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NSG3029 Final Exam, NSG3029 Midterm Exam , NSG3029 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 Knowledge Check Quiz & NSG3029 Question Bank (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A |
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NSG 3029 Final Exam / NSG3029 Final Exam (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Score “A”|
NSG 3029 Final Exam / NSG3029 Final Exam (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| South University NSG3029 Fin... [Show More] al Exam / South University NSG 3029 Final Exam (Latest - 2021): |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| NSG3029 Final Exam / NSG 3029 Final Exam (Latest): South University: Foundations of Nursing Research South University NSG3029 Final Exam (Latest): Foundations of Nursing Research 1. The magnitude of the impact that the intervention or variable is expected to have on the outcome is referred to as the: A. Power B. Experimenter effect C. Effect size D. Treatment effect 2. Which type of error is related to the power of the statistical test? A. Type 1 error B. Type 2 error C. Measurement error D. Sampling error 3. Control of bias can be accomplished through use of all of the following measures except: A. Using more than one observer B. Allowing subjects to volunteer for the study C. Blinding treatment groups to the researcher D. Using a carefully constructed demographic questionnaire 4. Which type of error is frequently referred to as the level of significance? A. Type 1 error B. Type 2 error C. Measurement error D. Sampling error 5. The ability to generalize findings from a research study to other populations, places, and situations is referred to as: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 6. The confidence that an experimental treatment or condition made a difference and that rival explanations were ruled out through study design and control is called: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 7. All of the following are threats to external validity except: A. Selection effect B. Experimenter effect C. Maturation D. History 8. All of the following strategies help to increase the trustworthiness of qualitative research except: A. Triangulation B. Bracketing C. Audit trail D. Random Selection ANS: D 9. Threats to validity can be handled by the researcher in all of these ways except: A. Eliminate the threat B. Control the threat C. Account for the threat D. Ignore the threat ANS: D 10. A threat to internal validity in which the subject reactions are due to the effect of being observed are referred to as: A. Selection effects B. Treatment effects C. Experimental mortality D. Maturation 11. The ability to generalize findings from a research study to other populations, places, and situations is referred to as: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 12. The confidence that an experimental treatment or condition made a difference and that rival explanations were ruled out through study design and control is called: A. Internal validity B. Reliability C. External validity D. Population validity 1. The type of question used in descriptive studies that is designed to describe what is going on or what exists islabeled as: A. Descriptive B. Correlational C. Relational D. Predictive 2. The type of question used in descriptive studies that is designed to investigate an association is labeled as: A. Descriptive B. Correlational C. Relational D. Predictive 3. The use of survey designs offers many advantages for the researcher including all of the following except: A. Content is flexible and scope is broad B. Cost effective method for reaching large populations C. Questions are predetermined and standardized for all subjects eliminating bias D. Content limited to subject recall, self-knowledge, and willingness to respond honestly ANS: D 4. The design that is used to examine simultaneously groups of subjects in various stages of development with theintent to describe differences among them is called a: A. Cross-sectional design B. Longitudinal design C. Case study design D. Correlational design 5. The type of design used in descriptive studies that describes the strength and nature of relationships between two variables without clarifying the underlying causes of that relationship is labeled as: A. Cross-sectional design B. Longitudinal design C. Case study design D. Correlational design ANS: D 6. Although not considered the strongest evidence for change in nursing practice, findings from descriptive studies can be used in the following way(s) to support evidence-based nursing practice: A. Care planning B. Nursing interventions C. Diagnosis of patient care conditions D. All of the above ANS: D 7. What two strategies can be used by a researcher to collect longitudinal data? A. Retrospective and prospective methods B. Retrospective and cross-sectional methods C. Prospective and cross-sectional methods D. Retrospective, prospective, and cross-sectional methods 8. A variable that is not measured in correlation studies but is related to each variable in the relationship and may affectthe correlation of the data negatively is called a: A. Predictive variable B. Spurious variable C. Suppressor variable D. Correlation variable 9. The requirements for a single-subject study design includes all of the following except: A. Continuous assessment of the variable of interest B. Assessment during a baseline period before the intervention C. Measurement of outcomes at pre-determined follow-up times D. Continuing assessment of the responses of the individual after the intervention 10. A typical question for a cross-sectional type of descriptive research design would be: A. What is the effect of urinary incontinence on the quality of life of long term care residents over time? B. What are the differences in job satisfaction among nurses working on different types of units? C. Can feeding performance in neonates be predicted by indicators of feeding readiness? D. What were the responses of an individual with Type II diabetes to one-on-one counseling from a nurse? 