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NUR 134 TEST 3 - 5 BUNDLE
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NUR 134 Test 3 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
NUR 134 Test 3 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) What function of the skeletal system is essential to proper function of all other cells and t... [Show More] issues? A) supporting soft tissues of the body B) protecting delicate body structures C) providing storage area for fats D) producing blood cells What is the role of the flat bones in the body? A) height B) shape C) movement D) length A patient with severe osteoarthritis is having a surgical hip replacement. This is possible because of the type of joint found in the hip. What type is it? A) pivot joint B) gliding joint C) ball and socket joint D) hinge joint A nurse performing range of motion exercises on a bedfast patient moves the patients chin down onto the chest and then back to an upright position. The nurse then tilts the head as far as possible to each shoulder. What therapeutic movement is the nurse achieving with this exercise? Select all that apply. A) flexion B) adduction C) extension D) dorsiflexion E) pronation F) abduction While performing range of motion exercises on a patient, a nurse bends a patients foot so that the toes are brought up, as though to point them at the knee. What is the term for this type of movement? A) dorsiflexion B) inversion C) rotation D) eversion What term is used to describe the correction or prevention of disorders of body structures used in locomotion? A) pediatrics B) obstetrics C) geriatrics D) orthopedics A nurse is assessing the activity level of a 5 month old baby. What normal findings would be assessed? A) ability to sit and head control B) ability to pick up small objects C) progress toward running and jumping D) progress toward unassisted walking Which of the following activities are normally acquired in the toddler years? Select all that apply A) rolling over B) pulling to a standing position C) walking D) running E) jumping F) climbing stairs A nurse is teaching an older adult about activity. What information would be included in the teaching plan? A) the requirement of frequent inactivity B) the recognition that exercise is not important C) the importance of regular exercise D) the possibility of exercise induced fractures A nurse is assessing the muscles of an older adult. What will be assessed? A) temperature, turgor, moisture B) mass, tone, strength C) degree of flexion, associated pain D) reflexes, range of motion Which of the following postural deformities might be assessed in a teenager? A) kyphosis B) rickets C) osteoporosis D) scoliosis A nurse is providing home care for an older woman with severe osteoporosis. What complication of this disease process must the nurse consider in the plan of care? A) diarrhea B) fractures C) visual deficits D) skin disorders A nurse is teaching an older woman how to move and lift her disabled husband. The woman has osteoarthritis of the hips and knees. What is the goal of the nurses teaching plan? A) minimize stress on the wifes joints B) provide exercise for the husband C) increase socialization with neighbors D) maintain self esteem of the wife Why is it important for the nurse to teach and role model proper body mechanics? A) to ensure knowledgeable patient care B) to promote health and prevent illness C) to prevent unnecessary insurance claims D) to demonstrate knowledge and skills Bedrest, with resultant immobility, affects the whole body. What is one effect on the musculoskeletal system? A) impaired gas exchange B) increased risk for venous thrombosis C) increased risk for contractures D) decreased sensory stimulation A middle aged man walks 2 miles each day. What type of exercise is he getting by this activity? A) isotonic B) isometric C) isokinetic D) isostretching What body system benefits the most from aerobic exercises? A) musculoskeletal B) neurologic C) respiratory D) cardiovascular A nurse recommends a regular exercise program for a patient who has difficulty sleeping. The patient asks how this will help. How would the nurse respond? A) The fresh air will stimulate your metabolism. B) Improved sleep is one benefit of regular exercise. C) Exercise can help you control your weight. D) Take my word for it. It sure helped me. A nurse is assessing the vital signs of a patient who has exercised regularly for several years. What vital sign findings would be expected? A) increased body temperature and respirations B) increased pulse and blood pressure C) decreased pulse and blood pressure D) exercise has no effect on vital signs A patient at a community health center is discussing a planned exercise program. The patient is being treated for cardiovascular disease. What would the nurse recommend? A) Begin the exercise program immediately. B) It would be best if you did not exercise. C) Be sure to take your pulse before you begin. D) See