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NSG 6020 APEA CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS, NSG 6020 APEA GASTRO ABDOMEN, NSG 6020 APEA HEENT, NSG 6020 APEA RESPIRATORY (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY
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NSG 6020 APEA CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS / NSG6020 APEA CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (107 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”|
NSG 6020 APEA CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS / NSG6020 APEA CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (107 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD T... [Show More] O SCORE “A”| NSG6020 APEA Cardiovascular Disorders / NSG 6020 APEA Cardiovascular Disorders (Latest): South University South University NSG6020 APEA Cardiovascular Disorders (Latest) 1. In order to bring the ventricular apex closer to the chest wall when assessing the point of maximal impulse (PMI), ask the patient to: 2. The tonsillar, submandibular, and submental nodes drain the lymphatic fluid from portions of the: 3. When screening a patient for peripheral arterial disease (PAD), one risk factor would include a history of: 4. Heart sounds produced by turbulence due to a temporary increase in blood flow in predisposing conditions, such as hyperthyroidism, is considered: 5. A patient complains of a tight, bursting pain in the calf that increases with walking. Elevation of the leg sometimes relievesthe pain. These symptoms may be consistent with: 6. On assessment, which one of the following symptoms would be noted as a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia? 7. A patient describes chest pain as persistent, sharp, and knife-like. These symptoms are more characteristic of: pericarditis 8. The horizontal superficial inguinal lymph nodes are located in the anterior thigh below the inguinal ligament and drain lymphatic fluid from all of these areas except:testes 9. When assessing the heart rate of a healthy 13-month-old child, which one of the following sites is the most appropriate for this child? Apical pulse between the 3rd and 4th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line 10. To assess the murmur of aortic insufficiency, position the patient:sitting leaning forward 11. A child presents with fever of 102.5 F for the past five days.Kawasaki disease is suspected if which of the following groups of symptoms is present?Cervical lymphadenopathy, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, periungual desquamation, and polymorphous rash 12. The great saphenous vein enters the deep venous system by way of the:femoral vein 13. A patient describes chest pain as pressing, squeezing, and tight lasting between 1 and 3 minutes. These symptoms are morecharacteristic of:myocardial infarction 14. A bruit heard in the epigastric area with both systolic and diastolic components is suggestive of:renal artery stenosis 15. Tissue ischemia is usually observed when assessing a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD). What other symptom could be assessed?Intermittent claudication 16. A patient complains of some pain in the distal portions of her fingers on both hands.She states that it tends to occur more frequently with exposure to cold. These symptoms may be consistent with:Raynaud's disease 17. A patient presents with chest pain that radiates to the left side of the neck and down the left arm when he chops wood.This type of pain could be suggestive of:angina pectoris 18. The amplitude of the pulse in a patient in cardiogenic shock would most likely appear:thready 19. Characteristic symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency may include which one of the following?Petechiae leading to brown pigmentation noted over the feet 20. Children presenting with congenital heart defects that result in right to left shunting would most likely exhibit which of thefollowing symptoms?Cyanosis, decreased cardiac output, and desaturated systemic blood flow 21. The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person's risk for:peripheral artery disease 22. A disease that may present as indigestion, but is precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest is most likely:angina 23. In order to assess for varicosities in the lower extremities, position the patient:standing 24. The four classic structural defects of Tetralogy of Fallot include:a ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy 25. A 68-year-old man with uncontrolled hypertension presents with sudden, intense left lower abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain is associated with a tearing sensation. These findings are MOST likely associated with:an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) 26. Symptoms of orthostatic hypotension include all of the following except:respiratory rate greater than 30 27. When auscultating the heart, a scratchy, continuous murmur is audible during atrial systole and ventricular systole and diastole.This finding may be indicative of a:pericardial friction rub 28. In older adults, the presence of heart sound S4 suggests:hypertension 29. A patient with cirrhosis develops portal hypertension as indicated by the presence of:splenomegaly 30. The anterior cervical lymph node chain is located anterior and:superficial to the sternomastoid muscle 31. The axillary lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from all of the following areas except the:anterior chest wall 32. The lymphatic ducts drain into the:venous system 33. The patient has had an internal pacemaker in place for five years.Pacemaker failure is being considered because over the past few days, the patient has been experiencing episodes of:hiccoughs 34. Why would a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus receive a prostaglandin inhibitor (indomethacin)?To reduce fluid overload on the pulmonary circulation 35. In older adults, the presence of heart sound S3 suggests:heart failure 36. Enlarged or tender lymph nodes are most often associated with: infection in its nearby drainage area 37. Pain with walking or prolonged standing, radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, thighs, lower legs, or feet, may be seen with: neurogenic claudication 38. A heart rate of 100-180 beats per minute in an adult is considered: sinus tachycardia 39. When auscultating the point of maximal impulse (PMI), apex of the heart, in an adult, the stethoscope is placed at the:fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line 40. When auscultating the heart, the displacement of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is greater than 10 cm lateral to themidsternal line. This finding is consistent with:left ventricular hypertrophy 41. A finding suggestive of an inflamed lymph node would be one that is:tender and movable 42. The posterior