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NR509 APEA Test HEENT, 3P, Ortho, Womens health, Final Test Random, Respiratory, Urology, Cardio, Neurology, Pregnancy (Latest-2021): Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
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NR 509 APEA Test 3P (3 P -physical, pathophysiology, and pharmacology)/ NR509 APEA Test 3P: Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR 509 APEA Test 3P (3 P -physical, pathophysiology, and pharmacology)/ NR509 APEA Test 3P: Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |1... [Show More] 00% Correct Q & A| NR509 APEA Test 3P (3 P -physical, pathophysiology, and pharmacology): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 509 Week 8 APEA 3P Exam/ NR509 Week 8 APEA 3P Exam: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1 A 3 year-old presents with a history of fever and cough over the past 24 hours. Findings on exam reveal: temperature of 102°F, apical heart rate of 157 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute. Tachypnea in this child is most likely related to Paradoxical respirations. the child's febrile state. the child's age. an airway obstruction. Question 2 When percussing the lower posterior chest, begin by: standing on the side rather than directly behind the patient. having the patient lie supine on the examining table. carefully palpating any area the patient has reported pain. using the ball or the ulnar surface of the hand. Question 3 The palpation technique used to assess respiratory expansion of the chest is placing the hands on the eight or tenth ribs posteriorly with the thumbs close to the vertebrae, sliding the hand medially and grasping a small fold of skin between the thumbs. Then: ask the patient to cough and note chest expansion. ask the patient to take a deep breathe and note any delay in expansion during inhalation. have the patient hold his breath for 15 seconds then note chest expansion. have the patient exhale forcefully noting expansion on expiration. Question 4 When trying to differentiate between hemoptysis or blood streaked material, which one of the following observations is correct? Hemoptysis is seen frequently in infants, children, and adolescents with allergic rhinitis. Blood originating in the stomach is usually brighter than blood originating from the respiratory tract. Hemoptysis is common in children with cystic fibrosis. Blood streaked material often originates from the gastrointestinal tract. Question 5 When percussing the chest in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the sound emanated would be: resonant. dulltympany. Diffusely hyperresonant. Question 6 The line that extends through the inferior angle of the scapula when the arms are at the sides of the body is the: mid vertebral line. scapular line. midclavicular line. mid-spinal line. Question 7 A condition associated with a chronic cough that produces copious amounts of purulent sputum is most likely: tracheobronchitis. chronic bronchitis. bronchiectasis. laryngitis. Question 8 A patient who walked into the examination room, may be observed to be sitting and leaning forward in his chair. Lips were pursed during exhalation and arms are supported on the table. This position could be consistent with patients who have: pneumonia. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. asthma. croup. Question 9 Breath sounds heard over the periphery of the lung fields are: bronchial. abnormal. bronchovesicular. vesicular. Question 10 When percussing the posterior chest, which one of the following techniques would be omitted? When comparing two areas on the chest, use the same percussion technique in both areas. Percuss one side of the chest then the other at each level. Percuss the areas over the scapulae. If a louder note is needed, apply more pressure with the pleximeter finger. Question 11 When auscultating breath sounds in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the breath sounds are: vesicular with late inspiratory crackles in the dependent portions of the lungs and resonant on percussion. bronchial with late inspiratory crackles over the involved area and dull on percussion. vesicular without adventitious sounds and resonant on percussion. decreased with some audible wheezes and diffusely hyperresonant on percussion. Question 12 Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory phase and a shortened and softer expiratory phase normally audible over the hilar region of the chest are termed: vesicular. bronchial. bronchovesicular. rhonchi. Question 13 An acute viral illness that presents with a burning retrosternal discomfort and a dry cough is suggestive of: tracheobronchitis. chronicbronchitis. bronchiectasis. laryngitis Question 14 One of the anterior thoracic landmarks is the costal angle. It is located: where the manubrium and body of the sternum intersect. where the right and left costal margins form an angle where they meet at the xiphoid process. where the suprasternal notch and the sternum form an angle. Incorrectat the angle where the ninth and tenth ribs are fused. Question 15 Atypical respiratory symptoms associated with gastroesophageal disease (GERD) may include all of the following except: coughing. wheezing. aspirationpneumonia. rhinitis. Question 16 On auscultation of the chest, if the patient says "ninety-nine" and it is clearly heard, this is indicative of: a normal sounding chest. lung density in the area. consolidation or compression in the area. of inflammation in the area. Question 17 Respiratory effort in the neonate is initiated at birth as a result of: an increase in the PO2 and a decrease in PCO2. the continued functioning of the foramen ovale. chemical, thermal, and mechanical factors. drying off the infant. Question 18 Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, are: low-pitched, dry, grating sounds heard on inspiration and expiration.continuous, high-pitched, and musical heard on inspiration and expiration. continuous, low-pitched and prolonged and heard on expiration. popping, frying sounds, may be low or high-pitched and usually heard on inspiration. Question 19 Breath sounds heard on chest over the hilar region are: bronchial. abnormal. bronchovesicular. vesicular. Question 20 Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder and normally heard over the trachea and larynx are considered: bronchial. abnormal. bronchovesicular. vesicular. Question 21 Pain from pleurisy may be referred to the: rightshoulder. retrosternal area. epigastric area. back. Question 22 When performing a respiratory assessment on a 4-year-old child, further evaluation is warranted in the presence of: the use of the abdominal muscles. eupneicrespirations. supraclavicular retractions. vesicular sounds in the chest periphery. Question 23 Which technique best determines whether the tissues in the chest are air-filled, fluid-filled, or solid? Auscultation Palpation Inspection Percussion Question 24 Breath sounds auscultated over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and wispy during the inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. These breath sounds are considered: vesicular. bronchovesicular. bronchial. crackles. Question 25 A patient who presents with a long history of cigarette smoking exhibits a dry to productive cough with dyspnea and weight loss. These symptoms could be consistent with: a pulmonary embolus. asthma. a neoplasm of the lung. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Question 26 The hilar region of the lungs describes: the area around the heart. the base of the lungs. the posterior chest. the upper, anterior area of the chest. Incorrect Question 27 The anterior surface landmark on the thorax that is denoted by a hollow U-shaped depression just above the sternum and between the clavicles is termed the: sternum. suprasternal notch. substernalnodule. spinous process. Question 28 Factors that aggravate costochondritis may include: hypertension. emotionalstress. swallowing cold foods. movement of the chest, trunk, and arms. Question 30 To locate the twelfth rib, palpate: anteriorly at the costal margin. between the spine and the lateral chest. at the tip of the scapula. below the eleventh spinous process. Question 31 To document chest findings located between the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used? Infraclavicular Supraclavicular Interscapular Infrascapular Question 32 The midaxillary line: extends from the anterior axillary fold where the pectoralis major muscle inserts. continues from the posterior axillary fold where the latissimus dorsi muscle inserts. runs down from the apex of the axilla and lies between and parallel to the anterior and posterior lines. extends through the inferior angle of the scapula when the arms are at the sides of the body. Question 33 Retractions are observed in all the following areas except the: supraventriculararea. hilar area. intercostal area. Incorrectcostal marginal area. Question 34 When examining a patient for chest expansion, begin by: hyperextending the examiner's middle finger of the left hand (pleximeter finger) and pressing its distal interphalangeal joint firmly on the surface to be examined. placing the thumbs of the examiner at about the level of the tenth ribs with the fingers loosely grasping and parallel to the lateral rib cage. positioning the examiner's right forearm close to the chest surface with the hand cocked upward. standing on the side rather than directly behind the patient. Question 35 The lower tip of the scapula is located: near the fourth rib. around the seventh or eighth rib. midway between the ninth and tenth rib. at the angle just above the twelfth rib. Question 36 A patient presents with a productive cough. Which one of the following descriptions of the mucus is correct? Mucoid sputum is green, white, or pale yellow. Tenacious sputum is consistent with patients who have cystic fibrosis. Foul-smelling sputum is present in bronchitis. Large volumes of purulent sputum are present in patients who have asthma. Question 37 Diminished breath sounds should be interpreted as: suggestive of chronic pulmonary disease. suggestive of severe respiratory failure. an abnormal finding warranting further evaluation. a normal finding. Question 38 When inspecting the chest for respiratory effort, which one of the following is not part of the inspection? Overall patient appearance Contour and movement of the chest Color of the skin, nail beds, and lips Assessment for tactile fremitus. Question 39 The angle of Louis is a useful place to start counting ribs. This landmark is located: on the manubrium and body of the sternum. near the xiphoid process.just above the sternum. between the two scapulae. Question 40 When auscultating breath sounds, use the diaphragm of the stethoscope by placing it initially on the: anterior chest at the nipple line. lateral surface of the chest near the axilla. posterior chest at the cervical 7 level. anterior chest in the upper sternal area. Question 41 The line that bisects the center of each clavicle at a point halfway between the palpated sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints is the: midsternal line. midclavicular line. mid vertebral line. mid scapular line. Question 42 When palpating the thorax, a crackling, popping noise under the skin is heard. On auscultation, a sound similar to hair being rubbed between the fingers is noted. These symptoms could be consistent with: pneumonia. hemothorax. pneumothorax. bronchitis. Question 43 To document chest findings located below the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used? Infraclavicular Supraclavicular Interscapular Infrascapular Question 44 A 37-year-old female has audible stridor. This type of stridor is consistent with: bronchiectasis. pulmonary fibrosis. cysticfibrosis. a foreign object lodged in the upper trachea. Question 45 When percussing the right upper posterior area of the chest, a dullness replaces the resonance sound usually heard in the lung. This sound would be suggestive of: lobar pneumonia. emphysema. asthma. pneumothorax. Incorrect Question 46 Orthopnea is typically associated with all of the following conditions except: left ventricular hypertrophy. pulmonary embolus. mitralstenosis. obstructive lung disease. Question 47 Stridor heard louder in the neck than over the chest wall indicates: an obstruction in the alveoli. an obstruction in the main bronchus. a partial obstruction in the larynx. an obstruction in the bronchioles. Question 48 Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, purse-lipped breathing, and dyspnea with talking, suggest: pneumonia. Lung cancer. bronchitis. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Question 49 The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the: mediastinum. pleuralcavity. visceralcavity. pericardium. Question 50 To document chest findings located at the lowermost portion of the lungs, which one of the following terms would be used? Lower lung fields. Visceralpleura Parietalpleura Bases of the lungs Question 51 Which one of the following infants should be seen immediately by the nurse practitioner? A two- week- old infant with nasal congestion and a respiratory rate of 64 breaths/minute A one- week-old infant with a diaper rash and a respiratory rate of 44 breaths/minute A one –month- old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.0 degrees Fahrenheit A three- week- old breastfed infant who has had two loose stools today [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test HEENT / NR 509 APEA Exam HEENT (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test HEENT / NR 509 APEA Exam HEENT (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR 5... [Show More] 09 APEA Test (HEENT) / NR509 APEA Exam (HEENT) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test HEENT / NR 509 APEA Exam HEENT (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: The function of the auditory ossicles is to: transmit the light reflex to the light cone. transform sound vibrations into mechanical waves for the inner ear. to capture sound waves from the external ear for transmission into the middle ear. to separate the inner ear from the middle ear. Question: A 35-year-old patient complains of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Examination reveals bilateral diplopia and an unsteady gait. These symptoms could be suggestive of: Anarrhythmia .a neurological condition .an inner ear infection. orthostatic hypotension. Question: A 60-year-old was concerned about a yellowish colored lesion above her right eyelid. Findings revealed a slightly raised yellowish, well circumscribed plaque along the nasal area of her right eyelid. This finding is most consistent with: apinguecula. achalazion. episcleritis. xanthelasma. Question: Assessment of a patient's visual acuity resulted in 20/200 using the Snellen eye chart. This means that: at 200 feet the patient can read printed information that a person with normal vision could read at 20 feet. at 20 feet the patient can read printed information that a person with normal vision could read at 200 feet. the patient has normal visual acuity. the patient may not be able to read so he should be tested with the picture or "E" eye charts. Question: Findings following assessment of a person's left eye gaze include impaired movements when attempting to look upward, downward, or inward. This condition is most consistent with: a conjugate gaze. left cranial nerve III (oculomotor) paralysis cranial nerve IV (trochlear) paralysis. cranial nerve VI (abducens) paralysis. Question: Findings following assessment of a person's eye gaze include both eyes moving in the same direction simultaneously. This condition is most consistent with: a conjugate gaze. left cranial nerve III (oculomotor) paralysis cranial nerve IV (trochlear) paralysis. cranial nerve VI (abducens) paralysis. Question: A patient was diagnosed as being farsighted. The term for this condition is: hyperopia. myopia. strabismus. astigmatism. Question: A buildup of excess fluid around the periphery of the eye orbits is known as: episcleritis. pinguecula. ptosis. periorbital edema. Question: In order to visualize the opening of Stensen's duct, examine the: dorsal surface of the tongue. area beneath the mandible at the angle of the jaw. buccal mucosa opposite the second molar. small openings along the sublingual fold under the tongue. Question: What connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx? The tympanic membrane The proximal end of the eustachian tube Themalleus Theossicles Question: The fleshly projection of the earlobe is known as the: lobule. tragus. auricle. helix. Question: When examining the pupils, the left pupil is noted to be fixed and dilated to light and near accommodation. This condition may be suggestive of: a tonic pupil. Incorrect oculomotor nerve (CN III) paralysis. Horner'ssyndrome. Argyll Robertson pupils. Question: A deposit of uric acid crystals appearing as hard nodules on the helix or antihelix is termed: akeloid. a tophi. a cutaneous cyst. chondrodermatitis. Question: On the outer ear, anterior and parallel to the helix, is a curved prominence known as the: Antihelix Helix Auricle Tragus Question: On examination of the pupils, both are round but the right pupil appears larger than the left and reacts much slower to light. This condition may be indicative of: a tonic pupil. oculomotor nerve (CN III) paralysis. Horner'ssyndrome. Argyll Robertson pupils. Question: Leukoplakia was noted during an exam of the mouth. This symptom may be: a normal finding. precancerous. associated with periodontal disease. consistent with gingivitis. Question: The majority of people who present with non-24 hour sleep-wake disorder are: legallyblind. attentiondeficit. colorblind. totally blind. Question: The most common cause of bacterial pharyngeal infections in children is: Corynebacterium. Chlamydia. mononucleosis.group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus. Question: When inspecting the neck for the thyroid gland, slightly tilt the patient's head back, and using tangential lighting directed downward from the tip of the patient's chin, inspect the: region above the thyroid cartilage. region below the cricoid cartilage. area along the sternomastoidborder. area along the anterior edge of the trapezius. Question: A condition in which the eyes are not properly aligned with each other is termed: hyperopia. myopia. strabismus. astigmatism. Question: Round or oval shaped lesions surrounded by erythematous mucosa and noted on an area of the oral mucosa may be: leukoplakia. aphthous ulcers. Koplik'sspots. ulcerative gingivitis. Question: On physical exam, an abnormal Rinne test might indicate: impaired physical mobility. impaired visual acuity. impaired hearing ability. impaired swallowing ability. Question: Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals dark specks noted between the fundus and the lens. These specks are most likely: superficial retinal hemorrhages. cataracts. drusen. vitreous floaters. Question: A 60- year-old patient presents with severe, deep left eye pain. Findings reveal dilated and fixed left pupil and the cornea is cloudy. There is no ocular discharge noted. These findings are most likely consistent with: acuteiritis. corneal injury. cornealinfection. acute angle closure glaucoma. Question: The function of the labyrinth in the inner ear is to: assist with air conduction. maintain equilibrium. maintain acoustic transmission. capture sound waves. Question: The curved outer ridge of the auricle of the ear is known as the: Antihelix Helix Auricle Tragus Question: A person who has been blind since birth presents for a physical exam. Expected findings of the pupillary reaction when light is shown would be: constriction of both pupils. dilation of both pupils. no reaction from either pupil.it depends. Question: A six-year-old complains that something is in her left eye. There is a red raised area of the left lid. There is redness and tenderness of the eye and tearing. These findings are consistent with: blepharitis. conjunctivitis. a corneal ulcer. ahordeolum. Question: Ophthalmoscopic examination of the retina reveals AV tapering. This appears as if the: vein "winds" down on either side of the artery. vein is twisted on the distal side of the artery. vein crosses beneath the artery. vein stops abruptly on either side of the artery. Question: A patient presents with complaints of burning, itching, tearing, and some pain in the eye. Findings reveal red, scaly, greasy flakes and thickened, crusted lid margins. This would be suggestive of: achalazion. blepharitis. ahordeolum. dacryocystitis. Question: Ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus reveals small, rounded, slightly irregular red spots embedded in the retina. These findings are consistent with: superficial retinal hemorrhages. preretinalhemorrhages. microaneurysms. deep retinal hemorrhages. Question: Redness, bleeding, pain, and swelling of the gums is most likely: stomatitis. gingivitis. leukoplakia. aphthous ulcers. Question: Ophthalmoscopic examination of the retina reveals a normal arteriovenous crossing. This appears as if the: vein tapers down on either side of the artery. vein is twisted on the distal side of the artery. vein crosses beneath the artery. vein stops abruptly on either side of the artery. Question: Otosclerosis is an example of a(n): conductive hearing loss. sensorineural hearing loss. mixed hearing loss. acquired hearing loss. Question: Which of the following findings in a preschooler would indicate the need for further evaluation? Intelligible speech by 24 months of age Variation in quality of speech pattern and tone Responds to facial expressions and gestures rather than to verbal explanations Looks at people when they speak Question: A 50- year-old patient complains of being unable to read the hymnal at church. This describes: hyperopia. myopia. presbyopia. astigmatism. Question: The gradual loss of vision with a change in color and size of the optic disc is referred to as: macular degeneration. glaucoma. cataracts. retinoblastoma Question: In order to examine the tongue, ask the patient to stick out his tongue and with the examiner's right hand: stimulate the patient to cough. pull the tongue downward and push down with the finger on the left hand to elicit the gag reflex. grasp the tip of the tongue, gently pull it to the left side , and inspect the side of the tongue. inspect it for symmetry. Question: A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of seeing double in the right eye. Examination reveals diplopia in the right eye when the left eye is closed. This may be suggestive of a: problem in the cornea. problem in the optic disc. palsy of cranial nerve III or IV. palsy of cranial nerve III or VI. Question: One cause of nasal septum perforation may be: nasalpolyps. intranasal use of cocaine. cysticfibrosis. chronic sinusitis. Question: A 30-year-old patient presents with a moderate "aching" in his right eye. Findings reveal a small and irregular shaped right pupil. The cornea appears cloudy with a slight erythematous area around the corneal limbus. There is no ocular discharge noted. These findings are consistent with: acute iritis. corneal injury. cornealinfection. acute angle closure glaucoma. Question: Sudden bilateral and painless visual loss is rare but can be associated with all the following except: cholinergics. anticholinergics. steroids. chemical exposure. Question: The Weber test uses a tuning fork to test hearing. The frequency range closest to that of conversational speech would be one with a frequency of: 256 Hz. 512 Hz. 800 Hz. 1000Hz. Question: On ophthalmoscopic examination, optic atrophy appears: pink and hyperemic. yellowish orange to creamy pink. pale. white. Question: Ophthalmoscopic examination of the retina reveals AV banking. This appears as if the: vein tapes down on either side of the artery. vein is twisted on the distal side of the artery. vein crosses beneath the artery. vein stops abruptly on either side of the artery. Question: Causes of sensorineural hearing loss include all of the following except: aging. loud noises over prolonged periods of time. perforated tympanic membrane. acoustic neuroma. Question: What visual acuity constitutes legal blindness? Visual acuity of 20/80 or worse bilaterally. Visual acuity of 20/200 or worse in the better eye with corrected lens. Visual acuity of 20/200 in the better eye without corrected lens. Visual acuity of 20/100 with corrected lens. Question: An example of a cause of conductive hearing loss in children would be: prolonged use of tobramycin. Incorrect the presence of a peanut in the ear for three weeks. congenital rubella syndrome. maternal history of Herpes infection. Question: Miosis is a term used to describe: the shape of the pupils. constriction of the pupils. dilation of the pupils. symmetry of the pupils. Question: If a patient complains of seeing flashing lights across the field of vision, this could be: a normal response if around bright lights. a retinal detachment. detachment of the vitreous from the retina. lesion in the visual pathways. [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Ortho / NR 509 APEA Exam Ortho (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Ortho / NR 509 APEA Exam Ortho (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR 509 A... [Show More] PEA Test (Ortho) / NR509 APEA Exam (Ortho) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Ortho / NR 509 APEA Exam Ortho (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: A tool for assessing risk factors for osteoporotic fractures is the: DEXA. FRAX. BRCA1. HAARM. Question: Anserine bursitis arises from: excessive running. excessive kneeling. arthritis. trauma Question: When examining the knee, which of the following symptoms could be indicative of a positive Adduction (Varus) Stress Test? Pain in the lateral joint line Pain in the medial joint line Pain in the anterior joint line A click along the medial joint line. Question: When assessing the knee, the examiner instructs the patient to straighten his knee. This motion would assess knee: flexion. extension. internalrotation. external rotation. Question: When performing an examination of a tender left finger on an adult, the surrounding tissue reveals warmth, edema, and redness. This finding could be suggestive of: carcinoma. muscular atrophy. synovitis. gouty arthritis. Question: An example of a fibrous joint would be the: vertebral bodies of the spine. skull. shoulder. pubic symphysis of the pelvis. Question: To palpate the medial meniscus, slightly internally rotate the tibia and palpate the medial soft tissue along the: lateral joint line of the knee. on either side of the patella. upper edge of the tibial plateau. top of the patella. Question: A patient complains of a sharp burning pain in the neck and right arm with associated paresthesias and weakness. These symptoms may be associated with: mechanical neck pain. mechanical neck pain with whiplash. cervical radiculopathy. cervical myelopathy. Question: A patient complains of lateral hip pain while pointing near the trochanter. This type of pain could be suggestive of: sciatica. radicularpain. polyarticulararthritis. bursitis. Question: The muscle of the scapulohumeral group that crosses the glenohumeral joint posteriorly and inserts on the greater tubercle is known as the: infraspinatus muscle. pectoralis major. subscapularis muscle. supraspinatus muscle. Question: Inspection of the hip begins with careful observation of a patient's gait. A patient's foot moves forward without bearing weight. This is known as the: swing phase of gait. stance phase of gait. push off phase of gait. heel strike phase of gait. Question: The axioscapular group of muscles: pulls the shoulder backward. rotates the shoulder laterally. produce internal rotation of the shoulder. draws the shoulder blade forward. Question: When assessing the knee, the examiner instructs the patient to sit and swing his lower leg toward midline. This motion assesses knee: flexion. extension. internal rotation. external rotation. Question: When performing a musculoskeletal examination, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his arm in front of his body. This motion of the shoulder girdle would be an example of: adduction. abduction. flexion. extension. Question: Static stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are: muscular structures of