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NURS 6521N WEEK 1 TO WEEK 11 QUIZZES, MIDTERM EXAM,FINAL EXAM: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 1 TO WEEK 11 QUIZZES, MIDTERM EXAM,FINAL EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
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NURS 6521N FINAL EXAM / NURS6521N FINAL EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N FINAL EXAM / NURS6521N FINAL EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYNURS 6521N FINAL EXAM • Question 1 If pitting edema is unilateral, y... [Show More] ou would suspect occlusion of a: • Question 2 Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes? • Question 3 It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if: • Question 4 A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: • Question 5 A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: • Question 6 The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the: • Question 7 The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: • Question 8 During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: • Question 9 To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: • Question 10 The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about: • Question 11 Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: • Question 12 If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a: • Question 13 The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: • Question 14 An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: • Question 15 The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg. • Question 16 Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: • Question 17 Postural hypotension is defined as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings. • Question 18 Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? • Question 19 Normal changes of the aging brain include: • Question 20 Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called: • Question 21 To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with: • Question 22 As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: • Question 23 When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign. • Question 24 Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: • Question 25 A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is: • Question 26 Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? • Question 27 Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is: • Question 28 You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her? • Question 29 Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): • Question 30 Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify: • Question 31 Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. • Question 32 You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of: • Question 33 You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: • Question 34 Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by: • Question 35 Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: • Question 36 To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested? • Question 37 Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: • Question 38 Bimanual examination of the uterus includes: • Question 39 While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: • Question 40 Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: • Question 41 When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site. • Question 42 If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? • Question 43 Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal: • Question 44 The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate: • Question 45 You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: • Question 46 Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? • Question 47 You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: • Question 48 A cervical polyp usually appears as a: • Question 49 A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: • Question 50 Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: • Question 51 An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? • Question 52 Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: • Question 53 Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: • Question 54 A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: • Question 55 Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: • Question 56 To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: • Question 57 Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: • Question 58 Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: • Question 59 When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: • Question 60 While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should: • Question 61 You are assessing Mr. Z.'s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient's edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as: • Question 62 While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: • Question 63 Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: • Question 64 The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is: • Question 65 When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when: • Question 66 The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: • Question 67 At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say: • Question 68 The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: • Question 69 A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: • Question 70 The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: • Question 71 For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into: • Question 72 One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: • Question 73 Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? • Question 74 You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with: • Question 75 Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: • Question 76 The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: • Question 77 A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale. • Question 78 When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother's lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to: • Question 79 The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who: • Question 80 The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient: • Question 81 The foramen ovale should close: • Question 82 A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: • Question 83 The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include: • Question 84 A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: • Question 85 Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: • Question 86 A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: • Question 87 The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: • Question 88 Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel: • Question 89 You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion? • Question 90 Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy's current problem? • Question 91 When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: • Question 92 You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis's heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is: • Question 93 A patient you are seeing in the emergency department for chest pain is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. During the health history interview of his family history, he relates that his father had died of "heart trouble." The most important follow-up question you should pose is which of the following? • Question 94 The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the: • Question 95 In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: • Question 96 The Mini-Mental State Examination: • Question 97 Tarry black stool should make you suspect: • Question 98 An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: • Question 99 The Denver II is a tool used to determine: • Question 100 Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N MIDTERM EXAM / NURS6521N MIDTERM EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N MIDTERM EXAM / NURS6521N MIDTERM EXAM(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYNURS 6521N MIDTERM EXAM • • Question 1 When recording physical f... [Show More] indings, which data are recorded first for all systems? • Question 2 To approximate vocal frequencies, which tuning fork should be used to assess hearing? • Question 3 You are examining a pregnant patient and have noted a vascular lesion. When you blanche over the vascular lesion, the site blanches and refills evenly from the center outward. The nurse documents this lesion as a: • Question 4 Penicillin is considered a • Question 5 Mr. Akins is a 78-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of hearing loss. Which of the following are changes in hearing that occur in the elderly? Select all that apply. • Question 6 Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G.'s _____ history. • Question 7 When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include: • Question 8 The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is ______. • Question 9 Coarse, dry, and brittle hair is associated with which metabolic disorder? • Question 10 Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? • Question 11 Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are "stopped up." An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the: • Question 12 Your patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to: • Question 13 A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to: • Question 14 Bulging of an amber tympanic membrane without mobility is most often associated with: • Question 15 Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course? • Question 16 Knowledge of the culture or cultures represented by the patient should be used to: • Question 17 Mr. Franklin is speaking with you, the health care provider, about his respiratory problem. Mr. Franklin says, "I've had this cough for 3 days, and it's getting worse." You reply, "Tell me more about your cough." Mr. Franklin states, "I wish I could tell you more. That's why I'm here. You tell me what's wrong!" Which caregiver response would be most appropriate for enhancing communication? • Question 18 A guideline for history taking is for caregivers to: • Question 19 The most common form of birth trauma of the scalp is: • Question 20 Peritonitis produces bowel sounds that are: • Question 21 Unusual white areas on the skin may be due to: • Question 22 Cherry angiomas are a common finding in: • Question 23 A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is: • Question 24 You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise, then counterclockwise to compensate for: • Question 25 Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting: • Question 26 Mr. L. presents to the clinic with severe groin pain and a history of kidney stones. Mr. L.'s son tells you that, for religious reasons, his father wishes to keep any stone that is passed into the urine filter that he has been using. What is your most appropriate response? • Question 27 Mrs. Grace is a 58-year-old patient who has a diagnosis of pernicious anemia. Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia? • Question 28 Mrs. Raymonds is a 24-year-old patient who has presented for a routine concern over her current weight. In your patient teaching with her, you explain the importance of macronutrients. Which of the following is a macronutrient? • Question 29 The examiner's evaluation of a patient's mental status belongs in the: • Question 30 Subjective and symptomatic data are: • Question 31 You are collecting a history from an 11-year-old girl. Her mother is sitting next to her in the examination room. When collecting history from older children or adolescents, they should be: • Question 32 Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should: • Question 33 A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, "Yeah," "No," or "I guess so." Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask? • Question 34 In examining the neck of a 34-year-old female patient, you note that the uppermost ridge of the tracheal cartilage is at the: • Question 35 Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n): • Question 36 In counseling a client regarding nutrition education, you explain that linoleic acid, a major fatty acid, is thought to be essential for: • Question 37 George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to "check his allergies." He has been having "green nasal discharge" for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care? • Question 38 Which of the following is the most accurate reflection of an individual's food intake? • Question 39 As part of your health promotion education for a new patient, you explain that the risk factors for skin cancer include: • Question 40 You have just completed a skin assessment on Mr. Baker. During your assessment, you have transilluminated a skin lesion. During the physical examination, you know that skin lesions are transilluminated to distinguish: • Question 41 Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed: • Question 42 When communicating with older children and teenagers, you should be sensitive to their: • Question 43 Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient's tympanic membrane? • Question 44 Tangential lighting is best used for inspecting skin: • Question 45 Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as: • Question 46 Mr. Donalds is a 45-year-old roofer. Your inspection to determine color variations of the skin is best conducted: • Question 47 Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at: • Question 48 Which technique is most likely to result in the patient's understanding of questions? • Question 49 The term denoting the caregiver's need to do no harm to the patient is: • Question 50 Mrs. G. reports an increase in her alcohol intake over the past 5 years. To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the: • Question 51 Mr. Williams, age 25, has recovered recently from an upper and lower respiratory infection. He describes a long-standing nasal dripping. He is seeking treatment for a mild hearing loss that has not gone away. Information concerning his chronic postnasal drip should be documented within which section of his history? • Question 52 Which technique is most likely to result in the patient's understanding of questions? • Question 53 Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process? • Question 54 Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a: • Question 55 Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should: • Question 56 Peritonitis produces bowel sounds that are: • Question 57 Recommended carbohydrate content of total dietary intake (% total calories) is ____%. • Question 58 Ms. Otten is a 45-year-old patient who presents with a complaint of weight gain. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain? • Question 59 Tracheal tug suggests the presence of a(n): • Question 60 Your patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to: • Question 61 Mrs. Hartzell is a 34-year-old patient who has presented for nutritional counseling because she is a vegetarian. Deficiency of which of the following is a concern in the vegetarian diet? • Question 62 When palpating the abdomen, you should note whether the liver is enlarged in the: • Question 63 Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you have noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of: • Question 64 White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are: • Question 65 Fluorescing lesions are best distinguished using a(n): • Question 66 Nuchal rigidity is most commonly associated with: • Question 67 Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: • Question 68 Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)? • Question 69 A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she: • Question 70 A college student comes to the student health center complaining of difficulty in concentrating during class and while studying. The diet that would contribute to this problem is one that consumes mostly: • Question 71 You are palpating a patient's thyroid and find that its broadest dimension measures 4 cm. The right lobe is 25% larger than the left. These data would indicate: • Question 72 A serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and forms a protective cover for many abdominal structures is the: • Question 73 You are completing a general physical examination on Mr. Rock, a 39-year-old man with complaints of constipation. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient: • Question 74 The review of systems is a component of the: • Question 75 Mr. Sanchez is a 45-year-old gentleman who has presented to the office for a physical examination to establish a new primary care health care provider. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? • Question 76 During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: • Question 77 When you are questioning a patient regarding alcohol intake, she tells you that she is only a social drinker. Which initial response is appropriate? • Question 78 The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks: • Question 79 During an interview, you have the impression that a patient may be considering suicide. Which action is essential? • Question 80 Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence? • Question 81 Mr. Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination. On examination, you note costochondral beading, enlarged skull, and bowed legs and diagnose him with rickets. A deficiency of which fat-soluble micronutrient can result in rickets? • Question 82 To perform the Rinne test, place the tuning fork on the: • Question 83 Percussing at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the correct technique for locating the: • Question 84 Mr. Abdul is a 40-year-old Middle Eastern man who presents to the office for a first visit with the complaint of new abdominal pain. You are concerned about violating a cultural prohibition when you prepare to do his rectal examination. The best tactic would be to: • Question 85 Mrs. Kinder is a 39-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of an earache. In explaining to the patient about the function of her ears, which ear structure would you tell her is responsible for equalizing atmospheric pressure when swallowing, sneezing, or yawning? • Question 86 Which of the following is an "ABCD" characteristic of malignant melanoma? • Question 87 Ms. Davis is a 27-year-old patient with a BMI of 33. Based on her BMI, your diagnosis would be: • Question 88 Small, minute bruises are called: • Question 89 As you explain your patient's condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to: • Question 90 Brittle nails are typical findings in: • Question 91 Which of the following organs is part of the alimentary tract? • Question 92 When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include: • Question 93 Sweat glands, hair, and nails are all formed from: • Question 94 Inspection of the abdomen should begin with the patient supine and the examiner: Selected Answer: seated on the patient's right. • Question 95 Expected normal percussion tones include: • Question 96 The adult recommended dietary fat intake should be _____ g/day. • Question 97 Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant's middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to: • Question 98 A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness, you should palpate over the: • Question 99 Macronutrients are so named because they: • Question 100 Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the blood pressure cuff's width covers: [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 1 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 1 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 1 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 1 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN NURS 6521N WEEK 1 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY: • Question 1 ... [Show More] 1 out of 1 points A nurse is caring for a postsurgical patient who has small tortuous veins and had a difficult IV insertion. The patient is now receiving IV medications on a regular basis. What is the best nursing intervention to minimize the adverse effects of this drug therapy? • Question 2 1 out of 1 points A patient has been prescribed 1 mg lorazepam (Ativan) sublingual prior to the scheduled insertion of a peripherally inserted central (PIC) line. How should the nurse direct the patient when administering this medication? • Question 3 1 out of 1 points A nurse is caring for a patient who has recently moved from Vermont to south Florida. The patient has been on the same antihypertensive drug for 6 years and has had stable blood pressures and no adverse effects. Since her move, however, she reports “dizzy spells and weakness” and feels that the drug is no longer effective. The nurse suspects that the change in the effectiveness of the drug is related to • Question 4 1 out of 1 points An elderly postsurgical patient has developed postoperative pneumonia in the days following abdominal surgery and is being treated with a number of medications. Which of the following medications that the nurse will administer has the slowest absorption? • Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 56-year-old female patient has been admitted to the hospital with chronic muscle spasms and has been prescribed a new medication to treat the spasms. She has a poorly documented allergy to eggs, synthetic clothes, and perfumes. What is the priority action of the nurse to ensure that prescribed medication does not experience an allergic reaction? • Question 6 1 out of 1 points An unconscious patient has been brought to the hospital, and the physician has prescribed a life-saving drug to be administered parenterally. Which of the following methods would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use when administering the medication? • Question 7 1 out of 1 points The nurse's assessment of a community-dwelling adult suggests that the client may have drug allergies that have not been previously documented. What statement by the client would confirm this? Question 8 1 out of 1 points A mother brings her 4-year-old child, who is vomiting and has a temperature of 103°F into the emergency department (ED). The ED physician orders acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the fever. The best form of Tylenol to give the child, considering her presentation, would be • Question 9 1 out of 1 points A patient has been prescribed an oral drug that is known to have a high first-pass effect. Which of the following measures has the potential to increase the amount of the free drug that is available to body cells? • Question 10 1 out of 1 points A 60-year-old African-American man lives with a number of chronic health problems. Genetic factors are likely to influence his etiology and/or treatment of • Question 11 1 out of 1 points A nurse is discussing with a patient the efficacy of a drug that his physician has suggested, and he begin taking. Efficacy of a drug means which of the following? • Question 12 1 out of 1 points A patient who has been admitted to the hospital for a mastectomy has stated that she has experienced adverse drug effects at various times during her life. Which of the following strategies should the nurse prioritize in order to minimize the potential of adverse drug effects during the patient's stay in the hospital? • Question 13 1 out of 1 points An older adult patient with a history of Alzheimer's disease and numerous chronic health problems has been prescribed several medications during his current admission to hospital and recent declines in the patient's cognition have impaired his ability to swallow pills. Which of the following medications may the nurse crush before administering them to this patient? • Question 14 1 out of 1 points 30 ml = • Question 15 1 out of 1 points In response to a patient's nausea, the nurse has mixed a dose of an antiemetic with 50 mL of sterile normal saline and will administer the dose by IV piggyback. What is the rationale for the use of IV piggyback? • Question 16 1 out of 1 points A patient is treated with an antibiotic for an infection in his leg. After 2 days of taking the antibiotic, the patient calls the clinic and reports that he has a rash all over his body. The nurse is aware that a rash can be an adverse effect of an antibiotic and can be either a biologic, chemical, or physiologic action of the drug, which is an example of • Question 17 1 out of 1 points A nurse is instructing a patient concerning a newly prescribed drug. Which of the following should be included to help improve patient compliance and safety? • Question 18 1 out of 1 points Which of the following statements best defines how a chemical becomes termed a drug? • Question 19 1 out of 1 points During a clinic visit, a patient complains of having frequent muscle cramps in her legs. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient has been taking over-the-counter laxatives for the past 7 years. The nurse informed the patient that prolonged use of laxatives • Question 20 1 out of 1 points A nurse is caring for a patient who has had part of her small intestine removed due to cancer. She has also now developed hypertension and has been prescribed a new medication to decrease her blood pressure. While planning the patient's care, the nurse should consider a possible alteration in which of the following aspects of pharmacokinetics? • Question 21 1 out of 1 points A patient has been prescribed several drugs and fluids to be given intravenously. Before the nurse starts the intravenous administration, a priority assessment of the patient will be to note the • Question 22 1 out of 1 points A patient has been receiving regular doses of an agonist for 2 weeks. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate? • Question 23 1 out of 1 points The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an aminoglycoside (antibiotic) that can be nephrotoxic. Which of the following will alert the nurse that the patient may be experiencing nephrotoxicity? • Question 24 1 out of 1 points A patient who has ongoing pain issues has been prescribed meperidine (Demerol) IM. How should the nurse best administer this medication? • Question 25 1 out of 1 points Tylenol 325 mg/tablet, patient needs 650 mg; how many tables should patient take? • Question 26 1 out of 1 points Mr. Nguyen, age 71, will soon be discharged home from the hospital after a successful coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). During patient education about his drug regimen, Mr. Nguyen's nurse should prioritize teach about • Question 27 1 out of 1 points A 90-year-old frail, elderly woman has arrived at the emergency department with a broken hip and in acute respiratory distress. Succinylcholine will be used because of the need for rapid endotracheal intubation, and then the woman will be sent to surgery. Due to the woman's frail condition, she is at risk for skin breakdown. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate? • Question 28 1 out of 1 points An older adult who lives in a long-term care facility has recently begun taking losartan (Cozaar) for the treatment of hypertension. The nurse who provides care for this resident should recognize that this change in the resident's medication regimen make create a risk for • Question 29 1 out of 1 points A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He reports to the nurse that he has chronic arthritis and circulation problems. Further assessment by the nurse reveals that the patient has a history of mild hypertension. He explains that he owns a business and lives alone. The nurse determines that he is within the normal weight range for his height and age but has a fondness for spicy foods and sweets. Which of the mentioned patient variables will have the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the patient's drug therapy? • Question 30 1 out of 1 points Mr. Lacuna is an 83-year-old resident of a long-term care facility who has a diagnosis of moderate Alzheimer disease. Mr. Lacuna's physician recently prescribed oral rivastigmine, but he was unable to tolerate the drug due to its gastrointestinal effects. As a result, he has been ordered the transdermal patch form of the medication. When administering this form of rivastigmine, the nurse should • Question 31 1 out of 1 points A 70-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation has been admitted with a lower gastrointestinal bleed. During the nurse's admission assessment, the nurse realizes that the patient has been taking ginkgo biloba supplements in addition to her prescribed warfarin, a combination that has resulted in bleeding. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify when planning this patient's care? • Question 32 1 out of 1 points An elderly man has been admitted to a residential care facility and the nurse has conducted a medication reconciliation. The man has taken numerous drugs in the past, including a course of bicalutamide (Casodex) several years earlier. The nurse recognizes this drug as being an antiandrogen and is consequently justified in presuming that the man has a history of what disease? • Question 33 1 out of 1 points An elderly patient with a history of congestive heart failure has been admitted to hospital with failure to thrive and admission blood work reveals a hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL. The care team has consequently administered two units of packed red blood cells, but auscultation of the client's lungs now reveals diffuse crackles. Administration of what drug is likely to resolve the patient's pulmonary edema? • Question 34 1 out of 1 points A 79-year-old patient in a long-term care facility is to receive an intravenous fat emulsion. Which of the following lab values would be a priority for the nurse to assess before administration? • Question 35 1 out of 1 points A community health nurse is performing a home visit to an elderly client who receives twice-weekly wound care. The client has mentioned that she has been having difficulty sleeping, a problem that she has not previously experienced. Which of the following measures should the nurse suggest? • Question 36 1 out of 1 points A nurse is caring for an 81-year-old patient in a long-term care facility who takes nine different medications each day. The patient has a recent diagnosis of seizure disorder and has begun treatment with phenytoin (Dilantin), a highly protein-bound drug. After 1 month of Dilantin therapy, the patient is still extremely drowsy and sluggish. The nurse determines that the prolonged adverse effect is likely due to • Question 37 1 out of 1 points A 72-year-old man with pain issues is being given a drug by the intramuscular route. His serum blood level concentrations have been erratic. The nurse suspects that this may be due to • Question 38 1 out of 1 points A nurse is teaching an older adult patient about polypharmacy. Which of the following statements best describe this term? • Question 39 1 out of 1 points A 70-year-old man with diabetes mellitus is taking metoprolol (Lopressor) to manage his hypertension. The nurse would be sure to instruct the patient to • Question 40 1 out of 1 points Before the administration of morphine to a 65-year-old man who has cancer, the initial action of the nurse would be to check the patient's UNIVERSITY [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 2 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 2 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 2 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 2 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY Question 1 A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperat... [Show More] ed by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that A. drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves. B. she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine. C. pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use. D. under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription. 1 points Question 2 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient of Chinese origin who has bipolar disorder. The physician has prescribed lithium carbonate (Eskalith) to treat the disorder. The nurse is aware that the lithium dose will likely be given in a A. weight-based protocol dose. B. higher-than-normal dose. C. lower-than-normal dose. D. child's dose. 1 points Question 3 A nurse has just completed a medication history on a newly admitted patient. In order to complete medication reconciliation for this patient the nurse will A. Provide instructions pertaining to each medication the patient is currently taking and then add the medications ordered during the hospitalization. B. explain to the patient the pharmacokinetics of each drug he will be taking in the hospital. C. compare the medications ordered by the health care provider with the list of medications obtained from the patient and communicate discrepancies to the health care provider. D. determine the best pharmacy for the patient to buy his medications. 1 points Question 4 Which of the following patients should be advised by the nurse to avoid over-the-counter cold and allergy preparations that contain phenylephrine? A. A 52-year-old male with adult-onset diabetes B. A 62-year-old male with gout C. A 47-year-old female with hypertension D. A 17-year-old female with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection 1 points Question 5 A patient has taken an overdose of a vitamin/mineral supplement containing magnesium. The nurse will be sure to assess A. body temperature. B. blood pressure. C. fluid intake. D. skin changes. 1 points Question 6 A nurse practitioner understands when prescribing a medication that there are certain questions to address. Check all that apply. A. Is there a need for the drug in treating the presenting problem? B. Is this the best drug for the presenting problem? C. Can the patient take the prescribed drug? D. None of the above. 1 points Question 7 A patient has been prescribed a drug that can be self-administered at home. Which of the following would be the most important information for the nurse to relate to the patient concerning self-administration of a drug? A. The pharmacokinetics of the drug B. The therapeutic effects and possible adverse effects C. The cost of the drug D. Where to purchase the medication 1 points Question 8 What critical piece of information is missing from the following medication order: Amoxicillin 250 mg every 8 hours? A. Dose B. Route C. Frequency D. Trade name of the drug 1 points Question 9 A patient has been prescribed a Scheduled 5 drug, an example of this drug is A. Antianxiety B. Narcotic Analgesics C. Barbituates D. Antitussives 1 points Question 10 A nurse is providing a patient with a list of drugs as a part of the patient's plan of care. Which of the following drug nomenclatures should the nurse use to list the drugs? A. The drugs' biologic names B. The drugs' chemical names C. The drugs' trade names D. The drugs' generic names 1 points Question 11 These drugs have a potential for abuse, but the potential is lower than for drugs on Schedule 2. These drugs contain a combination of controlled and noncontrolled substances. Use of these drugs can cause a moderate to low physiologic dependence and a higher psychological dependence. A verbal order can be given to the pharmacy and the prescription can be refilled up to five times within 6 months. Examples include certain narcotics (codeine) and nonbarbiturate sedatives. This is scheduled drug A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule 2 C. Schedule 3 D. Schedule 4 1 points Question 12 A nurse is a member of a research team that is exploring unique differences in responses to drugs that each individual possesses, based on genetic make-up. This area of study is called A. pharmacotherapeutics. B. pharmacoeconomics. C. pharmacodynamics. D. pharmacogenomics. 1 points Question 13 A nurse working for a drug company is involved in phase III drug evaluation studies. Which of the following might the nurse be responsible for during this stage of drug development? A. Monitoring drug effects in patients who are selected to participate in a study, who have the disease that the drug is meant to treat B. Administering investigational drugs to patients C. Informing healthy, young volunteer participants of possible risks that could occur from taking an experimental drug D. Working with animals who are given experimental drugs 1 points Question 14 A patient will begin three new medications as part of her treatment plan. The nurse practitioner understands that proper disposal of medications is key when the nurse practitioner states A. Many medications can be potentially harmful if taken by someone other than the person the medication was prescribed. B. Consult with several pharmacists to determine the cost of each drug. C. educate the patient to discard syringes in recycle bin D. consult with the physician concerning choice of medications for the patient. 