auricular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:posterior part of the temporoparietal region 43. Which of the following group of symptoms would be suggestive of an infant experiencing a congenital heart defect associated witha decreased pulmonary blood flow pattern?Tissue perfusion greater than 3 seconds, bluish colored skin, and poor feeding 44. What heart sounds are heard during auscultation of a man with Marfan syndrome who has a known mitral valve prolapse?A mid-systolic click 45. Deep cervical lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:head and neck 46. A patient complains of increased pain in the calf muscles and buttocks especially after walking or riding his bicycle.He states that the pain stops after he sits still for about 2-3 minutes. This condition may be associated with:intermittent claudication 47. A male patient states that he has difficulty breathing when he is lying down but when he sits up, it improves. This is a classicdescription of:orthopnea 48. The external iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the following areas except the:gluteal region 49. A disparity between the brachial and femoral pulses in a 4-month-old could indicate:coarctation of the aorta (COA) 50. The sacral lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from all the following except the:gluteal region 51. When auscultating the apex of the heart in an 8-year-old, the bell of the stethoscope should be placed at the:fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line 52. To auscultate the heart sounds arising from the pulmonic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border 53. Enlargement of which lymph nodes would be suggestive of metastasis from a thoracic or abdominal malignancy?supraclavicular 54. In an adult patient, auscultate the sounds arising from the mitral valve by placing the stethoscope:near the apex of the heard between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line 55. Symptoms of acrocyanosis in the newborn include:bluish color of the feet 56. The anterior mediastinal lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:thymus, thyroid gland and the anterior part of the pericardium 57. When auscultating the heart for aortic insufficiency, ask the patient to:sit up, lean forward, and exhale 58. Presence of a heart murmur in a child would be considered organic if the child:was a 2-year-old with a congenital heart defect 59. A condition that usually presents with numbness or tingling in the distal portions of one or more fingers aggravated by cold oremotional stress may be associated with:Raynaud's disease 60. Right atrial pressure can be determined by:identifying the pulsations of the right jugular vein 61. While examining the heart, a pansystolic, blowing murmur is audible over the left sternal border with radiation to the right ofthe sternum. The intensity increased with inspiration. This finding is characteristic of:tricuspid regurgitation 62. While auscultating the patient's heart, a medium, soft murmur is audible.It is pansystolic and heard loudest at the apex with radiation to the left axilla. These findings are consistent with:mitral regurgitation 63. To assess aortic pulsations in patients with carotid obstruction, assess the pulse using the:brachial artery 64. A condition that presents with symptomatic limb ischemia upon exertion is termed:atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease 65. Men between the ages of 40 and 64 years should be screened yearly for:hypertension 66. The thoracic lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the:right upper thorax 67. A patient complains of pain in the arch of the foot sometimes relieved by rest. Occasionally, he experiences intermittent painin the toes, especially at rest. Exercise aggravates the pain in the arch.History reveals he smokes approximately a half pack of cigarettes per day.These symptoms may be consistent with:thromboangiitis obliterans 68. When auscultating the heart of a 50-year-old patient, a soft murmur is audible in the left second and third intercostal spacesand radiates to the left shoulder and neck. Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch to the murmur. This finding could be consistent with: pulmonic stenosis 69. A sudden, tearing, sharp pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with:an aortic dissection 70. When auscultating heart sounds arising from the aortic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right upper sternal border 71. A twelve-month-old has a history of heart failure related to his congenital heart defect.He is receiving Aldactone (Spironolactone), enalapril (Vasotec), furosemide (Lasix), and acetaminophen (Tylenol).The infant'spotassium level is 3.1 meq/l. Which medication is most likely decreasing his potassium level?Furosemide (Lasix) 72. To auscultate the tricuspid valve heart sounds in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left lower sternal border 73. The posterior auricular lymph node is located:superficial to the mastoid process 74. A 5-year-old child presents with complaints of fever and headache. Examination reveals a heart rate of 157 beats/minute,respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute, B/P 108/54, and a temperature of 102.6F.The increased heart rate is most likely related to: the child's febrile state 75. When auscultating the heart of a 55-year-old patient, a loud murmur with a thrill is audible in the right second intercostalspace that radiates to the carotid arteries.Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch audible at the apex.The murmur is heard best with the patient sitting and leaning forward.This finding is consistent with:aortic stenosis 76. When auscultating the heart; S1 sound, is located at the apex of the heart and signifies:closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves 77. Which lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from the stomach, duodenum, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?Hepatic lymph nodes 78. Pain or cramping of the legs that occurs during exertion and is relieved by rest is termed:intermittent claudication 79. A third heart sound (S3) is audible in a forty-five-year old. This S3 sound may be: a sign of valvular heart disease 80. When performing a cardiovascular assessment on a healthy 2-year-old child:auscultate the heart sounds in all four cardiac areas 81. Warning signs of peripheral artery disease may include all of the following except:persistent cough 82. A pediatric patient presents with erythema marginatum, chorea, and a heart murmur. These symptoms are consistent with:rheumatic heart disease 83. Causes of orthostatic hypotension in older adults may include all of the following except:impaired visual acuity 84. A three-week-old infant presents with a generalized lacy, reticulated blue discoloration of the skin. This is suggestive of:cutis marmorata 85. When assessing a 3-year-old African American child, the most likely cause of black, dusky mucous membranes is related to:cyanosis 86. The preauricular lymph node is located: in front of the ear 87. By placing the ball of the examiner's hand firmly on the chest, the examiner would be checking for: thrills 88. The hemodynamic changes resulting from structural defects in children can lead to heart failure. The most common reason for these changes is related to: volume and pressure overload resulting in decreased cardiac output 89. Assessment findings in a newborn at birth include: irregular respirations without crying, heart rate of 105 beats/minute, grimaces with reflex stimulation, kicking of both feet, and moving of both arms.The body and face are pink and hands and feet are cyanotic. What is the APGAR score? 