1. The symbol used to designate a population mean is: A. N B. x C. m [mu] D. p 2. Common descriptive statistics are classified in all the following ways except: A. Counts of data B. Measures of central tendency C. Graphic presentations D. Sampling distributions and standard error ANS: D 3. A statistical term that means a count of the instances a number occurs in a data set is called: A. Interval B. Frequency C. Ratio D. Rate 4. A type of frequency distribution in which variables with different values are plotted as a graph on x-axes and y- axes and the shape can be visualized is referred to as a: A. Histogram B. Frequency table C. Scatter plot D. Line graph 5. A type of graphic presentation of distribution that indicates the nature of the relationship between two variables measured from the same subject at the same time is referred to as a: A. Histogram B. Frequency table C. Scatter plot D. Line graph 6. A measure of central tendency that is the average is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 7. A measure of central tendency that is the most frequently ~ occurring value in the data set is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 8. A measure of central tendency that is the exact midpoint of the numbers of the data set is called the: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 9. Bar graphs are easiest to create for what types of descriptive data? A. Nominal and ordinal B. Interval and ratio C. Nominal and interval D. Ordinal and ratio 10. A calculated count derived from dividing the frequency of an event in a given time period by all possible occurrences of the event during the same time period is referred to as the: A. Interval B. Frequency C. Ratio D. Rate ANS: D 1. Quantitative research questions identify all the following elements except: A. Population of interest B. Intervention being studied C. Case analysis D. Outcome of interest 2. Which variable is not part of the central study but exerts an effect: A. Dependent variable B. Extraneous variable C. Intervention variable D. Independent variable 3. Quantitative designs can be classified in the following ways except: A. Experimental designs B. Quasi-experimental designs C. Comparison designs D. Time-series designs 4. The quantitative design that is considered the Gold Standard: A. Experimental designs B. Quasi-experimental designs C. Comparison of intact groups D. Time-series designs 5. Strengths of experimental designs include all the following except: A. Considered the strongest evidence for practice B. Allow a definitive conclusion about cause and effect C. Direct relationship to evidence based practice D. Recognized and valued by other disciplines 6. The hallmark of the experimental design is: A. Independent variable B. Extraneous variables are controlled C. Use of a control group D. Subjects are randomly assigned to groups ANS: D 7. Quasi-experimental designs include the following characteristics except: A. Independent variables B. Dependent variables C. Data collected numerically D. Randomize subjects to groups ANS: D 8. The primary difference between a quasi-experimental design and experimental design is: A. The way results are interpreted B. The way the questions are worded C. The way variables are assigned D. The way interventions are applied 9. Time-series design involves the following steps except: A. Population of interest is identified B. Variables are defined C. Baseline condition is measured D. Study question applied ANS: D 10. There are a variety of uses for quantitative evidence in nursing practice, including all the following except: A. Assessment B. Generalization C. Interventions D. Evaluation of outcomes 1. Inferential analysis answers the question: A. What is going on? B. What is the question? C. Are you sure? D. Who is the Primary Investigator? 2. Quantitative analyses are generally grouped into the following categories: A. Parametric and non parametric B. Quasi-experimental and Non-Quasi-experimental C. Experimental and Non-experimental D. Time-series analysis 3. The strength of inferential analysis is derived from: A. Comparison of differences to standard error B. Hypothesis testing C. Calculation of the probability of error D. A and C ANS: D 4. Confidence intervals are more accurate in representing population parameters than: A. Variable analysis B. Point estimates C. Sample size descriptors D. Unit measurements 5. The three commonly accepted ways to find the minimum importance difference include all of the following except: A. Compare the change in the outcome to some other measure of chance B. Compare the change to a sampling distribution to determine its probability C. Consult an expert panel D. Statistical Analysis 6. Experimental, Quasi-experimental, causal-comparative, and case-control designs are all studies suited to this type of analysis: A. Bivariate B. Inferential C. Historical D. Univariate 7. The researcher makes decisions about the appropriateness of a statistical test based on the following factors except: A. Number of groups to be tested B. Level of measurement of the independent and dependent variables C. Statistical and mathematical assumptions of the test D. Systematic appraisal ANS: D 8. There are three versions of the t-test except: A. One-sample t-test B. Two-sample t-test C. Independent-samples t-test D. Paired-sample t-test 9. There are three kinds of chi square tests that are commonly used, including all the following except: A. Chi square test of association B. Chi square test of independence C. Chi square test of fit D. Chi square test of assumptions ANS: D 10. Which test listed below is the most frequently used statistical test: A. Mean B. Standard Deviation C. Chi Square D. ANOVA ANS: D 1. What type of research is used in a preliminary way to establish basic knowledge about a group individual'sresponse to health and illness? A. Interpretive B. Quantitative C. Phenomenological D. Descriptive ANS: D 2. The purpose of Qualitative research is to: A. Gather data to illuminate the meaning of an event or phenomenon. B. Develop understanding from the perspective of the informant. C. Describe the acceptability of an intervention. D. All of the above ANS: D 3. In qualitative research, the researcher specifically states: A. The objectives B. The aims C. The research question D. The hypothesis 4. Qualitative research involves what type of approach to understanding the experiences of others: A. Interpretive B. Descriptive C. Phenomenological D. Systematic ANS: D 5. Trustworthiness includes the following