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NUR 634 APEA PREGNANCY, PEDIATRICS, HEALTH-PROMOTION, HEME, 3P PRACTICE , ENDO QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++)
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NUR 634 APEA PREGNANCY QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++)
NUR 634 APEA PREGNANCY QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++)NUR 634 APEA PREGNANCY QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT) 1. Adequa... [Show More] te daily dietary intake of folic acid in pregnancy is: 2. If fetal movement cannot be perceived after 24 weeks gestation, all of the following may be considered except: 3. As tension on the abdominal wall increases with advancing pregnancy, the rectus abdominus muscles may separate at the midline of the abdomen. This finding is termed: 4. During the last trimester of pregnancy, the supine position causes the uterus to overlie the vertebral column and compress the descending aorta and inferior vena cava. This position the patient to become faint and dizzy resulting in: 5. Murmurs audible during pregnancy may suggest: 6. When should all pregnant women be screened for HIV? 7. During pregnancy, which hormone promotes endometrial growth that supports the early embryo? 8. During pregnancy, the Leopold maneuvers assist in determining all of the following except: 9. When performing the third Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, the fetal head is the presenting part. This finding is referred to as the: 10. When performing a pelvic exam on a pregnant woman, a larger speculum may be needed because of: 11. Normal findings of the vaginal wall of a pregnant woman, include all of the following except: 12. Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 18.5-24.9, the total weight gain should be: 13. During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4cm smaller than expected, consider: 14. When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are not easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: 15. B/P readings greater than 140mm HG systolic and greater than 90mm HG diastolic prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum is: 16. During pregnancy, what sound may be auscultated at the second or third intercostal space at the sternal border due to increased blood flow through the vessels? 17. During pregnancy, which hormone is produced by the placenta and supports progesterone synthesis in the corpus luteum? 18. If regular uterine contractions occur prior to 37 weeks gestation, this could be: 19. Ingestion of large sea-going fish, such as tuna, swordfish and shark should be avoided in pregnant women, because they contain large amounts of: 20. When examining the pregnant patient, conjunctival pallor may indicate: 21. Inflamed and overgrown gingiva during pregnancy is: 22. During pregnancy, which hormone results in increased blood viscosity? 23. Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for the leading cause of intellectual disability? 24. When might fundal height in a pregnant woman most accurately predict gestational age? 25. Inaudible fetal heart tones (FHT) may include: 26. Irregular brownish patches around the forehead, cheeks, nose, and jaw noted during pregnancy are: 27. Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with 25thyroidism in pregnancy? 28. New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is: 29. Increased vascularity throughout the pelvis during pregnancy gives the vagina a bluish color. This sign is: 30. During pregnancy, a patient’s fundal height measured 26 centimeters. This would suggest that the gestational age was: 31. During pregnancy, which hormone increases tidal volume and alveolar minute ventilation, lowers esophageal sphincter tone, and relaxes tone in the uterus and bladder? 32. The cervical opening or shortening noted during a bimanual examination prior to 37 weeks gestation, may indicate: 33. Upon cervical examination of the pregnant woman, cervical erosion, erythema, and irritation are noted. These findings could be suggestive of: 34. Facial edema in a pregnant woman after 20 weeks gestation, could be: 35. Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy products, such as soft cheese, raw eggs, and delicatessen meats because of the risk of: 36. Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is = 30, the total weight gain should be: 37. During pregnancy, which hormone is responsible for increasing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia associated with gestational diabetes? 38. Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 25-29.9, the total weight gain should be: 39. A five percent weight loss during the first trimester due to vomiting would be considered: 40. Hypertension that occurs after 20 weeks gestation in the absence of proteinuria is: 41. Which one of the following symptoms would be seen in a 39 week gestational age patient who was suspected of having HELLP syndrome? 42. A form of milk produced by the mammary glands during late pregnancy is referred to as: 43. Normal changes in the breast and nipples during pregnancy include all of the following except: 44. Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for one third of all low-birth-weight infants, placental abruption, and preterm labor? 45. When should a vaginal swab for Group B streptococcus be obtained in a pregnant woman? 46. Symptoms on initial assessment of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia are: blood pressure 158/100; urinary output 50ml/hr; lungs clear upon auscultation; +1 urine protein on dipstick; and edema of the hands, ankles, and feet. On assessment an hour later, which one of the following symptoms would indicate worsening of preeclampsia? 47. During pregnancy, which supplement is recommended to decrease the risk of neutral tube defect? 48. During pregnancy, a palpable softening of the cervical isthmus is noted. This finding is: 49. When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: 50. When should an oral glucose tolerance test be performed during pregnancy? 51. Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is <18.5, the total weight gain should be: 52. During the examination of a pregnant woman, knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes appear hyperreflexic. This finding could be suggestive of: 53. To estimate the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule, if the last menses was March 3, 2014, the EDD would be: 54. When performing the third Leopold Maneuver on a pregnant woman, the cephalic prominence is on the sane side as the back. This finding is referred to as the: 55. After 24 weeks gestation, auscultation of more than one fetal heart tone (FHT) in different locations with varying rates suggests: 56. During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4 centimeters larger than expected, consider all of the following except: 57. In the third trimester of pregnancy, which position affords the greatest comfort by reducing the weight of the uterus on the abdominal vessels? 