1 points Question 15 The nurse practitioner orders Amoxicillin 500 mg tid? What is the total amount of medication patient will take per day? A. 500 mg B. 1000 mg C. 1500 mg D. 150 mg 1 points Question 16 Drugs have a valid medical use but a high potential for abuse, both psychological and physiologic. In an emergency, a Schedule 2 drug may be prescribed by telephone if a written prescription cannot be provided at the time. However, a written prescription must be provided within 72 hours with the words authorization for emergency dispensing written on the prescription. These prescriptions cannot be refilled. A new prescription must be written each time. Examples include certain amphetamines and barbiturates. This is scheduled drug A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule 2 C. Schedule 3 D. Schedule 4 1 points Question 17 A nurse receives an order to administer a critically ill patient two drugs immediately (stat). The nurse begins the process by A. consulting a drug guide for compatibility. B. identifying the patient by checking the armband and asking the patient to state his name. C. questioning the patient concerning allergies. D. washing his or her hands before handling the medications. 1 points Question 18 Which of the following serves to protect the public by ensuring the purity of a drug and its contents? A. Federal legislation B. United States Adopted Names Council C. Nursing drug guides D. American Pharmaceutical Association 1 points Question 19 A Native American man who lives a traditional lifestyle is scheduled to have heart surgery. The tribal chief has requested that the tribe's medicine man perform a ritual before the patient goes to surgery. The nurse's response to this request should be A. “I don't think that will help, but you have the right to perform the ritual.” B. “I'm sorry, but that will not be possible.” C. “I will need to inform the doctor and see if he will allow this.” D. “As long as the ritual does not interfere with the patient's preoperative care, it will be okay.” 1 points Question 20 A nurse is admitting a Mexican woman to the hospital who cannot speak or understand English. The patient is alone, and there is no interpreter available. When trying to communicate with the patient the nurse will A. use nonverbal language. B. exaggerate her mouth movements. C. speak loudly. D. seak fast. 1 points Question 21 A physician has ordered subcutaneous injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain for a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware that there is a high abuse potential for this drug and that it is categorized as a A. C-IV drug. B. C-II drug. C. C-III drug. D. C-I drug. 1 points Question 22 A nurse who provides care in a long-term care facility is documenting a new resident's medication regimen on the resident's intake admission. The nurse is documenting the generic, rather than proprietary, names of the resident's current drugs because A. documentation of trade names for drugs requires permission from the manufacturer. B. there is a potential for confusion and miscommunication if proprietary names are used. C. drugs with generic names are prescribed and used differently than proprietary drugs. D. proprietary names of drugs can vary from state to state. 1 points Question 23 A patient comes to primary clinic for strep throat. A throat swab culture is sent to lab. What information is required for the nurse practitioner to disclose on lab transmittal? A. National Provider Identification (NPI) B. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA) D. None of the above 1 points Question 24 A 46-year-old white American has been prescribed a drug that binds to acid glycoproteins. The nurse understands that white Americans usually receive A. the recommended normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. B. a higher-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. C. a lower-than-normal dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. D. one half the recommended dose of drugs that bind to acid glycoproteins. 1 points Question 25 Drugs have a high potential for abuse. There is no routine therapeutic use for these drugs and they are not available for regular use. They may be obtained for “investigational use only” by applying to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Agency. Examples include heroin and LSD. Which scheduled drug is this? A. Schedule 1 B. Schedule 2 C. Schedule 3 D. Schedule 4 [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 3 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 3 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 3 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 3 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQuestion 1 A normal maintenance dose for digoxin is 0.125 ... [Show More] to 0.5 mg/day. In which of the following patients would the nurse most likely administer a lower-than-normal maintenance dose of digoxin? A. A 32-year-old female with cardiomegaly B. A 25-year-old male with congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation C. A 79-year-old male with cardiomegaly D. A 42-year-old female with a third heart sound 1 points Question 2 A nurse has been following a male patient who is taking hydralazine, clonidine, and a diuretic for hypertension. After 2 weeks of medication therapy, the patient begins to complain of numbness and tingling in his hands and feet. The nurse suspects that these signs or symptoms are A. signs of peripheral neuritis. B. an adverse effect of the diuretic. C. an idiosyncratic reaction to clonidine. D. a result of new onset diabetes. 1 points Question 3 Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from the administration of an adrenergic agonist? A. A woman who has been admitted with a suspected ischemic stroke B. A woman who is in labor and may require a caesarean section C. A man who has a diagnosis of primary hypertension D. A man who is in cardiogenic shock following a myocardial infarction 1 points Question 4 A patient is diagnosed with heart failure and is started on digoxin. On the second day of therapy, lab values, the ECG results, and the patient's symptoms indicate that the medication is not producing a therapeutic effect. An appropriate nursing action would be to A. seek orders to increase the dosage. B. continue to administer the drug as ordered. C. insist that another drug should be ordered in addition to the digoxin. D. seek orders to discontinue digoxin and start another drug. 1 points Question 5 A patient is brought to the emergency department in hypertensive crisis. Nitroprusside is administered intravenously. The patient experiences diaphoresis and dizziness. Which of the following is the appropriate action by the nurse? A. Give the nitroprusside at the ordered rate B. Ask the prescriber to reduce the dose C. Obtain an order for naloxone D. Slow the rate of the infusion 1 points Question 6 A nurse is caring for a male patient who has a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). His drug therapy includes lovastatin. Because the patient has a history of severe renal disease, the nurse will assess for which of the following? A. Increase in the statin tolerance level B. Decrease in plasma concentration of lovastatin C. Increase in plasma concentration of lovastatin D. Decrease in LDL 1 points Question 7 A 55-year-old man's hypertension has not responded adequately to his current medication regimen consisting or an ACE inhibitor, a beta-blocker and a thiazide diuretic. As a result, he will soon begin taking hydralazine (Apresoline) in addition to his existing antihypertensives. The addition of this medication to his regimen means that the nurse must prioritize which of the following nursing actions? A. Close monitoring of the patient's electrolyte levels B. Supervision of the patient when performing activities of daily living C. Checking the patient's blood glucose levels before each meal and at bedtime D. Frequent assessment of the patient's cardiac status 1 points Question 8 A nurse who provides care in a busy clinic is aware of the high incidence and prevalence of hyperlipidemia and the consequent need for antihyperlipidemics in many patients. Treatment of high cholesterol using statins would be contraindicated in which of the following patients? A. A female client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy (gall bladder removal) earlier this year B. A resident of a long-term care facility whose Alzheimer disease is being treated with donepezil (Aricept) C. An obese male client who is a heavy alcohol user and who has cirrhosis of the liver D. A 72-year-old man who has emphysema and a 55-pack-year history of cigarette smoking 1 points Question 9 A patient with class-IV CHF has a medication regimen consisting of metoprolol (Lopressor), enalapril (Vasotec), and furosemide (Lasix). In addition to regularly assessing the patient s heart rate, the nurse should prioritize assessment of the patient's A. exercise tolerance. B. blood pressure. C. cognition. D. intake and output. 1 points Question 10 A nurse is providing patient education to a 35-year-old man who has been prescribed clonidine (Catapres) as part of step 2 antihypertensive therapy. The nurse should anticipate that the drug will be administered A. subcutaneously. B. orally. C. transdermally. D. intravenously. 1 points Question 11 A nurse is the cardiac care unit is preparing to hang an intravenous dose of dofetilide (Tikosyn) for a patient who has just been admitted. What is the most likely goal of this intervention? A. To convert the patient's atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm B. To treat sinus bradycardia accompanied by hypotension C. To treat the patient's ventricular tachycardia D. To resolve the patient's uncompensated heart failure 1 points Question 12 A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe chest pain. The emergency department physician orders intravenous nitroglycerin 5 mcg/min, titrate dose by 5 mcg/min every 3 to 5 minutes per infusion pump as needed. Before administering the nitroglycerin, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Urinary output C. Blood pressure D. Heart rate 1 points Question 13 A 77-year-old man's chronic heart failure is being treated with a regimen of quinapril (Accupril) and furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following assessment findings would suggest that the loop diuretic is contributing to a therapeutic effect? A. The man's chest sounds are clear and his ankle edema is lessened. B. The man's glomerular filtration rate and creatinine levels are within reference ranges. C. The man's potassium and sodium levels remain with reference ranges. D. The man's heart rate is between 60 and 70 beats per minute with a regular rhythm. 1 points Question 14 An expected outcome for a patient who has just taken sublingual nitroglycerin should be A. increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. B. decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure. C. increased heart rate and increased blood pressure. D. decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. 1 points Question 15 A nurse is responsible for patient education for a 48-year-old woman who has been prescribed colestipol. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication A. two hours before a meal. B. after a meal. C. at bedtime. D. before a meal. 1 points Question 16 A priority nursing assessment for a patient who is to receive an alpha- or beta-adrenergic antagonist would be to A. measure urine output. B. assess heart rate. C. check blood glucose level. D. monitor respiratory rate. 1 points Question 17 A nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted into the cardiac care unit with acute, decompensated heart failure. Nesiritide (Natrecor) has been ordered. When preparing for administration of the drug, the nurse will A. administer the initial IV bolus over approximately 60 seconds. B. add the reconstituted vial of medication to a 1,000 mL IV bag. C. shake the vial vigorously to mix the medication for reconstitution. D. use the reconstituted solution within a 36-hour period. 1 points Question 18 A resident of a long-term care facility receives 12.5 mg metoprolol (Lopressor) at 8 AM and 8 PM daily. Before administering this drug, the nurse should perform and document what assessments? A. Level of consciousness and pain level B. Oxygen saturation and respiratory rate C. Temperature and respiratory rate D. Heart rate and blood pressure 1 points Question 19 A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of chest pain. He has an order for 0.3 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin prn for chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first when he complains of chest pain? A. Ask the patient to lie back and try to relax B. Administer a tablet under his tongue and repeat the action in 5 and 10 minutes if the pain has not subsided C. Call the physician D. Have the patient swallow a tablet every 5 minutes for 15 minutes 1 points Question 20 A nurse explains to a patient that nitroglycerin patches should be applied in the morning and removed in the evening. This medication schedule reduces the potential for A. toxic effects. B. adverse effects. C. nitrate tolerance. D. nitrate dependence. 1 points Question 21 Several months of treatment with a statin accompanied by lifestyle modifications have failed to appreciably improve a patient's cholesterol levels. Consequently, the patient has been prescribed cholestyramine. The nurse should recognize that this drugs achieves its therapeutic effect by A. binding LDL to HDL. B. inhibiting the synthesis of cholesterol. C. oxidizing cholesterol to bile acids. D. mitigating the harmful effects of atherosclerosis by promoting vasodilation. 1 points Question 22 A 77-year-old patient has a long-standing history of hypertension, a health problem that is being treated with metoprolol and a thiazide diuretic. Before administering the 8 AM dose of these medications, what assessments should the nurse perform and document? (Select all that apply.) A. Heart rate B. Oxygen saturation C. Blood pressure D. Respiratory rate E. Temperature 1 points Question 23 The nurse is performing patient education for a woman who will soon begin treatment of hyperlipidemia with simvastatin (Zocor). The patient has asked the nurse if there are any “bad side effects” that she should be aware of. Which of the following statements should underlie the nurse's response? A. The patient may experience a dry cough, especially at night, for the first few weeks after starting to take the simvastatin. B. Most patients tolerate statins well, with minor muscle aches being among the most common adverse effects. C. The patient will have to schedule regular blood work to closely monitor her kidney function for the duration of treatment. D. Many patients experience gastrointestinal upset with statins, which can be partially alleviated by taking the drug with food. 1 points Question 24 A nurse has administered a medication to a patient with hypertension. The prescribed drug is supposed to decrease cardiac output. A decrease in cardiac output would most likely A. increase the synergistic effect of the drug. B. decrease the amount of circulating blood sent through the kidneys. C. increase the serum creatinine level. D. decrease drug absorption in the blood. 1 points Question 25 A clinic nurse has been assigned a 49-year-old female patient who has a history of diabetes. A recent diagnosis of hypertension has been made, and the patient has been prescribed a thiazide diuretic and labetalol. The patient will be scheduled to return to the clinic once a month for the next 6 months. A priority action by the nurse will be to A. monitor the patient's respiratory rate. B. weigh the patient. C. monitor the patient's blood pressure. D. question the patient about her dietary intake. [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 4 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 4 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 4 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 4 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