characteristics: A. Credibility B. Confirmability C. Dependability D. All of the above ANS: D 6. Prolonged engagement, bracketing, triangulation, and audit trail are all ways to limit: A. Confabulation B. Bias C. Control D. Uncontrolled sampling 7. Research designs used because they answer questions ~ about human reactions and interactions include the following except: A. Case research methods B. Phenomenology C. Proposal D. Ethnography 8. Qualitative studies can help the nurse researcher: A. Identify needs of target population B. Improve the understanding of the impact of the intervention C. Understand the reasons for attrition, cessation of treatment, or lack of adherence to a treatment protocol. D. All of the above ANS: D 9. Qualitative research designs are sometimes referred to by this term when they refer to qualitative approaches. A. Interpretive B. Traditions C. Descriptive D. Analytical 10. This term describes when a sample size is big enough in Qualitative research. A. Proportional B. Purposeful C. Extreme D. Saturation ANS: D 1. Which phase of qualitative data analysis brings the researcher to the point of what he or she believes has truly emerged from the data: A. Comprehending B. Synthesizing C. Theorizing D. Recontextualizing 2. This is a method of analysis that involves a review of data as the data is gathered. This new data is compared toexisting data to confirm or refute conclusions and to decide when saturation has been reached. A. Saturation level B. Constant comparison C. Engagement D. Information analysis 3. Three major analytic styles that fall on a continuum between structure and lack of structure include all of the following except: A. Template analysis style B. Pre-Theoretical analysis style C. Immersion/crystallization style D. Editing analysis style 4. This is a process by which the researcher searches for meaning that may lead to a theory through a qualitativedata analysis and cognitive process. A. Recontextualizing B. Parsimonious C. Synthesizing D. Comprehending 5. At the conclusion of an intense examination of the data and the development of an overall schematic, the researcher develops more-specific categories of meaning based on what has been gathered. This term describes these categories of meaning. A. Relationships B. Perspectives C. Codes D. Perceptions 6. This is the smallest element of the data that can be analyzed; in qualitative analysis. This might include a document, phrase, word, or picture. A. Artifact B. Statement C. Unit of analysis D. Memorabilia 7. The qualitative researcher relies on four criteria to establish trustworthiness of conclusions. Which term listed below is not one of the four criteria: A. Transferable B. Dependable C. Credible D. Reliable ANS: D 8. This is characteristic of findings that reach congruence between two or more independent researchers. A. Transferable B. Dependable C. Confirmable D. Credible 9. This is a measure of interrater or intercoder reliability between two raters or coders. The analysis is taken further by generating a p-value for the probably that random error was responsible for the agreement. A. Pearson R B. Chi square C. Cohen's kappa D. ANOVA 10. This is a guide that outlines each code, its definition, and any criteria to place data into the category. A. Code database B. Codebook C. Diary D. Margin notes 1. The following terms identify reasons why research should be incorporated into practice except: A. Consumerism B. Recognize the researcher C. Cost implications D. Quality and patient safety 2. This regulatory body is a nationally sought measurement of quality by hospitals and other health care agencies. A. Tennessee Board of Trustees B. California Health Care Association C. Joint Commission D. United States Board of Governors 3. Woods & Magyary (2010) identified the following two critical skills for knowledge translation. A. Traditional models of research and isolation techniques B. Variety of data collection methods and treatments C. Integrative analysis and dissemination D. Team science and transdisciplinary efforts ANS: D 4. Common electronic databases for literature searches include all the following except: A. Medline B. Google C. Pubmed D. CINAHL 5. This is the cornerstone of evidence-based practice and describes the collection and analysis of all available research on a topic. A. Systematic review B. Literature review C. Methodology review D. Introductory review 6. This is a methodology that synthesizes empirical, theoretical, and experiential research to provide a more comprehensive understanding of the human response to health, illness, and interventions. A. Literature review B. Search strategy C. Integrative review D. Statistical review 7. This is an appealing approach for qualitative researchers because it has characteristics of methods that elevate the level of evidence provided by the outcome. A. Meta-analysis B. Qualitative Meta-synthesis C. Synthesis analysis D. Combination analysis 8. This model of evidence-based practice is based on a five-step process. A. The Iowa Model B. The Johns Hopkins Model C. Outcomes focused knowledge translation at the bedside D. Collaborative model for knowledge translation 9. This is the dynamic part of the Collaborative model for knowledge translation and is made up of the collaborative relationship between researchers and nurses. A. The content dimension B. The risk dimension C. The process dimension D. The research dimension 10. This model of research incorporates the impact of internal and external environmental factors on nursing problems. A. Knowledge translation as part of Magnet recognition B. The Johns Hopkins Model C. Collaborative model for knowledge translation D. The Community Based Research Translation Model ANS: D [Show Less]
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NSG 3029 Midterm Exam / NSG3029 Midterm Exam (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Score “A”|