your doctor and have a checkup first. Of the following guidelines, which would not be recommended to a person who has sustained an orthopedic injury during exercise? A) ice B) warmth C) rest D) elevation Immobility affects the body in many ways. What is one serious effect of immobility on the cardiovascular system? A) increased cardiac workload B) decreased cardiac workload C) increased venous return D) increased peripheral resistance An immobile person has decreased movement of respiratory secretions. What condition is a greater risk as a result? A) respiratory tract infection B) increased gas exchange C) greater thoracic expansion D) increased respiratory rate Laboratory results for a patient on prolonged bedrest include a high level of urinary calcium. What risk does this pose for the patient? A) urinary calcium is not a concern B) renal calculi (kidney stones) C) increased urinary output D) imbalanced intake/output At what time would a nurse assess the gait of an ambulatory patient? A) after the neurologic assessment B) at the end of the physical examination C) while the patient is lying supine on the examining table D) when the patient walks into the room What term is used to document impaired muscle strength or weakness? A) paralysis B) paresis C) spasticity D) flaccidity A patient has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and is unable to perform basic self care activities or activities of daily living. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for Injury: Pathologic Fractures B) Activity Intolerance C) Altered Tissue Perfusion D) Altered Thought Processes A nurse is caring for a comatose patient. What can happen to the feet if they are unsupported in the dorsiflexed position? A) heel extension and pain B) toe contractures and numbness C) plantar extension and arch loss D) plantar flexion and footdrop A nurse is placing a patient in Fowlers position. What should she teach the family about this position? A) Use at least two big pillows to support the head. B) Cross the arms over the patients abdomen. C) Do not raise the knees with the knee gatch. D) Keep the hands lower than the rest of the body. A nurse is ambulating a patient who has had a stroke. The patient has paresis on the right side of the upper body. Where would the nurse stand to walk the patient? A) on the weak side B) on the strong side C) in front of the patient D) in back of the patient A college student fell and sprained his right ankle. The student health physician recommends the student use crutches to facilitate healing. Which of the following would the nurse teach the student? A) The crutches should be as long as the student is tall. B) The support of the body should be in the axilla. C) The support of the body should be the hands and arms. D) Walk fast and use long steps when using the crutches. A nurse is following a plan of care for passive range of motion (ROM) exercises. What specifics will be included on the plan? A) Ask the patient to demonstrate ROM at 9 a.m. each day. B) Do ROM exercises two times a day, each exercise two to five times. C) Request family be available twice a day to perform ROM. D) Move each joint until the patient complains of pain. The student nurse studying the anatomy and physiology of the urinary system knows that the following are functions of the bladder. Select all that apply. A) The bladder serves as a temporary reservoir for urine. B) The sympathetic system carries inhibitory impulses to the bladder. C) Urine from the bladder empties into the pelvis of each kidney. D) A fold of membrane in the bladder closes the entrance to the ureters when pressure exists. E) The parasympathetic system carries motor impulses to the bladder and inhibitory impulses to the internal sphincter. F) From the bladder, urine is transported by rhythmic peristalsis through the ureters to the kidneys. [Show Less]
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NUR 134 Test 4 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
NUR 134 Test 4 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Feedings that are delivered at regular intervals, using gravity for instillation or a feeding... [Show More] pump to administer the formula over a set period of time? 1) intermittent 2) bolus 3) continuous 4) A and B Rationale: While an argument could be made for both A and B but that is not the most correct answer... Feedings which use a syringe to instill the formula quickly in one large amount? intermittent bolus continuous A and B Feedings which permit gradual introduction of the formula into the GI tract, promoting maximal absorption; external feeding pump is needed to regulate the flow of formula? intermittent bolus continuous A and B The risk of reflux and aspiration is greater with which type of feeding? intermittent bolus continuous A and B Feeding intolerance is _______ likely to occur with smaller volumes more less most none of these (volume doesn't play a part in this) (T/F) Administration of a tube feeding can be delegated to nursing assistive personnel or unlicensed assistive personnel. True False Rationale: This can be done sometimes but that depends on State laws. Remember definitive answers like always and never are usually false Prescribed tube feeding formula should be given at what temperature? room body hot cold What area should be assessed before administering a tube feeding? chest abdomen feet none of these Before administering a tube feeding, position the patient with HOB elevated at least _____ degrees or as near normal position for eating as possible? 