the shoulder girdle. capable of movement. bony structures of the shoulder girdle. responsible for stabilizing the humeral head in the glenoid cavity. Question: To test the thumb for abduction, ask the patient to: move his thumb across his palm and touch the base of the fifth finger. move his thumb from the base of the fifth finger and then as far away from the palm as possible. touch the thumb to each of the other fingertips. place the fingers and thumbs in the neutral position with the palm up and then move the thumb anteriorly away from the palm. Question: Passive flexion, valgus stress, and internal rotation of the lower leg, evaluates the: medialmeniscus. lateral meniscus. lateral collateral ligament (LCL). posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Question: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to lie supine, bend his knee, and turn his lower leg and foot away from the midline. This maneuver would assess hip: abductionextension. external rotation. internal rotation. Question: Children with Legg-Calve Perthes disease should: maintain a diet high in protein, vitamins and minerals. sleep on a firm mattress to prevent contractures. avoid weight bearing on the affected extremity. be allowed to play basketball. Question: The convex medial end of the clavicle that articulates with the concave hollow in the upper sternum is referred to as the: glenohumeraljoint.s ternoclavicular joint. acromioclavicularjoint. manubrium joint. Question: When assessing a patient with complaints consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, which one of the following symptoms is unlikely? Dropping objects Inability to twist lids off jars Tingling of the first three digits of the hand Numbness of the last two digits of the hand Question: When evaluating a patient who complains of thumb pain, the nurse practitioner would test thumb movement by instructing the patient to place his thumb in the palm and then move the wrist toward the midline in ulnar deviation. This maneuver is commonly known as: de Quervain'stest. Finkelstein's test. Tinel'stest. Phalen's test. Question: Olecranon bursitis may be caused by all of the following except: gout. trauma. frozen shoulder. osteoarthritis. Question: Women who wear high-heeled shoes with narrow toe boxes are at risk of developing all of the following forefoot abnormalities except: halluxvalgus. metatarsalgia. Achilles tendinitis. Morton's neuroma. Question: Upon examination of the foot and ankle, the nurse practitioner notes point tenderness over the posterior aspects of the right malleolus. Additionally, the patient is unable to bear weight after 4 steps. This finding is most consistent with: Achilles tendinitis. an ankle fracture. a ligamentous injury. rheumatoid arthritis. Question: The small intrinsic muscles are located: at the anterior surface of the vertebrae. on either side of the midline of the vertebrae. between the vertebrae. in front of the cervical vertebrae. Question: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient look upward at the ceiling. This maneuver assesses cervical: flexion. extension. rotation. lateral bending. Question: Upon examination of the left shoulder, the patient complains of a dull, aching pain when attempting active or passive range of motion and localized tenderness with external rotation. These symptoms could be suggestive of: a complete rotator cuff tear. adhesive capsulitis. rotator cuff tendinitis. calcific tendinitis. Question: The area at the posterior aspect of the spine lateral to the sacroiliac joint is known as the: posterior superior iliac spine. ischialtuberosity. superior ramus of pubis. pubic symphysis. Question: Which nerve in the arm runs posteriorly in the ulnar groove between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process? Median nerve Ulnar nerve Radialnerve Brachial plexus Question: When examining the knee, the presence of a palpable fluid wave with the returning fluid wave into the suprapatellar pouch is noted. This positive sign for effusion of the knee is known as the: balloon sign. bulge sign. ballotingsign. McMurray's sign. Question: Dynamic stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are: incapable of movement. capable of movement. bony structures of the shoulder girdle. responsible for joint stability. Question: A structural channel beneath the palmar surface of the wrist and proximal hand is known as the: median nerve plexus. carpal tunnel. carpalsheath. flexor retinaculum. Question: When describing muscle strength, the term paraplegia means: impairedstrength. absence of strength. paralysis of all four extremities. paralysis of the legs. Question: A patient reports sharp "catches" of pain, grating, and weakness in the right shoulder when lifting the arm overhead. These symptoms could be suggestive of: a complete rotator cuff tear. adhesivecapsulitis. rotator cuff tendinitis. calcific tendinitis. Question: The structure that encloses the spinal cord is known as the: articularprocess. spinousprocess. articularfacets. vertebral foramen. Question: When examining the patient for wrist adduction, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient with his palms down to: point his fingers toward the ceiling. move his fingers toward the midline. move his fingers away from the midline. point his fingers toward the floor. Question: An example of a cartilaginous joint would be the: vertebral bodies of the spine. skull. shoulder. knee. Question: When grading muscle strength, a five would indicate: no muscular contraction detected. barely detectable trace of contraction. active movement of the body part with gravity eliminated. active movement against full resistance without fatigue. Question: With the patient in the dorsal decubitus position, have him slowly extend the knee while maintaining the varus stress and external rotation. If a snap on the medial joint line is palpated, this may indicate a positive test for a: lateral collateral ligament (LCL) tear. medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. medial meniscal tear. Question: When examining the elbow for range of motion, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to bend his elbow. This motion is an example of: extension. flexion. supination. pronation. Question: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his ear to his shoulder. This maneuver assesses: cervicalflexion. cervicalextension. rotation. lateral bending. Question: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his extended fingers so that each touches its nearest finger. This motion assesses the fingers and thumbs for: adduction. abduction. flexion. extension. Question: The nurse practitioner would tap lightly over the median nerve in the carpal tunnel to assess: Finkelstein's test. Tinel's test. Phalen's test. thumb abduction. Question: Which one of the following conditions can plantar fasciitis be associated? Achilles tendinitis An ankle fracture A ligamentous injury Rheumatoid arthritis Question: A patient complains of shooting pains below the knee radiating into the lateral leg and calf. This type of low back pain is referred to as: radicular low back pain. mechanical low back pain.lumbar spinal stenosis.pseudoclaudication pain. Question: Where the head of the humerus articulates with the shallow glenoid fossa of the scapula is known as the: glenohumeral joint. sternoclavicularjoint. acromioclavicular joint. manubrium joint. Question: Which of the following symptoms would be suggestive of lumbar spinal stenosis? Calf wasting Thigh pain after 30 seconds of lumbar extension Absent ankle jerk Loss of normal lumbar lordosis Question: When inspecting the face, asymmetry is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: trigeminalneuralgia. temporomandibular joint dysfunction syndrome. temporalarthritis. a normal finding. [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Final Test Random / NR 509 APEA Final Exam Random (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Final Test Random / NR 509 APEA Final Exam Random (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & ... [Show More] A| NR 509 APEA Final Test (Random) / NR509 APEA Final Exam (Random) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Final Test Random / NR 509 APEA Final Exam Random (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 509 APEA Final Exam Answers Question: A transient ischemic attack is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. an infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic. the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits. focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage. Question: A patient is asked to visually follow a finger through the cardinal fields of gaze. Which cranial nerves are being assessed? III, IV III, IV, VI V, VI, VII Question: Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain, which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity is: dystonia. bradykinesia. tremor. seizure. Question: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of: position and vibration. pain and temperature. deep touch. In discriminative sensations. Question: Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be: an unusual finding but within normal limits. hirsutism. Arnold -Chiari malformation. spina bifida occulta. Question: A female patient complains of weakness in her arm when combing her hair. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal In Symmetric Asymmetric Question: What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains? Delirium Cognitiveimpairment Parkinson'sdisease Alzheimer's disease Question: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates position sense? Motor system Cerebellarsystem Vestibular system Sensory system Question: A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is termed a: peripheral nerve field. dermatome. synapseasterixis. Question: An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for: exercises that strengthen the neck muscles. a follow-up visit in 2 months. a neurological evaluation. an orthopedic referral. Question: Hyperalgesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with: facial tics. dystonicmovements. athetoidmovements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: When a patient complains of severe headaches that have worsened over the last few weeks but she has no other symptoms, a most likely diagnosis would be: sinusitis. a tumor. subarachnoid hemorrhage. an abscess. Question: While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve X (CN X) Question: The patient has his eyes closed and an area on his right leg is briefly touched by the nurse practitioner. The patient is instructed to open his eyes and point to the area that was touched. This is an example of the discriminative sensation known as: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. point localization. Question: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner observes that the soft palate does not rise when the patient is instructed to say "ah". This finding could be suggestive of a bilateral lesion in which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX) Cranial Nerve X (CN X) Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that remains unarousable with eyes closed without evidence of response to inner need or external stimuli is said to be in: an obtunded state. a comatose state. a lethargic state. astuporous state. Question: Having the patient shrug his shoulders and elicit neck movements would be testing Cranial Nerve: VI. VII. IX. XI. Question: The Glasgow coma scale assesses: cranial nerve response. pupillaryresponse. motor response. auditory response. Question: Discriminative sensations include all of the following except: astereognosis. stereognosis. graphesthesia. deep tendon reflexes Question: Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a: polyneuropathy. myopathy. sensoryneuropathy. cerebellar disease. Question: The thalamus and the basal ganglion are located in the: spinalcord. peripheral nervous system. whitematter. gray matter. Question: The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is: Herpes simplex virus Type II Picornavirus Enteroviruses Herpes simplex virus Type I Question: By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient's relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as: Kernig'ssign. the straight-leg raise. the plantar response. the ankle reflex. Question: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient's neck while observing the hips and knees. Flexion of both hips and knees was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski's sign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: When a two-week-old infant presents with irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with distended scalp veins, one should consider: hydrocephalus. meningitis. cerebralpalsy. Reye's syndrome. Question: A term used to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is: hypertrophy. muscular atrophy. pseudohypertrophy. muscle weakness. Question: Which one of the following senses is most often affected in patients on long-term antibiotic therapy? Touch Taste Smell Hearing Question: Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following? Walks by placing the heels of the feet down first Moves about by crawling on the abdomen or all four extremities Generally meets motor developmental milestones on schedule Presence of crossed or touching knees Question: The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which Cranial nerve? Cranial nerve III (CN III) Cranial nerve V (CN V) Cranial nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial nerve XII (CN XII) Question: The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is: dystonia. bradykinesia. akinesia. dyskinesia. Question: Postural tremors appear when the affected part is: atrest. moving voluntarily. is actively maintaining a posture. getting closer to its target. Question: A patient presents with sweating, tremors, palpitations, hunger, and confusion. This patient is most likely experiencing: asyncopicevent. hypoglycemia. posturalhypotension. hypocapnia. Question: Most peripheral nerves contain afferent and efferent fibers. The term afferent refers to: the cranial nerve fibers. spinal