7 90. A patient complaints of a sharp, knifelike pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck. This type of chest pain is suggestive of:pericarditis 91. An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true? This is a normal exam 92. The tonsillar lymph node is located: at the angle of the mandible 93. Widened pulse pressure (PP) is defined as systolic blood pressure (SBP):minus diastolic blood pressure 94. A widened pulse pressure greater than or equal to 60 in an older patient is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, stroke, and: renal disease 95. Which of the following symptoms would necessitate the need for further evaluation in the newborn?Dusky cyanotic when crying 96. The occipital lymph node is located: at the base of the skull posteriorly 97. The preauricular nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region 98. Absent or diminished pulses in the wrist could be indicative of:arterial occlusive disease 99. The posterior chest wall and portions of the arms are drained by which group of lymph nodes?subscapular nodes 100. A patient suspected of having chronic venous insufficiency, may present with: 101. The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the: 102. The infraorbital or maxillary, buccinator, and supramandibular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: 103. Characteristic symptoms of chronic arterial insufficiency may include which one of the following? 104. A patient states that the only way he can sleep at night is to use several pillows or to sleep upright in a recliner.This sleep pattern is most consistent with: 105. The internal iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: 106. The supraclavicular lymph nodes are located: 107. The superior and inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: [Show Less]
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NSG 6020 APEA GASTRO ABDOMEN / NSG6020 APEA GASTRO ABDOMEN (90 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”|
NSG 6020 APEA GASTRO ABDOMEN / NSG6020 APEA GASTRO ABDOMEN (90 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”| ... [Show More] NSG6020 APEA Gastro Abdomen / NSG 6020 APEA Gastro Abdomen (Latest): South University South University NSG6020 APEA Gastro Abdomen (Latest) QUESTION Stool that appears bloody, mucoid, or with pus, may indicate: When performing a rectal exam, the examiner should: Ecchymosis of the abdominal wall is usually seen in persons with: A patient complains of an unpleasant abdominal fullness after a light meal. This complaint may be consistent with: Pain of duodenal or pancreatic origin may be referred to the: Which one of the following symptoms is seen in infants with pyloric stenosis? Stools that appear black, tarry, and sticky are referred to as: Which of the following assessment findings is a result of the presence of a stone in the common bile duct? Examination of the abdomen reveals a protrusion through an operative scar. This finding may be suggestive of an: When percussing the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, a dull medium-pitched sound is heard. The area being percussed is probably the: When performing an examination of the rectal area, a linear tear at the anal opening was observed. This could be indicative of: When performing a rectal exam, a tender, swollen, bluish, ovoid mass is noted at the anal opening. This finding is most likely a(n): When assessing the liver, have the patient inhale while palpating: A patient complains of severe epigastric pain that radiates to the posterior trunk and entire abdomen. This type of pain can be suggestive of: An enlarged liver with a smooth tender edge may suggest: A patient was recently diagnosed with gluten intolerance and needs instructions on what foods to eat. The patient should be told that a gluten restricted diet includes: A 30 year old patient complains of frequent belching, pain in the area below the sternum mostly after eating, and increased salivation. These symptoms are often seen in patients who have: Which of the following symptoms are indicators of dehydration in a four-year-old child? When performing a digital rectal exam, a soft, pedunculated lesion is palpated. This finding is most likely: Pain of biliary tree origin may be referred to the: Signs and symptoms associated with diabetic gastroparesis may include all of the following except: Lower abdominal pain accompanied by fever or shock in older adults could be consistent with: When performing a rectal exam, a reddish, moist, protruding mass is noted at the anal opening. This finding is most likely a(n): Bowel sounds may be decreased in the presence of: During palpation of the abdomen, right lower quadrant pain is elicited by applying pressure to the left side of the abdomen. This technique elicited a positive: A 55-year-old patient visits the nurse practitioner for an annual exam. Stool sample revealed hematochezia. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic. This finding could be associated with: Indicators of oropharyngeal dysphagia include all of the following symptoms except: A positive obturator sign would elicit pain in the: A patient presents with complaints of burning sensation in the sternal area. He states it is aggravated by alcohol, chocolate, and coffee. This finding is: A patient visits the nurse practitioner for complaints of passing bloody stools over the past few weeks. He denies abdominal pain or fever. Further questioning reveals that when he passes stool, he notices blood dripping in the toilet. These symptoms could be consistent with: An enlarged liver with a firm, nontender edge may be suggestive of: When performing a rectal exam, a tender, purulent, reddened mass was noted at the anal opening. This finding is most consistent with a: Examination of the abdomen reveals a small midline protrusion in the linea alba. This finding is consistent with an: A 30-year-old male presents with generalized abdominal pain. With flexion of the legs at the hip an increase in his abdominal pain is noted. This finding elicited a positive: When performing a rectal