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NURS 6512N
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Walden University NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A).
Walden University NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A). Question 1 2 out of 2 points The Denver II is a tool used to determi... [Show More] ne: Response Feedback: Denver II is a tool to determine whether the child is developing fine and gross motor skills, language, and personal social skills as expected according to the child s age. Question 2 2 out of 2 points A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age? Response Feedback: A positive Babinski sign, fanning of the toes and dorsiflexion of the great toe, is a normal finding until the infant is 16 to 24 months old. Question 3 2 out of 2 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Response Feedback: Ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort are herbal remedies intended to improve mental alertness and elevate mood. As side effects, they can also result in disorientation and confusion that can be monitored with the Mini-Mental State Examination. The Denver and the Goodenough-Harris tests are used for childhood development, and the Glasgow Coma Scale is used to rate coma depth. The CAGE Questionnaire is useful tool for approaching a discussion of the use of alcohol. Question 4 2 out of 2 points Environmental hazards and cognitive function are data needed for the personal and social history section of a neurologic assessment for: Response Feedback: Exposure to lead, arsenic, insecticides, organic solvents, dangerous equipment, and work at heights or in water are important factors to consider in the personal and social history of all patients. Question 5 2 out of 2 points You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating: Response Feedback: Stereognosis is the ability to recognize an object through touch and manipulation. Tactile agnosia, an inability to recognize objects by touch, suggests a parietal lobe lesion. Graphesthesia tests the patient s ability to identify the figure being drawn on their palm. The vibratory sense uses a tuning fork placed on a bony prominence. Two-point discrimination uses two sharp objects to determine the distance at which the patient can no longer distinguish the two points. The extinction phenomenon tests sensation by simultaneously touching bilateral sides of the body with a sterile needle. Question 6 2 out of 2 points Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: Response Feedback: Motor maturation proceeds in a cephalocaudal direction. Motor control of the head and neck develops first, followed by the trunk and extremities. The other choices are incorrect because they relate maturation sequence inappropriately. Question 7 2 out of 2 points Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing: Response Feedback: Deep pressure sensation is tested by squeezing the trapezius, calf, or biceps muscle, thus causing discomfort. When superficial pain sensation is not intact, then further assessments of temperature and deep pressure sensation are performed. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Response Feedback: Dementia is the loss of both immediate and recent memory while retaining remote memories. ADHD is associated with recent and remote memory impairment; impaired judgments are thought process dysfunctions; and stupor is impaired consciousness. Delirium manifests with confusion with disordered perceptions as well as motor and sensory excitement with inappropriate reactions to stimuli. Question 9 2 out of 2 points A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale. Response Feedback: The lowest score possible is a 3, which represents the deepest coma. Question 10 2 out of 2 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Response Feedback: Peripheral neuropathy is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system that results in motor and sensory loss in the distribution of one or more nerves, more commonly in the hands and feet. Patients may have sensation of numbness, tingling, burning, and cramping. In moderate to severe diabetic neuropathy, there is wasting of the foot muscles, absent ankle and knee reflexes, decreased or no vibratory sensation below the knees, or loss of pain or sharp touch sensation to the mid-calf level. Question 11 2 out of 2 points You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: Response Feedback: The Romberg test has the patient stand with his eyes closed, feet together, and arms at the sides. Slight swaying movement of the body is expected but not to the extent of falling. Loss of balance results in a positive Romberg test. Kernig sign tests for meningeal irritation; Homan sign tests for venous thrombosis; and McMurray test is a rotation test for demonstrating a torn meniscus. A positive Murphy s sign is usually a sign of gallbladder disease. Question 12 2 out of 2 points Flight of ideas or loosening of associations are associated with: Response Feedback: Flight of ideas, loosening of associations, word salad, neologisms, clang associations, echolalia, and utterances of unusual sounds are all associated with psychiatric disorders. Question 13 2 out of 2 points At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand? Response Feedback: Transferring objects hand to hand begins at 7 months. Purposeful release of objects is noted as a normal finding by 10 months. Purposeful movements, such as reaching and grasping for objects, begin at about 2 months of age. The progress of taking objects with one hand begins at 6 months. There should be no tremors or constant overshooting of movements. Question 14 2 out of 2 points You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Response Feedback: The fingertips can discern two points with a minimal distance of 2 to 8 mm; the back, 40 to 70 mm; the palms, 8 to 12 mm; the upper arms, at 75 mm; and the chest and forearms, 40 mm. Question 15 2 out of 2 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Response Feedback: Sensory perceptions of touch and pain are diminished by aging. The velocity of nerve impulse conduction declines, so response to stimuli takes longer. The number of cerebral neurons is thought to decrease by 1% a year beginning at 50 years of age; however, the vast number of reserve cells inhibits the appearance of clinical signs. Dermatomal patterns do not change. Acquired knowledge is maintained throughout life. Question 16 2 out of 2 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Response Feedback: Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient (proximal to distal) will elicit the cremasteric reflex. The testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Stoking the skin around the anus produces reflexive contracture of the external anal sphincter referred to as the anal wink. Stroking the sole of the foot elicits a Babinski sign; stroking the abdomen elicits an abdominal reflex; and stroking the palm elicits a palmar grasp. Question 17 2 out of 2 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Response Feedback: To perform the finger-to-nose test, the patient closes both eyes, touches his or her nose with the index finger, alternating hands while gradually increasing the speed. This tests coordination and fine motor skills. All of the other choices test sensory function without motor function. Question 18 2 out of 2 points The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to: Response Feedback: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used when a patient has an altered level of consciousness and is used to quantify consciousness. It cannot determine the cause of decreased consciousness, diagnose disorders, or predict responses to medications. Abstract reasoning is assessed by other methods. Question 19 2 out of 2 points An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: Response Feedback: Autistic disorder involves a combination of behavioral traits (lack of awareness of others, aversion to touch or being held, odd or repetitive behaviors, or preoccupation with parts of objects) and communication deficits (usually echolalia [parrot speech]). Question 20 2 out of 2 points A woman brings her husband to the emergency department and states that he is having a stroke. You are the student NP on the hospitalist service and are sent down first to obtain the history and physical. You develop a differential diagnosis and know that the initial gold standard radiology test to further evaluate is: [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A).