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NURS 6521N WEEK 5 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 5 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 5 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 5 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQuestion 1 A nurse who works at an outpatient mental healt... [Show More] h clinic follows numerous clients who have schizophrenia, many of whom are being treated with olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following clients likely has the highest susceptibility to the adverse effects of olanzapine? A. A client who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle B. A client who was recently treated with intravenous antibiotics because of cellulitis in his lower leg C. A client who has a body mass index of 16.5 (underweight) and who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily D. A client who has type 1 diabetes and who practices poor glycemic control 1 points Question 2 A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan A. has a shorter half-life than morphine. B. causes the respiratory rate to decrease. C. combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine. D. has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine. 1 points Question 3 A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that A. intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application. B. pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site. C. there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient's traumatized skin. D. lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control. 1 points Question 4 A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms? A. Amphetamines B. Opioids C. Benzodiazepines D. Sedative–hypnotic drugs 1 points Question 5 A nurse is caring for a patient who abuses marijuana. The treatment for marijuana abuse consists mainly of A. no nursing action unless the patient experiences a “bad trip.” B. drug therapy with bromocriptine (Parlodel). C. nonpharmacologic interventions combined with an exercise program. D. aggressive respiratory assistance 1 points Question 6 A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse's priority assessments? A. Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes B. Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level C. Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status D. Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness 1 points Question 7 A patient has a history of tonic-clonic seizures that have been successfully treated with phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years. Phenytoin achieves a therapeutic effect by A. simultaneously potentiating the effects of GABA and inhibiting reuptake. B. decreasing the influx of sodium into neurons. C. by slowing the function of calcium channels within the neurological system. D. increasing the levels of available glutamate. 1 points Question 8 A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated? A. A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion B. A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing C. A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen D. A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction 1 points Question 9 A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in A. acute renal failure. B. cognitive deficits. C. liver damage. D. gastrointestinal distress. 1 points Question 10 A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient's concerns? A. “If you do become addicted, we'll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.” B. “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.” C. “It's important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.” D. “You don't need to worry. It's actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.” 1 points Question 11 A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that the child has been vomiting, and the nurse notes that the child's face is flushed and she is diaphoretic. The mother thinks that the child may have swallowed carbachol drops. A diagnosis of cholinergic poisoning is made. Which of the following drugs would be administered? A. Cevimeline B. Acetylcholine C. Nicotine D. Atropine 1 points Question 12 A 59-year-old woman has presented to a clinic requesting a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) in order to treat her recurrent anxiety. Her care provider, however, believes that a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would be more appropriate. What advantage do SSRIs have over benzodiazepines in the treatment of anxiety? A. SSRIs have a more rapid therapeutic effect. B. SSRIs do not require serial blood tests during therapy. C. SSRIs generally have fewer adverse effects. D. SSRIs require administration once per week, versus daily or twice daily with benzodiazepines. 1 points Question 13 A 62-year-old woman has been prescribed a fentanyl transdermal patch for chronic cancer pain. The patient asks the nurse how long it will take for her to experience pain relief. The nurse will instruct the patient that she should feel pain relief in approximately A. 32 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 6 hours. D. 24 hours. 1 points Question 14 Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work? A. Alprazolam (Xanax) B. Lorazepam (Ativan) C. Diazepam (Valium) D. Buspirone (BuSpar) 1 points Question 15 A 20-year-old man has begun treatment of the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia using olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following symptoms would be categorized as a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A. Auditory hallucinations B. Lack of interest in normal activities C. Visual hallucinations D. Delusional thinking 1 points Question 16 A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)? A. A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep B. A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid C. A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week D. A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night 1 points Question 17 A patient is suffering from acute inhalant intoxication. The priority nursing intervention will be to A. provide an emesis basin. B. administer epinephrine. C. administer oxygen therapy. D. assess the patient's psychosocial status. 1 points Question 18 An elderly woman is slated for a hemiarthroplasty (hip replacement surgery) after falling and breaking her hip on the stairs outside her home. The woman's pain in the time since her injury has been severe, and her care team has been treating it with morphine. Which of the following administration schedules is most likely to control the patient's pain? A. Twice-daily doses of long-acting morphine, with short-acting morphine available for breakthrough pain B. A large long-acting dose of morphine at 8 a.m. with smaller doses at 12 p.m., 5 p.m., and 10 p.m. C. Scheduled doses of short-acting morphine q1h around the clock D. Alternating doses of long-acting morphine with short-acting morphine 1 points Question 19 Morphine has been prescribed for a 28-year-old man with severe pain due to a back injury. The nurse will advise the patient to avoid A. dairy products. B. fatty foods. C. vitamin C. D. alcohol. 1 points Question 20 A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that A. she will report this to the physician immediately. B. optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment. C. it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety. D. the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed. 1 points Question 21 A 26-year-old professional began using cocaine recreationally several months ago and has begun using the drug on a daily basis over the past few weeks. He has noticed that he now needs to take larger doses of cocaine in order to enjoy the same high that he used to experience when he first used the drug. A nurse should recognize that this pattern exemplifies A. withdrawal. B. drug tolerance. C. addiction. D. dependence. 1 points Question 22 A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? A. The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever. B. The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol. C. The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness). D. The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine. 1 points Question 23 A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for A. current nicotine use. B. a history of current or past alcohol use. C. a diet high in fat. D. a diet high in carbohydrates. 1 points Question 24 A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to A. administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution. B. inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds. C. inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute. D. avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist. 1 points Question 25 A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of A. low blood pressure. B. increased intraocular pressure. C. diabetic hyperlipidemia. D. seizure disorders. 1 points Question 26 A nurse is assigned to a patient who is taking lithium. Which of the following drug serum levels would indicate that the patient is at risk for adverse effects of the drug? A. 1.7 mEq/L B. 0.6 mEq/L C. 0.3 mEq/L D. 1.2 mEq/L 1 points Question 27 A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.) A. The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month. B. It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms. C. One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache. D. The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning. E. It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed. 1 points Question 28 A patient has been prescribed lithium therapy. Which of the following signs and symptoms will the nurse tell the patient to report immediately? A. Increased urination B. Hair loss C. Increased thirst D. Muscle twitching 1 points Question 29 The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be A. “I'll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.” B. “I'll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.” C. “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.” D. “I'll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.” 1 points Question 30 A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient's subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis B. Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions C. Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine D. Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 6 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 6 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 6 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 6 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQUESTION 1 1. A male patient is to begin glyburide (Diabet... [Show More] a) for type 2 diabetes. Before the drug therapy begins, a priority action by the nurse will be to assess the patient's A. potassium level. B. use of alcohol. C. use of salt in his diet. D. blood pressure. 1 points QUESTION 2 1. A nurse will monitor which of the following when assigned to a patient taking allopurinol for chronic gout who visits the clinic every 2 months? A. Blood sugar levels B. Blood pressure C. Body temperature D. Liver function tests 1 points QUESTION 3 1. A 40-year-old woman with a diagnosis of fibromyalgia has been prescribed cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) as an adjunct to her existing drug regimen. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when updating the nursing care plan for this patient? A. Diarrhea related to anticholinergic effects B. Risk for Injury related to CNS depressant effects C. Impaired Swallowing related to increased muscle tone D. Altered Nutrition, Less than Body Requirements, related to appetite suppression 1 points QUESTION 4 1. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) has been prescribed. Before the drug therapy is started, the nurse will assess for which of the following? A. The patient's age B. History of taking anticoagulant drugs C. Allergy to seafood D. Hirsutism 1 points QUESTION 5 1. A 33-year-old man has developed acute gouty arthritis. He has been prescribed colchicine. When developing a care plan for this patient, which factor will be most important for the nurse to consider? A. Typical daily fluid intake B. Dietary habits C. Ethnicity D. Work environment 1 points QUESTION 6 1. A nurse is working with a 57-year-old man who is a former intravenous drug abuser. He has been prescribed a weekly dosage of methotrexate for his rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following will the nurse include in her teaching plan for this patient? A. Take the tablets before bedtime B. Drink plenty of water every day C. Avoid red meat D. Avoid high-fat foods 1 points QUESTION 7 1. During long-term desmopressin therapy in a 48-year-old woman, it will be most important for the nurse to assess which of the following? A. The patient's diet B. The condition of the patient's nasal passages C. The condition of the patient's skin D. The patient's environment 1 points QUESTION 8 1. A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who has multiple sclerosis. An expected outcome for the patient who is receiving glatiramer would be a decrease in A. heart palpitations. B. chest pain. C. breathing difficulties. D. fatigue. 1 points QUESTION 9 1. A clinic nurse is following a 9-year-old boy who is taking somatropin. Which of the following will the nurse monitor periodically? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels B. Water retention C. Height D. Dehydration 1 points QUESTION 10 1. A nurse is instructing a patient who was recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis about dantrolene (Dantrium). The patient is a 38-year-old-male and the foreman for a construction company. In order to minimize one important adverse effect of the drug, the nurse will give the patient which of the following instructions? A. Have a complete blood cell count done weekly B. Wear appropriate clothing and sunscreen whenever he is in direct sunlight C. Decrease the dosage if any adverse effect is experienced D. Eat a high-protein diet 1 points QUESTION 11 1. A nurse has been invited to speak to a support group for persons with movement disorders and their families. Which of the following statements by the nurse addresses the chronic nature of these diseases and the relevant drug therapies? A. “Persons of all cultures are treated similarly and respond in similar ways to treatment.” B. “Drugs do not cure these disorders; they instead enhance quality of life.” C. “Drugs used to treat these disorders always pose a risk of severe liver and kidney dysfunction.” D. “Drug therapy can consist of one or more drugs to eliminate the symptoms of these diseases.” 1 points QUESTION 12 1. A 65-year-old woman has an advanced form of rheumatoid arthritis. Her treatment includes a regular dosage of methotrexate. The nurse will advise her to take which of the following vitamin supplements while taking the drug? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B D. Vitamin D 1 points QUESTION 13 1. A nurse is instructing a patient in the administration of regular insulin by the subcutaneous route. Which of the following strategies would the nurse suggest if the goal is to promote absorption of the regular insulin? A. Select one injection site for regular insulin injections and use it exclusively. B. Rotate injection sites by using the arm one day, the stomach the next day, and the thigh the day after and then repeating the cycle. C. Select one anatomic area for regular insulin injections and then use serial locations within that area. D. Administer the medication 30 to 60 minutes after a meal. 1 points QUESTION 14 1. A patient in need of myocardial infarction prophylaxis has been prescribed sulfinpyrazone for gout. Which of the following will the nurse monitor the patient most closely for? A. Bleeding B. Renal dysfunction C. Hypotension D. Hypothermia 1 points QUESTION 15 1. The nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a new resident of a long-term care facility. The nurse notes that the resident takes allopurinol on a daily basis for the treatment of gout. What is the primary purpose of this drug? A. To potentiate the metabolism of dietary purines B. To balance urate concentration and prevent gout attacks C. To promote the remodeling of damaged synovium D. To achieve pain relief in joints affected by gout 1 points QUESTION 16 1. A nurse is caring for a male patient who has a spinal cord injury due to a motorcycle accident. He has been taking dantrolene (Dantrium) for 2 weeks. The nurse will monitor which of the following? A. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time B. Alanine aminotransferase and total bilirubin levels C. Urine specific gravity D. Follicle-stimulating hormone levels 1 points QUESTION 17 1. Following an assessment by her primary care provider, a 70-year-old resident of an assisted living facility has begun taking daily oral doses of levothyroxine. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the nurse to withhold a scheduled dose of levothyroxine? A. The resident received her annual influenza vaccination the previous day B. The resident had a fall during the night while transferring from her bed to her bathroom C. The resident's apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm D. The resident has not eaten breakfast because of a recent loss of appetite 1 points QUESTION 18 1. A patient is taking gabapentin (Neurontin) for spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following should be the priority for monitoring? A. Respiratory function B. Renal function C. Hepatic function D. Cardiac function 1 points QUESTION 19 1. A nurse is caring for a 61-year-old man who has had a severe attack of gout while in the hospital for food poisoning. The nurse administers colchicine intravenously in order to A. ensure quick distribution of the drug. B. avoid aggravating the gastrointestinal tract. C. minimize the risk of depressed bone marrow function. D. prevent the risk of infection or bleeding. 1 points QUESTION 20 1. A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 2 years ago and has experienced a recent exacerbation of her symptoms, including muscle spasticity. Consequently, she has been prescribed Dantrolene (Dantrium). In light of this new addition to her drug regimen, what teaching point should the woman's nurse provide? A. “You might find that this drug exacerbates some of your muscle weakness while it relieves your spasticity.” B. “We'll need to closely monitor your blood sugar levels for the next week.” C. “There's a small risk that you might experience some hallucinations in the first few days that you begin taking this drug.” D. “This will likely relieve your muscle spasms but you'll probably develop a certain amount of dependence on the drug over time.” 1 points QUESTION 21 1. A male patient with a diagnosis of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is in the clinic to discuss with the nurse the possibility of self-administration of glatiramer. During the patient education session for self-administration, the nurse will emphasize A. the need to avoid crushing the tablet. B. the need to use only the thigh muscle for the drug injection site. C. the need to place the tablet under the tongue. D. the need to rotate the injection site of the drug. 1 points QUESTION 22 1. A nurse will instruct a patient taking allopurinol to take each dose A. before a meal. B. after a meal. C. first thing in the morning. D. at night. 1 points QUESTION 23 1. To minimize the risk of adverse effects of glucagon when given to an unconscious diabetic patient, as the patient regains consciousness, the nurse should A. administer carbohydrates. B. monitor for nausea and vomiting. C. position the patient in the side-lying position. D. administer calcium supplements. 1 points QUESTION 24 1. A 32-year-old female patient is taking tizanidine (Zanaflex) for spasticity related to her multiple sclerosis. The nurse will inform the patient and her husband that the adverse effect that poses the greatest safety risk to the patient is A. hypotension. B. fatigue. C. dry mouth. D. constipation. 1 points QUESTION 25 1. A 49-year-old woman has been diagnosed with myalgia. The physician has recommended aspirin. The patient is concerned that the aspirin will upset her stomach. The nurse will encourage the patient to A. crush the tablet before swallowing. B. avoid drinking milk for 3 hours after swallowing the tablet. C. swallow the tablet with milk or food. D. swallow the tablet whole. 1 points QUESTION 26 1. A diabetic patient being treated for obesity tells the nurse that he is having adverse effects from his drug therapy. The patient has been taking dextroamphetamine for 2 weeks as adjunct therapy. Which of the following adverse effects would need the nurse's immediate attention? A. Increased blood glucose B. Dry eyes C. Jittery feeling D. Decreased libido 1 points QUESTION 27 1. A female patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus has been experiencing increasing neuropathic pain in recent months, a symptom that has not responded appreciably to conventional analgesics. The patient's care provider has begun treatment with gabapentin (Neurontin). How is the addition of this drug likely to influence the management of the patient's existing drug regimen? A. It is unlikely to influence the patient's other medications because gabapentin does not interact with other drugs. B. The patient's medication-related risk for renal failure must be assessed prior to the use of gabapentin. C. The patient may be required to temporarily hold her other medications until a stable serum level of gabapentin is achieved. D. Gabapentin is contraindicated with the use of exogenous insulin. 