nerve fibers. sensory nerve fibers. motor nerve fibers. Question: During this type of seizure activity, the patient loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a: focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Jacksonianseizure. focal seizure that become generalized. grand mal seizure. Question: When assessing plantar reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the right foot. Absence of movement of the big toe is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Thoracic 8, 9, and 10 Thoracic 10, 11, and 12 Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Sacral 2, 3, and 4 Question: A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate: a normal finding. lower motor neuron disease. corticospinal tract lesion . cerebellum lesion. Question: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: alcoholmyopathy. polyneuropathy. myositis. neuromuscular junction disorders. Question: Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of damage to which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve III (CN III) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Question: While palpating the temporal and masseter muscles, the patient is asked to clench his teeth and move his jaw from side to side. This maneuver would be assessing which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve III (CN III) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Question: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski'ssign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: An ambulatory child with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet: high in potassium .low in fiber. low in sodium. high in calories. Question: The part of the brain that relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system is known as the: cerebrum. brainstem. cerebellum. diencephalon. Question: Dysarthria refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: The inability to hop in place on each foot, could be suggestive of a: cerebellar dysfunction. corticospinal tract weakness. proximal tract weakness. weakness of the quadriceps. Question: Hyperesthesia refers to: absence of touch sensation. decreased sensitivity to touch. increased sensitivity to touch. absence of pain sensation. Question: The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the: basalganglion. thalamus. hypothalamus. cerebellum. In Question: The patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling without movements and injury may occur. This type of a seizure is consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of: facialtics. dystonicmovements. athetoid movements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient? Check corneal response Check pupillary response Dilate the pupils Inspect the posterior pharynx Question: A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is known as: Broca's aphasia. anomic aphasia. Wernicke'saphasia. global aphasia. Question: A neurological assessment to evaluate neurologic input to the cerebellum is: Glasgow coma scale. abdominalreflex. babinskitest. romberg test. Question: The three important questions that govern the neurological examination include: Is the mental status intact?, Are right-sided and left-sided findings symmetric?, and: Are deep tendon reflexes intact? .Are vital signs stable? If findings are abnormal, is the cause in the central or peripheral nervous system?. Are the cranial nerves intact?. Question: Which developmental area is predominantly affected by lead poisoning? Nutrition Communication Cognition Mobility Question: A term used to describe an increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is: hypertrophy. muscularatrophy. pseudohypertrophy. muscle weakness. Question: On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are observed. These findings are consistent with: drug induced reaction. functionalimpairment. Parkinson's disease. depression. Question: A form of aphasia where articulation is good but sentences lack meaning is referred to as: Broca's aphasia. anomicaphasia. Wernicke's aphasia. global aphasia. Question: When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of : a lesion in the opposite cerebral hemisphere. polyneuropathy. a spinal cord lesion. a peripheral lesion. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Sacral 1 Question: Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in: Alzheimer's disease. Muscular Dystrophy. Parkinson’s disease. Multiple Sclerosis. Question: To evaluate a patient's response to light touch sensation, the nurse practitioner would ask the patient to identify: a touch on the skin in response to touching the skin with a cotton wisp. an object as being hot or cold. a vibration sensation on the big toe. pain as sharp or dull when the thumb is touched using the sharp end of a safety pin. Question: A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify a number drawn in the hand when the patient's eyes are closed is: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. astereognosis. Question: When assessing the patient's sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is: considered a normal finding. suggestive of ataxia related to dorsal column disease. suggestive of cerebellar ataxia. orticospinal track damage. Question: A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal Symmetric Asymmetric Question: With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient's head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski'ssign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a lethargic patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. In remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: Aphasia refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves: I. II. III. VIII. Question: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to stick out his tongue and move it from side to side. This maneuver would be used to assess which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX) Cranial Nerve XII (CN XII) Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the ability of the patient to respond fully and appropriately to stimuli is known as: obtundation. alertness. lethargy. stupor. Question: A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include: noticeable bleeding between the dura and the skull on X-ray. appropriate responses to questions. noticeable bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum on X-ray. absent retinal hemorrhages. Question: Analgesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a: bilateral hemispheric disease. central nervous system lesions. cranial nerve disorder. brainstem lesion. Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal response, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the: voice. articulation of speech. written language. comprehension of language. Question: What is an example of a disease or condition that appears in a dermatomal pattern? Fibromyalgia Shingles Diabeticneuropathy Referred pain Question: A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is: reassess the patient in 6 months. obtain cognitive and functional assessment. assess respiratory assessment. assess cardiac function. Question: When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not considered part of the mental status assessment? Level of alertness Cranial Nerve II (CNII) Appropriateness of responses Orientation to time Question: Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria can be symptoms associated with all of the following conditions except: posterior fossa tumor. vertebrobasilar transient ischemic attack. polyneuropathy. hemicranial migraine. Question: An ischemic stroke is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. an infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic. the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits. focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage. Question: During this type of seizure activity, the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a: focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Jacksonian seizure. focal seizure that becomes generalized. grand mal seizure. Question: When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Thoracic 8, 9, and 10 Thoracic 10, 11, and 12 Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Sacral 2, 3, and 4 Question: An example of symmetric weakness is: the right shoulder. the right hand. both arms. one the right side of the face. Question: Assessment of a 70-year-old's ability to maintain personal safety would be most adversely affected by declining function in the: cardiovascularsystem. respiratorysystem. sensory perception system. gastrointestinal system. Question: When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the: Delirium Rating Scale (DRS). Confusion Assessment Method (CAM). Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). Delirium Superimposed on Dementia Algorithm (DSDA). [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Respiratory / NR 509 APEA Exam Respiratory (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Respiratory / NR 509 APEA Exam Respiratory (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|... [Show More] NR 509 APEA Test (Respiratory) / NR509 APEA Exam (Respiratory) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Respiratory / NR 509 APEA Exam Respiratory (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: A transient ischemic attack is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. an infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic. the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits. focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage. Question: A patient is asked to visually follow a finger through the cardinal fields of gaze. Which cranial nerves are being assessed? III, IV III, IV, VI V, VI, VII Question: Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain, which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity is: dystonia. bradykinesia. tremor. seizure. Question: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of: position and vibration. pain and temperature. deep touch. In discriminative sensations. Question: Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be: an unusual finding but within normal limits. hirsutism. Arnold -Chiari malformation. spina bifida occulta. Question: A female patient complains of weakness in her arm when combing her hair. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal In Symmetric Asymmetric Question: What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains? Delirium Cognitiveimpairment Parkinson'sdisease Alzheimer's disease Question: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates position sense? Motor system Cerebellarsystem Vestibular system Sensory system Question: A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is termed a: peripheral nerve field. dermatome. synapseasterixis. Question: An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for: exercises that strengthen the neck muscles. a follow-up visit in 2 months. a neurological evaluation. an orthopedic referral. Question: Hyperalgesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with: facial tics. dystonicmovements. athetoidmovements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: When a patient complains of severe headaches that have worsened over the last few weeks but she has no other symptoms, a most likely diagnosis would be: sinusitis. a tumor. subarachnoid hemorrhage. an abscess. Question: While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve X (CN X) Question: The patient has his eyes closed and an area on his right leg is briefly touched by the nurse practitioner. The patient is instructed to open his eyes and point to the area that was touched. This is an example of the discriminative sensation known as: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. point localization. Question: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner observes that the soft palate does not rise when the patient is instructed to say "ah". This finding could be suggestive of a bilateral lesion in which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX) Cranial Nerve X (CN X) Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that remains unarousable with eyes closed without evidence of response to inner need or external stimuli is said to be in: an obtunded state. a comatose state. a lethargic state. astuporous state. Question: Having the patient shrug his shoulders and elicit neck movements would be testing Cranial Nerve: VI. VII. IX. XI. Question: The Glasgow coma scale assesses: cranial nerve response. pupillaryresponse. motor response. auditory response. Question: Discriminative sensations include all of the following except: astereognosis. stereognosis. graphesthesia. deep tendon reflexes Question: Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a: polyneuropathy. myopathy. sensoryneuropathy. cerebellar disease. Question: The thalamus and the basal ganglion are located in the: spinalcord. peripheral nervous system. whitematter. gray matter. Question: The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is: Herpes simplex virus Type II Picornavirus Enteroviruses Herpes simplex virus Type I Question: By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient's relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as: Kernig'ssign. the straight-leg raise. the plantar response. the ankle reflex. Question: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient's neck while observing the hips and knees. Flexion of both hips and knees was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski's sign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: When a two-week-old infant presents with irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with distended scalp veins, one should consider: hydrocephalus. meningitis. cerebralpalsy. Reye's syndrome. Question: A term used to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is: hypertrophy. muscular atrophy. pseudohypertrophy. muscle weakness. Question: Which one of the following senses is most often affected in patients on long-term antibiotic therapy? Touch Taste Smell Hearing Question: Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following? Walks