Walden University NURS 6512N Week 9 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A). Question 1 2 out of 2 points The Denver II is a tool used to determi... [Show More] ne: Response Feedback: Denver II is a tool to determine whether the child is developing fine and gross motor skills, language, and personal social skills as expected according to the child s age. Question 2 2 out of 2 points A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age? Response Feedback: A positive Babinski sign, fanning of the toes and dorsiflexion of the great toe, is a normal finding until the infant is 16 to 24 months old. Question 3 2 out of 2 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Response Feedback: Ginkgo biloba and St. John s wort are herbal remedies intended to improve mental alertness and elevate mood. As side effects, they can also result in disorientation and confusion that can be monitored with the Mini-Mental State Examination. The Denver and the Goodenough-Harris tests are used for childhood development, and the Glasgow Coma Scale is used to rate coma depth. The CAGE Questionnaire is useful tool for approaching a discussion of the use of alcohol. Question 4 2 out of 2 points Environmental hazards and cognitive function are data needed for the personal and social history section of a neurologic assessment for: Response Feedback: Exposure to lead, arsenic, insecticides, organic solvents, dangerous equipment, and work at heights or in water are important factors to consider in the personal and social history of all patients. Question 5 2 out of 2 points You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating: Response Feedback: Stereognosis is the ability to recognize an object through touch and manipulation. Tactile agnosia, an inability to recognize objects by touch, suggests a parietal lobe lesion. Graphesthesia tests the patient s ability to identify the figure being drawn on their palm. The vibratory sense uses a tuning fork placed on a bony prominence. Two-point discrimination uses two sharp objects to determine the distance at which the patient can no longer distinguish the two points. The extinction phenomenon tests sensation by simultaneously touching bilateral sides of the body with a sterile needle. Question 6 2 out of 2 points Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: Response Feedback: Motor maturation proceeds in a cephalocaudal direction. Motor control of the head and neck develops first, followed by the trunk and extremities. The other choices are incorrect because they relate maturation sequence inappropriately. Question 7 2 out of 2 points Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing: Response Feedback: Deep pressure sensation is tested by squeezing the trapezius, calf, or biceps muscle, thus causing discomfort. When superficial pain sensation is not intact, then further assessments of temperature and deep pressure sensation are performed. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Response Feedback: Dementia is the loss of both immediate and recent memory while retaining remote memories. ADHD is associated with recent and remote memory impairment; impaired judgments are thought process dysfunctions; and stupor is impaired consciousness. Delirium manifests with confusion with disordered perceptions as well as motor and sensory excitement with inappropriate reactions to stimuli. Question 9 2 out of 2 points A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale. Response Feedback: The lowest score possible is a 3, which represents the deepest coma. Question 10 2 out of 2 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Response Feedback: Peripheral neuropathy is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system that results in motor and sensory loss in the distribution of one or more nerves, more commonly in the hands and feet. Patients may have sensation of numbness, tingling, burning, and cramping. In moderate to severe diabetic neuropathy, there is wasting of the foot muscles, absent ankle and knee reflexes, decreased or no vibratory sensation below the knees, or loss of pain or sharp touch sensation to the mid-calf level. Question 11 2 out of 2 points You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: Response Feedback: The Romberg test has the patient stand with his eyes closed, feet together, and arms at the sides. Slight swaying movement of the body is expected but not to the extent of falling. Loss of balance results in a positive Romberg test. Kernig sign tests for meningeal irritation; Homan sign tests for venous thrombosis; and McMurray test is a rotation test for demonstrating a torn meniscus. A positive Murphy s sign is usually a sign of gallbladder disease. Question 12 2 out of 2 points Flight of ideas or loosening of associations are associated with: Response Feedback: Flight of ideas, loosening of associations, word salad, neologisms, clang associations, echolalia, and utterances of unusual sounds are all associated with psychiatric disorders. Question 13 2 out of 2 points At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand? Response Feedback: Transferring objects hand to hand begins at 7 months. Purposeful release of objects is noted as a normal finding by 10 months. Purposeful movements, such as reaching and grasping for objects, begin at about 2 months of age. The progress of taking objects with one hand begins at 6 months. There should be no tremors or constant overshooting of movements. Question 14 2 out of 2 points You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Response Feedback: The fingertips can discern two points with a minimal distance of 2 to 8 mm; the back, 40 to 70 mm; the palms, 8 to 12 mm; the upper arms, at 75 mm; and the chest and forearms, 40 mm. Question 15 2 out of 2 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Response Feedback: Sensory perceptions of touch and pain are diminished by aging. The velocity of nerve impulse conduction declines, so response to stimuli takes longer. The number of cerebral neurons is thought to decrease by 1% a year beginning at 50 years of age; however, the vast number of reserve cells inhibits the appearance of clinical signs. Dermatomal patterns do not change. Acquired knowledge is maintained throughout life. Question 16 2 out of 2 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Response Feedback: Stroking the inner thigh of a male patient (proximal to distal) will elicit the cremasteric reflex. The testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Stoking the skin around the anus produces reflexive contracture of the external anal sphincter referred to as the anal wink. Stroking the sole of the foot elicits a Babinski sign; stroking the abdomen elicits an abdominal reflex; and stroking the palm elicits a palmar grasp. Question 17 2 out of 2 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Response Feedback: To perform the finger-to-nose test, the patient closes both eyes, touches his or her nose with the index finger, alternating hands while gradually increasing the speed. This tests coordination and fine motor skills. All of the other choices test sensory function without motor function. Question 18 2 out of 2 points The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to: Response Feedback: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used when a patient has an altered level of consciousness and is used to quantify consciousness. It cannot determine the cause of decreased consciousness, diagnose disorders, or predict responses to medications. Abstract reasoning is assessed by other methods. Question 19 2 out of 2 points An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of: Response Feedback: Autistic disorder involves a combination of behavioral traits (lack of awareness of others, aversion to touch or being held, odd or repetitive behaviors, or preoccupation with parts of objects) and communication deficits (usually echolalia [parrot speech]). Question 20 2 out of 2 points A woman brings her husband to the emergency department and states that he is having a stroke. You are the student NP on the hospitalist service and are sent down first to obtain the history and physical. You develop a differential diagnosis and know that the initial gold standard radiology test to further evaluate is: [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N Week 5 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A).