1 points QUESTION 28 1. A 66-year-old woman has experienced a significant decline in her quality of life as a result of worsening rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician has prescribed etanercept and the nurse is responsible for facilitating this new aspect of the patient's drug regimen. This will involve the administration of A. weekly administration of an enteric coated tablet. B. weekly subcutaneous injections. C. daily, outpatient intravenous therapy. D. daily, oral administration . 1 points QUESTION 29 1. A nurse is teaching a patient about his newly prescribed drug, colchicine, for gout. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following foods? A. Shrimp B. Milk C. Green beans D. Eggs 1 points QUESTION 30 1. A patient receives 25 units of NPH insulin at 7.AM. At what time of day should the nurse advise the patient to be most alert for a potential hypoglycemic reaction? A. Before lunch B. Late afternoon C. Bedtime D. After breakfast [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 7 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 7 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 7 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 7 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY Question 1 A nurse is providing discharge instructions t... [Show More] o a patient who will be taking fludrocortisone at home. The nurse will encourage the patient to eat a diet that is A. low in sodium and potassium. B. low in proteins. C. low in sodium, high in potassium. D. high in iron. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 2 A patient who is postoperative day one following a metatarsal amputation is experiencing nausea and vomiting. Consequently, the nurse has administered an intravenous dose of metoclopramide. This drug will relieve the patient's nausea by A. raising the pH of the patient's gastric contents. B. stimulating the motility of the patient's upper GI tract. C. blocking the effect of histamine at H2 receptors. D. eradicating H. Pylori bacteria from the patient's stomach. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 3 A teenage boy has undergone a diagnostic workup following several months of persistent, bloody diarrhea that appears to lack an infectious etiology. The boy has also experienced intermittent abdominal pain and has lost almost 15 pounds this year. Which of the following medications is most likely to treat this boy's diagnosis? A. Lubiprostone B. Mesalamine C. Bismuth subsalicylate D. Docusate 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 4 Prior to administering a dose of 5-FU to a patient with pancreatic cancer, the nurse is conducting the necessary drug research. The nurse is aware that 5-FU is a cell cycle–specific chemotherapeutic agent. Which of the following statements best describes cell cycle–specific drugs? A. They follow a specific sequence of cytotoxic events in order to achieve cell death. B. They affect cancerous cells and normal body cells in a similar manner. C. They achieve a synergistic effect when administered in combination with cell cycle–nonspecific drugs. D. They affect cancerous cells during a particular phase of cellular reproduction. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 5 A nurse is overseeing the care of a young man whose ulcerative colitis is being treated with oral prednisone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in order to minimize the potential for adverse drug effects and risks associated with prednisone treatment? A. Avoid OTC antacids for the duration of treatment B. Carefully assess the patient for infections C. Teach the patient strategies for dealing with headaches D. Advocate for intravenous, rather than oral, administration 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 6 A patient is taking cholestyramine. The nurse will assess for which of the following common adverse effects of the drug? A. Headache B. Abdominal pain C. Indigestion D. Constipation 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 7 A patient develops diarrhea secondary to antibiotic therapy. He is to receive two tablets of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) orally as needed for each loose stool. The nurse should inform him that he may experience A. bradycardia. B. dizziness. C. muscle aches. D. increase in appetite. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 8 A 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The physician has prescribed simethicone (Mylicon) for her discomfort. Which of the following will the nurse monitor most closely during the patient's drug therapy? A. Increased urine output B. Anorexia C. Drug toxicity D. Increased abdominal pain and vomiting 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 9 A nurse is assessing a female patient who is taking diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that she is experiencing an allergic reaction? A. Toxic megacolon B. Urticaria C. Numbness of extremities D. Headache and lethargy 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 10 A clinic nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old man who has been on omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy for heartburn for some time. Regarding the patient's safety, which of the following would be a priority nursing action? A. Monitor the patient for the development of diarrhea. B. Emphasize that the drug should not be crushed or chewed. C. Coordinate bone density testing for the patient. D. Teach the patient to take omeprazole 1 hour before meals. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 11 A 29-year-old female patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for morbid obesity. The nurse is providing patient education concerning the drug. An important instruction to the patient would be to A. take orlistat in one dose at breakfast. B. take orlistat and multivitamins together. C. omit the dose if the meal does not contain fat. D. omit the dose if the meal does not contain protein. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 12 A 29-year-old woman has been prescribed alosetron (Lotronex) for irritable bowel syndrome. Before starting the drug therapy, the nurse will advise the patient about which of the following adverse effect(s)? A. Breathlessness and hypotension B. Hyperthyroidism C. Constipation D. Impaired cardiac function 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 13 A nurse is aware that diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate is an effective adjunct in the treatment of diarrhea. For which of the following patients could the administration of this drug be potentially harmful? A. A man who has experienced diarrhea shortly after beginning tube feeding through a nasogastric tube B. A woman who has experienced severe diarrhea associated with influenza C. An 80-year-old man who has diarrhea secondary to Clostridium difficile infection D. A 60-year-old woman who tends to get diarrhea during periods of intense stress 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 14 A nurse is planning care for a 59-year-old woman who is on ranitidine therapy. The nurse is concerned for the patient's safety. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis? A. Diarrhea related to adverse effects of drug therapy B. Acute Pain related to adverse drug effects, headache C. Potential Complication: Electrolyte Imbalance related to hypophosphatemia, secondary to drug therapy D. Risk for Injury related to drug-induced somnolence, dizziness, confusion, or hallucinations 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 15 A 42-year-old man is being treated for a peptic ulcer with ranitidine (Zantac) taken PO at bedtime. Even though few adverse effects are associated with this drug, one common adverse effect that can be severe is A. irritability. B. heart palpitations. C. headache. D. dry mouth. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 16 A 52-year-old man is suffering from a deficiency of exocrine pancreatic secretions and is prescribed pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). Before the medication therapy begins, the nurse will assess for allergies related to A. ragweed. B. pollen. C. pork. D. shellfish. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 17 A 60-year-old man has scheduled a follow-up appointment with his primary care provider stating that the omeprazole (Prilosec) which he was recently prescribed is ineffective. The patient states, “I take it as soon as I feel heartburn coming on, but it doesn't seem to help at all.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement? A. “Prilosec won't really decrease the sensation of heartburn, but it is still minimizing the damage to your throat and stomach that can be caused by the problem.” B. “A better strategy is to take a dose of Prilosec 15 to 30 minutes before meals or drinks that cause you to get heartburn.” C. “It could be that Prilosec isn't the right drug for you, so it would be best to talk this over with your care provider.” D. “Prilosec will help your heartburn but it's not designed to provide immediate relief of specific episodes of heartburn.” 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 18 A patient comes to the clinic asking for help to quit drinking alcohol. She has a 21-year history of heavy drinking and is worried about developing cirrhosis of the liver. The patient agrees to take disulfiram (Antabuse). The nurse will teach the patient that the combination of alcohol and Antabuse will cause which of the following? A. Diarrhea B. Bradycardia C. Nausea D. Slight headache 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 19 A patient has GERD and is taking ranitidine (Zantac). She continues to have gastric discomfort and asks whether she can take an antacid. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. “I wouldn't advise it. You may experience severe constipation.” B. “No, the two drugs will work against each other.” C. “Sure, you may take an antacid with ranitidine.” D. “Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine.” 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 20 A patient with a long history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to an acute medical unit with signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. His current medication orders include QID doses of oral lactulose. What desired outcomes should the nurse associate with this drug order? A. Patient will express an understanding of his current bowel regimen. B. Patient will express relief from constipation. C. Patient will have formed bowel movements that do not contain frank or occult blood. D. Patient will have three to four loose bowel movements each day. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 21 A patient has been prescribed rabeprazole (Aciphex). It will be important for the nurse to assess the patient's drug history to determine if the patient is taking which of the following drugs? A. Levodopa B. Dicyclomine hydrochloride C. Morphine D. Digoxin 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 22 A woman with numerous chronic health problems has been diagnosed with a benign gastric ulcer has begun treatment with ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to this patient? A. “Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer.” B. “Take each dose of ranitidine with an antacid of your choice.” C. “This drug will help to eliminate the bacteria in your stomach that caused your ulcer.” D. “You should eat several small meals each day rather than three larger meals.” 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 23 A patient has been prescribed a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist for the treatment of GERD. Why are H2RAs more effective than H1 receptor antagonists in the treatment of diseases of the upper GI tract? A. H2 receptors in the upper GI tract outnumber H1 receptors by a factor of 2:1. B. H2RAs may be administered orally and in an outpatient environment but H1RAs require intravenous administration. C. H2RAs have a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than H1RAs. D. The parietal cells of the stomach have H2 receptors but not H1 receptors. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 24 A 22-year-old male college senior has lived with a diagnosis of Crohn's disease for several years and has undergone several courses of treatment with limited benefit. Which of the following targeted therapies has the potential to alleviate the symptoms of Crohn's disease? A. Tositumomab plus 131I (Bexxar) B. Eculizumab (Soliris) C. Infliximab (Remicade) D. Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 25 A 73-year-old woman has scheduled an appointment with her nurse practitioner to discuss her recurrent constipation. The woman states that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly. How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statements? A. “Taking too many laxatives can make your bowels dependent on them, making you more susceptible to constipation.” B. “I'll refer you to a specialist because it could be that you have a disease affecting your bowels or stomach.” C. “Try using a different over-the-counter laxative and see that if you resolves your problem.” D. “Because we become more prone to constipation as we age, you'll likely need to increase the number of stool softeners you take.” 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 26 Mr. Tan is a 69-year-old man who prides himself in maintaining an active lifestyle and a healthy diet that includes adequate fluid intake. However, Mr. Tan states that he has experienced occasional constipation in recent months. What remedy should be the nurse's first suggestion? A. Bismuth subsalicylate B. A bulk-forming (fiber) laxative C. A hyperosmotic laxative D. A stimulant laxative 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 27 A nurse is providing patient education for a patient who has been prescribed diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate. Which of the following instructions would be important for self-administration of this drug? A. Take the drug with fruit juice B. Take the drug with a meal C. Decrease the dosage when the number of stools decreases D. Continue therapy until the physician discontinues the drug 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 28 A 48-year-old woman who works as an office manager is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan) for diabetic gastroparesis. The nurse will be sure to assess the patient for A. tachycardia. B. anemia. C. hypotension. D. depression. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 29 To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication A. once a day. B. twice a day. C. four times a day. D. every 2 hours. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 30 A 57-year-old man is to begin 5-FU therapy for colon cancer. It will be most important for the nurse to monitor which of the following during the first 72 hours of the initial treatment cycle? A. Cardiac events B. Myelosuppression C. Nausea and vomiting D. White blood cell nadir 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 31 A patient who takes aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta) frequently for upset stomach, heartburn, and sour stomach is seen regularly in the clinic. The nurse should assess which of the following? A. Urine specific gravity B. Aspartate transaminase levels C. Blood glucose level D. Serum phosphate level 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 32 A 58-year-old man is prescribed dicyclomine (Bentyl) for irritable bowel syndrome. In which of the following conditions is dicyclomine therapy contraindicated? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes mellitus C. Glaucoma D. Rheumatoid arthritis 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 33 A patient on 5-FU calls the clinic and reports that he has between five and seven loose bowel movements daily. The nurse will instruct the patient to A. avoid protein-rich foods. B. notify the clinic if the stools are black or if there is evidence of blood. C. avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. D. treat the diarrhea with OTC medications. 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 34 Mesalamine (Asacol) is prescribed for a 22-year-old woman with Crohn disease. The nurse will discuss with the patient the possibility for which of the following adverse effects related to the new drug therapy? A. Metallic taste B. Increased appetite C. Fatigue D. Hair loss 1 points Save Answer QUESTION 35 It is determined that a patient, who is in a hepatic coma, needs a laxative. Lactulose is prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to assess the efficacy of the lactulose therapy? A. Oncotic pressure in the colon B. Water levels in the colon C. Blood ammonia levels D. Relief from symptoms [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 8 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 8 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 8 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 8 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQuestion 1 Laboratory testing has confirmed that a patient... [Show More] has chloroquine-resistant malaria and the patient's physician has prescribed quinine along with an adjunctive drug. The nurse should question the physician's order if the patient has a history of A. osteoporosis or low bone density. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. diabetes mellitus. D. cardiac arrhythmias. 1 points Question 2 A 20-year-old female patient is receiving topical clindamycin for acne vulgaris. She develops a rash and urticaria along with severe itching where the medication is applied. The nurse will formulate which of the following nursing diagnoses for the patient? A. Diarrhea B. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements C. Risk of Injury related to blood dyscrasia D. Risk for Injury related to allergic reactions 1 points Question 3 A 43-year-old man has been diagnosed with active TB. He is prescribed a multiple drug therapy, including INH and rifampin. A priority assessment by the nurse will be to monitor which combination of laboratory test results? A. Serum alanine transaminase, aspartate transaminase, and bilirubin B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, thyroxine, and triiodothyronine levels C. Red blood count, white blood count, and differential D. Fasting blood sugar and 2-hour postprandial blood sugar 1 points Question 4 An immunocompromised cancer patient has developed cryptococcal meningitis and been admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment with amphotericin B. How should the nurse most safely administer this drug? A. Infuse the drug over 2 to 4 hours into a central line using an infusion pump B. Place the patient on a constant infusion of amphotericin B at a rate determined by the patient's body weight. C. Hang the drug by piggyback with lactated Ringer's and infuse over several hours to minimize the risk of infusion reaction D. Flush the patient's central line with normal saline and infuse the amphotericin B by intravenous push over 5 to 7 minutes. 1 points Question 5 A patient with AIDS has developed a number of secondary infections in recent weeks, including Kaposi's sarcoma. As a result of this most recent diagnosis, his care team has opted to begin treatment with interferon alfa-2a. The nurse is aware that this drug will address the etiology of Kaposi sarcoma by A. inhibiting tumor growth by enhancing inflammation. B. potentiating the effects of phagocytes and macrophages. C. increasing the production of B cells and T cells. D. causing mutations in the DNA of cancerous cells. 1 points Question 6 The nurse notices a cold sore on a patient's upper lip and requests medication; docosanol (Abreva) is ordered. Before applying the medication, the nurse would first A. clean the area to be treated and then pat it dry. B. put gloves on to protect herself. C. assess the area and make sure that there are no open lesions or abrasions. D. prepare the applicator for drug administration. 1 points Question 7 A patient has been prescribed oral tetracycline. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug A. on an empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 hours after taking any meals or other drugs. B. at bedtime only. C. with milk or fruit juice. D. with a meal. 1 points Question 8 A 30-year-old woman who is in the first trimester of pregnancy has presented to her primary care provider with a 4-day history of a reddened, itchy left eye that is crusted with purulent exudate. The clinician suspects a bacterial, rather than viral, etiology. How will the patient's pregnancy affect the potential use of ciprofloxacin to treat her conjunctivitis? A. Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in pregnancy and the patient may use to same dose and route as a nonpregnant patient. B. It is safe for the patient to use topical ciprofloxacin but the oral route is potential teratogenic. C. The use of ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy. D. The patient will require a lower dose and longer course of ciprofloxacin than a nonpregnant, adult patient. 1 points Question 9 A 15-year-old boy is being carefully monitored for a skin infection and is being given ciprofloxacin. The nurse will observe for which of the following? A. Arthropathy B. Colitis C. Hepatitis D. Hypotension 1 points Question 10 Sulconazole has been prescribed for a patient with tinea pedis. The nurse will instruct the patient to use the topical agent A. once a day. B. twice a day. C. as needed. D. three times a day. 1 points Question 11 A nurse has questioned why a patient's physician has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of a patient's infection. Which of the following facts provides the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible? A. The efficacy of most narrow-spectrum antibiotics has not been proven. B. The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can create a risk for a superinfection. C. Broad-spectrum antibiotics confound the results of subsequent culture and sensitivity testing. D. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics normally require a shorter duration of treatment. 1 points Question 12 A 30-year-old African-American woman tested positive for TB and is prescribed isoniazid. The nurse will plan the patient's care to include close monitoring of the drug therapy because A. the process of drug metabolism may be faster in this patient. B. the therapeutic effect of the drug may be too slow to be effective. C. the process of drug elimination will be faster in this patient. D. the patient is at greater risk for high serum levels of the drug. 1 points Question 13 A patient has been prescribed daptomycin for a complicated skin infection. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient to report immediately? A. Palpitations B. Muscle pain or tingling C. Nausea and vomiting D. Abdominal pain 1 points Question 14 A 34-year-old male has been diagnosed with TB and will be started on INH therapy. The medication history reveals that he currently takes antacids on a regular basis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take A. antacids not less than 1 hour before or 2 hours after taking INH. B. antacids during the day and INH only at night. C. INH before meals and antacids 1 or 2 hours after meals. D. antacids before meals and INH 1 or 2 hours after meals. 1 points Question 15 Mr. Laird is a 49-year-old electrician who experienced severe burns on his trunk, arms, and hands in a workplace accident 2 weeks ago. Part of his current wound care regimen involves the daily application of silver sulfadiazine to his wounds. The nurses who are providing care for Mr. Laird in the burns and plastics unit of the hospital should perform what action when administering this medication? A. Apply a layer of silver sulfadiazine that is sufficiently thick to make the wound bed invisible. B. Cleanse the wound of debris prior to applying the silver sulfadiazine C. Apply a thin layer of the drug to Mr. Laird's wound beds using clean technique. D. Perform thorough wound care immediately after the application of silver sulfadiazine 1 points Question 16 A 45-year-old female patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a bronchial infection. A nursing assessment revealed that she started taking daily vitamin supplements about 2 years ago. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the ciprofloxacin therapy, the nurse should advise the patient to A. reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements. B. take the vitamins at least 2 hours before or after taking ciprofloxacin. C. alternate the dosage of ciprofloxacin and vitamin supplements. D. reduce the dosage of vitamin supplements and double the dosage of ciprofloxacin. 1 points Question 17 An immunocompromised patient in a critical care setting has developed a respiratory infection that has been attributed to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse should anticipate that the patient will require treatment with A. ciprofloxacin. B. clindamycin. C. anantistaphylococcic penicillin. D. vancomycin. 1 points Question 18 A 9-year-old boy was bought to his primary care provider by his mother with signs and symptoms of hookworm infection and will be sent home with a prescription for mebendazole. When provided patient and family education, the nurse should teach the mother with which of the following measures to avoid reinfection following treatment? A. The importance of vigilant hygiene for the boy and the other members of the family B. The need for the boy to provide serial stool samples for 6 months following treatment C. The need to supplement the anthelminthic drug with prophylactic antibiotics D. The need to use prescription skin cleansers during treatment and for 6 weeks after 1 points Question 19 A 49-year-old farmer who normally enjoys good health has become seriously ill in recent days and the results of an extensive diagnostic work up have resulted in a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. The patient has been admitted to the hospital and has begun treatment with amphotericin B. The nurse who is providing care for the patient should prioritize which of the following diagnostic results during his course of treatment? A. PT, PTT, and platelets B. Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine C. C-reactive protein D. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cells 1 points Question 20 A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of peritonitis that has necessitated treatment with gentamicin. As a result, the care team should be cautious when concurrently administering other medications that may cause A. anemia or impaired erythropoiesis. B. neutropenia or autoimmune effects. C. increased intracranial pressure or changes in cognition. D. ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity. 1 points Question 21 A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit of the hospital with bacterial septicemia that has failed to respond to initial antibiotic treatment. The patient's most recent blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the patient's blood. The nurse will anticipate that this patient will likely require intravenous administration of what antibiotic? A. Cefazolin B. Penicillin G C. Doripenem (Doribax) D. Vancomycin 1 points Question 22 A patient is receiving cefazolin in combination with anticoagulants. To minimize the adverse effects during therapy, the nurse will A. administer the medication with small amounts of food and fluids. B. monitor the patient for bleeding gums. C. continue therapy until 2 days after symptoms have resolved. D. monitor the site of injection. 1 points Question 23 A child is taking permethrin for head lice. The nurse will instruct her mother to A. wash her hair daily with a good shampoo. B. maximize the child's fluid intake. C. increase her daily intake of milk. D. stop using creams, ointments, and oils on the child's skin and scalp. 1 points Question 24 A nurse is aware that the concept of selective toxicity is foundational to antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following statements most accurately describes selective toxicity? A. A drug can be isolated and produced in a controlled manner in a laboratory setting. B. A drug's effect on microorganisms is proportionate to dose. C. A drug harms microbes without harming human cells. D. Most microbes may be collected from a host and cultured on an alternative medium. 1 points Question 25 Which of the following would a nurse assess for in a patient who is taking polymyxin B systemically? A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Endocarditis and hypertension C. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia D. Nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity 1 points Question 26 An immunocompromised patient with a diagnosis of candidiasis has failed to respond to conservative therapy and has consequently begun treatment with amphotericin B. The nurse is aware that this drug achieves a therapeutic effect by way of its influence on A. the production and maturation of CD4 T-cells. B. protein synthesis of fungal cells. C. theosmolarity of fungal intracellular fluid. D. the permeability of fungal cell walls. 1 points Question 27 A nurse is explaining the use of acyclovir therapy to a 72-year-old man. Nephrotoxicity is discussed as a major adverse effect in older patients. To minimize the risk of the patient developing this adverse effect, the nurse will advise him to A. eat light meals every day. B. take the tablets on an empty stomach. C. stay well hydrated by drinking at least eight 8-oz glasses of water daily. D. decrease the drug dosage if initial symptoms of nephrotoxicity appear. 1 points Question 28 A patient is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for active TB. When discussing this drug with the patient, the nurse should stress that A. body fluids such as urine, saliva, tears, and sputum may become discolored. B. facial flushing may appear but will go away once therapy is concluded. C. the drug frequently causes seizure activity. D. the drug usually causes cardiac arrhythmias. 1 points Question 29 A patient is being treated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia. She is allergic to penicillin and is being given azithromycin (Zithromax) in capsule form. The nurse will inform the patient that she will need to take the capsule A. immediately after she eats. B. with or without food. C. with food. D. on an empty stomach. 1 points Question 30 A nurse is instructing a colleague on how an antimicrobial produces a therapeutic effect. Which of the following should be included in the nurse's teaching? A. Penicillin interferes with synthesis of the bacteria cell wall. B. Fluoroquinolones interfere with the growth and development of the bacteria cell wall. C. The first drugs used to treat infections date back to the 17th century. D. Selective toxicity determines the appropriate drug dosage needed. 1 points Question 31 A patient is to begin taking tobramycin (Nebcin) for a nosocomial infection. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize? A. The peak and trough blood levels B. Other patient medications C. The patient's blood pressure D. The patient's ideal body weight 1 points Question 32 Which of the following is critical to helping prevent development of resistant strains of microbes in patients? A. Maintain the optimum duration of the antimicrobial agent B. Limit the exposure of bacteria to an antimicrobial agent C. Keep the antimicrobial drug dosage high D. Maintain the maximum safe frequency of antimicrobial drug ingestion 1 points Question 33 A 72-year-old patient is prescribed ophthalmic ciprofloxacin for a bacterial infection in her right eye. The nurse will teach her to observe for which of the following adverse effects of the drug? A. Cognitive changes B. Lid margin crusting and pruritus C. Nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity D. Tendon ruptures 1 points Question 34 A 7-year-old child has tonsillitis and is prescribed penicillin V, which is to be administered at home. The nurse will instruct the parents to administer the drug A. with a glass of water 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. B. with a sip of water 1 hour before mealtime. C. intravenously with the assistance of a home health nurse. D. immediately before or with a meal. 1 points Question 35 A patient is receiving long-term clindamycin therapy for a life-threatening infection. The nurse will begin by monitoring this drug therapy by obtaining A. a baseline complete blood count. B. establishing the patient's auditory abilities. C. liver enzymes weekly until the drug therapy is completed. D. blood glucose levels daily for 1 week. [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 9 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 9 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 9 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 9 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQuestion 1 A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is goin... [Show More] g to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered A. at a rapid infusion rate. B. at a slow infusion rate. C. through a central line. D. through an IV line primed with vincristine. 1 points Question 2 A 62-year-old patient taking tamoxifen exhibits increased bone and tumor pain along with a local disease flare. The nurse interprets this as an indication of which of the following? A. A hypersensitivity reaction B. Cardiomyopathy C. Nephrotoxic effects of tamoxifen D. The tumor responding to treatment 1 points Question 3 A middle-aged patient has received a diagnosis of GI stromal tumor following an extensive diagnostic workup. Imatinib has been recommended as a component of the patient's drug regimen. What patient education should the nurse provide to this patient? A. “If you experience significant nausea after taking a dose, stop taking the drug and schedule an appointment at the clinic.” B. “Try to keep your PICC line dressing as dry as possible at all times.” C. “It's important that you let us know if you develop any significant swelling or puffiness.” D. “You'll likely experience a lot of dry mouth while you're taking this drug, so it's helpful to chew ice chips.” 1 points Question 4 A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases? A. Malignant melanoma B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Nonsmall cell lung cancer D. Renal cell carcinoma 1 points Question 5 A nurse has been assigned to a 55-year-old woman who has a malignant brain tumor. The patient is receiving her first dose of carmustine. It will be critical for the nurse to observe for which of the following? A. Inability to drink fluids for 6 hours B. Nausea and vomiting C. Reddish urine D. Respiratory difficulty 1 points Question 6 A nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female patient who is receiving IV heparin and reports bleeding from her gums. The nurse checks the patient's laboratory test results and finds that she has a very high aPTT. The nurse anticipates that which of the following drugs may be ordered? A. Alteplase B. Coumadin C. Ticlopidine D. Protamine sulfate 1 points Question 7 An older adult woman has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and her care team has identified potential benefits of imatinib. Which of the following characteristics of this patient's current health status may preclude the use of imatinib? A. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus that is controlled using diet and oral antihyperglycemics. B. The patient had a total knee arthroplasty several months earlier. C. The patient has chronic heart failure resulting in significant peripheral edema. D. The patient experienced a mild ischemic stroke several years ago and had transient ischemic attacks last year. 1 points Question 8 An oncology nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer and is discussing with a colleague the factors that contribute to the success or failure of a patient's chemotherapy. Which of the following cancerous cells is most susceptible to the effects of chemotherapeutic drugs? A. Cells that lack a blood supply B. Cells that lack contact inhibition C. Cells with a long generation time D. Cells that have a rapid mitotic rate 1 points Question 9 Mr. Lepp is a 63-year-old man who was diagnosed with colon cancer several weeks ago and who is scheduled to begin chemotherapy. He reports to the nurse that he read about the need for erythropoietin in an online forum for cancer patients and wants to explore the use of epoetin alfa with his oncologist. Which of the following facts should underlie the nurse's response to Mr. Lepp? A. Treatment with epoetin alfa will likely begin 4 to 6 days before Mr. Lepp's first round of chemotherapy and continue indefinitely. B. Mr. Lepp's oncologist should have begun treatment with epoetin alfa immediately after he was diagnosed. C. The potential benefits of epoetin alfa must be weighed carefully against the potential adverse effects in cancer patients. D. Epoetin alfa is normally contraindicated in patients who are receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy. 1 points Question 10 A 28-year-old woman has completed rituximab therapy for an autoimmune disease. She tells the nurse that she and her husband would like to start a family. The nurse will advise her to A. pursue fertility testing. B. discontinue birth control, but avoid breast-feeding after the child is born. C. continue using birth control for at least 12 months. D. stop using birth control for the next several weeks. 