitis is: Answer Selected Answer: C. Chlamydia trachomatis Correct Answer: D. Escherichia coli Question 3 1 out of 1 points Essential aspects of the physical examination for a female with suspected sexually transmitted infection includes: Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 4 1 out of 1 points Risk factors for prostate cancer include all of the following except: Answer Selected Answer: B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy Correct Answer: B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy Question 5 1 out of 1 points Which of the following antibiotics should not be prescribed for a pregnant woman in the 3rd trimester? Answer Selected Answer: A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Correct Answer: A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Question 6 1 out of 1 points Which of the following is an acceptable treatment regimen for a female with suspected uncomplicated gonococcal urethritis or cervicitis? Answer Selected Answer: B. Doxycycline 100 milligrams PO twice a day for 7 days Correct Answer: B. Doxycycline 100 milligrams PO twice a day for 7 days Question 7 1 out of 1 points Potential side effects of levofloxacin include which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 8 1 out of 1 points Medications indicated to treat overflow incontinence include which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: C. Tamsulosin hydrochloride (Flomax) Correct Answer: C. Tamsulosin hydrochloride (Flomax) Question 9 1 out of 1 points Mixed incontinence is defined as Answer Selected Answer: A. Urge and stress incontinence Correct Answer: A. Urge and stress incontinence Question 10 1 out of 1 points Clinical variables indicative of a urinary tract infection include which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: D. A and B Correct Answer: D. A and B Wednesday, November 27, 2013 10:53:34 PM EST OK [Show Less]
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NURS 6531N Week 11 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A)
NURS 6531N Week 11 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A) Results Displayed: Selected Answers and Correct Answers. Question 1 1 out of 1 points ... [Show More] Which of the following is a contraindication for metformin therapy? Answer Selected Answer: B. Creatinine > 1.5 Correct Answer: B. Creatinine > 1.5 Question 2 1 out of 1 points Potential causes of hypocalcemia include which of the following? Answer Selected Answer: D. All of the above Correct Answer: D. All of the above Question 3 1 out of 1 points An 81-year-old female is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. When considering drug therapy for this patient, the nurse practitioner is most concerned with which of the following side effects? Answer Selected Answer: C. Hypoglycemia Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia Question 4 1 out of 1 points Hyperthyroidism is associated with: Answer Selected Answer: D. B and C Correct Answer: D. B and C Question 5 1 out of 1 points The initial laboratory test of choice to diagnose hyperthyroidism is: Answer Selected Answer: A. TSH Correct Answer: A. TSH Question 6 1 out of 1 points A 30-year-old married female with two children is diagnosed with primary hypothyroidism. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism is: Answer Selected Answer: C. Autoimmune hypothyroidism Correct Answer: C. Autoimmune hypothyroidism Question 7 1 out of 1 points Diabetes screening recommendations for asymptomatic adults age 45 and over include which of the following: Answer Selected Answer: D. A and B Correct Answer: D. A and B Question 8 1 out of 1 points Which of the following characteristics are associated with metabolic syndrome in women? Answer Selected Answer: A. Waist circumference > 80 cm Correct Answer: A. Waist circumference > 80 cm Question 9 0 out of 1 points A 75-year-old female is diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and asks the nurse practitioner what the treatment for this disorder is. The nurse practitioner explains: Answer Selected Answer: D. Primary hyperparathyroidism is treated with parenteral parathyroid hormone (PTH) Correct Answer: B. Primary hyperparathyroidism is treated with parathyroidectomy Question 10 0 out of 1 points Potential side effects of methimazole (Tapazol) include: Answer Selected Answer: D. B and C Correct Answer: E. All of the above OK [Show Less]
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