exam, if the anal sphincter presents with laxity, consider: In the abdominal assessment of a 2-year-old, which one of the following would be considered abnormal? When there is a sudden obstruction caused by a gallstone in the common bile duct or the cystic duct, the pain is usually felt in the: When examining the abdomen, which of the following symptoms would be suggestive of appendicitis? Helminths can be transmitted by: A patient is experiencing a dull achy pain in the epigastric area with eating. This type pain is consistent with: A 40-year-old female presents with generalized abdominal pain and nausea. During the abdominal exam she exhibits inspiratory arrest with deep palpation of the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. This maneuver exhibits a positive: If a patient describes his stool as thin and "pencil-like", this could be associated with: Percussion of the abdomen should be avoided when: A 35-year-old male visits the nurse practitioner for complaints of a fullness in his lower abdomen. He states that he noticed it a few days ago when he was working out at the gym. At times it feels like a round lump in his groin. Examination reveals a protrusion under the skin near the right groin area. This finding could be suggestive of an: Spider angiomas, palmar erythema, and Terry's nails can be associated with: If abdominal pain persists when the patient raises his head and shoulders, the origin of the tenderness is probably: On examination of the abdomen, loud rumbling noises are audible without a stethoscope. These sounds are termed: To perform deep palpation of the abdomen: A term used to describe the raising esophageal or gastric contents to the esophagus or mouth without nausea or retching is: When inspecting the abdomen of a 60-year-old male, dilated veins were noted especially in the mid and upper abdomen. This condition is associated with: A feeling of constantly needing to pass stool is termed: A patient presents with chest pain and moves his hand from the neck to the epigastrium. This gesture could be suggestive of: Which one of the following symptoms associated with gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is considered an alarm symptom? When performing a rectal exam, a purulent bloody discharge mixed with fecal matter is oozing from the rectum. This finding is most consistent with a: Palpation of the liver reveals an enlargement that is firm with an irregular edge. This finding may be suggestive of: A patient was instructed to point to the location of his pain. He pointed to just below the sternoclavicular notch which likely indicates: The most appropriate position for the patient when performing a rectal exam and one that allows for optimal examination, is the: Abdominal percussion is performed to assess: Which one of the following procedures would confirm a the definitive medical diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease? Acholic stools are associated with: A general term for distress associated with eating is: A patient presents with complaints of black tarry stools for the last week. This symptom is seen in conditions related to the: When performing a rectal exam, a firm mass with an irregular border is palpated approximately two inches inside the rectum. This finding could be indicative of: A patient presents with complaints of bright red stools over the past week. This symptom could be consistent with: A patient presents with symptoms of bloody stools, new onset constipation, and weight loss. These symptoms could be associated with: Peritoneal inflammation produces abdominal pain and tenderness. What technique can be used to assess a tender abdomen suspected to be secondary to peritoneal inflammation? Symptoms of a child suspected of having a diagnosis of mixed failure to thrive (FTT) are usually seen in children: A 9-month-old who has been a healthy, thriving infant presents with a poor appetite, two episodes of vomiting, three bloody stools with mucus and knees drawn to the abdomen with screaming. These are clinical manifestations of: Stools that are pencil-like in shape are most likely: On auscultation of the abdomen, rushes of high-pitched sounds are audible and coincide with abdominal cramps. These findings are most consistent with: Bowel sounds may be increased in the presence of: Risk factors associated with Hepatitis A include all of the following except: When percussing a protuberant abdomen, tympany is audible. This is consistent with all of the following conditions except: A term used to describe induced vomiting without nausea is: Which one of the following symptoms is associated with biliary atresia in an infant? Risk factors associated with Hepatitis B include all of the following except: When examining the buttocks and rectum, a small tuft of hair surrounded by a halo of erythema was observed at the sacral area. This finding is most likely: A patient presents with right upper quadrant and upper abdominal pain. Acute cholecystitis is suspected because the pain radiates to the: Which of the following food choices is the most appropriate to offer a teenager with celiac disease? [Show Less]
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NSG 6020 APEA HEENT / NSG6020 APEA HEENT (165 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”|
NSG 6020 APEA HEENT / NSG6020 APEA HEENT (165 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”| NSG6020 APEA HEENT... [Show More] / NSG 6020 APEA HEENT (Latest): South University South University NSG6020 APEA HEENT (Latest) 1. Drooping of the upper eyelid is termed: 2. 8-year-old c/o itching in the right ear & increased in pain when the pinna is pulled, or the tragus is palpated. Exam reveals slight redness in the ear canal w/a clear odorless fluid. This could be suggestive of: 3. A localized staphylococcal infection of the hair follicles at the lid margin is suggestive of: 4. What connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx? 5. When a light beam shines into one pupil causing pupillary constriction in that eye, the term used is: 6. A Pt is able to recognize distant objects but has difficulty reading a book’s small print. This describes: 7. A Pt is able to read a magazine w/o difficulty but cannot distinguish distant objects. This describes: 8. A child presents w/a c/o left earache that worsens w/ head movement. Findings on exam include temp of 102F, cellulitis behind the left ear. These findings are consistent w/: 9. The gradual loss of vision w/a change in color and size of the optic disc is referred to as: 10. A nodular protuberance that points backward over the entrance to the ear canal is called the: 11. Which disorder of the eye can be detected w/the cover-uncover and the Hirschberg test? 12. The mouth of a ten-month-old infant has white patches on the mucosa that cannot be removed. These patches are consistent w/: 13. A condition of the sclera that appears as localized ocular inflammation of the episcleral vessels is most likely: 14. In order to exam the tongue, ask the Pt to stick out his tongue & w/the examiner’s right hand: 15. Person’s eye gaze included both eyes moving in the same direction simultaneously: 16. 