1 points Question 11 Mr. Singh is a 66-year-old man who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer that has metastasized to his liver. In an effort to prevent infection, Mr. Singh has been prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen). Which of the nurse's following assessment questions most directly addresses a common adverse effect of filgrastim? A. “Do you feel like you're having any pain in your bones?” B. “Have you had any shortness of breath lately?” C. “Are you experiencing any waves of cool, clammy skin?” D. “Have you noticed any bleeding in your gums or cheeks?” 1 points Question 12 A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) will imminently begin a course of treatment with rituximab. In order to minimize the risk of adverse effects, what strategy for administration will be adopted? A. Administering the initial doses by slow infusion while observing for adverse reactions B. Admitting the patient to the intensive care unit in anticipation of the initial bolus of the drug C. Administering the drug by slow infusion to two peripheral IV sites simultaneously D. Administering diphenhydramine 30 minutes prior to the initial dose of rituximab 1 points Question 13 A patient will soon begin targeted therapy as a component of her treatment plan for chronic leukemia. The nurse is conducting health education about this new aspect of the patient's drug regimen and the patient has asked about the potential side effects of treatment. How should the nurse best respond? A. “The adverse effects to targeted therapies are most often a result of the patient's cancer, not the drugs themselves.” B. “Both classes of drugs have adverse effects, but targeted therapies tend to have less of an effect on healthy body cells.” C. “Chemotherapy causes a lot of unpleasant side effects, and the advantage of targeted therapies is that these are all avoided.” D. “Targeted therapies are often more effective than traditional chemotherapy, but the downside of this effectiveness is that adverse effects are more common and severe.” 1 points Question 14 A patient has been scheduled to begin treatment with rituximab for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The nurse who will administer this drug should understand that it targets A. the DNA of mature plasma cells. B. the molecular structure of the cells making up the semipermeable membrane of cancerous cells. C. the function of the complement system. D. specific antigens on the surface of malignant B cells. 1 points Question 15 A male patient is receiving rituximab therapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following would be a priority nursing intervention to reduce the risk for cytotoxicity and tumor lysis syndrome? A. Ensure that the patient maintains a normal breathing pattern. B. Protect the patient from exposure to infections. C. Ensure that the patient maintains a normal fluid and electrolyte balance. D. Monitor the patient for deterioration in renal function. 1 points Question 16 A patient receiving high-dose cisplatin therapy exhibits symptoms of hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to help offset the magnesium losses from the cisplatin therapy? A. Consuming chocolates B. Consuming dairy products C. Consuming potassium-rich foods D. Drinking 2 to 3 liters of fluid a day 1 points Question 17 During ongoing assessment of a patient receiving 5-FU therapy, the nurse finds the patient's platelet count to be 92,000 cells/mm3. The nurse should do which of the following? A. Continue the therapy as prescribed B. Consult the prescriber for discontinuation of the drug C. Consult the prescriber for a decrease in dosage D. Consult the prescriber for an increase in dosage 1 points Question 18 A nurse on an oncology unit is aware of the need to assess for adverse effects in patients who are being treated with rituximab. The risks of adverse effects are highest at what point during the course of treatment? A. 48 to 72 hours after the first dose has been administered B. At each point that the dosage of rituximab is increased C. After 6 to 8 weeks of treatment at the maximum dose D. Shortly after the initiation of the first infusion of rituximab 1 points Question 19 Which of the following patients will be at the greatest risk for anemia and would be the most likely candidate for epoetin alfa therapy? A. A 62-year-old male with cancer B. A 40-year-old male with a high white blood cell count C. A 20-year-old female D. A 30-year-old pregnant woman 1 points Question 20 An oncology nurse is aware of the risks for injury that exist around the preparation, transportation, and administration of chemotherapeutic agents. In order to reduce these risks of injury, the nurse should take which of the following actions? A. Prime the IV tubing with an approved IV solution rather than with the drug itself. B. Use an IV system for administration that includes needles to reduce the risk of accidental spills. C. Encourage patients who have been receiving chemotherapy to use a bedside commode rather than a toilet. D. Dispose of intravenous lines used for chemotherapy administration in a covered trash can in the patient's room. 1 points Question 21 A nurse is discussing oprelvekin therapy with a male patient. Which of the following will the nurse tell the patient is the most common adverse effect of the drug? A. Fluid retention/weight gain B. Atrial arrhythmia C. Papilledema D. Medullary bone pain 1 points Question 22 A patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) will be starting a course of doxorubicin shortly. When planning this patient's care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance related to decreased neurological function B. Risk for Infection related to suppressed bone marrow function C. Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements related to metabolic effects of doxorubicin D. Risk for Impaired Skin integrity related to cytotoxic effects of doxorubicin 1 points Question 23 A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer who has been prescribed dronabinol (Marinol) to help reduce nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy. The nurse will inform the patient that he or she is taking an oral form of A. cocaine. B. nicotine. C. marijuana. D. methamphetamine. 1 points Question 24 A patient has completed 4 weeks of treatment with epoetin alfa. Which of the following assessment findings would most strongly indicate that treatment has been effective? A. The patient white blood cell level is within reference ranges B. The patient maintains an oxygen saturation of 92% on room air C. The patient's hemoglobin level is 11 g/dL D. Capillary refill in the patient's nail beds is less than or equal to 3 seconds 1 points Question 25 A patient with chronic heart failure has begun treatment with epoetin alfa, which she will receive in her own home from a home health nurse. The nurse should teach the patient to supplement this treatment with a diet that is high in A. complex carbohydrates and vegetable-source proteins. B. protein and low in carbohydrates. C. calcium, such as dairy products, fish and vegetables. D. iron-rich foods such as beans and leafy green vegetables. 1 points Question 26 When planning care for a patient who is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for a nonmyeloid malignancy, the nurse should formulate which of the following patient outcomes? (Select all that apply.) A. The patient will not experience bone pain. B. The patient will be able to self-administer filgrastim at home. C. The patient will not develop an infection. D. The patient will not retain fluid. E. The patient will not develop febrile neutropenia. 1 points Question 27 A nurse is administering rituximab to a patient via the IV route. The nurse will set the IV pump at 50 mg/hour for the first half hour of the initial infusion. If there are not apparent reactions after 30 minutes of the infusion, the nurse will increase the dosage every 30 minutes by 50 mg/hour until the maximum infusion rate reaches which of the following? A. 250 mg/hour B. 400 mg/hour C. 500 mg/hour D. 300 mg/hour 1 points Question 28 A male patient is receiving heparin by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse will instruct the patient and family members to report which of the following should it occur? A. A skin rash B. Sudden occurrence of sleepiness and drowsiness C. Presence of blood in urine or stools D. Dizziness 1 points Question 29 A nurse has administered filgrastim to a diverse group of patients in recent months. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe for extremely elevated white blood cell counts following administration of the drug? A. A 47-year-old male with aplastic anemia B. A 25-year-old female with a diagnosis of congenital neutropenia C. A 19-year-old male receiving radiotherapy D. A 39-year-old female with a nonmyeloid malignancy 1 points Question 30 Intravenous carmustine has been prescribed for a patient with cancer. The nurse should help relieve the discomfort of pain and burning during the infusion by A. decreasing the total volume of the primary IV infusion. B. decreasing the volume used for dilution. C. administering a dose of 2 units of bleomycin before carmustine. D. slowing the infusion. 1 points Question 31 A 39-year-old woman is receiving doxorubicin for the treatment of cancer. After each treatment, the patient has acute nausea and vomiting accompanied by a slightly increased heart rate. The nurse will advise her to A. take the drug only at bedtime. B. perform light exercise after administration of the drug. C. perform relaxation techniques after the treatments. D. make an appointment for cardiac function tests. 1 points Question 32 A patient with a recent diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is discussing treatment options with his care team. What aspect of the patient's condition would contraindicate the use of cyclophosphamide for the treatment of leukemia? A. The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and takes oral antihyperglycemics. B. The patient has decreased renal function. C. The patient has had a history of nonadherence to medical treatment. D. The patient's bone marrow function is significantly depressed. 1 points Question 33 A female patient is prescribed oprelvekin therapy to treat thrombocytopenia. Which of the following should the nurse continuously monitor to determine the efficacy and duration of the oprelvekin therapy? A. Red and white blood cell count B. Weight gain C. Cardiac arrhythmias D. Platelet count 1 points Question 34 A nurse is to use a single-dose 1 mL vial to administer 0.5 mL of epoetin alfa to a 39-year-old woman who is being treated for chemotherapy-induced anemia. Which of the following will the nurse do with the unused portion of the drug? A. Store the medication in the drug cart for the next dose. B. Put the medication in the freezer compartment of the refrigerator. C. Refrigerate the medication for a future use. D. Discard the unused portion of the drug. 1 points Question 35 A patient's current course of cancer treatment involves the administration of a conjugated monoclonal antibody. What characteristic of the drug is specified by the fact that it is classified as a conjugated drug? A. The targeted therapy is combined with another substance that causes cell death. B. The targeted therapy is combination of a monoclonal antibody, a kinase inhibitor, and an inorganic cytotoxin. C. The drug is derived from nonhuman sources. D. The drug is able to adapt its pharmacokinetics to the etiology of the patient's cancer [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK10 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK10 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK10 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK10 QUIZ (LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITYQuestion 1 A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 28 w... [Show More] eeks' gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) to control preterm labor. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse prioritize? A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) B. Maternal body temperature C. Fetal blood pressure D. Correct fetal position Question 2 A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse? A. “Natural testosterone would be more effective for you.” B. “Natural testosterone poses a higher risk of gynecomastia.” C. “Natural testosterone undergoes a high first-pass effect and is not used orally.” D. “Natural testosterone undergoes a short first-past effect and is less extensively metabolized than what has been prescribed for you.” Question 3 A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman's care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses? A. Risk for Injury related to loss of vision or thrombotic events B. Incontinence, Functional, related to neurosensory and musculoskeletal changes C. Confusion, Chronic, related to CNS changes resulting from adverse drug effects D. Fluid Volume Deficit related to metabolic changes secondary to drug therapy Question 4 A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy? A. Changes in libido B. Dizziness C. Breakthrough bleeding D. Migraine headaches Question 5 A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks' gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be A. “I will tell your physician that you are concerned about taking insulin during your pregnancy.” B. “You will have to discontinue the insulin therapy during your pregnancy, but you will resume the medication after delivery.” C. “You will need to continue taking your insulin because hyperglycemia is thought to contribute to low birth weight.” D. “Insulin is usually the drug of choice for controlling blood glucose levels during pregnancy because it does not cross into the placenta.” Question 6 A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with A. microcephaly. B. an electrolyte imbalance. C. a high-pitched cry. D. thrombocytopenia. Question 7 A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure A. that only nonpharmacologic alternatives are being used. B. that the FDA is informed that the woman is receiving drug therapy. C. that serum levels of the drug are being monitored. D. to check the drug's FDA pregnancy category to determine safety. Question 8 A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug A. first thing in the morning. B. at bedtime. C. after meals. D. at any time of the day with tea or coffee. Question 9 Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects? A. Low blood pressure B. Increased heart rate C. Vaginal burning D. Reduced desire for sexual activity Question 10 Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to A. take calcium and vitamin D supplements. B. lift weights in the gym at least five times a week. C. stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate.. D. avoid drinking water with the drug. Question 11 A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following? A. “You might find that your face becomes flushed or you get a headache after you take Viagra.” B. “If you get some heart palpitations or dizziness after you take Viagra, know that this is normal and will pass with time.” C. “Make sure that you don't take any other prescription medications while you're using Viagra.” D. “You should take your Viagra at the same time each morning, ideally on an empty stomach.” Question 12 A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient's history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of A. food containing iron or calcium. B. nicotine. C. alcohol. D. grapefruit juice. Question 13 A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of A. acute urethral obstruction. B. gynecomastia. C. prostate cancer. D. hypercholesterolemia. Question 14 A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy? A. Sexual dysfunction related to erectile dysfunction B. Hypercalcemia related to drug therapy, immobility, and breast cancer C. Excess fluid volume related to potential effects of drug therapy D. Prostatic neoplasia Question 15 After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from A. mifepristone. B. clomiphene. C. conjugated estrogen. D. progesterone. Question 16 A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs? A. Furosemide B. Digoxin C. Salicylates D. Acetaminophen Question 17 A male patient is taking finasteride for BPH. Which of the following will the nurse evaluate at each clinic visit? A. Bone growth B. Hemoglobin levels C. Urinary elimination patterns D. Serum cholesterol levels Question 18 The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient's physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient? A. The presence of rales and rhonchi and oxygen saturation less than or equal to 80% on room air B. Maternal bradycardia accompanied by a prolonged QT interval C. Systolic blood pressure readings in excess of 190 mmHg D. Decreased level of consciousness with a sudden onset Question 19 A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include A. metabolic alkalosis. B. water intoxication. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. uterine tachysystole. Question 20 A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following? A. Cardiovascular complications B. Early epiphyseal closure C. Decreased libido D. Lack of secondary sexual characteristics Question 21 The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during A. the first 2 months of pregnancy. B. breast-feeding of the neonate. C. the two to 3 weeks prior to delivery. D. the second trimester. Question 22 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old female patient who is taking paclitaxel for ovarian cancer. Two or three days after the infusion of the drug, the nurse must closely monitor for which of the following? A. Cardiotoxicity B. Neurotoxicity C. Asthma D. Constipation Question 23 A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following? A. Limit fluid intake B. Take the medication at bedtime C. Drink a lot of water D. Increase the protein in her diet Question 24 A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend? A. Acetaminophen B. Aspirin C. Diflunisal (Dolobid) D. Ibuprofen Question 25 A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication A. that will be provided in pill form and which may cause lightheadedness. B. that will be administered as a weekly IM injection in an outpatient setting. C. that can be inhaled and that may cause occasional heart palpitations. D. that may be prescribed as a patch and which may cause dry mouth. Question 26 A patient is receiving radiotherapy for an overactive thyroid gland and asks whether her milk is safe for her baby. If her treatment cannot be discontinued, what should the nurse recommend? A. Advise her that it is safe to breast-feed her baby. B. Recommend alternative medication that is compatible with breast-feeding. C. Provide her with reports that identify several categories of drugs and their potential to cause problems with breast-feeding. D. Advise her to discard her breast milk in a biohazard container, as it is unsafe for the baby. Question 27 A nurse practitioner is reviewing the prepregnancy medication regimen of a patient who has just had a positive pregnancy test. The nurse should be aware of which of the following changes in pharmacokinetics that accompanies pregnancy? A. Increased drug distribution resulting from hemodynamic changes B. Hepatic metabolism of drugs that are normally metabolized by the kidneys C. Decreased excretion rates as a result of decreased glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy D. Decreased absorption of inhaled drugs due to decreased tidal volume Question 28 A nurse is working with a patient in the clinic who has erectile dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). The patient wants to do everything he can to promote effectiveness of the drug. The nurse will instruct him to A. drink plenty of fluids. B. avoid taking the drug with a high-protein meal. C. take a double dose of the drug. D. avoid taking the drug with a high-fat meal. A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug? A. “My urine is extremely concentrated lately and it smells strong.” B. “My urine's been cloudy for the last little while and it burns when I go to the bathroom.” C. “To be honest, I find that I can't get an erection for the past few months.” D. “Lately, I have to get up three or four times a night to go to the bathroom.” Question 30 A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to A. reduce the dosage of ciprofloxacin gradually. B. take the drug only in safe and secure home settings. C. complete the entire course of drug therapy. D. take the drug through subcutaneous injection if it tastes bad. Question 31 A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman's care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate? A. Height in the lowest quartile of the population and a history of joint pain B. Complaints of cold intolerance, recurrent constipation, and evidence of diverticular disease C. Labile moods and short-term memory deficits D. Low bone density and a family history of osteoporosis Question 32 A 20-year-old woman will soon begin taking oral contraceptives for the first time. What advice should the nurse provide to this patient? A. “Some women get some pain in their chest or abdomen when they take oral contraceptives, but this will pass as your body gets used to them.” B. “It will take 10 to 12 weeks before the birth control pills will actually prevent pregnancy, so be vigilant with other contraceptives until then.” C. “You need to carefully consider whether you might want to get pregnant later in your life.” D. “Make sure to seek care quickly if you experience bad headaches, calf pain, or changes in vision.” Question 33 A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to A. use an aspirin for relief of minor discomforts. B. use an alternative form of birth control, if taking an oral contraceptive. C. take the drug with food. D. take an antiemetic or antidiarrheal for adverse GI effects. Question 34 A nurse is working in a women's hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following? A. Hypotension B. Bradycardia C. Hypertension D. Decreased salivation Question 35 A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is? A. Anxiety related to perceived danger of drug therapy to fetus or infant B. Injury, Risk to the fetus related to adverse effects of maternal drug therapy C. Noncompliance with Drug Therapy D. Injury, Risk to the patient related to failure to receive needed drug therapy Question 36 A nurse is providing patient education to a 23-year-old woman who is starting the norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol transdermal system (Ortho Evra). Because this is the patient's first time to use the birth control patch, the nurse will instruct her to apply the patch A. on the 14th day of her menstrual period. B. ten days after her menstrual period begins. C. two days before her menstrual period begins. D. on the day her menstrual period begins. Question 37 A 66-year-old man has made an appointment with his primary care provider to discuss his recent erectile dysfunction (ED) and has requested a prescription for tadalafil (Cialis) based on television commercials he has seen. What characteristic of this patient would most likely contraindicate the use of tadalafil for his ED? A. The patient takes allopurinol for the treatment of gout B. The patient has unstable angina and uses a nitroglycerin patch C. The patient has a family history of osteoporosis and has undergone bone density testing D. The patient often takes ginseng when he gets a common cold Question 38 A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend A. aspirin. B. tylenol. C. advil. D. motrin. Question 39 A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is A. the pregnant woman's dietary habits. B. whether the pregnant woman uses illegal substances. C. the pregnant woman's exercise habits. D. whether the pregnant woman has health insurance. Question 40 On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? A. “HRT might be quite beneficial to you, and it carries the additional benefit of modest protection against breast cancer.” B. “We'll have to check your bone density first, because if it's too low then it's not safe to start HRT.” C. “It's important to balance the possible benefits of HRT with the fact that it might increase your risk of heart disease and stroke” D. “Actually, most of the current research is suggesting that HRT may not be all that effective in treating the symptoms of menopause.” [Show Less]
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NURS 6521N WEEK 11 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 11 QUIZ(LATEST)| -WALDEN UNIVERSITY
NURS 6521N WEEK 11 QUIZ: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY / NURS6521N WEEK 11 QUIZ Question 1 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic r... [Show More] eaction. He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug? A. That the infant's skin has greater permeability than that of an adult B. That there is less body surface area to be concerned about C. That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants D. That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant's body compared with an adult 1 points Question 2 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses. She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs). The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs. A. Monophasic B. Triphasic OC C. Ortho Tri-Cyclen D. Biphasic OC 1 points Question 3 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. In light of the man's lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia). What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient? A. “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.” B. “It's best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.” C. “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.” D. “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.” 1 points Question 4 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect? A. Increased intranodal conduction time B. Increased cardiac conduction C. Decreased heart rate D. Decreased myocardial contraction 1 points Question 5 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child. The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using A. body surface area. B. age in months. C. age in years. D. weight. 1 points Question 6 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness. He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather's antidepressant to improve his mood. After immediately phoning the boy's stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem? A. Nephrotoxicity B. Hypokalemia C. Hypertensive crisis D. Cardiac dysrhythmia 1 points Question 7 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia). After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient's childbearing potential. The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should A. abstain from sex. B. use adequate contraception. C. obtain a pap smear . D. take a pregnancy test every month. 1 points Question 8 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD. At each clinic visit, the nurse's priority assessment would be A. body temperature. B. blood pressure. C. Vision. D. height and weight. 1 points Question 9 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient. In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem? A. ADHD B. Anxiety C. Respiratory depression D. Obesity 1 points Question 10 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children's hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors. What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children? A. Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug. B. Recording drug administration in both the nurse's notes and the medication administration record (MAR) C. Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible. D. Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug. 1 points Question 11 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate. Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation? A. A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects. B. A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects. C. A child's gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects. D. A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects. 1 points Question 12 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of A. trans fat. B. grapefruit juice. C. caffeine. D. alcohol. 1 points Question 13 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products. The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered A. monotherapy. B. taboo. C. inappropriate. D. phytoestrogens. 1 points Question 14 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face. When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should A. use clean technique only when applying the medication. B. use sterile technique when applying the medication. C. cool the medication prior to administration. D. allow the child to apply the medication if possible. 1 points Question 15 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should A. offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible. B. insert a central intravenous line. C. have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered. D. teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications. 1 points Question 16 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain. What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions? A. “How much do you weigh?” B. “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?” C. “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?” D. “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?” 1 points Question 17 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery. The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period. The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to A. the mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her son does not want to take them. B. the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications. C. the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed. D. both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued. 1 points Question 18 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge. The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle. The nurse practitioner probably suspects A. PMS. B. breast cancer. C. pain in the heart. D. cancerous breast tenderness. 1 points Question 19 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The patient should expect to take medication A. for 20 days. B. once a day. C. every day until the infection is gone. D. for 30 days. 1 points Question 20 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is A. Flagyl. B. Diflucan. C. Meclizine. D. Amoxicillan. 1 points Question 21 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection site would be the A. rectusfemoris muscle. B. ventrogluteal muscle. C. dorsogluteal muscle. D. deltoid muscle. 1 points Question 22 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems. The child is underweight and is on a special diet. Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply.) A. Diet B. Route of administration C. Age D. Weight E. Disease process 1 points Question 23 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy. He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis. Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation? A. Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management B. Caregiver Role Strain C. Delayed Growth and Development D. Knowledge Deficit 1 points Question 24 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea. The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following? A. Constipation B. Bloody stools C. Hypoglycemia D. Bradycardia 1 points Question 25 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should A. give the drug in a pill form. B. have the parent gently force the child's mouth open. C. offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug. D. involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy. 1 points Question 26 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks. The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years. The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse's assessment? A. The health status of the other children B. Where the medications will be stored C. The mother and grandmother's understanding about the drugs D. How clean the house is 1 points Question 27 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause A. staining of permanent teeth. B. sleep deprivation. C. orange-tinged urine. D. deep muscle pain. 1 points Question 28 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use. However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide? A. “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.” B. “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.” C. “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.” D. “Most people don't know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.” 1 points Question 29 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy. These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy? A. Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor B. Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity C. Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use D. Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow 1 points Question 30 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor. A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis. The nurse practitioner is aware that A. trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear. B. it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis. C. trichomoniasis is an incurable disease. D. asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear. 1 points Question 31 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults. This fact is primarily due to A. increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children. B. increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children. C. the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions. D. immature liver and kidney function in infants and children. 1 points Question 32 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper. The best method is to open the child's mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops A. at the back of the mouth. B. on top of the tongue. C. in the buccal pouch. D. under the tongue. 1 points Question 33 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug. The most likely cause of this response is A. a paradoxical response. B. an allergic response. C. a hepatotoxic response. D. an idiosyncratic response. 1 points Question 34 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally. How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose? A. 1000 mg B. 2000 mg C. 3000 mg D. 4000 mg 1 points Question 35 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient? A. Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens B. Drink plenty of fluids. C. Avoid high noise levels D. Take the drug on a full stomach 1 points Question 36 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD. After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an A. electroencephalogram (EEG). B. electrocardiogram (ECG). C. electromyelogram (EMG). D. electrophysiologic study (EPS). 1 points Question 37 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary? A. “I am on the middle school track team.” B. “My mother is going to give me my insulin.” C. “I walk two blocks to school every day.” D. “We live in a two-story house.” 1 points Question 38 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches. His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day. Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate? A. Cardiac function B. Hepatic function C. Respiratory function D. Renal function 1 points Question 39 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan? A. A preterm neonate who has apnea B. A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy C. A school-age child with severe ADHD D. A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations 1 points Question 40 A nurse works at a weight management clinic. To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine? A. A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes B. A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism C. A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina D. A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma [Show Less]
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