Walden University NURS 6512N Week 5 Quiz – Question and Answers (Graded A). Question 1 2 out of 2 points A patient has come in with a chief comp... [Show More] laint of facial pain and “sinus issues.” Transillumination of the right sinus produces no light. You consulted your preceptor to order a sinus x-ray and she agreed. Which of the following findings on x-ray would support your diagnosis of sinusitis? Answer: Air fluid in the Right side Question 2 2 out of 2 points The sensory network of the eye is the: Response Feedback: The retina acts as the sensory network of the eye in that it sends electric impulses to the brain transformed from light. The cornea, iris, and pupil act together as an opening for light to pass through the lens. Question 3 2 out of 2 points Cupping of the optic disc may be a result of: Response Feedback: Cupping is seen with causes of increased intraocular pressure such as glaucoma. Migraine headaches, diabetes, and dehydration do not cause cupping of the optic disc. Diabetes results in cotton wool patches and hemorrhages. Question 4 2 out of 2 points An abnormal growth of conjunctiva extending over the cornea from the limbus is known as: Response Feedback: An abnormal growth of the conjunctiva that extends over the cornea is called a pterygium. Cataracts and glaucoma do not affect the conjunctiva. Erythematous means the area is red and irritated. Question 5 2 out of 2 points When testing corneal sensitivity controlled by cranial nerve V, you should expect the patient to respond by: Response Feedback: Brisk blinking is an expected response to corneal sensitivity testing, which involves gently touching the cornea with a piece of cotton. Question 6 2 out of 2 points The unit of measurement in describing lesion size and location on the fundus is the: Response Feedback: When examining the eye and the fundus comes into focus, the branching of blood vessels becomes apparent. These always branch away from the optic disc and can be used as landmarks to locate the optic disc. The disc itself measures about 1.5 mm in diameter and is therefore the unit of measurement used to describe lesion size and location on the fundus. Question 7 0 out of 2 points Which of the following is true regarding cephalhematoma? Response Feedback: The condition is subperiosteal, under the bone, and is contained by the margins of the suture lines; it does not cross the suture line. It is often unnoticed at birth and typically feels firm with its edges well defined. Question 8 2 out of 2 points When examining an infant s middle ear, the practitioner should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to: Response Feedback: You should use your other hand to pull the auricle down and back in an effort to straighten the upward curvature of the canal. Question 9 0 out of 2 points The approximate expected systolic blood pressure for a child older than 1 year of age is: Question 10 2 out of 2 points Speech with a monotonous tone and erratic volume may indicate: Response Feedback: Speech with a monotonous tone and erratic volume may indicate hearing loss. Although hearing may be affected in the other choices, they do not result in hearing loss. Question 11 2 out of 2 points The thyroid gland should: Response Feedback: It is a normal finding for the thyroid gland to move with swallowing; however, being off center may indicate nodular growth or enlargement. The thyroid gland should not be slightly left of midline. Vascular sounds indicate hypermetabolic states such as hyperthyroidism, and a tug with each heartbeat is a sign of an aortic aneurysm. Question 12 2 out of 2 points A 30-year-old woman presents with rapid swelling beneath her jaw that suddenly appears while she is eating. The swelling is mildly painful but is not hot or red. You suspect Wharton salivary duct stones and proceed to palpate: Response Feedback: The vast majority of such stones occur in the Wharton duct from the submaxillary gland, which can be palpated along each side of the frenulum under the tongue. Question 13 0 out of 2 points The pregnant woman can expect to experience: Question 14 2 out of 2 points During initial ABCDE assessments of life-threatening conditions, D (disability) in neurologic status is assessed by the patient s: Response Feedback: The D (disability) in neurologic status of the primary assessment is made by the determination of the patient s degree of responsiveness to stimuli. Question 15 0 out of 2 points Which of the following is not a component of a management plan? Question 16 2 out of 2 points An infant s auditory canal, when compared with an adult s, is: Response Feedback: Compared with the adult s, the infant s auditory canal is shorter and has an upward curve, which is the reason that pulling the pinna down straightens the canal. Question 17 2 out of 2 points Which of the following findings would be consistent with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? Response Feedback: With FAS, classic findings include poorly formed or flat philtrum, widespread eyes with inner epicanthal folds and mild ptosis, hirsute forehead, short nose, relatively thin upper lip, and small eye openings. Corneal clouding is seen with Hurler syndrome, eye slanting is seen in Down syndrome, and bulging fontanels are seen in hydrocephalus. Question 18 0 out of 2 points You are performing hearing screening tests. Difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies would be expected in the ___ year old. Question 19 2 out of 2 points The use of computers in health care is: Response Feedback: The computer is a useful tool in the clinical setting for documenting patient care and for retrieval of information. It cannot substitute for the clinician s critical thinking or for patient interactions. For some clinicians, computer use is a threatening skill and poses confidentiality issues. Question 20 2 out of 2 points A 6-month-old who can hear well can be expected to: Response Feedback: Six-month-old infants turn their head toward the source of sound and they start babbling, but they begin imitating speech sounds closer to 10 months of age. Understanding simple phrases such as no-no and bye-bye occurs between 10 and 12 months. The Moro reflex and cessation of breathing in response to noise is lost by 3 months of age. Sunday, December 31, 2017 11:56:27 PM EST [Show Less]
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NURS 6512 Final Exam Test Bank 415 Questions with Answers (All Correct).