35-year-old Pt c/o vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Exam reveals bilateral diplopia and an unsteady gait. These symptoms could be suggestive of: 17. An example of a cause of conductive hearing loss in children would be: 18. Ophthalmoscopic exam of the retina reveals a normal arteriovenous crossing.This appears as if the: 19. 50-year-old Pt presents w/ c/o seeing double bilaterally. Exam reveals a vertical diplopia. This maybe suggestive of a: 20. Ophthalmoscopic exam of the retina reveals AV tapering. This appears as if the: vein “wind” down on either side of the artery 21. A condition that involves optic nerve damage and visual field changes is termed: glaucoma 22. The most common cause of bacterial pharyngeal infection in children is: group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus 23. Janeway lesions of the palms and soles appear as: small, nontender, erythematous nodules 24. A softening of the skin at the angles of the mouth which maybe due to nutritional deficiency is commonly referred to as: angular cheilitis 25. The maxillary sinuses: surround the nasal cavity 26. Sudden bilateral and painful visual loss is rare but can be associated w/: radiation exposure 27. Eversion of the upper eyelid can be performed by placing the cotton applicator on the upper lid above the level of the internal tarsal plates and then: gently push down w/the stick and left the lashes up & flip the lid inside out 28. On Ophthalmoscopic exam of a 70-year-old, a thin grayish white arc is noted on the lower end of the cornea. This appearance is referred to as a: corneal arcus 29. 50-year-old Pt c/o being unable to read the hymnal at church. This describes: presbyopia 30. The ossicles are located in the: middle ear 31. On physical exam, an abnormal Rinne test might indicate: impaired hearing ability 32. With transillumination of the frontal sinuses, a dim red glow is observed on the forehead. This dim red glow would be indicative of: clear frontal sinuses 33. The nasolacrimal duct drains into the: inferior meatus 34. All of the following symptoms in a 10-month-old would be indicative of acute otitis media (OM) except: increased mobility of the TM 35. In the normal ear, all of the following landmarks ca be visualized when using the otoscope, except the: eustachian tube 36. When examining the conjunctiva and sclera, have the Pt look upward and then: depress both lower lids w/your thumbs, exposing the sclera and conjunctiva 37. In Pts who have allergic rhinitis, the nasal mucosa appears: pale 38. Fordyce spots or granules are considered: normal sebaceous glands of the buccal mucosa 39. In order to visualize the opening of Stensen’s duct, examine the: buccal mucosa opposite the second molar 40. 30-year-old Pt presents w/a moderated “aching” in his right eye. Findings reveal a small and irregular shaped right pupil. The cornea appears cloudy w/a slight erythematous area around the corneal limbus. There is no ocular discharge noted. These findings are consistent w/: acute iritis 41. Miosis is a term used to described: constriction of the pupils 42. Most of the paranasal sinuses drain into: middle meatus 43. A condition in which the eyes are not properly aligned w/each other is termed: strabismus 44. Current indications for tympanostomy tube placement include all of the following except which one? Persistent serous otitis media (SOM) that has not responded to a 3-6 weeks course of medical treatment 45. A man w/a history of long term use of chewing tobacco presents, w/a mouth lesion that is suspicious for malignancy. Oral assessment findings described: an ulcerated lesion w/ indurated margins on the lateral tongue 46. Children who pick their noses are at a higher risk for development of:epistaxis 47. A teenage c/o itching and burning of his eye. Examination reveals an erythematous eyelid margin w/ crusting and a clear mucus discharge. These findings are consistent w/: blepharitis 48. A Pt w/ diagnosed as being farsighted. The term for this condition is: hyperopia 49. Ptosis is defined as: drooping of the eyelid 50. Actinic cheilitis is a condition of the lower lip most commonly seen in: fair-skinned men who work outdoors 51. 30-year-old Pt present w/ c/o seeing double in the right eye. Exam reveals diplopia in the right eye when the left eye is closed. This maybe suggestive of: a problem in the cornea 52. On exam of the tympanic membrane, red bulging ear drum is detected. This is consistent w/: acute otitis media 53. The ethmoidal sinuses: are located between the eyes 54. 45-year-old Pt c/o vertigo, tinnitus, and pressure in the right ear. These symptoms are consistent w/: Meniere’s disease 55. When examining the eyes, both pupils appear small and have an irregular shape. They are noted to accommodate but do not appear to react to light. This could be indicative of: Argyll Robertson pupils 56. The lacrimal puncta are located: along the margin of the upper and lower eyelids 57. If there is an abnormal protrusion, what condition should be suspected if there is an abnormal protrusion of the eye? Graves’ disease 58. Mydriasis is a term used to describe: dilation of the pupils 59. A toddler w/a suspected hearing loss would: likely communicate through gestures 60. 6-year-old child presents w/ sore throat, difficulty swallowing and a temp 102F. Findings reveal lymphadenopathy and pharyngeal erythema. This is probably: pharyngitis 61. 60-year-old Pt presents with severe, deep left eye pain. Findings reveal dilated and fixed left pupil and the cornea is cloudy. There is no ocular discharge noted. These findings are most likely consistent w/: acute angle closure glaucoma 62. Where in the mouth would reddened areas, nodules, or ulcerations that are suspicious of malignary be present? Tongue 63. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals small, rounded, slightly irregular red spots embedded in the retina. These findings are consistent w/: deep retinal hemorrhages 64. On ophthalmoscopic exam of the older adult, there is an increased cup-to-disc ratio: This findings is suggestive of: open angle glaucoma 65. Leukoplakia was noted during an exam of the mouth. This symptom may be: precancerous 66. Ectropion is defined as: an outward turning of the lower eyelid 67. A fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes is termed: nystagmus 68. Findings following assessment of a person’s left eye gaze include impaired movements when attempting to look upward, downward, or inward. This condition is most consistent w/: left cranial nerve III (oculomotor) paralysis 69. A Pt c/o seeing specks that obscure his line of vision when he looks in a certain direction. This impairment could be caused by: scotomas 70. Surgical perforation of the tympanic membrane to allow drainage of middle ear secretions is termed: a myringotomy 71. A Pt presents w/ c/o earache, blood tinged d/c from the ear, and hearing loss. Findings reveal painful hemorrhagic vesicles on the tympanic membrane and the ear canal. These findings and symptoms are suggestive of: bullous myringitis 72. An inward turning of the lower lid margin is called: entropion 73. 