58. Which of the following STD screening test is NOT routinely recommended during pregnancy? 59. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: 60. In pregnant women, between 10 to 18 gestation, fetal heart tones (FHT) can be auscultated along the: 61. During pregnancy, which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum and placenta to promote ligamentous laxity in the sacroiliac joint and pubic symphysis for passage of the fetus? 62. During pregnancy, a brownish black pigmented vertical stripe along the midline of the abdomen may appear. This finding is: 63. What is the importance of prenatal care? 64. During pregnancy, as the skin over the abdomen stretches to accommodate the fetus, this purplish mark may appear. This finding is: 65. During the vaginal examination of a pregnant woman in her first trimester, an adnexal mass with tenderness is palpated. This finding could be consistent with: 66. The normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range is: 67. What is the standard instrument used to auscultate fetal heart tones? [Show Less]
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NUR 634 APEA Pediatrics Qbank Questions and Answers (GRADED A++)
NUR 634 APEA Pediatrics Qbank Questions and Answers (GRADED A++)NUR 634 APEA PEDIATRICS QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT) 1. The ... [Show More] NP should base a response to a parent’s question about the prognosis of ALL on which of the following statements? 2. The assessment finding that would necessitate a need for additional follow-up in a preschooler would be if the child: 3. Which one of the following is an appropriate type of play for a 6-month-old infant? 4. During the first six months of life, an infant will: 5. A 9-year-old girl has a history of tuberculosis when she was 6-years-old. She presents with recent weight loss and anorexia. Along with her presenting symptoms, which one of the following assessments findings would be most indicative of Addison’s disease? 6. A twelve-month-old was recently diagnosed with AIDS. The mother asks the NP: “How could my child have acquired AIDS?” The best response for the NP should be that: “Children under two years of age usually acquire AIDS: 7. If a newborn is suspected of having congenital hypothyroidism, which clinical manifestation would be evident? 8. At what age would a baby first be expected to locate an object hidden from view? 9. Which of the following would help a 9-year-old develop a sense of industry? 10. The earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in an infant is: 11. The infant with the lowest risk of developing elevated levels of bilirubin is the one who: 12. When assessing a normal 5-year-old, the last site to assess would be the: 13. A six-year-old has a history of diabetes mellitus type 1 and is now experiencing cellulitis of the right lower leg. The child presents with deep, rapid, and unlabored respirations, fruity odor, and dry skin. There are symptoms of: 14. The parents of a child with sickle cell anemia are asking for information about future pregnancies. The NP should respond by telling them that with any future pregnancy they will have a: 15. When assessing a preschooler’s mouth, the number of deciduous teeth seen should be: 16. Which of the following milestones is developmentally appropriate for a 2-month-old infant when pulled to a sitting position? 17. If a newborn develops a cephalohematoma, the newborn is at an increased risk for: 18. The first sign of puberty in a male is: 19. An infant weighed 8 pounds at birth. According to the principles of normal growth and development, how much should he weigh at 12 months of age? 20. Which one of the following groups of symptoms would be more consistent in a child with type 2 diabetes mellitus? 21. Which one of the following would be an abnormal finding in a 6-month-old? a. 22. A five year old will engage in what type of play? 23. Which one of the following statements indicates a developmental delay? 24. In which of the following situations would a one-year-old child be at risk for lead poisoning? 25. A 13-year-old girl presents with complaints of insomnia and hyperactivity along with gradual weight loss despite a good appetite. She has warm, flushed moist skin, and unusually fine hair. These manifestations are indicative of which of the following conditions? 26. The NP differentiates physiologic jaundice from pathologic jaundice by assessment of the: 27. At what age is it considered normal for a child to pick up objects using the palm of the hand only? 28. A six-month-old presents today for a well child visit. He is sitting in his mother’s lap. Assessment should begin with: 29. Breastfeeding is contraindicated for an infant diagnosed with which one of the following conditions? 30. Which activity would be most appropriate to promote the growth and development of a 3-year-old boy with hemophilia who is one week post hemarthrosis episode of his left knee? 31. Which one of the following positions is the most accurate regarding infant car seat placement? The car seat should: 32. A child with sickle cell anemia presents with a history of sudden onset of rapid breathing with left upper quadrant (LUQ) tenderness upon palpation. The child is most likely experiencing a (an): 33. Children with type 1 diabetes usually present with which one of the following symptoms? 34. To assess for strabismus in a child, use the: 35. Which one of the following statements made by the mother indicates that her 5-month-old infant is ready for solid foods? 36. What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in a child? 37. An infant presents with an inappropriately increasing head circumference and hydrocephalus confirmed by CT scan. In addition to these findings, which one of the following would also be consistent with hydrocephalus? 38. Children who pick their noses are at higher risk for development of: 39. When assessing a 3-month-old for developmental dysplasia of the hips (DDH), which one of the following symptoms would be suspicious of dysplasia? 40. When assessing the heart rate of a healthy 13-month-old child, which one of the following sites is the most appropriate for this child? 