by placing the heels of the feet down first Moves about by crawling on the abdomen or all four extremities Generally meets motor developmental milestones on schedule Presence of crossed or touching knees Question: The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which Cranial nerve? Cranial nerve III (CN III) Cranial nerve V (CN V) Cranial nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial nerve XII (CN XII) Question: The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is: dystonia. bradykinesia. akinesia. dyskinesia. Question: Postural tremors appear when the affected part is: atrest. moving voluntarily. is actively maintaining a posture. getting closer to its target. Question: A patient presents with sweating, tremors, palpitations, hunger, and confusion. This patient is most likely experiencing: asyncopicevent. hypoglycemia. posturalhypotension. hypocapnia. Question: Most peripheral nerves contain afferent and efferent fibers. The term afferent refers to: the cranial nerve fibers. spinal nerve fibers. sensory nerve fibers. motor nerve fibers. Question: During this type of seizure activity, the patient loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a: focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Jacksonianseizure. focal seizure that become generalized. grand mal seizure. Question: When assessing plantar reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the right foot. Absence of movement of the big toe is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Thoracic 8, 9, and 10 Thoracic 10, 11, and 12 Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Sacral 2, 3, and 4 Question: A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate: a normal finding. lower motor neuron disease. corticospinal tract lesion . cerebellum lesion. Question: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: alcoholmyopathy. polyneuropathy. myositis. neuromuscular junction disorders. Question: Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of damage to which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve III (CN III) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Question: While palpating the temporal and masseter muscles, the patient is asked to clench his teeth and move his jaw from side to side. This maneuver would be assessing which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve III (CN III) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Question: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski'ssign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: An ambulatory child with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet: high in potassium .low in fiber. low in sodium. high in calories. Question: The part of the brain that relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system is known as the: cerebrum. brainstem. cerebellum. diencephalon. Question: Dysarthria refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: The inability to hop in place on each foot, could be suggestive of a: cerebellar dysfunction. corticospinal tract weakness. proximal tract weakness. weakness of the quadriceps. Question: Hyperesthesia refers to: absence of touch sensation. decreased sensitivity to touch. increased sensitivity to touch. absence of pain sensation. Question: The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the: basalganglion. thalamus. hypothalamus. cerebellum. In Question: The patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling without movements and injury may occur. This type of a seizure is consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of: facialtics. dystonicmovements. athetoid movements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient? Check corneal response Check pupillary response Dilate the pupils Inspect the posterior pharynx Question: A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is known as: Broca's aphasia. anomic aphasia. Wernicke'saphasia. global aphasia. Question: A neurological assessment to evaluate neurologic input to the cerebellum is: Glasgow coma scale. abdominalreflex. babinskitest. romberg test. Question: The three important questions that govern the neurological examination include: Is the mental status intact?, Are right-sided and left-sided findings symmetric?, and: Are deep tendon reflexes intact? .Are vital signs stable? If findings are abnormal, is the cause in the central or peripheral nervous system?. Are the cranial nerves intact?. Question: Which developmental area is predominantly affected by lead poisoning? Nutrition Communication Cognition Mobility Question: A term used to describe an increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is: hypertrophy. muscularatrophy. pseudohypertrophy. muscle weakness. Question: On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are observed. These findings are consistent with: drug induced reaction. functionalimpairment. Parkinson's disease. depression. Question: A form of aphasia where articulation is good but sentences lack meaning is referred to as: Broca's aphasia. anomicaphasia. Wernicke's aphasia. global aphasia. Question: When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of : a lesion in the opposite cerebral hemisphere. polyneuropathy. a spinal cord lesion. a peripheral lesion. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Sacral 1 Question: Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in: Alzheimer's disease. Muscular Dystrophy. Parkinson’s disease. Multiple Sclerosis. Question: To evaluate a patient's response to light touch sensation, the nurse practitioner would ask the patient to identify: a touch on the skin in response to touching the skin with a cotton wisp. an object as being hot or cold. a vibration sensation on the big toe. pain as sharp or dull when the thumb is touched using the sharp end of a safety pin. Question: A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify a number drawn in the hand when the patient's eyes are closed is: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. astereognosis. Question: When assessing the patient's sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is: considered a normal finding. suggestive of ataxia related to dorsal column disease. suggestive of cerebellar ataxia. orticospinal track damage. Question: A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal Symmetric Asymmetric Question: With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient's head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski'ssign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a lethargic patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. In remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: Aphasia refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves: I. II. III. VIII. Question: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to stick out his tongue and move it from side to side. This maneuver would be used to assess which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX) Cranial Nerve XII (CN XII) Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the ability of the patient to respond fully and appropriately to stimuli is known as: obtundation. alertness. lethargy. stupor. Question: A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include: noticeable bleeding between the dura and the skull on X-ray. appropriate responses to questions. noticeable bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum on X-ray. absent retinal hemorrhages. Question: Analgesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a: bilateral hemispheric disease. central nervous system lesions. cranial nerve disorder. brainstem lesion. Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal response, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the: voice. articulation of speech. written language. comprehension of language. Question: What is an example of a disease or condition that appears in a dermatomal pattern? Fibromyalgia Shingles Diabeticneuropathy Referred pain Question: A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is: reassess the patient in 6 months. obtain cognitive and functional assessment. assess respiratory assessment. assess cardiac function. Question: When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not considered part of the mental status assessment? Level of alertness Cranial Nerve II (CNII) Appropriateness of responses Orientation to time Question: Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria can be symptoms associated with all of the following conditions except: posterior fossa tumor. vertebrobasilar transient ischemic attack. polyneuropathy. hemicranial migraine. Question: An ischemic stroke is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. an infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic. the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits. focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage. Question: During this type of seizure activity, the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a: focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Jacksonian seizure. focal seizure that becomes generalized. grand mal seizure. Question: When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Thoracic 8, 9, and 10 Thoracic 10, 11, and 12 Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Sacral 2, 3, and 4 Question: An example of symmetric weakness is: the right shoulder. the right hand. both arms. one the right side of the face. Question: Assessment of a 70-year-old's ability to maintain personal safety would be most adversely affected by declining function in the: cardiovascularsystem. respiratorysystem. sensory perception system. gastrointestinal system. Question: When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the: Delirium Rating Scale (DRS). Confusion Assessment Method (CAM). Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). Delirium Superimposed on Dementia Algorithm (DSDA). [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Urology / NR 509 APEA Exam Urology (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Urology / NR 509 APEA Exam Urology (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR 5... [Show More] 09 APEA Test (Urology) / NR509 APEA Exam (Urology) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Urology / NR 509 APEA Exam Urology (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: In men, painful urination without frequency or urgency suggests: cystitis. urethritis. constipation. acute prostatitis. Question: A 65-year-old woman complains that when she feels the urge to urinate, she has to go immediately or else she urinates "on herself". She has become homebound because she wants to stay close to the bathroom. This condition is termed: functionalincontinence. overflowincontinence. urge incontinence. stress incontinence. Question: Symptoms of proctitis may include all of the following except: left-sided abdominal pain. rectalpain. suprapubic pain. tenesmus. Question: A 40 year old male complains of right flank pain. His temperature is 102° F. These symptoms may be characteristic of: renalcalculi. acute pyelonephritis. urethritis. prostatitis. Question: A useful mnemonic for elucidating causes of incontinence in the older adult is: STOOL. DIAPERS. DRIP. URINE. Question: Which condition usually coexists with epididymitis? Varicocele of the spermatic cord Spermatocele of the epididymis Torsion of the spermatic cord Chlamydia infection Question: Which of the following substances is found in the urine of a child suspected of having post streptococcal glomerulonephritis? Blood and protein Bacteria and ketones Glucose and white blood cells Casts and mucous threads Question: A whitish sebaceous secretion that collects between the glans penis and foreskin or in the vulva is known as: candida. smegma. leukorrhea. leukocoria. Question: A 40 -year-old male states that he felt "something" above his left testis. On examination, a painless cyst is noted above the left testicle. Transillumination is positive. This is consistent with a: varicocele of the spermatic cord. spermatocele of the epididymis. torsion of the spermatic cord. prostatitis. Question: Undescended testicle(s) in a young male is termed: testiculartorsion. epispadias. hydrocele. cryptorchidism. Question: When examining the scrotum in a young male child, test the cremasteric reflex by: scratching the medial aspect of the thigh. having the child lie down and palpate the femoral pulse. gently pulling the penis downward. palpating the area above the symphysis pubis. Question: Which one of the following patient positions would be least beneficial to examine the genitals of a young female child? Have the child sit on her parent's lap with the parent holding the child's knees apart Have the child lie supine in the frog-leg position Have the child sit crossed legged on the examination table Position the child in the knee-chest position Question: A 50-year-old male describes difficulty emptying his bladder. On exam, a distended bladder is noted following urination. This finding may be associated with: functional incontinence. overflow incontinence. urgeincontinence. stress incontinence. Question: One cause of proctitis could be related to: gastritis. frequent anal intercourse. cirrhosis. pancreatitis. Question: Which one of the following symptoms would be least indicative of acute glomerulonephritis? Hematuria Polyuria Proteinuria Hypertension Question: In renal adaptation of the newborn, which one of the following statements is ? The kidneys have an inability to concentrate urine and adapt to fluid and electrolyte stress. In the nephrons of the kidneys long tubules enhance the effectiveness of tubular reabsorption. The kidneys are fully capable of concentrating urine and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. The kidneys have the ability to increase the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) effectively. Question: A 33 year old male presents for examination because of a scrotal complaint. The exam reveals the presence of 2 testicles and palpable tissue resembling a "bag of worms" over the left testicle. When in the supine position with the scrotum elevated, the "bag of worms" disappears. This condition is suggestive of a: varicocele of the spermatic