NURS 6512 Final Exam Test Bank 415 Questions with Answers (All Correct). Question 1 1 out of 1 points The reliability of health-related findings and ... [Show More] observations is the responsibility of the: Answer: professional and the patient. Question 2 1 out of 1 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? Answer: The pulses are most readily felt over bony prominences. Question 3 1 out of 1 points As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: Answer: cerebellar ataxia. Question 4 1 out of 1 points You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with: Answer: fibrocystic changes Question 5 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Answer: Press introitus downward; insert closed speculum obliquely Question 6 1 out of 1 points When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? Answer: Constantly, throughout the entire interaction with a patient Question 7 1 out of 1 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Answer: diminished perception of touch. Question 8 1 out of 1 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Answer: coordination and fine motor function. Question 9 1 out of 1 points The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg. Answer: 10 Question 10 1 out of 1 points Tarry black stool should make you suspect: Answer: upper intestinal bleeding Question 11 1 out of 1 points Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Answer: Lachman Question 12 1 out of 1 points Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: Answer: palpation of anal sphincter tone. Question 13 1 out of 1 points Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: Answer: older adults. Question 14 1 out of 1 points Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes? Answer: III and VI Question 15 1 out of 1 points Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: Answer: state of consciousness. Question 16 1 out of 1 points To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with: Answer: one arm overhead and a pillow under her shoulder. Question 17 1 out of 1 points Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: Answer: observing the infant suck and swallow. Question 18 1 out of 1 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Answer: diminished pain sensation. Question 19 1 out of 1 points Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: Answer: cranial Question 20 1 out of 1 points Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: Answer: left scrotal sac lower than the right. Question 21 1 out of 1 points Postural hypotension is defined as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings. Answer: systolic pressure drop of more than 15 mm Hg with a pulse rate increase Question 22 1 out of 1 points The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about: Answer: hemorrhoid surgery. Question 40 1 out of 1 points Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: Answer: P wave. Question 41 1 out of 1 points When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Answer: presence and form of body parts Question 42 1 out of 1 points A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: Answer: 1 Question 43 1 out of 1 points During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: Answer: are usual conditions during pregnancy. Question 44 1 out of 1 points The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: Answer: scapular line Question 45 1 out of 1 points An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: Answer: lens inspection. Question 46 1 out of 1 points Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? Answer: Dementia Question 52 1 out of 1 points During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: Answer: lung consolidation. Question 53 1 out of 1 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Answer: Mini-Mental State Examination. Question 54 1 out of 1 points Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify: Answer: uremia. Question 55 1 out of 1 points One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: Answer: symmetry. Question 56 1 out of 1 points When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site. Answer: finger pads, gliding Question 57 1 out of 1 points The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include: Answer: identifying risk of injury or death during sports participation. Question 58 1 out of 1 points Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is: Answer: duck walking. Question 59 1 out of 1 points A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: Answer: gout. Question 60 1 out of 1 points It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if: Answer: deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. Question 61 1 out of 1 points For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into: Answer: four quadrants plus a tail. Question 62 1 out of 1 points The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the: Answer: fallopian tubes and ovaries. Question 63 1 out of 1 points Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): Answer: older adult. Question 64 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? Answer: McMurray test Question 65 1 out of 1 points A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: Answer: Heberden nodes. Question 66 1 out of 1 points The foramen ovale should close: Answer: within minutes of birth. Question 67 1 out of 1 points Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: Answer: pregnant women. Question 68 1 out of 1 points A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is: Answer: riflery. Question 69 1 out of 1 points A cervical polyp usually appears as a: Answer: bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal. Question 70 1 out of 1 points An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: Answer: Raynaud disease. Question 71 1 out of 1 points You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would: Answer: test the six cardinal points of gaze. Question 98 1 out of 1 points Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel: Answer: rubbery. Question 99 1 out of 1 points Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by: Answer: auscultating the lung bases. Question 100 1 out of 1 points Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: Answer: aphasia. Question 72 1 out of 1 points You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: Answer: inquire about previous penile infections. Question 73 1 out of 1 points A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: Answer: hydrocele. Question 74 1 out of 1 points An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? Answer: Cytology smear Question 75 1 out of 1 points The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate: Answer: pelvic inflammatory disease. Question 76 1 out of 1 points Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: Answer: examination of the upper extremities. Question 77 1 out of 1 points Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: Answer: rheumatoid arthritis. Question 78 1 out of 1 points A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: Answer: lordosis. Question 79 1 out of 1 points A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: Answer: radiate to the axilla. Question 80 1 out of 1 points The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: Answer: the patient enters the examination room. Question 81 1 out of 1 points Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should: Answer: evaluate the whole patient. Question 82 1 out of 1 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Answer: inner thigh and observes whether the testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Question 83 1 out of 1 points The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: Answer: QRS complex. Question 84 1 out of 1 points You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion? Answer: Loss of hair over the extremity Question 85 1 out of 1 points If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a: Answer: glass slide and fixative. Question 86 1 out of 1 points The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: Answer: coordination of follow-ups is reviewed. Question 87 1 out of 1 points An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: Answer: left ventricular hypertrophy. Question 88 1 out of 1 points The Denver II is a tool used to determine: Answer: whether a child is developing as expected. Question 89 1 out of 1 points To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: Answer: lie on their left sides. Question 90 1 out of 1 points Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: Answer: menstrual cycles. Question 91 1 out of 1 points In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: Answer: folding the arms in front. Question 92 1 out of 1 points While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should: Answer: note the finding in the patient's record. Question 93 1 out of 1 points Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: Answer: having the patient clench his or her teeth. Question 94 1 out of 1 points Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? Answer: Fever Question 95 1 out of 1 points Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: Answer: digital rectal examination (DRE). Question 96 1 out of 1 points Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? Answer: Spinal Question 97 1 out of 1 points Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal: Answer: conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM 1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: - Polynephritis 2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to: -Fecal impaction 3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment? – The infant has regurgitation with pyloric stenosis 4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with: - Gastroenteritis, early intestinal obstruction, or hunger 5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? – Venous hum 6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: - Liver 7. The major function of the large intestine is: - Water absorption 8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –Ileum, bladder, and pregnant uterus 9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): -Positive Helicobacter pylori result 10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: - Burning or shocklike 11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: - The pain gets better when she sits 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: - Point to the area of pain 13. The perception of pain: - Is variable and is affected by emotions, and cultural background 14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: - Cirrhosis 15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured? – Spleen 16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? – Hydronephrosis 17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: - Intestinal obstruction 18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for: - Necrotizing enterocolitis 19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? – The patient’s age and social status 20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: - Symmetry 21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to: - Minimize the number of times the patient has to change positions to conserve the patient’s energy 22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? - Inspection 23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability? – The examiner attempts to qualify data 24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? – This is common misconception, and the finger may be broken. An x-ray is indicated. 