30 to 45 10 to 20 70 0 Rationale: Remember they should be in a fowler's to semi-fowler's position. How would you like to be positioned? Patients who are considered at high risk for aspiration should be assisted into at least a ___ degree position 20 30 45 70 (upright) Elevating the HOB to 30/45 degrees minimizes the possibility of aspiration into the _______. mouth trachea nostril bronchi Before administering an NGT tube feeding, verify the position of the marking of the tube at the patient's _______; measuring the length of the exposed tube and comparing with the documented length mouth trachea nostril bronchi (T/F) The position of the marking on the tube at the patient's nostril should be assessed each time the tube is used. True False If the nurse is unable to obtain an aspirate specimen, they should reposition the patient and flush the tube with _____ of air 10ml 60ml 30ml 5ml The pH of gastric contents is acidic, less than _____. If the patient is taking an acid-inhibiting agent, the pH range may be ___-___ 5.5, 4-6 4.0, 5-7 3.5, 7-8 5.0, 7-8 pH testing is less useful in _______ feedings since the formula raises the pH and has not been emptied? intermittent bolus continuous A and B ________ can be green, with particles, off-white, or brown if old blood is present gastric fluidphlegm snot intestinal fluid ________ may tends to look clear or straw-colored to a deep golden-yellow color--may be greenish-brown if stained with bile gastric fluid phlegm snot intestinal fluid What is considered the most reliable method for identifying the position of the NG tube? x-ray After ensuring the feeding tube is in place, aspirate all gastric contents with the syringe and measure to check for _________ _______ and then return based on facility policy gastric residual High gastric residual volumes (_____-____ mL or greater) can be associated with high risk for aspiration and aspiration-related pneumonia 200-250 Feedings should be held if residual volumes exceed ______mL on two successive assessments 200 Gastric residual should be checked before each _________ feeding, or every 4-6 hours during a __________ feeding? intermittent, continuous After returning gastric residual, flush the tube with ____ of water for irrigation 10ml 60ml 30ml 5ml Flushing the tube with water prevents ___________ infection occlusion aspiration leaks When using a feeding bag (open system), label the bag and/or tubing with date & time, then hang the bag on IV pole and adjust to about _____ above stomach. Clamp tubing. 1ft 5ft 12in A and C When using a feeding bag (open system), check the expiration date of the formula then cleanse the top of the feeding container with _____________ before opening it. normal saline alcohol wipes disinfectant dry towel When using a feeding bag or large syringe (open system), add ___-____ mL (1-2oz) of water for irrigation to feeding bag when the feeding is almost completed and allow it to run through the tube; clamp tubing immediately after water has been instilled. 30-60 The _________ the syringe (large syringe-open system) is held, the faster the formula flows (regulate rate by height of the syringe) higher lower (T/F) Push formula with syringe plunger during large syringe feedings. True False When using a large syringe, hold the syringe ______ when it has emptied to prevent the formula from back-flowing out of the tube and onto the patient. high low even to insertion Feedings must be disposed within how long? 48hrs 24hrs 3 days 4hrs During an enteral feeding, the patient must stay in an _______ position throughout the feeding. If the patient needs to lie flat temporarily, _______ the feeding. supine, pause prone, pause upright, pause upright, slow When giving enteral feedings, placement of the tube and gastric residual should be checked every _____. day hour 4-6 hours shift change Checking ___________ monitors absorption of the feeding and prevents distention, which could lead to aspiration. gastric residual Checking _______ verifies that the tube has not moved out of the stomach. Placement Observe the patient's response during and after tube feeding and assess the abdomen at least _____ per shift. Once Pain or nausea may indicate _____________, which may lead to vomiting stomach distention Abdominal distention and firmness or regurgitation may indicate ___________ Intolerance After an enteral feeding, have the patient remain in an upright