6-year-old c/ that something is in her left eye. There is a red raised area of the left lid. There is redness and tenderness of the eye and tearing. These findings are consistent w/: a hordeolum 74. The Pt c/o seeing floating spots. This is consistent w: a detached retina 75. 45-year-old female c/o frequent attacks of dizziness accompanied by a sense of fullness in the right ear, headache, nausea, reduced hearing in the right ear. This Pt may need further workup for: Meniere’s disease 76. On ophthalmoscopic examination, optic atrophy appears: white 77. When inspecting the neck for the thyroid gland, slightly tilt the Pt’s head back, and using tangential lighting directed downward from the tip of the Pt’s chin, inspect the: region below the cricoid cartilage 78. Causes of sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except: perforated tympanic membrane 79. Ophthalmoscopic examination of a 30-year-old w/a history of an eye injury 3 years ago, reveals a superficial grayish-white opacity in the right cornea. This may be indicative of a: corneal scar 80. Gingival hyperplasia could be seen in all the following conditions except: in patients diagnosed with diabetes 81. Examination of the eye reveals a painful, erythematous, and tender area around the nose and lower eyelid. This condition is most likely: dacryocystitis 82. When examining pupillary equality, the left pupil is slightly greater than the right pupil. This condition is termed: anisocoria 83. The Rinne hearing test allows the examiner to screen for: conductive hearing loss 84. The usual position of the trachea is located: in the middle of the anterior neck behind the jugular notch of the manubrium 85. All of the following are examples of causes of sensorineural hearing loss in children except: the presence of cerumen impaction 86. One of the main differences between a migraine headache and tension headache is that: migraine headaches have a rapid onset whereas, tension headaches appear gradually 87. A deviated uvula w/o swelling may be suggestive of a: vagus nerve lesion 88. Examination of the nose and paranasal sinuses reveal local tenderness, pain, fever, and rhinorrhea. These symptoms are suggestive of: acute sinusitis of the frontal and maxillary sinuses 89. To visualize the ear canal and the tympanic membrane of an adult, use the otoscope w/: the largest ear speculum the canal will accommodate 90. Eyelid retraction with exophthalmos presents as: a retracted eyelid w/a wide-eyed stare 91. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the retina reveals AV banking. This appears as if the: vein is twisted on the distal side of the artery 92. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals blood anterior to the retina and obscuring retinal vessels. These findings are consistent w/: preretinal hemorrhages 93. On the outer ear, anterior and parallel to the helix, is a curved prominence known as the: Antihelix 94. On examination of the pupils, both are round but the right pupil appears larger than the left and reacts much slower to light. This condition may be indicative of: a tonic pupil 95. 4-year-old child presents w/ bilateral watery d/c from the eyes. Examination reveals subconjunctival hemorrhage, and eyelid ecchymosis. These findings are consistent w/: adenoviral conjunctivitis 96. Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis in an infant include: eyelid edema and purulent discharge from the eyes. 97. The middle ear consists of: the malleus, incus, and the stapes 98. The majority of people who present w/ non-24 hour -sleep-wake disorder are: totally blind 99. The function of the labyrinth in the inner ear is to: maintain equilibrium 100. Assessment of a Pt’s visual acuity resulted in 20/200 using the Snellen eye chart. This means that: at 20 feet the patient can read printed information that a person with normal vision could read at 200 feet 101. Otosclerosis is an example of a(n): conductive hearing loss 102. When examining the eyes, the right pupil reacts briskly to light, near effort, and is much smaller than the left pupil. This condition is mostly likely: Horner’s syndrome 103. A reduction in vision in one or both eyes causing loss of binocular vision is termed: amblyopia 104. Examples of sudden, painful, unilateral visual loss include all the following except: retinal detachment 105. One of the refractive errors of vision that presents w/ symptoms of blurriness and improved w/ corrective lens, is known as: astigmatism 106. A Pt presents w/ c/o burning, itching, tearing, and some pain in the eye. Findings reveal red, scaly, greasy flakes and thickened, crusted lid margin. This would be suggestive of: blepharitis 107. All of the following diseases may be associated with the appearance of a strawberry tongue except: rubeola 108. A granulomatous eyelid cyst or nodule that is painless and erythematous is termed: Chalazion 109. The most common disorder of visual acuity in children is:myopia 110. Round and oval shaped lesions surrounded by erythematous mucosa and noted on an area of the oral mucosa may be: aphthous ulcers 111. A deposit of uric acid crystals appearing as hard nodules on the helix or antihelix is termed:a tophi 112. When assessing extraocular movements:include the cardinal directions of gaze 113. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals dark specks noted between the fundus and the lens. These specks are most likely:vitreous floaters 114. Assessment of a 4-year-olds visual acuity resulted in 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This means: his vision is normal for his age 115. On ophthalmoscopic examination, glaucomatous cupping appears:pale 116. If a patient complains of seeing flashing lights across the field of vision, this could be:detachment of the vitreous from the retina 117. Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals tiny, round, red spots in and around the macular area. These findings are consistent with: microaneurysms 118. 60-year-old c/o a progressive bilateral hearing loss over the past four months. He has difficulty understanding spoken words and has become sensitive to loud noises. These symptoms are consistent with:presbycusis 119. 