NSG 3029 Midterm Exam / NSG3029 Midterm Exam (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| South University NSG3029... [Show More] Midterm Exam / South University NSG 3029 Midterm Exam (Latest - 2021): |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| NSG3029 Midterm Exam / NSG 3029 Midterm Exam (Latest): South University: Foundations of Nursing Research South University NSG3029 Midterm Exam (Latest): Foundations of Nursing Research The organization that was established to support clinical and basic nursing research for the care of individuals across the life span is the a. NIH b. ANA c. NINR d. CORP Which of the following statements is true about evidence-based practice? a. evidence-based practice is synonymous with clinical decision making b. evidence-based practice is supported only through findings from randomized clinical trials. c. evidence-based practice is synonymous with theory d. evidence-based practice is important to streamline nursing care The ability for a nurse to generalize findings fro a study to other people, places, and situations is called a. internal validity b. replication c. external validity d. power C The peer review process is an important component of conducting nursing research. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this process? a. It assures that the research has significant statistical power b. it assures that the research is unbiased c. it assures that the research is replicable d. it assures that the research has measurable outcomes B Magnet status is being pursued by hospitals across the US. Which of the following is an important criterion in achieving and maintaining magnet status? a. Staff nurses must understand the research process and use evidence as a basis for practice b. staff nurses must be actively involved in generating new nursing knowledge c. staff nurses must be included on interdisciplinary research teams studying clinical issues d. staff nurses must pass yearly competencies showing knowledge of the research process A Which of the following is NOT an essential component of developing an evidence-based practice guideline? a. performing an exhaustive review of the literature b. using clinical expert opinions c. evaluating patient preferences d. considering hospital policies D A nurse manager is conducting a quality improvement project on her unit. How is quality improvement different from the research process? a. Risks are greater for subjects in quality improvement projects b. quality improvement projects are expected to stand up to replication c. Quality improvemtn projects are beneficial to specific organizations D. these terms can be used interchangeably C The components of evidence-based practice include all of the following EXCEPT a. Best scientific evidence b. patient preferences c. time honored accepted nursing practices d. consensus from clinical experiences adopted by speciality groups C A systematic process of inquiry that uses rigorous guidelines to produce unbiased, trustworthy answers to question about nursing practice is a. nursing research b. journal club c. research-related activity d. clinical practice guideline A The individual who is primarily responsible for a research study is called the a. Nurse researcher b. data collector c. research assistant d. Principal investigator D Nursing research is a disciplined and systematic process. Which of the following is usually the first step in the researcher process? a. Determine an appropriate theoretic framework for the study b. identify a gap in knowledge related to nursing practice c. select a design that is appropriate for the study d. complete a systematic review of the literature B The philosophical assumptions and belief system that underlie a research study is referred to as an a. paradigm b. methodology c. discovery d. argument A Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the purpose of qualitative nursing research a. inferences are used to generalize findings to a defined population b. findings are used to gain understanding of patients' experiences c. findings are used to determine cause and effect of a phenomenon d. inferences are used to establish evidence-based guidelines B How are quantitative and qualitative research approaches different a. reality is viewed objectively in qualitative research and constructed by the individual in quantitative research b. Design is highly controlled in quantitative research and adaptable in qualitative research c. sampling is population-based in qualitative research and restricted to individuals in quantitative research d. Analysis in deductive in qualitative research and inductive in quantitative research B A nurse researcher designs a study to measure pain ratings of subjects using a relaxation exercise and also interview them about their experiences. What type of research is being conducted? a. quantitative research b. qualitative research c. mixed methods d. nested methods C Which of the following is most important to the researcher in selecting a research design? a. the type of subjects being studied b. the type of data being collected c. the nature of the research problem d. the expertise of the researchers C The research design that involves identifying the variables that represent characteristics of interest and then measuring them in a reliable and valid way is. a. Quantitative research b. Qualitative research c. Mixed methods d. Nested methods A Studies that are conducted by looking at a single phenomenon across multiple populations at a single point in time are called a. cross-sectional studies b. prospective studies c. longitudinal studies d. retrospective studies A Studies that are conducted using data that have already been collected about events that have already happened are classified as a. cross-sectional studies b. prospective studies c. longitudinal studies d. retrospective studies D Studies planned by the researcher for collection of primary data for specific research are classified as a. cross-sectional studies b. prospective studies c. longitudinal studies d. retrospective studies B Which two international codes were developed to guide researcher in carrying out ethical research a. The national research act and the belmont report b. the nuremberg code and the belmont report c. the national research act and the declaration of helsinki d. The nuremberg cole and the declaration of helsinki C Vulnerable populations in research include those groups a. with limited capacity to make decisions b. with a vested interest in the study outcomes c. with less than a high school education d. with limited knowledge of the research process A The Correct Option of Each Question is Mentioned below each Questions Researchers may