41. rdthPresence of a heart murmur on a child would be considered organic if the child: 42. An infant with suspected hearing loss: 43. The most common cause of bacterial pharyngeal infections in children is: 44. An ambulatory child with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet: 45. Why would a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus receive a prostaglandin inhibitor (indomethacin)? a. 46. A six-year-old child presents with sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and a temperature of 102 f. Findings reveal lymphadenopathy and pharyngeal erythema. This is probably: a. 47. Assessment findings in a newborn at birth include: irregular respirations without crying, heart rate of 105 beats/minute, grimaces with reflex stimulation, kicking of both feet, and moving of both arms. The body and face are pink and hands and feet are cyanotic. What is the APGAR score? a. 48. Blue sclera, weak muscles, and increased joint flexibility during a newborn assessment may be suggestive of: 49. A child received a burn to the chest from a hot cup of coffee. On examination, the injured area appears moist and red to ivory white in color, blisters are noted, and painful to touch. This burn would be classified as a: 50. A teenager complains of itching and burning in his eye. Examination reveals an erythematous eyelid margin with crusting and clear mucus discharge. These findings are consistent with: a. Blepharitis 51. Current indications for tympanostomy tube placement include all of the following except which one? a. Persistent serous otitis media (SOM) that has not responded to a 3 to 6 week course of medical treatment. 52. Assessing the neurological status of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt should include: 53. Undescended testicle(s) in a young make is termed: 54. A child presents with a fever of 102.5 F for the past five days. Kawasaki disease is suspected if which of the following groups of symptoms is present: 55. Children with Legg-Calve Perthes disease should: 56. Assessment findings in an infant with increased intracranial pressure would include: 57. When auscultating the apex of the heart in an 8-year-old, the bell of the stethoscope should be placed at the: 58. A child presents with erythematous papules and vesicles, that are weeping, oozing, nd crusty. These lesions are located over the forehead, wrists, elbows, and the backs of the knees. With which of the following conditions are these symptoms associated? 59. When a child presents with a history of a head injury sustained within the past four hours, a subdural hematoma should be expected because: 60. Symptoms of acrocyanosis in the newborn include: 61. All of the following symptoms in a 10-month-old would be indicative of acute otitis media (OM) except: 62. When suspecting pediculosis capitis, the chief complaint is: 63. After attempting to elicit the Moro reflex in a newborn, the NP identifies absence of movement of the left arm. The next assessment would be to: 64. An infant with fetal alcohol syndrome would: 65. Which of the following findings in a preschooler would indicate the need for further evaluation? 66. During the newborn’s physical assessment of the mouth, the soft and hard palates are palpated to detect: 67. The cranial sutures are closed on the head of a 9-month-old infant. This indicates: 68. Which of the following group of symptoms would be suggestive of an infant experiencing a congenital heart defect associated with a decreased pulmonary blood flow pattern? 69. A child was involved in a vehicular accident and sustained burns on the lower extremities. Examination reveals a dry, waxy, whitish appearance of both lower legs and some visualization of the tibialis anterior. This type of burn would be classified as a: 70. A disparity between the brachial and femoral pulses in a 4-month-old could indicate: 71. Examination of a child who experienced a burn from a curling iron on the forearm appears red without blistering but is painful to touch. This type of burn would be classified as a: 72. A child has a maculopapular, blotchy rash and on examination of his mouth, red eruptions with white centers on the buccal mucosa are visualized. These eruptions are called: 73. An 8-month-old with significant head lag would suggest the need for: 74. An example of a cause of conductive hearing loss in children would be: 75. A child sustained a “full thickness” burn injury. This type of injury involves tissue destruction down to the: 76. Which developmental area is predominantly affected by lead poisoning? 77. A seven-year-old is suspected of having conduct disorder. Which of the following topics should the NP include in the assessment history? 78. Which of the following infants should be seen immediately by the NP? 79. A child presents with a complaint of a left earache that worsens with head movement. Findings on examination include temperature of 102F and cellulitis behind the left ear. These findings are consistent with: 80. A toddler with suspected hearing loss would: 81. A three-week-old infant presents with a generalized lacy, reticulated blue discoloration of the skin. This is suggestive of: a. . 82. A reddish blue, irregularly shaped, solid and spongy mass of blood vessels that may be present at birth and enlarge during the first 10 to 15 months is characteristics of a: 83. An indication that there is a malfunction of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt in an older child would be the presence of a: 84. An infant presents with a rash in the diaper area. Which description likely indicates candida diaper rash? 85. With Duchenne muscular dystrophy: 86. An eight -year-old complains of itching in the right ear and an increase in pain when the pinna is pulled or the tragus is palpated. Examination reveals slight redness in the ear canal with a clear odorless fluid. This could be suggestive of: 87. A priority intervention in caring for a child diagnosed with atopic dermatitis should be to: 88. Which of the following symptoms is seen in infants with pyloric stenosis? 89. When administering eardrops to a 6-year-old, the pinna should be pulled: 90. A twelve-month-old has a history of heart failure related to his congenital heart defect. He is receiving Aldactone (Spironolactone), enalapril (Vasotec), furosemide (Lasix), and acetaminophen (Tylenol). The infant’s potassium level is 3.1 meq/l. Which medication is most likely decreasing his potassium level? 91. Respiratory effort in the neonate in initiated at birth as a result of: 92. Which of the following neurological assessment findings indicate the need for further evaluation? 93. When performing a respiratory assessment on a 4-year-old child, further evaluation is warranted in the presence of: 94. Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis in an infant include: 95. Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be: 96. A six-year-old male complains of ankle pain and difficulty walking, but denies any recent injuries. Findings reveal ankle tenderness, decreased mobility and range of motion. The pts temp is 102 F. These findings are consistent with: 97. Which of the following substances is found in the urine of a child suspected of having post streptococcal glomerulonephritis? 