25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests? – None of the above. X-ray is not indicated because lumbar pain is usually musculoskeletal etiology. 26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: -Increased bone resorption 27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: - Lumbar nerve root irritation 28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hip dislocation? – Barlow-Ortolani maneuvers 51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? – Peripheral nerve sensory function 52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – Acroparesthesia 52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: - Cerebrovascular accident 53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? – Lumbosacral plexopathy 54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? – 2+ 55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: - A late symptom of Parkinson’s disease 56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: - Head to toe 57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: - Pain 58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. – 3 months 59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: - Diminished perception of touch. -- this is by process of elimination/educated guess. I could not find direct information addressing this in Seidel 60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: -Mini-mental state examination 61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: - Dermatome 62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – CN XI, spinal accessory 29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include: - Convex lumbar curve 30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: - Having the patient clench his or her teeth 31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: - Irregular bony surfaces rub together 32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: - Radial head subluxation 33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: - Osteoporosis 34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: - Failure to warm up before activity 35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: - Adolescence 36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: - Adolescence 37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: -Genetic disorders 38. The Thomas test is used to detect: - Flexion contractures of the hip 39. A goniometer is used to assess: - Range of motion 40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. – Valgus stress 41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: - Muscle weakness 42. The dowager hump is: - The hallmark of osteoporosis 43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention? –Carpal tunnel syndrome 44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: - Lordosis 45. A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? – Positive straight leg raise result 46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? – Huntington chorea 47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I 1. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: Answer: pregnant women 2. Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: Answer: upper extremities 3. During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: Answer: bronchial obstruction 4. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when: Answer: irregular bony surfaces rub together 5. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Answer: Presence and form of body parts. 6. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: Answer: normal pregnancy 7. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: Answer: left ventricular hypertrophy 8. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? Answer: McMurray 9. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: Answer: sensory 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? Answer: Do not use your thumb 11. Tarry black stool should make you suspect: Answer: upper gastrointestinal bleed 12. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: Answer: 1 13. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: Answer: anal sphincter 14. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: Answer: let him hold the stethoscope during the exam 15. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: Answer: cancer 16. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: Answer: (radiates from the apex to base or to left axilla). 48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? – The patient has appropriate cerebellar function 49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? – “Are there any factors or activities that seem to start the seizures?” 50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? – Inner ear dysfunction affecting the acoustic nerve 63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: - Coordination and fine motor function 64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: - Attention span 65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: - Cerebellar ataxia 66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? – Constantly throughout the entire interaction with a client 67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: -Autism 68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? – Internal environment of the body 69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: - Orchestrate the stress response 70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: - Digestion 71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: - Shock absorber 97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – Patient is sleep and sensory deprived 98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: - Auscultate heart sounds 99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? – No test has 100% sensitivity and specificity 100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – Fever 101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: - Menstrual cycles 72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: -Finger tips 73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – Visual-bugs, pink elephants 74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –3+ 75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – There is an increased risk of delirium with acute illness or metabolic derangement. 76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: -Insensitivity to painful stimulation 77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: - Alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use 78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – HPV 79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: - Classis diverticulitis 80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – Abdominal and transvaginal ultrasound 81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: - Inguinal herniation 82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremic breasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: - Massage gently and continue nursing 83. A normal vas deferens should feel: - Smooth 84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: - Its relationship to menses 85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: - Chancre 86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: - Blue, shiny, painful masses 87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: - Softening and bluish coloring 88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: - Inquire about previous penile infections 89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: - Establish absent cremasteric reflex 90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: - Suggest pregnancy testing 91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – The head of the table should be elevated 92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. - 12 93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: -Ask the patient to turn her head toward that side 94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: -Record the finding in the patient’s record 95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: - Tell them that is good to cry and to share feelings 96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: - Inspection noting skin color, flaccidity, tension, gross deformities, or distortions of facies 102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –Jugular venous pulsation and pressure 103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): -Older adult 104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: - Encourage child’s participation 105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: - Lens inspection 106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: - Bathing 107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: - The coordination of follow-ups is reviewed 108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? – The patient is a full partner with the examiner 109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? – The patient’s age and social status 110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: - To look for symmetry of muscle, stature, and joint movement 111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first impl [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. Questions & Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512 Final Exam 3. Questions & Answers (Graded A) Question 1 1 out of 1 points The reliability of health-related findings and ... [Show More] observations is the responsibility of the: Answer: professional and the patient. Question 2 1 out of 1 points Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries? Answer: The pulses are most readily felt over bony prominences. Question 3 1 out of 1 points As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.'s pattern as: Answer: cerebellar ataxia. Question 4 1 out of 1 points You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with: Answer: fibrocystic changes Question 5 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? Answer: Press introitus downward; insert closed speculum obliquely Question 6 1 out of 1 points When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? Answer: Constantly, throughout the entire interaction with a patient Question 7 1 out of 1 points Normal changes of the aging brain include: Answer: diminished perception of touch. Question 8 1 out of 1 points The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: Answer: coordination and fine motor function. Question 9 1 out of 1 points The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg. Answer: 10 Question 10 1 out of 1 points Tarry black stool should make you suspect: Answer: upper intestinal bleeding Question 11 1 out of 1 points Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test. Answer: Lachman Question 12 1 out of 1 points Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes: Answer: palpation of anal sphincter tone. Question 13 1 out of 1 points Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of: Answer: older adults. Question 14 1 out of 1 points Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes? Answer: III and VI Question 15 1 out of 1 points Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine: Answer: state of consciousness. Question 16 1 out of 1 points To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with: Answer: one arm overhead and a pillow under her shoulder. Question 17 1 out of 1 points Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by: Answer: observing the infant suck and swallow. Question 18 1 out of 1 points Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce: Answer: diminished pain sensation. Question 19 1 out of 1 points Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called: Answer: cranial Question 20 1 out of 1 points Inspection of the scrotum should reveal: Answer: left scrotal sac lower than the right. Question 21 1 out of 1 points Postural hypotension is defined as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings. Answer: systolic pressure drop of more than 15 mm Hg with a pulse rate increase Question 22 1 out of 1 points The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about: Answer: hemorrhoid surgery. Question 23 1 out of 1 points You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive: Answer: Romberg sign. Question 24 1 out of 1 points When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign. Answer: Kernig Question 25 1 out of 1 points You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis's heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is: Answer: moderately loud. Question 26 1 out of 1 points You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of: Answer: schizophrenia. Question 27 1 out of 1 points The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to: Answer: let the child hold the stethoscope while you listen. Question 28 1 out of 1 points When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother's lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to: Answer: perform the examination while the child is in the mother's lap. Question 29 1 out of 1 points You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. What additional diagnostic testing would be required for her? Answer: Cervical spine radiograph Question 30 1 out of 1 points A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to: Answer: suggest pregnancy testing. Question 31 1 out of 1 points A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: Answer: lumbar nerve root irritation. Question 32 1 out of 1 points Loss of immediate and recent memory with retention of remote memory suggests: Answer: dementia. Question 33 0 out of 1 points Bimanual examination of the uterus includes: Answer: grasping the vaginal wall and pulling it downward. Question 34 1 out of 1 points While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: Answer: alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine use. Question 35 1 out of 1 points When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing: Answer: sensory function. Question 36 1 out of 1 points You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: Answer: fingertips Question 37 1 out of 1 points If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? Answer: CN XI, spinal accessory Question 38 1 out of 1 points The Mini-Mental State Examination: Answer: may be used to quantitatively estimate cognitive changes. Question 39 1 out of 1 points When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when: Answer: irregular bony surfaces rub together. Question 40 1 out of 1 points Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the: Answer: P wave. Question 41 1 out of 1 points When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the: Answer: presence and form of body parts Question 42 1 out of 1 points A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as: Answer: 1 Question 43 1 out of 1 points During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings: Answer: are usual conditions during pregnancy. Question 44 1 out of 1 points The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the: Answer: scapular line Question 45 1 out of 1 points An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: Answer: lens inspection. Question 46 1 out of 1 points Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible? Answer: Dementia Question 47 1 out of 1 points Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called: Answer: bronchial. Question 48 0 out of 1 points You are assessing Mr. Z.'s fluid volume status as a result of heart failure. If your finger depresses a patient's edematous ankle to a depth of 6 mm, you should record this pitting as: Answer: 4+. Question 49 1 out of 1 points Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy's current problem? Answer: Cocaine use Question 50 1 out of 1 points Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests: Answer: cancer. Question 51 1 out of 1 points The physical assessment technique most frequently used to assess joint symmetry is: Answer: inspection. Question 52 1 out of 1 points During chest assessment, you note the patient's voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e's sound like a s. This sound is indicative of: Answer: lung consolidation. Question 53 1 out of 1 points While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: Answer: Mini-Mental State Examination. Question 54 1 out of 1 points Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify: Answer: uremia. Question 55 1 out of 1 points One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: Answer: symmetry. Question 56 1 out of 1 points When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site. Answer: finger pads, gliding Question 57 1 out of 1 points The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include: Answer: identifying risk of injury or death during sports participation. Question 58 1 out of 1 points Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is: Answer: duck walking. Question 59 1 out of 1 points A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect: Answer: gout. Question 60 1 out of 1 points It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if: Answer: deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. Question 61 1 out of 1 points For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into: Answer: four quadrants plus a tail. Question 62 1 out of 1 points The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the: Answer: fallopian tubes and ovaries. Question 63 1 out of 1 points Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): Answer: older adult. Question 64 1 out of 1 points Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus? Answer: McMurray test Question 65 1 out of 1 points A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is: Answer: Heberden nodes. Question 66 1 out of 1 points The foramen ovale should close: Answer: within minutes of birth. Question 67 1 out of 1 points Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of: Answer: pregnant women. Question 68 1 out of 1 points A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is: Answer: riflery. Question 69 1 out of 1 points A cervical polyp usually appears as a: Answer: bright-red soft protrusion from the endocervical canal. Question 70 1 out of 1 points An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed: Answer: Raynaud disease. Question 71 1 out of 1 points You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would: Answer: test the six cardinal points of gaze. Question 72 1 out of 1 points You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: Answer: inquire about previous penile infections. Question 73 1 out of 1 points A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with: Answer: hydrocele. Question 74 1 out of 1 points An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection? Answer: Cytology smear Question 75 1 out of 1 points The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate: Answer: pelvic inflammatory disease. Question 76 1 out of 1 points Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the: Answer: examination of the upper extremities. Question 77 1 out of 1 points Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of: Answer: rheumatoid arthritis. Question 78 1 out of 1 points A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: Answer: lordosis. Question 79 1 out of 1 points A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would: Answer: radiate to the axilla. Question 80 1 out of 1 points The musculoskeletal examination should begin when: Answer: the patient enters the examination room. Question 81 1 out of 1 points Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should: Answer: evaluate the whole patient. Question 82 1 out of 1 points To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the: Answer: inner thigh and observes whether the testicle and scrotum rise on the stroked side. Question 83 1 out of 1 points The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the: Answer: QRS complex. Question 84 1 out of 1 points You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion? Answer: Loss of hair over the extremity Question 85 1 out of 1 points If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a: Answer: glass slide and fixative. Question 86 1 out of 1 points The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: Answer: coordination of follow-ups is reviewed. Question 87 1 out of 1 points An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate: Answer: left ventricular hypertrophy. Question 88 1 out of 1 points The Denver II is a tool used to determine: Answer: whether a child is developing as expected. Question 89 1 out of 1 points To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to: Answer: lie on their left sides. Question 90 1 out of 1 points Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her: Answer: menstrual cycles. Question 91 1 out of 1 points In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by: Answer: folding the arms in front. Question 92 1 out of 1 points While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should: Answer: note the finding in the patient's record. Question 93 1 out of 1 points Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by: Answer: having the patient clench his or her teeth. Question 94 1 out of 1 points Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation? Answer: Fever Question 95 1 out of 1 points Your patient's chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include: Answer: digital rectal examination (DRE). Question 96 1 out of 1 points Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? Answer: Spinal Question 97 1 out of 1 points Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal: Answer: conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet. Question 98 1 out of 1 points Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel: Answer: rubbery. Question 99 1 out of 1 points Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by: Answer: auscultating the lung bases. Question 100 1 out of 1 points Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in: Answer: aphasia. [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 – Questions and Answers (Graded A).