not use underprivileged persons to benefit those who are privileged. This constitutes a major tenant of the principle of a. beneficence b. justice c. respect for persons d. equal opportunity B Deception or incomplete disclosure is allowed in research under all of the following conditions, except a. no other nondeceptive method exists b. the study will make a substantial contribution to the body of knowledge c. there is a plan to debrief the subjects regarding the deception d. Subjects are unable to give informed consent D A researcher fails to follow the research protocol which comprises subjects' safety. The researcher may be accused of A. Negligence b. breach of duty c. battery d. discrimination A A researcher enrolls only white males in a study because of the greater ease in recruiting this population. The researcher may be accused of a. negligence b. breach of duty c. battery d. discrimination D A full IRB review must be done on all of the following, EXCEPT a. the research findings will be published b. Federal funds are receieved to conduct the research c. human subjects are put at minimal risk or less d. protected health information is required C A research study poses a minimal risk to subjects in that the probablility and/or magnitude of discomfort anticipated in the research is not greater than what is ordinarily encountered in daily life. What type of review by the IRB will this study most probably receive? A. Exempt b. expedited c. full d. fortified B Which of the following is a type of research misconduct where data or results are made up? a. fabrication b. falsification c. plagiarism d. infringement A All of the following are considered identifiable personal health information EXCEPT a. medical record number b. lab test result c. birth date d. internet protocol address B Research that is reproduced to validate findings and increase generalizability is referred to as a a. randomized clinical trial b. replication study c. systematic review d. validations study B Research problem statements a. are declearations of disparity b. are declarations of intent c. declare what is being studied d. declare who is being studied A Research questions for qualitative studies are usually a. precise b. measurable c. vague d. indescribable B Sources for researchable nursing problems include all except a. clinical practice b. performance improvement c. methodologically complex problems d. professional literature review C The traditional method for finding and developing research questions relies on a sequential process from general interest to development of the research question. This process is. a. inductive b. deductive c. conceptual d. indescribable B Purpose statements need to have all the following characteristics except: A. Feasible B. Unbiased C. Vague D. Good fit C A type of research question that is posed to compare one or more interventions is said to be: A. Correlational B. Prospective C. Analytic D. Retrospective C The type of hypothesis that declares there is no difference between groups is called a(an): A. Null hypothesis B. Alternative hypothesis C. Directional hypothesis D. Non-directional hypothesis A Evidence-based research often states the research question in a PICO format. The C in PICO stands for: A. Concept B. Comparison C. Construct D. Content B The FINER model gives guidance in the appraisal of a research question. The E in the acronym stands for: A. Effect B. Error C. Ethical D. Evidence-based C Which of the following is an example of empirical literature? A. An article describing a grand theory in nursing B. An article describing a middle range theory in nursing C. Practice guidelines D. An article describing a concept analysis C Florence Nightingale's Notes on Nursing is an example of a(n): A. Seminal work B. Secondary source C. Empirical work D. Primary work A A summary of multiple research studies on one topic: A. Seminal work B. Secondary source C. Empirical work D. Primary source B Which of the following is a way to measure the quality of a research publication? A. Peer review B. Cohort review C. Literacy impact factor D. Citation analysis A Information literacy is important for nurses to acquire and includes all the following except: A. Critical thinking and analysis B. Computer literacy C. An advanced graduate degree D. Motivation for lifelong learning C When reading the literature review section of a research study, the reader needs to assess for all the following information except: A. A variety of sources of data B. Presence of bias in article selection C. Article dated within the past 15 years D. Inclusion of contradictory results from the literature C Evidence based information has been frequently depicted as a pyramid. The model widely cited and adapted for nursing research is the 6S Model. The layers of the pyramid include all the following except: A. Synopses of Syntheses Layer B. Systems Layer C. Practice Layer D. Studies Layer C The steps in a strong literature review include all the following except: A. Identify inclusion and exclusion criteria B. Retrieve abstracts C. Critically appraise the study quality and findings D. Identify the research problem and question B Key resource databases for nursing research include all the following except: A. Cochrane Library B. PubMed C. Search Engines D. CINAHL C Organizing citations using a bibliographic management application includes using any of the following: A. Zotero B. Refworks C. Endnote D. All of the above D Careful consideration of the ___________________________ serves as the basis for the research design. A. Type of theory used in the study B. Purpose to be achieved by the study C. Type of statistics to be used in the study D. Number of subjects needed in the study B All of the following strategies can increase internal validity of an experimental study except: A. Control variables extraneous to the study B. Randomly assign subjects to groups C. Increase the diversity of the sample D. Use consistent, accurate measures C Experimental studies measure cause and effect. The variable that is synonymous with the "cause" is referred to as the: A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Extraneous variable D. Descriptive variable B The variable that is synonymous with the outcome of interest is called the: A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Extraneous