40-year-old Pt presents w/ c/o seeing double bilaterally. Examination reveals a horizontal diplopia. This may be suggestive of a: palsy of cranial nerve III or VI 120. With transillumination of the maxillary sinuses, a reddish glow is observed on the hard palate. This red glow would be indicative of: clear maxillary sinuses 121. A deviated trachea could be caused by all of the following except:pneumonia 122. A Pt presents w/ c/o a bump on the eyelid. Findings reveal nontender, firm nodule w/ freely movable skin overlying the nodule. This could be consistent w/: chalazion 123. Upon examination of the right tympanic membrane, a cone of light was visible at the four o'clock mark.This would be interpreted as: a normal eardrum 124. The function of the auditory ossicles is to:transform sound vibrations into mechanical waves for the inner ear 125. A Pt c/o a sore tongue. Findings reveal a smooth and erythematous tongue. This condition is termed:glossitis 126. A patient was diagnosed as nearsighted. The term for this condition is:myopia 127. When the corneal reflex is stimulated by shining the light in the right eye, the right eye blinks. The left eye:blinks 128. During the newborn's physical assessment of the mouth, the soft and hard palates are palpated to detect:an opening in the palates 129. The acronym for pupils that are equal, round, react to light and accommodate is:PERRLA 130. If a patient has a history of heat intolerance with a preference to light clothing, this behavior could be consistent with:hyperthyroidism 131. When administering ear drops to a 6-year-old, the pinna should be pulled:upward and back 132. A person who has been blind since birth presents for a physical exam. Expected findings of the pupillary reaction when light isshown would be: it depends 133. A buildup of excess fluid around the periphery of the eye orbits is known as:periorbital edema 134. What visual acuity constitutes legal blindness?Visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye with corrected lens 135. Sudden bilateral and painless visual loss is rare but can be associated with all the following except:chemical exposure 136. The Rinne test uses a tuning fork to test hearing. The frequency range closest to that of conversational speech would be one with a frequency of: 512Hz 137. Which of the following screening tests for hearing loss can detect both sensorineural and conductive hearing loss? Weber Test 138. Raised or flat, deep purple colored lesions noted in the mouth may be suggestive of:Kaposi's sarcoma 139. When comparing veins and arteries in the eyes of older adults, the arteries appear:less brilliant 140. The gradual loss of vision with a change in color and size of the optic disc is referred to as:glaucoma 141. The curved outer ridge of the auricle of the ear is known as the:Helix 142. A swollen deviated uvula may be associated with a:peritonsillar abscess 143. Which of the following findings in a preschooler would indicate the need for further evaluation?Responds to facial expressions and gestures rather than to verbal explanations 144. Redness, bleeding, pain, and swelling of the gums is most likely: gingivitis 145. On otoscopic examination, the cone of light can be visualized:at the 7 o'clock to 8 o'clock position of left tympanic membrane 146. When examining the pupils, the left pupil is noted to be fixed and dilated to light and near accommodation. This condition may be suggestive:oculomotor nerve (CN III) paralysis 147. When a person shifts gaze from a near object to a far object, the pupils:dilate 148. A term used to describe drainage from the nose is:rhinorrhea 149. An infant with a suspected hearing loss: does not babble 150. The fleshly projection of the earlobe is known as the: lobule 151. Sudden visual loss suggests: retinal detachment 152. The conductive and sensorineural phases are necessary for hearing to take place. The conductive phase of hearing involves the:external auditory canal and the middle ear 153. 40-year-old male was umpiring a little league baseball game when he was hit in the face with flying debris.He presents with decreased vision and severe pain in the left eye.Findings reveal watery, left ocular discharge.The pupils are normal in appearance and the cornea is slightly cloudy with areas of corneal erythema. These findings are most consistent with: corneal injury 154. The sphenoidal sinuses:are located behind the ethmoidal sinuses 155. Examination of the nasolacrimal duct reveals a mucopurulent discharge from the puncta. This finding is suggestive of:an obstructed nasolacrimal duct 156. The Weber test uses a tuning fork to test hearing. The frequency range closest to that of conversational speech would be one with a frequency of: 512 Hz 157. That portion of the ear that consists of the auricle and ear canal is the:external ear 158. The whispered voice test allows the examiner to screen for:general hearing loss 159. A Pt presents w/ findings of pain, warmth, redness, and swelling below the inner canthus toward nose.Tearing is present and when pressure is applied to the lacrimal sac, purulent discharge from the puncta is noted. This is suggestive of:dacryocystitis 160. A cyclist sustained an avulsion of the upper central incisor. If he is unable to position the tooth in the socket until he is able to be seen by a dentist, he should: 161. 60-year-old was concerned about a yellowish colored lesion above her right eyelid. Findings revealed a slightlyraised yellowish, well circumscribed plaque along the nasal area of her right eyelid. This finding is most consistent with: 162. 57-year-old man with a history of diabetes complains of difficulty hearing on the telephone and muffled sounds while watchingthe television at a low volume. He should be further evaluated for: 163. Which of the paranasal sinuses are accessible to clinical examination? 164. Findings following assessment of a person's gaze include the inability of the left eye to look down when turned inward.This condition is most consistent with: 165. One cause of nasal septum perforation may be: [Show Less]
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NSG 6020 APEA RESPIRATORY / NSG6020 APEA RESPIRATORY (52 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”|