98. A 9-month-old who has been a healthy, thriving infant presents with a poor appetite, two episodes of vomiting, three bloody stools with mucous and knees drawn to the abdomen with screaming. These are clinical manifestations of: 99. A six-year-old child presents with a few small vesicles that are honey-colored and weeping around the left nare. These are consistent with: 100. A 4-year-old child presents with bilateral watery discharge from the eyes. Examination reveals subconjunctival hemorrhage, and eyelid ecchymosis. These findings are consistent with: 101. Which one of the following procedures would confirm the definitive medical diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease? 102. Which of the following statements made by a parent would alert the NP to suspect autism spectrum disorder? 103. A pediatric patient presents with erythema marginatum, chorea, and a heart murmur. These symptoms are consistent with: 104. Symptoms of a child suspected of having a diagnosis of mixed failure to thrive (FTT) are usually seen in children: 105. All of the following are examples of causes of sensorineural hearing loss in children except: 106. A 3-year-old presents with a history of fever and cough over the past 24 hours. Findings on exam reveal: Temp 102F, apical heart rate of 157 BPM, and respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute. Tachypnea in this child is most likely related to: 107. When performing a cardiovascular assessment on a healthy 2-year-old child: 108. A granulomatous eyelid cyst or nodule that is painless and erythematous is termed: 109. An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true? 110. The mouth of a 10-month-old infant has white patches on the mucosa that cannot be removed. These patches are consistent with: 111. A small child sustained burns to the posterior trunk and posterior surface of both arms. According to the “rule of nines” for small children, what percentage of the total body surface area was involved? 112. Anticipatory guidance for the family of a pre-adolescent with a cognitive impairment should include information about: 113. Which one of the following symptoms is associated with biliary atresia in an infant? 114. A six-year-old complains that something is in her left eye. There is a red raised area of the left lid. There is redness and tenderness of the eye and tearing. These findings are consistent with: 115. When assessing a 3-year-old African American child, the most likely cause of black, dusky membranes is related to: 116. The hemodynamic changes resulting from structural defects in children can lead to heart failure. The most common reason for these changes is related to: 117. The four classic structural defects of Tetraolgy of Fallot include: 118. Symptoms indicative of shaken baby syndrome are related to: 119. On examination of a six-week-old infant, developmental hip dysplasia (DDH) is suspected. If DDH is present, it might be evidenced by: 120. When screening for scoliosis, assessment should include: 121. When a two-week-old infant presents with irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with distended scalp veins, one should consider: 122. Which one of the following patient positions would be least beneficial to examine the genitals of a young female child? 123. In renal adaptation of the newborn, which one of the following statements is correct? 124. When examining the scrotum in a young child, test the cremasteric reflex by: 125. Children presenting with congenital heart defects that result in right to left shunting would most likely exhibit which of the following symptoms? 126. A normal finding in the MSK assessment of a 3-year-old child would be the presence of: 127. A 5-year-old child presents with complaints of fever and headache. Examination reveals a heart rate of 157 BPM, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute, B/P 108/54, and a temp of 102.6F. the increased heart rate is most likely related to: [Show Less]
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NUR 634 APEA HEALTH-PROMOTION QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++)
NUR 634 APEA HEALTH-PROMOTION QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++)NUR 634 APEA HEALTH-PROMOTION QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT... [Show More] ) 1. Which technique would be least effective in gaining the cooperation of a toddler during a physical exam? 2. When palpating the carotid pulse, it is important to: 3. According to the 2008 U.S. Preventive services task force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer yearly using high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FOBTs) between: 4. According to the most recent recommendation from the U.S. preventive services task force, screening healthy older adult men for prostate cancer by prostate specific antigen should occur: 5. According to the most recent recommendation from the U.S. preventive services task force, an adult aged 65 should be screened for breast cancer: 6. The goal of palliative care is to: 7. According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with high-sensitivity fecal occult blood tests (FBOTs) every: 8. In the older adult, the term “Sixth Vital Sign” assesses: 9. According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, an adult aged 60 years should be screened for colorectal cancer with colonoscopy: 10. Which of the following choices would NOT be recommended for effective communication for an older adult? 11. Part of the nutritional assessment includes anthropometric measurements. These measurements include all of the following except: a. . 12. Of the five percussion notes, which one produces a drum-like sound heard over air filled structures during the abdominal examination? 13. The most appropriate approach to use when teaching a preschooler safety education would be to: a. 14. The 10 minute geriatric screener is a tool used to assess: 15. During the concrete operational period of middle childhood, which of the following is the expected cognitive development? The child is: 16. Which one of the following statements is true about immunity? 17. Toilet training is most appropriately initiated when the child: 18. Which of the following is considered an extrinsic risk factor for falls in the older adult? 19. What topic should be a priority when providing anticipatory guidance to an 8-year-old child? 