variable D. Descriptive variable A The variables that portrays the sample or some characteristic of the phenomenon under study is referred to as the: A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Extraneous variable D. Descriptive variable D Factors that exert an effect on the outcome but that are not part of the planned experiment and may confuse the interpretation of the results are referred to as: A. Extraneous variables B. Situational factors C. Dependent variables D. Confounding factors A Which of the following research designs is used to answer questions that seek to investigate causality? A. Survey design B. Correlational design C. Experimental design D. Cross-sectional design C All of the following research designs describe relationships between variables except: A. Correlational B. Grounded theory C. Phenomenology D. Tests of model fit C A common descriptive research design where data is collected from a sample over time to describe changes in characteristics or events is referred to as a: A. Case study B. Cross-sectional study C. Single subject design D. Longitudinal study D A research study design that examines causality where the treatment is introduced to a group but random assignment and/or a control group is missing is called a: A. Causal-comparative design B. Correlational design C. Quasi-experimental design D. Case control design C When subjects elect not to participate in a study and/or drop out of a study, this can lead to: A. Sampling error B. Sampling bias C. Selection bias D. Selection error C The potential participants who meet the definition of the population and are accessible to the researcher is referred to as the: A. Population B. Sample C. Subjects D. Sampling frame D The only way to be sure that a sample represents a population is if it incorporates the following two essential criteria: A. Random selection and independence B. Random selection and dependence C. Purposive selection and independence D. Purposive selection and dependence A Selection bias may occur under all the following conditions except: A. Sample is not representative of the population B. Numbers in the sample are adequate C. Researcher is able to influence selection or assignment of subjects D. Ease of recruitment skews subject characteristics B The measurement of the magnitude of the impact of an intervention is referred to as the: A. Power analysis B. Test of fit C. Effect size D. Factor analysis C What is the primary difference between ecological validity and population validity? A. In ecological validity research findings can be generalized to other settings, while in population validity findings can be generalized to other subjects B. In ecological validity research findings can be generalized to other subjects, while in population validity findings can be generalized to other settings C. In ecological validity research findings can be generalized to other disciplines, while in population validity findings can be generalized to other sciences D. In ecological validity research findings can be generalized to other sciences, while in population validity findings can be generalized to other disciplines A Sampling techniques used in quaNTITATIVE research include all except: A. Calculation of power B. Determination of effect size C. Achieving saturation D. Selection of a predetermined percentage of the population C The selection of a sample based on subjects who are accessible to the researcher is called: A. Simple random sampling B. Convenience sampling C. Cluster random sampling D. Snowball sampling B Methods to reduce subject attrition in research studies include all of the following except: A. Keeping data collection procedures simple B. Minimizing hassle and inconvenience C. Designing complex collection methods D. Using multiple reminder methods C The major entity or subject (do we want to clarify this is not a person?)that will be analyzed in the study is called the: A. Population B. Subject C. Sample D. Unit of analysis D A nurse researcher is conducting a retrospective study and using a chart review to collect data. What type of data will be collected? A. Primary data B. Secondary data C. Internal data D. External data B A nurse researcher is conducting a survey determining students' level of comfort with clinical skills. What type of data will be collected? A. Primary data C. Secondary data D. Internal data E. External data A A nurse researcher is measuring blood pressures of women who are diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. The sphygmomanometer has not been calibrated correctly, which results in inaccurate readings. What type of error is this? A. Sampling error B. Random error C. Systematic error D. Non-systematic error C A researcher is interested in determining whether an instrument has stability over time. What test should be conducted? A. Test of internal consistency B. Test-retest reliability C. Test of concurrent validity D. Test of content validity B A researcher is interested in determining whether the measurement of an instrument to be used in a research study makes sense. What assessment should be made? A. Test of internal consistency B. Test-retest reliability C. Test of concurrent validity D. Test of content validity D A non-reproducible error that arises from a variety of factors in measurement and does not affect the average scores but do affect the variation that exists around the average is called the: A. Measurement error B. Systematic error C. Random error D. Instrument error C The capability of an instrument to detect a disease if it is present is called: A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Discriminate validity D. Predictive validity B Examples of primary data collection methods include all of the following except: A. Questionnaires B. Observation C. Chart review D. Focus groups C Examples of secondary data collection methods include all of the following except: A. Patient satisfaction surveys B. Electronic medical record C. Government databases D. Patient physiologic measures D An advantage of using an existing instrument in research studies includes: A. Development of a test blueprint B. Ability to replicate a study C. Comparison of results to previous study D. Both B and C D …………………….. [Show Less]