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 – Questions and Answers (Graded A). 1. When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: Most... [Show More] of the abdomen. emphysemic lungs. The liver. Healthy lung tissue. An empty stomach. 2. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: crepitus. thrills. texture. vibration. temperature. 3. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Strabismoscope Red-free filter Slit lamp Small aperture Grid 4. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: variations in skin color. enlarged tonsils. foreign objects in the nose or ear. variations in contour of the body surface. variations in texture and mobility. 5. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: vibratory sensations. hearing from bone conduction. hearing range of normal speech. noise above the threshold level. peripheral motor nerve damage. 6. Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy? The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries The patient who is allergic to eggs The patient who is allergic to contrast dye The patient who is a vegetarian 7. A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Brush and needle Tuning fork and cotton swab Penlight and goniometer Ruler and bell Transilluminator 8. Transillumination functions on the principle that: infrared radiation is easily detected. black light causes certain substances to fluoresce. converging and diverging light brings structures into focus. tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours. air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. 9. Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups. There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics. To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics. Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups. All cultural traits can be viewed as static whereas physical traits are dynamic. 10. A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated: when the patient tells you the weight is not correct. by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals. each time it is used. when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale. only by the manufacturer. 11. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Finger percussion Only indirect percussion techniques are ever used to elicit tenderness. Fist percussion Thumb percussion Palmer percussion 12. A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: prevent the transmission of static electricity. avoid cold metal from touching the patient. prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient s skin. allow firm pressure to be applied without discomfort. ensure secure contact with the body surface. 13. In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients. emphasize attitudes and feelings maintain eye contact come quickly to the point use silence comfortably speak more softly than other cultures 14. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. plastic Graves Pederson pediatric nasal metal Graves 15. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: wrist. forearm. shoulder. interphalangeal joint. elbow. 16. You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Anticipate the next sounds. Isolate each cycle segment. Listen to all sounds together. Move the stethoscope clockwise. Ask the patient to whisper his name. 17. Expected normal percussion tones include: dullness over the lungs. hyperresonance over the lungs. tympany over an empty stomach. flatness over an empty stomach. resonance over the liver. 18. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: asking patients to describe their symptoms. listening through the patient s clothing. closing your eyes. performing palpation before percussion. turning out the lights in the examination room. 19. Standard Precautions apply to all patients: with bloodborne infections. with infected, draining wounds. in intensive care units. receiving care in hospitals. believed to have an infectious disease. 20. Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? Ritual Rite Race Norm Ethos [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 4 – Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. Auscultation should be carried out last except when examining The ... [Show More] abdomen. 2. Which of the following statements is true regarding tympanic membrane temperature? It is an accurate measurement of body temperature because the tympanic membrane shares its blood supply with the hypothalamus. 3. A scale used to assess a patient's weight should be calibrated Each time it is used. 4. The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled out Before the patient steps on the scale. 5. An infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured? Supine on a measuring board 6. The stethoscope's diaphragm is most useful in the assessment of _____ sounds. High-pitched 7. A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to Ensure secure contact with the body surface. 8. Which technique should be used to stabilize the stethoscope during auscultation? The endpiece should be held between the second and third fingers. 9. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect that the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Red-free filter 10. The Tumbling "E" vision acuity chart would most likely be used for _____ patients. Preschool 11. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate Tympanic membrane movement. 12. The patient tells you that his ears are "stopped up." An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using a(n) Tympanometer. 13. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure Hearing range of normal speech 14. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should Briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer. 15. A variant of the percussion hammer is a neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Brush and needle 16. When monitoring serial measurements, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen. 17. Transillumination functions on the principle that Air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially. 18. When performing transillumination of a body cavity, the use of which of the following could be harmful to the patient? Halogen bulb 19. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. Pederson [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 5 – Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. You are performing a vaginal examination on a patient with a history ... [Show More] of spina bifida. As you insert the metal speculum, the patient suddenly feels nauseated and is sweating, and her skin turns blotchy. What is your most immediate reaction to this situation? Remove the speculum. 2. Mr. Walder is a 56-year-old man who has been complaining of chest palpitations. Which position is useful for auscultating heart sounds? Left lateral recumbent 3. Which technique is used during both the history taking and the physical examination process? Inspection 4. Ms. Jones is a 31-year-old female patient who presents for a routine physical examination. Which examination technique will be used first? Inspection 5. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection Variations in contour of the body surface. 6. You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? Drape the patient and observe the rectal area. 7. Mrs. Smalls is a 42-year-old woman who has presented to the office for a head to toe examination as part of her preventive health care assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? Either side of the patient 8. You are planning to palpate the abdomen of your patient. Which part of the examiner's hand is best for palpating vibration? Ulnar surface 9. Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process? Auscultation 10. The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone? The less dense the medium, the louder is the percussion tone. Expected normal percussion tones include: Tympany over an empty stomach. 11. During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over: The liver. 12. When using mediate or indirect percussion, which technique is appropriate? Place the palmar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface, with the fingers s lightly spread apart. 13. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: Wrist. 14. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: Closing your eyes. 15. You are auscultating a patient's chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. Which technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Isolate each cycle segment. 16. Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the: Abdomen. 17. Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed: In the auditory canal. 18. The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled up: Before the patient steps on the scale. 19. Which of the following occurs when firm pressure is used to apply the stethoscope's bell endpiece to the skin? It functionally converts to a diaphragm endpiece. 20. Weak pulses, fetal heart activity, and vessel patency are all best assessed with which type of stethoscope? Ultrasonic 21. You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient's inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise and then counterclockwise to compensate for: Myopia. 22. A patient in the emergency department has a concussion. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Red-free filter 23. Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient's tympanic membrane? The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear 24. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate: tympanic membrane movement. 25. Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are "stopped up." An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the: tympanometer. 26. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should: Briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer. 27. When monitoring serial measures, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time? Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen. 28. The Pederson speculum has blades that: Are narrower and flatter. 29. Which of the following are causes of hyperreflexia? (Select all that apply.) Cold stirrups Insertion of a speculum Pressure during bimanual exam 30. The Snellen E vision acuity chart would most likely be used for __________. Preschool children 31. The stethoscope's diaphragm is most useful for the assessment of __________ sounds. High-pitched 32. For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a __________ speculum. Pederson [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 2 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 2 – Questions and Answers (Graded A) Question 1 2 out of 2 points When percussing, a dull tone is exp... [Show More] ected to be heard over: Response Feedback: Dull tones are expected over more dense areas such as the liver. Question 2 2 out of 2 points The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of: Response Feedback: The dorsal surface, or back of the hand, can best feel for warmth. Question 3 2 out of 2 points A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? Response Feedback: The red-free filter permits recognition of hemorrhages. The grid estimates the size of lesions; the slit lamp examines the anterior eye and assesses the elevation of lesions; and the small aperture is used with small pupils. The strabismoscope is used for detecting strabismus. Question 4 2 out of 2 points The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of: Response Feedback: Tangential lighting is used to cast shadows in order to best observe contours and variations in body surfaces. All of the other choices are best observed with direct lighting that does not cast shadows. Question 5 2 out of 2 points Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure: Response Feedback: Normal speech has a range of 300 to 3000 Hz; therefore, the 500- to 1000-Hz fork is most often used because it can estimate hearing loss in the range of normal speech. Question 6 2 out of 2 points Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy? Response Feedback: The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries has a higher exposure rate to rubber gloves and to equipment and supplies that contain latex and therefore is at a higher risk for developing an allergic response. Question 7 2 out of 2 points A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following? Response Feedback: The neurologic hammer unscrews at the handle to reveal a soft brush and the knob on the head unscrews, to which is attached a sharp needle. Question 8 2 out of 2 points Transillumination functions on the principle that: Response Feedback: Transillumination functions to differentiate between various media in a cavity. It can distinguish between air, fluid, and tissue. It consists of a strong light in the visible spectrum with a narrow beam. Question 9 2 out of 2 points Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture? Response Feedback: Physical characteristics do not symbolize cultural groups; there is a difference between the two, and they are considered separately. Cultures are dynamic in their evolution. Question 10 2 out of 2 points A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated: Response Feedback: Obtaining weight begins with a manual calibration of the scale before the patient stands on the scale. Electronic scales are automatically calibrated before each reading. Question 11 2 out of 2 points Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Response Feedback: The fist percussion is a direct percussion technique used to elicit tenderness over organs such as the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys. Question 12 2 out of 2 points A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to: Response Feedback: The ring around the bell portion of the stethoscope functions to secure contact with body surfaces when placed lightly on the skin. Question 13 2 out of 2 points In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients. Response Feedback: In the United States, individuals are very direct in conversation and come to the point quickly. They also tend to talk more loudly and to worry less about being overheard. Question 14 2 out of 2 points For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum. Response Feedback: The Pederson speculum has blades that are as long as those of the Graves speculum but are both narrower and flatter and therefore more comfortable for women with small vaginal openings. Pediatric or nasal speculums would be too small for adult use. Plastic speculums are similar in uses to the metal counterparts. Question 15 2 out of 2 points During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the: Response Feedback: The dominant hand s middle finger strikes the stationary finger with a wrist motion and is lifted quickly off the striking surface. Question 16 2 out of 2 points You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Response Feedback: If you are hearing everything at once, it is more difficult to distinguish different sounds. Try isolating each segment and listen to that segment intently, then move on to another segment. For example, listen only to breath sounds, then only to inspiratory breath sounds, then only expiratory breath sounds. Question 17 2 out of 2 points Expected normal percussion tones include: Response Feedback: A normal lung produces resonance percussion tones while an empty stomach is expected to produce tympany. Dull percussion tones are heard over the liver. Question 18 2 out of 2 points During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by: Response Feedback: By closing your eyes, your sense of hearing becomes more acute and it increases your ability to isolate sounds. Question 19 2 out of 2 points Standard Precautions apply to all patients: Response Feedback: Although all of the statements are true, the best answer is 4. Standard Precautions were developed with the intent of application in the care of all hospitalized patients; however, the standard has merit to be applied to all cases of patient care regardless of the environment in which care is delivered. Question 20 2 out of 2 points Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator? Response Feedback: Race is a physical, not a cultural, differentiator. [Show Less]
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Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 – Questions and Answers (Graded A)
Walden University NURS 6512N WEEK 2 QUIZ 3 – Questions and Answers (Graded A) 1. Guidelines for Standard Precautions indicate that mask and eye protec... [Show More] tion or a face mask should be worn while performing Trachea care and suctioning. 2. Standard Precautions apply to all patients Receiving care in hospitals. 3. According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions The caregiver's hands should be washed after touching any body fluids and contaminated items regardless of whether gloves are worn. 4. One recommendation to prevent latex allergy is to Wash hands with mild soap after removing gloves and then dry the hands thoroughly. 5. Which patient position is useful for auscultating heart tones? Left lateral recumbent 6. Which technique is used during the history taking and the physical examination process? Inspection 7. Which examination technique should be used first? Inspection 8. The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of Variations in contour of the body surface. 9. A nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient tells the female nurse that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate? Drape the patient and observe the rectal area. 10. You are conducting a head to toe examination as part of a patient's preventive health assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? To the right side of the patient 11. Which part of the examiner's hand is best for palpating vibration? Ulnar surface and base of the fingers 12. The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of Temperature. 13. When conducting the abdominal examination, after you inspect, you proceed next to Auscultation. 14. Expected normal percussion tones include Tympany over an empty stomach. 15. When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over The liver. 16. During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the Wrist. 17. Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys? Fist percussion 18. During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by Closing your eyes. 19. You are auscultating a patient's chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? Isolate each cycle segment. 20. When examining the abdomen, which technique should be used first? Inspection [Show Less]
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