20. Higher level self-care functioning activities are referred to as: 21. The first sign of puberty in females is: 22. Which of the following is the most age appropriate play for an 8-year-old girl? 23. The formula used to guide “time out” as a disciplinary method is: 24. According to the U.S. preventive services task force, older adults should be screened for colorectal cancer with sigmoidoscopy every: 25. All of the following strategies are useful for assessing older adults at high risk for falls EXCEPT: 26. A characteristic finding in the elderly population is: 27. Sarcopenia is: 28. According to the most recent recommendation from U.S. preventive services task force, healthy women older than 65 years of age should be screened for cervical cancer: 29. Several interventions have been known to prevent falls in the older adult. These interventions include all of the following except: 30. When obtaining information from an adolescent who has likely been sexually abused, the most appropriate action initially is to: 31. Basic self-care activities are referred to as: 32. At what age would a baby first be expected to locate and object hidden from view? 33. When assessing a normal 5-year-old, the last site to assess would be the: 34. The assessment finding that would necessitate a need for additional follow-up in a preschooler would be if the child: 35. Which one of the following statements made by a mother indicates that her 5-month-old infant is ready for solid foods? 36. Which activity would be most appropriate to promote the growth and development of a 3-year-old boy with hemophilia who is one week post hemarthrosis episode of his left knee? 37. When assessing a preschooler’s mouth, the number of deciduous teeth seen should be: 38. A five year old will engage in what type of play? 39. Which of the following would help a 9-year-old develop a sense of industry? 40. Which one of the following would be an abnormal finding in a 6-month-old? 41. An infant weighed 8 pounds at birth. According to the principles of normal growth and development, how much should he weight at 12 months of age? 42. Which one of the following is an appropriate type of play for a 6-month-old infant? 43. In which of the following situations would a one-year-old child be at risk for lead poisoning? 44. The first sign of puberty in a male is: 45. Which one of the following statements indicates a developmental delay? 46. A 6-month-old presents today for a well child visit. He is sitting in his mother’s lap. Assessment should begin with: 47. At what age is it considered normal for a child to pick up objects using the palm of the hand only? 48. Which of the following milestones is developmentally appropriate for a 2-month-old infant when pulled to a sitting position? 49. To assess for strabismus in a child, use the: 50. During the first 6 months of life, an infant will: 51. Which one of the following positions is the most accurate regarding infant car seat placement? The car seat should: [Show Less]
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NUR 634 APEA HEME QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS(GRADED A++)
NUR 634 APEA HEME QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS(GRADED A++)NUR 634 APEA HEME QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT) 1. Patients who deve... [Show More] lop pica have a deficiency in: 2. The blood lead level that requires further testing and monitoring in children is: 3. An assessment finding in a patient diagnosed with von Willebrand disease is: 4. Folic acid deficiency is an example of which type of anemia? 5. Which one of the following does NOT produce anemia of chronic disease? 6. Which assessment finding is consistent with pernicious anemia? 7. Which of the following symptoms is associated with iron deficiency anemia? 8. A symptom of severe hemorrhagic shock (Class IV) does not include: 9. When educating a patient about iron replacement, the provider advises to take the supplement: 10. A possible assessment finding in patients taking oral iron supplements for anemia is: 11. Which patient is most likely to carry the alpha thalassemia anemia trait? 12. Which ethnicity is associated with glucose-6-phospahte-dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency? 13. Hemophilia type A is a deficiency of factor: 14. The most common malignancy diagnosed in children is: 15. Which of the following foods contains the LEAST amount of Folic Acid? 16. An example of vaso-occlusive crisis of the pulmonary vasculature seen in patients with sickle cell anemia is: 17. Which situation would put the patient at the LEAST risk for developing lead toxicity? 18. A twelve-month-old was recently diagnosed with AIDS. The mother asks the nurse practitioner: “How could my child have acquired AIDS?” The best response from the NP should be that: “Children under two years of age usually acquire AIDS: 19. The infant with the lowest risk of developing elevated levels of bilirubin is the one who: 20. A child with sickle cell anemia presents with a history of sudden onset of rapid breathing with left upper quadrant (LUQ) tenderness upon palpation. The child is most likely experiencing a (an): 21. If a newborn develops a cephalohematoma, the newborn is at an increased risk for: 22. The parents of a child with sickle cell anemia are asking for information about future pregnancies. The NP should respond by telling them that with any future pregnancy they will have a: 23. The nurse practitioner should base a response to a patient’s question about the prognosis of ALL on which of the following statements? 24. The nurse practitioner differentiates physiologic jaundice from pathologic jaundice by the assessment of the: [Show Less]
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NUR 634 APEA 3P Practice Qbank Questions And Answers(GRADED A++)
NUR 634 APEA 3P Practice Qbank Questions And Answers(GRADED A++)NUR 634 APEA 3P PRACTICE QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT) 1. The... [Show More] groove of the metacarpophalangeal joint can be palpated by having the patient: 2. When auscultating breath sounds in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the breath sounds are: 3. The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person’s risk for: 4. Olecranon bursitis may be caused by all of the following except: 5. In patients who have allergic rhinitis, the nasal mucosa appears: 6. A term used to describe an increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is: 7. If abdominal pain persists when the patient raises his head and shoulders, the origin of the tenderness is probably: 8. On auscultation of the abdomen, rushes of high-pitched sounds are audible and coincide with abdominal cramps. These findings are most consistent with: 9. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals tiny, round, red spots in and around the macular area. These findings are consistent with: 10. Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include: 11. On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are observed. These findings are consistent with: 12. When discussing the musculoskeletal system, all of the following statements related to articular structure disease are true except which one? 13. Focal tenderness over the trochanter confirms: 14. Assessing the neurological status of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt should include: 15. The earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in an infant is: 16. A reddish blue, irregularly shaped, solid and spongy mass of blood vessels that may be present at birth and enlarge during the first 10 to 15 months is characteristic of a: 17. The hamstring muscles flex the knee and are located on the: 18. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals dark specks noted between the fundus and the lens. These specks are most likely: 19. When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the buttocks and head are not easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: 20. When performing a musculoskeletal examination, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his arm in front of his body. This motion of the shoulder girdle would be an example of: 21. To locate the twelfth rib, palpate: 22. Walking on the toes and heels may reveal: 23. When performing a bimanual exam of the vagina, the examiner should lubricate the index and middle fingers of a gloved hand. From a standing position, the fingers should be inserted into the vagina while exerting pressure primarily: 24. During pregnancy, which hormone results in increased blood viscosity? 25. Resting tremors refer to those tremors that disappear: 26. A patient presents with complaints of bright red stools over the past week. This symptom could be consistent with: 27. Mydriasis is a term used to describe: 28. When performing a musculoskeletal exam on a patient with mechanical low back pain, osteoporosis is suspected. Positive findings would include all of the following except: 29. Which stage of pressure is consistent with findings on dermatologic examination of a full thickness tissue loss and subcutaneous fat visible with mild slough on the right hip? 30. The vertebral column angles sharply posteriorly and becomes immovable at the: 31. Which one of the following is at the HIGHEST risk for suicide? a. 32. When auscultating heart sounds arising from the aortic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope: 33. ndrdPain and crepitus over the patella suggests: 34. Which one of the following findings is NOT typical in a patient who has delirium? 35. When examining the skin, multiple areas of circumscribed elevations of the skin filled with serous fluid measuring approximately 0.5cm were noted. These types of lesions could be seen in: 36. The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which cranial nerve? 37. The structure that creates a channel for the vertebral artery is known as the: a. 38. Which of the following is NOT a compliant patient with type 1 diabetes? 39. When suspecting pediculosis capitis, the chief complaint is: 40. The structure that appears as the large swelling posteriorly on the superior ramus of the ischium and bears most of the weight in sitting, is known as the: 41. When percussing the posterior chest, which one of the following techniques would be omitted? 42. On examination of the pupils, both are round but the right pupil appears larger than the left and reacts much slower to light. This condition may be indicative of: 43. During the type of seizure activity, the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a: a. 44. A female patient complains of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? 45. To palpate the right ovary when performing the bimanual vaginal exam, the abdominal hand should be on the right lower quadrant and the pelvic hand needs to be: 46. A serious disturbance in a person’s mental abilities that results in a decreased awareness of one’s environment and confused thinking is referred to as: 47. Which of the following screening tests for hearing loss can detect both sensorineural and conductive hearing loss? 48. Located on the anterior aspect of the distal femur, the patella slides on this groove during flexion and extension of the knee. The name of this groove is the: 49. A 86-year-old man with uncontrolled hypertension presents with sudden, intense left lower abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain is associated with a tearing sensation. These findings are MOST likely associated with: 50. Men between the ages of 40 and 64 years should be screened yearly for: 51. A term used to describe drainage from the nose is: 52. Tenderness over the scapulohumeral muscle group with the inability to abduct the arm above the shoulder level would be consistent with all of the following except: 53. In the older adult, the test for leg mobility is known as the: 54. Which one of the following procedures would confirm a definitive medical diagnosis of Hirschsprung’s disease? 55. Hypofunctioning of the thyroid gland would lead to all the following disorders except: 56. The fleshy projection of the earlobe is known as the: 57. A 50-year-old male describes difficulty emptying his bladder. On exam, a distended bladder is noted following urination. This finding may be associated with: a. 58. When performing an examination of the external genitalia of a female patient, a small firm, round cystic nodule in the labia is identified. This lesion is most consistent with: 59. Passive flexion, varus stress, and external rotation of the lower leg evaluates the: 60. When examining the knee, swelling above and adjacent to the patella was noted. This finding could be suggestive of: 61. While assessing the cranial nerves, the NP touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve? 62. The NP instructs the patient to look over one shoulder, then the other. This maneuver would assess cervical: 63. During a speculum exam of the cervix the speculum is maintained in an open position by: 64. The NP is examining the elbow of a 16-year-old male athlete. Increased pain is noted when he tries to extend his wrist against resistance. This finding is most consistent with: 65. Which examination finding is defined as a congenital ventral displacement of the meatus on the penis? 66. Bowel sounds may be increased in the presence of: 67. Eversion of the upper eyelid can be performed by placing the cotton applicator on the upper lid above the level of the internal tarsal plates and then: 68. Anticipatory guidance for the family of a pre-adolescent with cognitive impairment should include information about: 69. Asymmetry, irregular borders, variation in color, diameter greater than 6 mm, and elevation represent the “ABCDEs” of: a. 70. When performing a spinal exam, the NP noted the appearance of poor posture and a “hump” appearance of the upper back. This finding could be suggestive of: 71. The area where the iliac crest terminates anteriorly on the ilium is known as the: 72. Following injury to the extremities, assessment for neurovascular competency should include the: 73. A patient is experiencing a dull achy pain in the epigastric area with eating. This type of pain is consistent with: 74. Which of the following conditions is NOT related to Polyuria? 