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NSG 3029 Question Bank for Final Exam and Midterm Exam (200 Plus Q & A) (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Score “A”|
NSG 3029 Question Bank for Final Exam and Midterm Exam (200 Plus Q & A) (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE... [Show More] | South University NSG3029 Question Bank for Final Exam and Midterm Exam (200 Plus Q & A) (Latest - 2021): |100% Correct Q & A, Download to Secure HIGHSCORE| [Show Less]
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NSG 3029 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ / NSG3029 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ (Latest - 2021): South University |100% Correct Q & A|
NSG3029 WEEK 1 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 2 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 3 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 4 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 5 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 6 QUIZ, NSG3029 WEEK 7 QUIZ, NSG3029 ... [Show More] WEEK 8 QUIZ (KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ) (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG 3029 WEEK 1 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 2 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 3 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 4 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 5 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 6 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 7 QUIZ, NSG 3029 WEEK 8 QUIZ (KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ) (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG3029 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG 3029 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG3029 Week 1 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 1 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Which design is not used in a quantitative research study? Participant observation Design types Descriptive (e.g., case-study, naturalistic observation, survey) Correlational (e.g., case-control study, observational study) Semi-experimental (e.g., field experiment, quasi-experiment) Experimental (experiment with random assignment) Review (literature review, systematic review) meta-analytic sub-types descriptive-longitudinal case study research problem, hypotheses, independent and dependent variables, experimental design, Which design is not used in a qualitative study? Involves interview, observation, and/or archival (content) data. It is used to quantify attitudes, opinions, behaviors, and other defined variables – and generalize results from a larger sample population. Quantitative Research uses measurable data to formulate facts and uncover patterns in research. Quantitative data collection methods are much more structured than Qualitative data collection methods. Quantitative data collection methods include various forms of surveys – online surveys, paper surveys, mobile surveys and kiosk surveys, face-to-face interviews, telephone interviews, longitudinal studies, website interceptors, online polls, and systematic observations. Question 2 options: Anthropological Historical Ethnography Descriptive Question 3 Unsaved What classifications of research are used in time dimension? Question 3 options: Retrospective Prospective Cross-sectional All of the above Question 4 Unsaved What year was the Nuremberg Code developed? Question 4 options: 1932 1947 1950 1970 NSG3029 Week 2 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 2 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 A research hypothesis Question 1 options: Predicts the expected results or outcomes of the study Defines the theoretical framework for the study Identifies the sources of the problem under study Clarifies the concepts used in the study The statement “This study explores the experience of caregiving by adult daughters of parents with Alzheimer’s disease.” Question 2 options: Objective Question Simple hypothesis Complex hypothesis A research question focuses on Question 3 options: The characteristics of a variable Which variables are to be manipulated What relationships might exist among variables The framework for conducting the investigation Question 4 options: NSG3029 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 (1 point) A variable that is also referred to as a criterion variable Question 1 options: Independent variable Dependent variable Extraneous variable Question 2 (1 point) A variable that is also referred to as a predictor variable Question 2 options: Independent variable Dependent variable Extraneous variable Demographic variable Question 3 (1 point) Many nursing researchers use a nonprobability sampling type, which one is not a nonprobability sampling type Question 3 options: Convenience Snowball Network Systematic Question 4 (1 point) Which type of sample is referred to as a theoretical sampling Question 4 options: Simple random Stratified random Purposive Proportional Another examen: Select the key elements of informed consent: Question 1 options: educational background of the investigators benefits/risks of participation statement of voluntary participation/withdrawal non-diclosure statement What is the term used to describe the situation when participant identity is unknown? Question 2 options: Confidentiality Anonymity Privacy A and B What is the major responsibility of an institutional review board? Question 4 options: Reviewing that participants are willing subjects Reviewing that participants benefit from the study Reviewing research proposals to ensure Federal guidelines are followed Reviewing the research design NSG3029 Week 4 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 4 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University 5 out 5 correct The overall purpose of a theory is to: Question 1 options: Explain relationships that exist among variables as well as the nature of those relationships Make scientific findings meaningful and generalizable Stimulate the generation of hypotheses that can be empirically tested Summarize accumulated facts Save Next Page Page 1 of 5 Question 2 (1 point) The building blocks for theory are: Question 2 options: Propositions Relationships Hypotheses Concepts Save Next Page Question 3 (1 point) The major