position for at least _______ after the feeding 4 hours 8 hours 1 hour 30 mins What should be used to remove a clog in tubing? cool water, gentle pressure hot water, firm pressure cool water, firm pressure warm water, gentle pressure (T/F) Carbonated sodas and meat tenderizers have been shown effective in removing clogs in feeding tubes True False Rationale: They could actually decrease the longevity of the feeding tubes. Patients should be positioned at a ______ for removal of a NG tube supine position prone position sims position 30-45 degree position Before removing NG tube, check placement, attach syringe and flush with __ mL of water or saline solution or clear with _____ mL of air 10, 50-70 30, 10-50 10, 30-50 50, 10-30 (T/F) To remove a NG tube, instruct patient to take a deep breath and hold it. Quickly & carefully remove the tube while the patient holds breath. True False (T/F) Use of a PEG tube or other type of gastrostomy tube requires an intact, functional GI tract. True False The ordered drug is administered until a discontinuation order is written or until a specified date is reached? standing order routine order prn order stat order Prescribed in anticipation of sudden changes in a patient's condition? standing order routine order prn order stat order The ordered drug is given when a patient needs it? standing order routine order prn order stat order An order that is to be administered immediately, usually written for emergencies or when a patient's condition suddenly changes? standing order routine order prn order stat order 6 Rights of Medication Administration? 1) Right drug, right dose, right position, right time, right patient, right documentation 2) Right drug, right dose, right route/form, right target, right patient, right documentation 3) Right drug, right dose, right route/form, right time, right patient, right documentation 4) Right drug, right dose, right route/form, right time, right room, right documentation Official accepted name of a drug? generic name trade name brand name combo name Name under which a manufacturer markets a medication. It indicates the name is registered and protected by law; its use is restricted to the company that legally owns the name? generic name trade name brand name combo name B and C Rationale: Trade name and Brand name are the same thing. It might even be called manufactured name. How much drug is in what form? dosage drug strength solution strength none of these The liquid resulting from the combination of the solute and the solvent solution Injected into the spinal column? IV ID IT IM Rationale: IV -> Intravenous -> into + "vein" ID -> Intradermal -> into + "dermis" IT -> Intrathecal -> into + "spine" (I remember this as IT is the spine of networking) IM -> Intramuscular -> into + "muscle" Applied to the surface of the skin (local or systemic)? transdermal topical ointment suppository inhalation In patch/disk & applied to skin (systemic)? transdermal topical ointment suppository inhalation Breathed into the respiratory tract by nose/mouth? transdermal topical ointment suppository inhalation Applied to mucosa of eyes, ears, nose, or mouth? transdermal topical ointment suppository inhalation Inserted into a body cavity? transdermal topical ointment suppository inhalation Into the intestines/GI tract? parenteral enteral buccal sublingual Rationale: Enteral means intestines Parenteral -> Par = beyond so beyond or other than intestines or via needle into body buccal -> cheek sublingual -> Sub = under/below + lingual = tongue "lingua is great tasting when prepared correctly ;-)" Injected into the body via needle? parenteral enteral buccal sublingual Rationale: Enteral means intestines Parenteral -> Par = beyond so beyond or other than intestines or via needle into body buccal -> cheek sublingual -> Sub = under/below + lingual = tongue "lingua is great tasting when prepared correctly ;-)" Slowly release a controlled amount of medication into the body over a period of time? syrup elixir sustained release/extended release suspension Rationale: Syrup -> Remember that gooey sticky goodness that you put on your waffles/pancakes... It's sweet because of the sugar Elixir -> is alcohol based - li+quor is needed after nursing tests Sustained release/extended release -> slow release or controlled release of medication Suspension -> Insoluble drug in liquid base "If you suspend something you hang it... Suspension is hanging around in the liquid base." Absorbed by mucosa of mouth (should never be swallowed) parenteral enteral buccal sublingual Rationale: Enteral means intestines Parenteral -> Par = beyond so beyond or other than intestines or via needle into body buccal -> cheek sublingual -> Sub = under/below + lingual = tongue "lingua is great tasting when prepared correctly ;-)" Absorbed under the tongue parenteral enteral buccal sublingual Rationale: Enteral means intestines Parenteral -> Par = beyond so beyond or other than intestines or via needle into body buccal -> cheek sublingual -> Sub = under/below + lingual = tongue "lingua is great tasting when prepared correctly ;-)" [Show Less]