75. When examining the elbow for range of motion, the NP instructs the patient to turn his palm upward. This motion is an example of: 76. The forward slippage of one vertebrae resulting in spinal cord compression is referred to as: 77. Skin conditions such as pruritis, hyperpigmentation, and calciphylaxis may be seen in patients who have: 78. The extension of the spine of the scapula located at the highest point of the shoulder is referred to as the: 79. A 60-year-old patient presents with severe, deep left eye pain. Findings reveal dilated and fixed left dilated and fixed left pupil and the cornea is cloudy. There is no ocular discharge noted. These findings are most likely consistent with: 80. A patient has a papule with an ulcerated center on the lower lid and medial canthus of the eye. This is consistent with: 81. Patients with prior hypospadias surgery who develop slow and painful urination as well as prostatitis are experiencing symptoms of: 82. Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for one third of all low-birth-weight infants, placental abruption, and preterm labor? 83. When screening for bladder cancer in a primary care setting, the test that would be LEAST appropriate is: a. 84. The axioscapular group of muscles include which on of the following? 85. A mental health condition characterized by over-the-top behavior such as emotional outbursts, noisy displays of temper, compulsive attention seeking and self-centered actions is: 86. Social phobia, panic disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are all examples of: a. ) 87. In older adults, the presence of heart sound S3 suggests: 88. Depigmented macules appearing on the face, hands, feet, and other parts of the body due to the lack of melanin are termed: 89. Restrictions of internal and external rotation of the hip are sensitive indicators of: 90. Which of the following neurological findings indicate the need for further evaluation? 91. The infant with the lowest risk of developing elevated levels of bilirubin is the one who: 92. The patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling without movements and injury may occur. The type of a seizure is consistent with: 93. When assessing the skin, it has a velvety appearance and is warm to touch. This could be associated with: 94. Breath sounds auscultated over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and wispy during the inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. These breath sounds are considered: 95. To palpate the medial meniscus, slightly internally rotate the tibia and palpate the medial soft tissue along the: 96. Eyelid retraction with exophthalmos presents as: 97. All of the following strategies are useful for assessing older adults at high risk for falls except: 98. If a patient has a history of heat intolerance with a preference to light clothing, this behavior could be consistent with: 99. The best method of detecting cognitive impairment or intellectual disability at an early age is by: 100. When screening for scoliosis, assessment should include: a. 101. In a female diagnosed with a first-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix: 102. The part of the brain that relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system is known as the: 103. During assessment of the thyroid, a fixed, firm, nontender large mass is noted. These findings describe: 104. When examining the foot of a patient, the nurse practitioner notes localized tenderness over the ankle joint. This could be suggestive of: 105. Women with hyperthyroidism often experience: 106. While auscultating the patient’s heart, a medium, soft murmur is audible. It is pansystolic and heard loudest at the apex with radiation to the left axilla. These findings are consistent with: 107. A 26-year-old man with a past medical history of sickle cell disease arrives at the office with complaints of a penile erection that has lasted 4 hours. He is experiencing symptoms of: 108. On ophthalmoscopic examination, glaucomatous cupping appears: 109. Hairy leukoplakia may be associated with: 110. To estimate the expected delivery date (EDD) using Naegele’s rule, if the last menses was March 3, 2014, the EDD would be: 111. thThe infraorbital or maxillary, buccinator, and supramandibular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: 112. A whitish sebaceous secretion that collects between the glans and foreskin or in the vulva is known as: 113. The bony structures of the shoulder include all of the following except: 114. Murmurs audible during pregnancy may suggest: 115. A fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes is termed: 116. The whispered voice test allows the examiner to screen for: 117. A patient experienced a neck injury yesterday and presents to the NP with aching paracervical pain and stiffness. Other complaints include dizziness, malaise, and fatigue. These findings may be associated with: 118. When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: 119. Fasciculations in atrophic muscles suggest: 120. The nerve that provides sensation to the palm and palmar surface of most of the thumb, second and third fingers, and half of the fourth digit is the: 121. Stools that appear black, tarry, and sticky are referred to as: 122. A patient with cirrhosis develops portal hypertension as indicated by the presence of: 123. Which of the following is considered an extrinsic risk factor for falls in the older adult? 124. The thoracic lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all of the following areas except the: 125. Which ethnicity is associated with glucose-6-phosoahte dehydrogenase (G-^-PD) deficiency 126. During pregnancy, which hormone is responsible for increasing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia associated with diabetes? 127. On examination of a six-week-old infant, developmental hip dysplasia (DDH) is suspected. If DDH is present, it might be evidenced by: 128. When should a vaginal swab for Group B streptococcus obtained in a pregnant woman? 129. Percussion of the abdomen should be avoided when? 130. Basic self-care activities are referred to as: Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) is known as a ‘silent’ infection and often 131. With transillumination of the frontal sinuses, a dim red glow is observed on the forehead. This dim red glow would be indicative of: 132. During the mental status exam, a 45-year-old woman is easily distractible and seems to have difficulty responding to each question. This is an assessment of: 133. The normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range is: 134. A patient presents with a productive cough. Which one of the following descriptions of the mucus is correct? 