similarity between theories and conceptual models is that both: Question 3 options: Use concepts as their building blocks Use the deductive reasoning process almost exclusively Contain a set of logically interrelated propositions Provide a mechanism for developing new propositions from the original propositions Save Next Page Question 4 (1 point) The Health Promotion Model would best be described as a: Question 4 options: Descriptive theory Borrowed theory Grounded theory Middle-range theory Save Next Page Page 4 of 5 Question 5 (1 point) Which of the following 3 answers are central concepts in conceptual models of nursing? Question 5 options: Person Social Support Health Environment NSG3029 Week 5 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 5 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 (1 point) Which of the following is not a purpose of a research literature review for a consumer? Question 1 options: To identify nursing interventions that have potential for use in evidence-based practice To identify a suitable research design To acquire knowledge about a specific topic To facilitate the development of research-based protocols Save Next Page Question 2 (1 point) The electronic database most likely to be useful to nurse researchers is Question 2 options: CINAHL CancerLit Health MEDLINE Save Next Page Question 3 (1 point) The type of information in which the researcher is least interested when doing a literature review is: Question 3 options: How the variables of interest have been operationally defined in prior studies Narrations of a particular author's impression of a given situation Research results What research approaches have been used to study similar problems Question 4 (1 point) A primary source for a literature review may be defined as: Question 4 options: A description of an investigation written by the researcher who conducted the study A summarization of relevant research that has been conducted on the topic of interest WRONG A thesaurus that directs the reader to subject headings germane to the topic Any retrieval mechanism that helps to locate articles on the area of interest Question 5 (1 point) Studies that integrate results of earlier research through statistical methods are known as: Question 5 options: Meta-synthesis Mapping study Primary study Meta-analysis Save Next Page NSG3029 Week 6 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 6 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 (1 point) 5 out of 5 correct Sampling may be defined as the: Question 1 options: Identification of the set of elements used for selecting study participants Process of selecting a subset of the population to represent the entire population Aggregation of study participants who meet a designated set of criteria for inclusion in the study Technique used to ensure that every element in the population has an equal chance of being included in the study Save Next Page Page 1 of 5 Question 2 (1 point) Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to: Question 2 options: Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of interest Sample selection in nonprobability-type sampling The margin of error in the data obtained from samples Systematic over- or underrepresentation on the attribute of interest vis-a-vis the population Save Next Page Question 3 (1 point) Of the following types of sample, which one is considered to be the weakest for quantitative studies? Question 3 options: Convenience Quota Purposive Systematic Save Next Page Question 4 (1 point) The type of nonprobability design that is most likely to yield a representative sample is: Question 4 options: Convenience sampling Purposive sampling Quota sampling Network sampling Save Next Page Question 5 (1 point) Theoretical sampling is primarily concerned with adequate representation of: Question 5 options: Sampling units Themes The target population The accessible population Save Next Page NSG3029 Week 7 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 7 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 (1 point) Got 5 out of 5 correct Which of the following data collection approaches does not belong with the others? Question 1 options: Questionnaire Focused interview Life history Focus group interview Question 2 (1 point) A major purpose of a pretest of an instrument is to: Question 2 options: Detect inadequacies in an interview schedule or questionnaire Obtain some preliminary results on the research problem Assess the adequacy of the research design Evaluate whether an unstructured approach would be more suitable Save Next Page Question 3 (1 point) Questionnaires have the advantage of: Question 3 options: Offering the possibility of anonymity Having high response rates Eliminating response set biases Being suitable for all types of respondents Save Next Page Question 4 (1 point) On a five-point Likert scale, a person who neither agreed nor disagreed with the statement would be scored as: Question 4 options: 0 1 3 5 Save Next Page Question 5 (1 point) The technique that is least susceptible to response-set bias is: Question 5 options: Interviews Q-sorts Questionnaires Projective measures Save Next Page NSG3029 Week 8 Knowledge Check Quiz / NSG 3029 Week 8 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Foundation of Nursing Research: South University Question 1 (1 point) 5 out of 5 correct The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is called a: Question 1 options: . Sampling error . Standard error Variance Parameter Question 2 (1 point) A statistical procedure that is used to determine whether a significant difference exists between any number of group means on a dependent variable measured on an interval scale is the: Question 2 options: t-test ANOVA Pearson's Chi-squared test Save Next Page Question 3 (1 point) For which of the following levels of significance is the risk of making a Type II error greatest? Question 3 options: 10 .05 01 001 Question 4 (1 point) Which level of measurement permits the researcher to add, subtract, multiply, and divide? Question 4 options: Nominal . Ordinal Interval Ratio Question 5 (1 point) The measure of central tendency that is most stable is the: Question 5 options: Mode . Median WRONG Mean They are all equivalent [Show Less]
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