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NUR 134 Test 5 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)
NUR 134 Test 5 - Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) What percentage of fat calories should come from saturated fats? A) <10% B) >35% C) 20-35% D) 1... [Show More] 0-35% The RDA for fats is ______ of total c aloric intake 1) >35% 2) <10% 3) 10-35% 4) 20-35% What is the RDA of cholesterol? A) <300 mg/day B) <10% C) >35% D) 20-35% Carbs have ___ calories/gram, with the exception of indigestible ________ 1) 9, fiber 2) 4, fiber 3) 9, protein 4) 4, protein Rationale: Carbs produces 4 calories/gram except for the indigestible fiber. Protein also produces 4 calories/gram but no indigestible fiber. Fats produces 9 calories/gram. What are carbs converted to? fat amino acids glucose minerals Rationale: Carbs are converted into glucose (aka energy) Fat is a macronutrient Protein converts into amino acids Minerals are micronutrients What is the primary function of carbs? 1) building/repair structure 2) energy 3) insulation 4) temperature control Rationale: Building/repair structure is the main function of Proteins thus the reason for high protein diets after surgeries. Energy is the main function of Carbs and thus the correct answer here. Insulation and Temperature control are main functions of Fats. What are the primary sources of carbs?(SATA) 1) plants 2) lactose 3) animals 4) nuts and oils 5) A and B 6) C and D Rationale: Plants and Lactose are correct Animals, nuts and oils are sources of fats The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) of carbs is _______ grams or _______% of caloric intake (should be complex carbs) A) 300, 20-35 B) 50-100, 45-65 C) 0.8, 10-35 D) 2,200-3,000, 45-60 Rationale: 50-100 grams or 45-65% of caloric intake is correct answer 300 mg/day is the max amount of Cholesterol or 20-35% is RDA for Fats 0.8 g/kg or 10-35% is RDA for Protein 2200-3000 ml/day is the amount of water one should take in Condition in which the body has an abnormal concentration of ketone bodies resulting from excessive fat metabolism alkalosis acidosis ketosis none of these Meeting the RDA of carbs prevents what condition? alkalosis acidosis ketosis none of these Rationale: A lot of new age diets focuses on Ketosis and it's benefits. They require restricting your Carb intake, some are extreme and unhealthy. What are the macronutrients?(SATA) Carbs Protein Fats All of these What type of carbs delay gastric emptying, lower serum cholesterol, & delay glucose absorption?(SATA) simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Which type of carbs' main function is energy?(SATA) simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Rationale: Simple Sugars and Starches get converted into glucose which the body uses as energy, provided not excessive. Water-Soluble Fiber delay gastric emptying, lower serum cholesterol, and delay glucose absorption. Cellulose & Water-Insoluble Fiber adds fecal bulk and moves things through the intestine quicker Which type of carbs absorb water, add fecal bulk, & decrease intestinal transit time?(SATA) simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Rationale: Simple Sugars and Starches get converted into glucose which the body uses as energy, provided not excessive. Water-Soluble Fiber delay gastric emptying, lower serum cholesterol, and delay glucose absorption. Cellulose & Water-Insoluble Fiber adds fecal bulk and moves things through the intestine quicker What type of carb helps improve glucose tolerance in diabetics?(SATA) simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Rationale: Simple Sugars and Starches get converted into glucose which the body uses as energy, provided not excessive. Water-Soluble Fiber delay gastric emptying, lower serum cholesterol, and delay glucose absorption. Cellulose & Water-Insoluble Fiber adds fecal bulk and moves things through the intestine quicker What type of carbs help relieve constipation?(SATA) simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Rationale: Simple Sugars and Starches get converted into glucose which the body uses as energy, provided not excessive. Water-Soluble Fiber delay gastric emptying, lower serum cholesterol, and delay glucose absorption. Cellulose & Water-Insoluble Fiber adds fecal bulk and moves things through the intestine quicker Cellulose & water-insoluble fibers are __________ and are therefore excreted digestible indigestible absorbed none of these A deficient intake of cellulose & other water-insoluble fibers may cause ________; an excess intake may increase the risk for _________ ketosis, dental caries acidosis, renal calculi cholesterol, heart disease alkalosis, high BP What type of carbs can be found in fruits, vegetables, grains, dried peas/beans, milk (lactose), and sugars (white/brown/honey/molasses, syrup)? simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these What types of carbs can be found in whole wheat flour, wheat bran, vegetables such as cabbage, peas, green beans, broccoli, peppers, carrots, and apples? simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these What types of carbs can be found in oat bran, oatmeal, dried peas/ beans, vegetables, and fruits such as prunes, pears, apples, bananas and oranges? simple sugars starch water-soluble fiber cellulose & water-insoluble fiber A and B All of these Proteins have ___ calories/gram 4 9 10 20 Rationale: Carbs produces 4 calories/gram except for the indigestible fiber. Protein also produces 4 calories/gram but no indigestible fiber Fats produces 9 calories/gram What is protein converted to? fat amino acids glucose minerals Rationale: Protein converts into amino acids Carbs are converted into glucose (aka energy) Fat is a macronutrient Minerals are micronutrients Functions of protein include: (SATA) cellular structure maintenance/growth antibody formation immunity All of these What are the primary sources of protein? 1) plants 2) lactose 3) animals 4) nuts and oils 5) A and C 6) C and D Rationale: While plants maybe confusing remember Soy is a source of protein and comes from plants. Dietary proteins may be labeled ________ (high quality) or ___________ (low quality) based on their amino acid composition 1) incomplete, complete 2) complete, complete 3) incomplete, incomplete 4) complete, incomplete The RDA of protein is _____ g/kg of desired body weight or ______% of total caloric intake A) 300, 20-35 B) 50-100, 45-65 C) 0.8, 10-35 D) 2,200-3,000, 45-60 Rationale: 0.8 g/kg or 10-35% is RDA for Protein 50-100 grams or 45-65% of caloric intake is correct answer 300 mg/day is the max amount of Cholesterol or 20-35% is RDA for Fats 2200-3000 ml/day is the amount of water one should take in Fats have __ calories/gram 4 9 10 20 Rationale: Carbs produces 4 calories/gram except for the indigestible fiber. Protein also produces 4 calories/gram but no indigestible fiber Fats produces 9 calories/gram What are fats converted to? minerals amino acids glucose fatty acids Rationale: Fat is converted into fatty acids Carbs are converted into glucose (aka energy) Protein converts into amino acids Minerals are micronutrients What macronutrient functions in energy, structure, insulation, temperature control, and absorption of fat-soluble vitamins? protein fat carbs vitamins and minerals Fat-like substance found only in animal products and made by the body cholesterol What type of fats raise serum cholesterol? 1) unsaturated 2) saturated 3) trans fat 4) A and C 5) B and C 6) all of these Partially hydrogenated liquid oils 1) unsaturated 2) saturated 3) trans fat 4) A and C 5) B and C 6) all of these Rationale: Saturated - Solid at room temperature i.e. butter Unsaturated - Un-Solid at room temperature i.e. oils Trans fat - fake/engineered solid fats like margarine BAD FOR YOU!!! Most animal fats are considered _________ and have a solid consistency at room temperature 1) unsaturated 2) saturated 3) trans fat 4) A and C 5) B and C 6) all of these Rationale: Saturated - Solid at room temperature i.e. butter Unsaturated - Un-Solid at room temperature i.e. oils Trans fat - fake/engineered solid fats like margarine BAD FOR YOU!!! Most vegetable fats are considered _________ and remain liquid at room temperature 1) unsaturated 2) saturated 3) trans fat 4) A and C 5) B and C 6) all of these Rationale: Saturated - Solid at room temperature i.e. butter Unsaturated - Un-Solid at room temperature i.e. oils Trans fat - fake/engineered solid fats like margarine BAD FOR YOU!!! What type of fat lowers serum cholesterol levels? 1) unsaturated 2) saturated 3) trans fat 4) A and C 5) B and C 6) all of these What are the primary sources of fats?(SATA) animal fats vegetable fats oils nuts All of these A relationship exists between elevated cholesterol levels and what medical conditions? long distance running atherosclerosis heart disease B and C All of these Cholesterol is necessary for ______/______ cell functioning, _______ hormone and vitamin ___ production, and synthesis of ______ acids. brain/nerve, steroid, D, bile Organic compounds needed by the body in small amounts that metabolize carbs, protein, and fat. minerals vitamins cholesterol amino acids (T/F) Vitamins provide energy. True False Rationale: Vitamins may help the breakdown and creation of energy but energy's source is carbs and fats not the vitamins. Class of vitamins which are absorbed through the intestinal wall directly into the bloodstream; usually not stored in the body. water-soluble fat-soluble carbohydrate indigestible Class of vitamins that are absorbed with fat into the lymphatic circulation; must be attached to a protein to be transported through the blood. Excess stored in liver & adipose tissue. water-soluble fat-soluble carbohydrate indigestible [Show Less]
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