135. The posterior cruciate ligament of the knee: 136. On physical exam, the soft palate does not rise, there is an absent gag reflex, and the patient complains of taste abnormalities. This requires further evaluation of the cranial nerve: 137. When performing a spinal exam, the nurse practitioner notices unequal heights of the iliac crests. This finding could be suggestive of: 138. When examining the ankle and the foot of a patient, the NP instructs the patient to point the foot toward the ceiling. This motion assess: 139. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the retina reveals AV tapering. This appears as if the: 140. The concavities noted on each side and above the patella are known as the: 141. The lymphatic ducts drain into the: 142. A swollen deviated uvula may be associated with a: 143. A patient complains of some pain in the distal portions of her fingers on both hands. She states that it tends to occur more frequently with exposure to cold. These symptoms may be consistent with: 144. When examining the elbow for range of motion, the NP instructs the patient to straighten his elbow. This motion is an example of: 145. The patellar tendon continues below the knee joint and inserts distally on the: 146. The hilar region of the lungs describes: 147. Physical signs associated with cervical myelopathy from cervical cord compression include: 148. Peritoneal inflammation produces abdominal pain and tenderness. What technique can be used to assess a tender abdomen suspected to be secondary to peritoneal inflammation? 149. To evaluate a patient’s response to a vibration sensation, the NP would ask the patient to identify: [Show Less]
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NUR 634 APEA ENDO QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
NUR 634 APEA ENDO QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERSNUR 634 APEA ENDO QBANK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (GRADED A++) (100% CORRECT) 1. A common clinical term used t... [Show More] o refer to women with an excess growth of terminal hair in a male pattern is: 2. Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland is caused by a deficiency of: 3. Which of the following is NOT a complaint of patients with type 1 diabetes? 4. Based on the 2-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT), a positive result for gestational diabetes is: 5. A sweat test is used to help diagnose: 6. The presence of pubic hair in girls between the age of 5 and 8 years is termed: 7. The most common cause of death in children diagnosed with cystic fibrosis is: 8. Hypofunctioning of the thyroid gland would lead to all the following disorders except: 9. A finding NOT identified in boys diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome is: 10. During assessment of the thyroid, a fixed, firm, nontender large mass is noted. These findings describe: 11. A common symptom noted in patients who have a thyroid goiter is: 12. A life-threatening symptom of parathyroid hormone (PTH) deficiency, hypoparathyroidism, is: 13. When auscultating the enlarged thyroid with a stethoscope, a bruit is suggestive of: 14. Thyrotoxicosis is most commonly associated with: 15. A butterfly-shaped gland located in the middle of the neck below the larynx and above the clavicle is the: 16. A general term for an enlarged thyroid is: 17. A hormonal disorder in adults resulting from the overproduction of growth hormones is known as: 18. Hyperpigmentation of the skin and mucous membranes can be seen in patients who: 19. The appearance of breast development in girls before the age of 8 years is termed: 20. A 29-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) complains of facial swelling. She has been on a prolonged course of corticosteroids. On assessment, moon face appearance is noted. She has most likely developed: 21. When a patient presents with myxedema coma, which one of the following groups of symptoms may be present? 22. Which hemoglobin A1C level is typically used to diagnose type 2 diabetes? 23. Which electrolyte is regulated by the parathyroid gland? 24. Symptoms of Graves’ disease include: 25. When assessing the thyroid gland, the nurse practitioner for abnormalities while asking the patient to: 26. A common arrhythmia associated with hyperthyroidism is: 27. Which of the following is NOT considered a benign tumor of the pituitary gland? 28. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)? 29. Fruity breath odor correlates with assessment for: 30. A patient has an enlarged thyroid gland with an audible bruit. The examiner should suspect: 31. Examination of the hair reveals a sparse amount with a coarse appearance. These findings may be seen in patients who have: 32. A 30-year-old woman is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizures. She has recent hair loss and anorexia but is craving salty foods. Her lab results show abnormally high cortisol levels. These symptoms suggest: 33. Women with hyperthyroidism often experience: 34. Which of the following is NOT associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis? 35. Symptoms of underdeveloped ovaries, web-like neck, and shirt stature are associated with: 36. Myxedema is a symptom commonly found in patients diagnosed with: 37. Hyperfunctioning of the thyroid gland could lead to all of the following disorders except: 38. Bilateral exophthalmos suggests: 39. A 20-year-old with acanthosis nigricans should be evaluated for: 40. Which one of the following groups of symptoms would be more consistent in a child with type 2 diabetes mellitus? 41. Which one of the following groups of symptoms would be more consistent in a child with type 2 diabetes mellitus? 42. A 9-year-old girl had a history of tuberculosis when she was 6 years old. She presents with recent weight loss and anorexia. Along with her presenting symptoms, which one of the following assessment findings would be the most indicative of Addison’s disease? 43. What is the earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in a child? 44. Breastfeeding is contraindicated for an infant diagnosed with which one of the following conditions? 45. The earliest recognizable clinical manifestation(s) of cystic fibrosis in an infant is: 46. A six-year-old has a history of diabetes mellitus type 1 and is now experiencing cellulitis of the right lower leg. The child presents with deep, rapid, and unlabored respirations, fruity odor, and dry skin. These are symptoms of: 47. A 13-year-old girl presents with complaints of insomnia and hyperactivity along with gradual weight loss despite a good appetite. She has warm, flushed, and moist skin and unusually fine hair. These manifestations are indicative of which of the following conditions? 48. Children with type 1 diabetes mellitus usually present with which one of the following symptoms? [Show Less]
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