NSG 6020 APEA RESPIRATORY / NSG6020 APEA RESPIRATORY (52 Q & A) (LATEST, 2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% CORRECT Q & A, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE “A”| NSG6020... [Show More] APEA Respiratory / NSG 6020 APEA Respiratory (Latest): South University South University NSG6020 APEA Respiratory (Latest) 1. The anterior surface landmark on the thorax that is denoted by a hollow U-shaped depression just above the sternum and betweenthe clavicles is termed the: 2. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, purse-lipped breathing, and dyspnea with talking, suggest: 3. The line that extends through the inferior angle of the scapula when the arms are at the sides of the body is the: 4. The lower tip of the scapula is located: 5. Stridor heard louder in the neck than over the chest wall indicates: 6. A 37-year-old female has audible stridor. This type of stridor is consistent with: 7. To locate the twelfth rib, palpate: 8. A 3-year-old presents with a history of fever and cough over the past 24 hours.Findings on exam reveal: temperature of 102F, apical heart rate of 157 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 40breaths/minute. Tachypnea in this child is most likely related to: 9. When palpating the thorax, a crackling, popping noise under the skin is heard.On auscultation, a sound similar to hair being rubbed between the fingers is noted.These symptoms could be consistent with: 10. One of the anterior thoracic landmarks is the costal angle. It is located:where the right and left costal margins form an angle where they meet at the xiphoid process 11. A patient who walked into the examination room, may be observed to be sitting and leaning forward in his chair. Lips were pursedduring exhalation and arms are supported on the table. This position could be consistent with patients who have:chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 12. Atypical respiratory symptoms associated with gastroesophageal disease (GERD) may include all of the following except:rhinitis 13. Diminished breath sounds should be interpreted as:an abnormal finding warranting further evaluation 14. A 65-year-old obese man with a past medical history of hypertension complains of increased fatigue during the day. Thepractitioner orders a polysomnogram to test for:obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) 15. An acute viral illness that presents with a burning retrosternal discomfort and a dry cough is suggestive of:tracheobronchitis 16. Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder and normallyheard over the trachea and larynx are considered:bronchial 17. On auscultation of the chest, if the patient says "ninety-nine" and it is clearly heard, this is indicative of:lung density in the area 18. The palpation technique used to assess respiratory expansion of the chest is placing the hands on the eight or tenth ribsposteriorly with the thumbs close to the vertebrae, sliding the hand medially and grasping a small fold of skin between the thumbs. Then: ask the patient to take a deep breathe and note any delay in expansion during inhalation 19. When trying to differentiate between hemoptysis or blood streaked material, which one of the following observations is correct?Hemoptysis is common in children with cystic fibrosis 20. Breath sounds heard over the periphery of the lung fields are:vesicular 21. A condition associated with a chronic cough that produces copious amounts of purulent sputum is most likely:bronchiectasis 22. Which technique best determines whether the tissues in the chest are air-filled, fluid-filled, or solid?Percussion 23. When percussing the chest in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the sound emanated would be:resonant 24. To document chest findings located below the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used?Infrascapular 25. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the:mediastinum 26. Respiratory effort in the neonate is initiated at birth as a result of:chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors 27. The midaxillary line:runs down from the apex of the axilla and lies between and parallel to the anterior and posterior lines 28. To document chest findings located between the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used?Interscapular 29. When percussing the lower posterior chest, begin by:standing on the side rather than directly behind the patient 30. When examining a patient for chest expansion, begin by:placing the thumbs of the examiner at about the level of the tenth ribs with the fingers loosely grasping and parallel to the lateral rib cage 31. When percussing the posterior chest, which one of the following techniques would be omitted?Percuss the areas over the scapulae 32. When inspecting the chest for respiratory effort, which one of the following is not part of the inspection?Assessment for tactile fremitus 33. The line that bisects the center of each clavicle at a point halfway between the palpated sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints is the: midclavicular line 34. The angle of Louis is a useful place to start counting ribs. This landmark is located:on the manubrium and body of the sternum 35. The hilar region of the lungs describes:the area around the heart 36. A patient presents with a productive cough. Which one of the following descriptions of the mucus is correct?Tenacious sputum is consistent with patients who have cystic fibrosis 37. When performing a respiratory assessment on a 4-year-old child, further evaluation is warranted in the presence of:supraclavicular retractions 38. Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory phase and a shortened and softer expiratory phase normally audible over the hilarregion of the chest are termed:bronchovesicular 39. Breath sounds auscultated over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and wispy during the inspiratory phase followed by ashort, almost silent expiratory phase. These breath sounds are considered:vesicular 40. When auscultating breath sounds, use the diaphragm of the stethoscope by placing it initially on the:posterior chest at the cervical 7 level 41. Orthopnea is typically associated with all of the following conditions except:pulmonary embolus 42. To document chest findings located at the lowermost portion of the lungs, which one of the following terms would be used?Bases of the lungs 43. Pain from pleurisy may be referred to the:epigastric area 44. Which one of the following infants should be seen immediately by the nurse practitioner?A two-week-old infant with nasal congestion and a respiratory rate of 64 breaths/minute 45. A patient who presents with a long history of cigarette smoking exhibits a dry to productive cough with dyspnea and weight loss.These symptoms could be consistent with:a neoplasm of the lung 46. When percussing the right upper posterior area of the chest,a dullness replaces the resonance sound usually heard in the lung.This sound would be suggestive of:lobar pneumonia 47. Retractions are observed in all the following areas except the:hilar area 48. When auscultating breath sounds in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the breath sounds are:vesicular with late inspiratory crackles in the dependent portions of the lungs and resonant on percussion 49. Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, are:popping, frying sounds, may be low or high-pitched and usually heard on inspiration 50. Breath sounds heard on chest over the hilar region are:bronchovesicular 51. Factors that aggravate costochondritis may include: 52. The anterior surface landmark on the thorax that is denoted by a hollow U-shaped depression just above the sternum and betweenthe clavicles is termed the: [Show Less]
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