cord. spermatocele of the epididymis. torsion of the spermatic cord. prostatitis. Question: Benign prostatic hypertrophy begins in the: second decade of life. third decade of life. fourth decade of life. fifth decade of life. [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Cardio / NR 509 APEA Exam Cardio (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Cardio / NR 509 APEA Exam Cardio (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR 509... [Show More] APEA Test (Cardio) / NR509 APEA Exam (Cardio) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Cardio / NR 509 APEA Exam Cardio (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1: The lymphatic ducts drain into the: arterial system. venous system. arteriovenous system. capillary bed. Question 2: While auscultating the patient's heart, a medium, soft murmur is audible. It is pansystolic and heard loudest at the apex with radiation to the left axilla. These findings are consistent with: tricuspidregurgitation. mitral regurgitation. a ventricular septal defect. an innocent murmur. Question 3: Which of the following group of symptoms would be suggestive of an infant experiencing a congenital heart defect associated with a decreased pulmonary blood flow pattern? Tissue perfusion greater than 3 seconds, bluish colored skin, and poor feeding Abnormal heart sounds, capillary refill less than 2 seconds, and oxygen saturation less than 95% Capillary refill less than 2 seconds, tissue perfusion less than 3 seconds, and oxygen saturation greater than 95% Poor feeding, audible heart murmur, and oxygen saturation greater than 95% Question 4: Right atrial pressure can be determined by: palpating the carotid pulse. identifying the pulsations of the right jugular vein. analyzing the arterial blood gases. assessing for dependent edema. Question 5: When assessing the heart rate of a healthy 13-month-old child, which one of the following sites is the most appropriate for this child? Apical pulse at the 5th intercostal space right midclavicular line Apical pulse between the 3rd and 4th intercostal space in the left midclavicular line Apical pulse to the right of the midclavicular line in the 3rd intercostal space Apical pulse in the 5th intercostal space left midclavicular line Question 6: The infraorbital or maxillary, buccinator, and supramandibular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region. eyelids, the conjunctiva, and the skin and mucous membrane of the nose and cheek. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Question 7: The external iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the following areas except the: urinary bladder. prostate. uterus. gluteal region. Question 8: The amplitude of the pulse in a patient in cardiogenic shock would most likely appear: bounding. thready. normal. as a bruit. Question 9: When auscultating the heart for aortic insufficiency, ask the patient to: lie supine and inhale. exhale while standing. turn to the left side and breath deeply. sit up, lean forward, and exhale. Question 10: The horizontal superficial inguinal lymph nodes are located in the anterior thigh below the inguinal ligament and drain lymphatic fluid from all of these areas except: lower abdomen. buttock. testes. lower vagina. Question 11: When auscultating the point of maximal impulse (PMI), apex of the heart, in an adult, the stethoscope is placed at the: third intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line. fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line. fourth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line. fifth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line. Question 12: Deep cervical lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: head and neck. breasts. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Question: Which of the following symptoms would necessitate the need for further evaluation in the newborn? Blue hands and feet within an hour after birth Blood glucose level 45 mg/dl. Dusky cyanotic when crying Deep sleep one hour after birth Question: Symptoms of acrocyanosis in the newborn include: bluish color of the tongue. bluish color of the mucous membranes. bluish color of the feet. bluish color of the abdomen. Question: A heart rate of 100-180 beats per minute in an adult is considered: normal sinus rhythm. sinus tachycardia. supraventriculartachycardia. ventricular tachycardia. Question: Tissue ischemia is usually observed when assessing a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD). What other symptom could be observed? Peripheral edemaIntermittent claudication. A brownish discoloration to the skin of the affected leg Bounding pulses in the affected leg Question: When performing a cardiovascular assessment on a healthy 2-year-old child: expect to hear a swooshing sound during diastole. place the stethoscope over the fifth intercostal space to the left of the mid-clavicular line. auscultate the heart sounds in all four cardiac areas. expect to hear an S4 sound. Question: A disparity between the brachial and femoral pulses in a 4-month-old could indicate: an atrial septal defect (ASD). Tetralogy of Fallot. coarctation of the aorta (COA). tricuspid atresia (TA). Question: The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the: right side of the head. right upper thorax. rightarm. right leg. Question: When auscultating the apex of the heart in an 8-year-old, the bell of the stethoscope should be placed at the: third intercostal space lateral to the midclavicular line. fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line. fourth intercostal space lateral of the midclavicular line. fifth intercostal space to the right of the midclavicular line. Question: In order to assess for varicosities in the lower extremities, position the patient: lyingsupine. standing. sitting facing forward. squatting facing the examiner. Question: A patient complains of a tight, bursting pain in the calf that increases with walking. Elevation of the leg sometimes relieves the pain. These symptoms may be consistent with: intermittent claudication. Raynaud'sdisease. deep venous thrombosis. superficial thrombophlebitis. Question: Symptoms of orthostatic hypotension include all of the following except: syncope. unsteadiness. visualblurring. respiratory rate greater than 30. Question: A three-week-old infant presents with a generalized lacy, reticulated blue discoloration of the skin. This is suggestive of: mongolian spots. harlequin color changes. acrocyanosis. cutismarmorata. Question: The supraclavicular lymph nodes are located: along the anterior edge of the trapezius. deep in the angle formed by the clavicle and the sternomastoid muscle. superficially to the sternomastoid muscle. midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible. Question: In an adult patient, auscultate the sounds arising from the mitral valve by placing the stethoscope: near the apex of the heard between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line. between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right sternal border. Question: The tonsillar lymph node is located: at the angle of the mandible. in front of the ear. at the base of the skull posteriorly. superficial to the mastoid process. Question: A bruit heard in the epigastric area with both systolic and diastolic components is suggestive of: renal artery stenosis. aortic regurgitation. femoral artery occlusion. an aortic aneurysm. Question: Presence of a heart murmur in a child would be considered organic if the child: is 18-months-old and was recently diagnosed with anemia. was a 3-year-old, afebrile and diagnosed with an upper respiratory infection. was a 10-month-old who presented with a temperature of 103 °F. was a 2-year-old with a congenital heart defect. Question: A patient complaints of a sharp, knifelike pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck. This type of chest pain is suggestive of: pericarditis. an aortic dissection. anginapectoris. a myocardial infarction. Question: In order to bring the ventricular apex closer to the chest wall when assessing the point of maximal impulse (PMI), ask the patient to: liesupine. situp. turn to the left side. lean forward. Question: The preauricular lymph node is located: at the angle of the mandible. in front of the ear. at the base of the skull posteriorly. superficial to the mastoid process. Question: To auscultate the heart sounds arising from the pulmonic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope: near the apex of the heart between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right upper sternal border. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left lower sternal border. Question: To assess aortic pulsations in patients with carotid obstruction, assess the pulse using the: temporal artery. brachial artery. femoralartery. popliteal artery. Question: When screening a patient for peripheral arterial disease (PAD), one risk factor would include a history of: smoking. an implantation of a temporary internal pacemaker. dysrhythmias. peripheral edema. Question: The preauricular nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region. eyelids, the conjunctiva, and the skin and mucous membrane of the nose and cheek. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Question: The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person's risk for: deep venous thrombosis. peripheral artery disease. venousinsufficiency. thromboangiitis obliterans. Question: The internal iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: urinarybladder. prostate. uterus. gluteal region. Question: Causes of orthostatic hypotension in older adults may include all of the following except: diabetes. cardiovasculardisorders. medications. impaired visual acuity. Question: A 5-year-old child presents with complaints of fever and headache. Examination reveals a heart rate of 157 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute, B/P 108/54, and a temperature of 102.6 °F. The increased heart rate is most likely related to: an innocent heart murmur. the child's age. a sinus arrhythmia. the child's febrile state. Question: The posterior chest wall and portions of the arms are drained by which group of lymph nodes? Posterior mediastinal nodes Subscapular nodes Parasternalnodes Intercostal nodes Question: A patient states that the only way he can sleep at night is to use several pillows or to sleep upright in a recliner. This sleep pattern is most consistent with: paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. obstructive lung disease. anginapectoris. decreased jugular venous pressure. Question: A disease that may present as indigestion, but is precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest is most likely: gastroesophagealreflux. inflammatory bowel disease. angina. aortic stenosis. Question: A patient suspected of having chronic venous insufficiency, may present with: calfasymmetry. a brownish discoloration just above the malleolus. absent right pedal pulse. decreased femoral pulse. Question: The great saphenous vein enters the deep venous system by way of the: inferior vena cava. iliacvein. poplitealvein. femoral vein. Question: Warning signs of peripheral artery disease may include all of the following except: aching or numbness that limits walking. non-healing lesions of the legs. abdominal pain after meals with weight loss. persistent cough. Question: On assessment, which one of the following symptoms would be noted as a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia? Pulmonary hypertension Dehydration Hematocrit (HCT) of 55% Hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.5g/dl Question: A patient complains of some pain in the distal portions of her fingers on both hands. She states that it tends to occur more frequently with exposure to cold. These symptoms may be consistent with: intermittentclaudication. Raynaud's disease. deep venous thrombosis. superficial thrombophlebitis. Question: The patient has had an internal pacemaker in place for five years. Pacemaker failure is being considered because over the past few days, the patient has been experiencing episodes of: hiccoughs. chestpain. wheezing. hypertension. Question: The thoracic lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the: right leg. right upper thorax. leftarm. abdominal cavity. Question: When auscultating the heart, the displacement of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is greater than 10 cm lateral to the midsternal line. This finding is consistent with: right ventricular hypertrophy. left ventricular hypertrophy. pulmonarystenosis. a normal PMI location. Question: A sudden, tearing, sharp pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the back or into the neck is usually associated with: anginapectoris. a myocardial infarction. an aortic dissection. pericarditis. Question: By placing the ball of the examiner's hand firmly on the chest, the examiner would be checking for: bruits. S1 and S2. heaves. thrills. Question: Which lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from the stomach, duodenum, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas? Superior mesenteric lymph nodes Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes Hepatic lymph nodes Gastric lymph nodes Question: When auscultating the heart of a 55-year-old patient, a loud murmur with a thrill is audible in the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotid arteries. Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch audible at the apex. The murmur is heard best with the patient sitting and leaning forward. This finding is consistent with: pulmonicstenosis. tricuspidregurgitation. mitral regurgitation. aortic stenosis. Question: When auscultating heart sounds arising from the aortic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope: near the apex of the heart between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right upper sternal border. between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left lower sternal border. Question: A patient describes chest pain as persistent, sharp, and knife-like. These symptoms are more characteristic of: myocardial infarction. costochondritis. pericarditis. dissecting aortic aneurysm. Question: A third heart sound (S3) is audible in a forty-five-year old. This S3 sound may be: normal for this age group. a sign of valvular heart disease. a sign of heart disease. associated with a jugular venous hum. Question: Enlarged or tender lymph nodes are most often associated with: a malignant mass. infection in its nearby drainage area. a normal finding in children. a benign tumor. Question: A widened pulse pressure greater than or equal to 60 in an older patient is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, stroke, and: emboli. systolichypertension. renal disease. orthostatic hypertension. Question: Characteristic symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency may include which one of the following? Intermittent claudication Petechiae leading to brown pigmentation noted over the feet Feet cool to touch Feet appear pale on elevation and dusky red on dependency Question: Widened pulse pressure (PP) is defined as systolic blood pressure (SBP): dropping 20 mm Hg within 3 minutes of standing. minus diastolic blood pressure. dropping 10 mm Hg within 5 minutes of sitting. minus apical heart rate. Question: Characteristic symptoms of chronic arterial insufficiency may include which one of the following? Persistent leg pain Petechiae leading to brown pigmentation noted over the feet Feet warm to touch Feet appear pale on elevation and dusky red on dependency Question: Pain or cramping of the legs that occurs during exertion and is relieved by rest is termed: neurogenicclaudication. intermittent claudication. atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease. Raynaud's disease. Question: In older adults, the presence of heart sound S3 suggests: hypertension. heart failure. an aortic aneurysm. aortic stenosis. Question: To auscultate the tricuspid valve heart sounds in an adult patient, place the stethoscope: between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right upper sternal border. near the apex of the heart between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line. located between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left lower sternal border. Question: When auscultating the heart of a 50-year-old patient, a soft murmur is audible in the left second and third intercostal spaces and radiates to the left shoulder and neck. Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch to the murmur. This finding could be consistent with: pulmonic stenosis. tricuspidregurgitation. mitralregurgitation. aortic stenosis. Question: The hemodynamic changes resulting from structural defects in children can lead to heart failure. The most common reason for these changes is related to: volume and pressure overload resulting in increased cardiac output. volume and pressure overload resulting in decreased cardiac output. increased heart rate increasing cardiac output. decreased blood volume. Question: The posterior auricular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region. eyelids, the conjunctiva, and the skin and mucous membrane of the nose and cheek. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Question: While examining the heart, a pansystolic, blowing murmur is audible over the left sternal border with radiation to the right of the sternum. The intensity increased with inspiration. This finding is characteristic of: tricuspid regurgitation. mitralregurgitation. a ventricular septal defect. an innocent murmur. Question: The axillary lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from all of the following areas except the: breasts. upper part of the abdominal wall. upper part of the back. anterior chest wall. Question: A patient complains of pain in the arch of the foot sometimes relieved by rest. Occasionally, he experiences intermittent pain in the toes, especially at rest. Exercise aggravates the pain in the arch. History reveals he smokes approximately a half pack of cigarettes per day. These symptoms may be consistent with: intermittentclaudication. Raynaud'sdisease. deep venous thrombosis. thromboangiitis obliterans. Question: The occipital lymph node is located: at the angle of the mandible. in front of the ear. at the base of the skull posteriorly. superficial to the mastoid process. Question: A patient presents with chest pain that radiates to the left side of the neck and down the left arm when he chops wood. This type of pain could be suggestive of: an early onset myocardial infarction. angina pectoris. costochondritis. a dissecting aneurysm. Question: A twelve-month-old has a history of heart failure related to his congenital heart defect. He is receiving aldactone (Spironolactone), enalapril (Vasotec), furosemide (Lasix), and acetaminophen (Tylenol). The infant's potassium level is 3.1 meq/l. Which medication is most likely decreasing his potassium level? Aldactone (Spironolactone) Furosemide (Lasix) Enalapril (Vasotec) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Question: The anterior cervical lymph node chain is located anterior and: midway between the angle and the tip of the mandible. superficial to the mastoid process. superficial to the sternomastoid muscle. at the angle of the mandible. Question: The tonsillar, submandibular, and submental nodes drain the lymphatic fluid from portions of the: palpebral conjunctiva and the skin adjacent to the ear within the temporal region. eyelids, the conjunctiva, and the skin and mucous membrane of the nose and cheek. mouth, throat, and face. posterior part of the temporoparietal region. Question: A condition that usually presents with numbness or tingling in the distal portions of one or more fingers aggravated by cold or emotional stress may be associated with: neurogenicclaudication. intermittentclaudication. atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease. Raynaud's disease. Question: The sacral lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from all the following except the: prostate. urinary bladder. gluteal region. rectum. Question: Children presenting with congenital heart defects that result in right to left shunting would most likely exhibit which of the following symptoms? Cyanosis, decreased cardiac output, and desaturated systemic blood flow Increased cardiac output, cyanosis, and poor tissue perfusion Ventricular volume overload, cyanosis, and increased cardiac output Increased pulmonary blood flow, cyanosis, and good tissue perfusion Question: An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true? The child has ingested too much caffeine. A cardiology referral is prudent. This is a normal exam. There is a need for an echocardiogram. Question: Heart sounds produced by turbulence due to a temporary increase in blood flow in predisposing conditions, such as hyperthyroidism, is considered: an innocent murmur. a pathologic murmur. a physiologic murmur. a normal finding. Question: The four classic structural defects of Tetralogy of Fallot include: tricuspid atresia, atrial septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, and left ventricular hypertrophy. a ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. dextroposition of the aorta, ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, and patent ductus stenosis. an atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, pulmonary atresia, and the aorta arising from the right ventricle. Question: A child presents with fever of 102.5 °F for the past five days. Kawasaki disease is suspected if which of the following groups of symptoms is present? Strawberry tongue, pounding pulse, elevated blood pressure, and chronic hemolytic anemia Cervical lymphadenopathy, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, periungual desquamation, and polymorphous rash Retinopathy, petechiae, strawberry tongue, and jaundice Recent Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus pharyngitis, erythema marginatum, non-purulent conjunctivitis, and joint pain Question: A finding suggestive of an inflamed lymph node would be one that is: hard and fixed. tender and movable. shotty and movable. non-tender and fixed. Question: The posterior auricular lymph node is located: at the angle of the mandible. in front of the ear. at the base of the skull posteriorly. superficial to the mastoid process. Question: Enlargement of which lymph nodes would be suggestive of metastasis from a thoracic or abdominal malignancy? Tonsillar Anterior cervical chain Submandibular Supraclavicular Question: The superior and inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: stomach. pancreas. liver. small and large intestines. Question: A male patient states that he has difficulty breathing when he is lying down but when he sits up, it improves. This is a classic description of: eupnea. dyspnea. orthopnea. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Question: Assessment findings in a newborn at birth include: irregular respirations without crying, heart rate of 105 beats/minute, grimaces with reflex stimulation, kicking of both feet, and moving of both arms. The body and face are pink and hands and feet are cyanotic. What is the APGAR score? 57 9 1 0 Question: A patient complains of increased pain in the calf muscles and buttocks especially after walking or riding his bicycle. He states that the pain stops after he sits still for about 2-3 minutes. This condition may be associated with: intermittent claudication. Raynaud'sdisease. deep venous thrombosis. superficial thrombophlebitis. Question: A condition that presents with symptomatic limb ischemia upon exertion is termed: neurogenicclaudication. intermittentclaudication. atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease. Raynaud's disease. Question: Absent or diminished pulses in the wrist could be indicative of: varicosities. right-sided heart failure. venousinsufficiency. arterial occlusive disease. Question: In older adults, the presence of heart sound S4 suggests: hypertension. heart failure. an aortic aneurysm. aortic stenosis. Question: A patient describes chest pain as pressing, squeezing, and tight lasting between 1 and 3 minutes. These symptoms are more characteristic of: myocardial infarction. costochondritis. pericarditis. dissecting aortic aneurysm. Question: When auscultating the heart, a scratchy, continuous murmur is audible during atrial systole and ventricular systole and diastole. This finding may be indicative of a: pericardial friction rub. venoushum. patent ductus arteriosus. ventricular septal defect. Question: The anterior mediastinal lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: anterior chest wall. upper part of the abdominal wall. thymus, thyroid gland and the anterior part of the pericardium. breasts. Question: To assess the murmur of aortic insufficiency, position the patient: supine. sitting leaning forward. supine with head elevated 30 degrees and turned partly to the left side. standing. Question: A pediatric patient presents with erythema marginatum, chorea, and a heart murmur. These symptoms are consistent with: Kawasaki Disease. rheumatic heart disease. infectious endocarditis. sickle cell disease. Question: When auscultating the heart; S1 sound, is located at the apex of the heart and signifies: closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. both ventricles filling rapidly. an increased resistance to ventricular filling. Question: A patient with cirrhosis develops portal hypertension as indicated by the presence of: splenomegaly. bleedinggums. jaundice. muscle wasting. Question: Pain with walking or prolonged standing, radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, thighs, lower legs, or feet, may be seen with: neurogenic claudication. intermittentclaudication. atherosclerotic peripheral vascular disease. Raynaud's disease. Question: Why would a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus receive a prostaglandin inhibitor (indomethacin)? To maintain Ductus Arteriosus patency To reduce fluid overload on the pulmonary circulation To improve oxygenation of systemic circulation To improve contractility of the left ventricle Question: When assessing a 3-year-old African American child, the most likely cause of black, dusky mucous membranes is related to: jaundice. pallor. erythema. cyanosis. [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Neurology / NR 509 APEA Exam Neurology (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Neurology / NR 509 APEA Exam Neurology (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| ... [Show More] NR 509 APEA Test (Neurology) / NR509 APEA Exam (Neurology): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Neurology / NR 509 APEA Exam Neurology (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1: Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs may be consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. afocal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question 2: Which of the following neurological assessment findings indicate the need for further evaluation? Lifting one foot and then the other when the infant is held upright with the feet touching a solid surface Fanning and hyperextension of the toes when the sole is stroked upward from the heel Grasping a finger placed in the neonate's palm Weak and ineffective sucking movements Question 3: An example of proximal weakness is: the right shoulder. the right hand. both arms. on the right side of the face. Question: A female patient complains of weakness in her hand when opening a jar. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal Symmetric Asymmetric Question: A patient presents with an altered level of consciousness. He/she is considered in a stuporous state if he/she: appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli. opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. Question: One way to assess cerebellar function would be to have the patient: hop on one foot. read out loud. shrug the shoulders. discriminate between light and sharp pain. Question: Hypesthesia refers to: absence of touch sensation. decreased sensitivity to touch. increased sensitivity to touch. absence of pain sensation. Question: When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not considered part of the mental status assessment? Level of alertness Cranial Nerve II (CNII) Appropriateness of responses Orientation to time Question: A mother reports to the nurse practitioner that her teenager might be taking drugs because earlier today the teenager had a mild seizure and now has an unstable gait and is beginning to complain of shortness of breath. These symptoms might be consistent with a possible overdose of: barbiturates. amphetamines. marijuana. opioids. Question: An ischemic stroke is: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction. an infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic. the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits. focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage. Question: By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient's relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as: Kernig'ssign. the straight-leg raise. the plantar response. the ankle reflex. Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that appears drowsy but can open his eyes, respond to questions, then fall back to sleep is known as: obtundation. alertness. lethargy. stupor. Question: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates a steady posture? Motor system Cerebellar system Vestibularsystem Sensory system Question: An older adult presenting with signs of undernourishment, slowed motor performance, and loss of muscle mass or weakness suggests: depression. frailty. Parkinson'sdisease. Alzheimer's disease. Question: Postural tremors appear when the affected part is: atrest. moving voluntarily. is actively maintaining a posture. getting closer to its target. Question: A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify an object by feeling it is: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. astereognosis. Question: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: alcoholmyopathy. polyneuropathy. myositis. neuromuscular junction disorders. Question: When observing for thenar atrophy of the hands, a typical observation is: furrowing in the spaces between the metacarpals. thenar eminences appear full. the hypothenar eminences would appear convex. the spaces between the metacarpals would be slightly depressed. Question: Fasciculations in atrophic muscles suggest: a lower motor neuron disease. rheumatoid arthritis. peripheral nervous system disease. a central nervous system disorder. Question: The part of the brain that controls most functions in the body and is responsible for breathing, heart rate, and articulate speech is the: cerebrum. brainstem. cerebellum. diencephalon. Question: Assessing the neurological status of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt should include: use of the Glasgow coma scale. Kernig'ssign. brudzinski'ssign. Monroe-Kellie doctrine. Question: What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains? Delirium Cognitiveimpairment Parkinson'sdisease Alzheimer's disease Question: An abnormal or unpleasant sense of touch is termed: dysarthria. dysesthesia. metatarsalgia. paresthesia. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Sacral 1 Question: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral proximal limb weakness without sensory loss is noted. This finding could be suggestive of: alcohol myopathy. polyneuropathy. myositis. neuromuscular junction disorders. Question: The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is: dystonia. bradykinesia. akinesia. dyskinesia. Question: A 40-year-old male presents with complaints of headaches. History reveals headaches that occurred daily for about 4-6 weeks. He had relief for 6 months but now they are recurring. These are most likely: tensionheadaches. cluster headaches. migraineheadaches. sinus headaches. Question: Which of the following symptoms may be associated with a tumor of the eighth cranial nerve? Dizziness Inability to close the eyes Loss of the sense of smell Inability to taste sour things Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal response, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? Proximal Distal Symmetric Asymmetric Question: Which developmental area is predominantly affected by lead poisoning? Nutrition Communication Cognition Mobility Question: A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is known as: Broca'saphasia. anomic aphasia. Wernicke'saphasia. global aphasia. Question: A patient presents with an altered level of consciousness. He/she is considered in an obtunded state if he/she: arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. appears drowsy but opens eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli. opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. Question: With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient's head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski's sign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient? Check corneal response Check pupillary response Dilate the pupils Inspect the posterior pharynx Question: The term used to describe a distortion of any sense, especially that of touch, is: absence of sensation. weakness. dysesthesia. paresthesia. Question: Winging of the scapula can be noted in patients with all of the following conditions except: liver disease. injury to the long thoracic nerve. musculardystrophy. weakness of the serratus anterior muscle. Question: Resting tremors refer to those tremors that disappear: atrest. with voluntary movement. when the affected part is actively maintaining a posture. when the target gets closer. Question: A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate: a normal finding. lower motor neuron disease. corticospinal tract lesion . cerebellum lesion. Question: A progressive disorder of the nervous system that affects movement is known as: delirium. functionalimpairment. Parkinson's disease. Alzheimer's disease. Question: While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a: bilateral hemispheric disease. central nervous system lesions. cranial nerve disorder. brainstem lesion. Question: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner uses the tongue blade to gently stimulate the back of the throat on each side. A unilateral absence of the gag reflex is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a unilateral lesion in which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX) Cranial Nerve XII (CN XII) Question: On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are observed. These findings are consistent with: drug induced reaction. functionalimpairment. Parkinson's disease. depression. Question: Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with: facial tics. dystonicmovements. athetoidmovements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be: an unusual finding but within normal limits. hirsutism. Arnold -Chiari malformation. spina bifida occulta. Question: Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in: Alzheimer's disease. MuscularDystrophy. Parkinson’s disease. Multiple Sclerosis. Question: An example of distal weakness is: the right shoulder. the right hand. both arms. one the right side of the face. Question: A teenager presents with signs of being gleeful, somewhat drowsy, and unable to focus. On examination , B/P 90/65, pupils constricted, and speech slurred. These symptoms are consistent with: opioid intoxication. an amphetamine overdose. an overdose of benzodiazepines. marijuana usage. Question: An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for: exercises that strengthen the neck muscles. a follow-up visit in 2 months. a neurological evaluation. an orthopedic referral. Question: Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include: noticeable bleeding between the dura and the skull on X-ray. appropriate responses to questions. noticeable bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum on X-ray. absent retinal hemorrhages. Question: Assessment findings in an infant with increased intracranial pressure would include: increasedhunger. drowsiness. papilledema. blurred vision. Question: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of: position and vibration. pain and temperature. deeptouch. discriminative sensations. Question: The term used to describe low back pain with nerve pain that radiates down the leg is: asterixis. sciatica. dermatome. stereognosis. Question: A form of aphasia in which the speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious effort and inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, is termed: Broca's aphasia. anomicaphasia. Wernicke'saphasia. global aphasia. Question: Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a: polyneuropathy. myopathy. sensoryneuropathy. cerebellar disease. Question: Symmetric weakness of the proximal muscles of the legs suggests a: polyneuropathy. myopathy. sensoryneuropathy. cerebellar disease. Question: Dysarthria refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: Walking on the toes and heels may reveal: distal muscular weakness in the legs. ataxia. a cerebellar dysfunction. proximal weakness of the extensors of the hip. Question: When upper motor neuron systems are damaged above the crossover of its tracts in the medulla, motor impairment develops on the opposite side. This term is: ipsilateral. contralateral. superficial. intermediate. Question: An infant with fetal alcohol syndrome would: appear calm, happy and cooing in the hospital crib. be irritable, hyperactive and exhibit a high-pitched cry. perspire, vomit and have diarrhea. appear shaky, hypoactive, and in respiratory distress. Question: Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of: facialtics. dystonicmovements. athetoid movements. oral-facial dyskinesias. Question: An example of symmetric weakness is: the right shoulder. the right hand. both arms. one the right side of the face. Question: Anesthesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the: Delirium Rating Scale (DRS). Confusion Assessment Method (CAM). Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE). Delirium Superimposed on Dementia Algorithm (DSDA). Question: An indication that there is a malfunction of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt in an older child would be the presence of a: headache upon awakening. temperature greater than 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. noticeable increase in activity. bulging fontanels. Question: When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Thoracic 8, 9, and 10 Thoracic 10, 11, and 12 Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1 Sacral 2, 3, and 4 Question: While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve X (CN X) Question: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that arouses from sleep only after painful stimuli is known as: obtundation. alertness. lethargy. stupor. Question: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the spinothalamic tracts would include assessing sensations of: position and vibration. pain and temperature. deeptouch. discriminative sensations. Question: Hypalgesia refers to: decreased sensitivity to pain. increased sensitivity to pain. absence of pain sensation. absence of touch sensation. Question: Which choice is least likely to be an example of asymmetric weakness? The right shoulder The right hand Both arms One the right side of the face Question: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates head movements? Motor system Cerebellarsystem Vestibular system Sensory system Question: When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of : a lesion in the opposite cerebral hemisphere. polyneuropathy. a spinal cord lesion. a peripheral lesion. Question: A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is: reassess the patient in 6 months. obtain cognitive and functional assessment. assess respiratory assessment. assess cardiac function. Question: The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which Cranial nerve? Cranial nerve III (CN III) Cranial nerve V (CN V) Cranial nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial nerve XII (CN XII) Question: The best method of detecting cognitive impairment or mental retardation at an early age is by: performing neuropsychological testing of intelligence. administration of an IQ test of cognitive abilities. radiographic evaluation of the brain and brainstem. assessment of the achievement of developmental milestones. Question: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a lethargic patient: opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused. appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. remains unarousable with eyes closed. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the ankle, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right ankle. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Sacral 1 Question: The term used to describe the absence or loss of control of voluntary muscle movements is: dystonia. bradykinesia. akinesia. dyskinesia. Question: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was noted. This is a positive: Brudzinski'ssign. Kernig'ssign. nuchal rigidity sign. Babinski's sign. Question: The part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates muscle movement and response to the sensations of pain and touch is the: autonomic nervous system. somatic nervous system. sympathetic nervous system. parasympathetic nervous system. Question: The part of the brain that coordinates all movement and helps maintain the body upright in space is the: cerebrum. brainstem. cerebellum. diencephalon. Question: The part of the brain tissue that consists of neuronal axons that are coated with myelin is the: basalganglion. white matter. graymatter. thalamus. Question: A patient complains of experiencing symptoms of nausea, diaphoresis, and pallor triggered by a fearful or unpleasant event. These symptoms are most likely associated with: subarachnoidhemorrhage. stroke. neurocardiogenic syncope. vasovagal syncope. Question: The patient has his eyes closed and an area on his right leg is briefly touched by the nurse practitioner. The patient is instructed to open his eyes and point to the area that was touched. This is an example of the discriminative sensation known as: graphesthesia. stereognosis. two point discrimination. point localization. Question: Hyperesthesia refers to: absence of touch sensation. decreased sensitivity to touch. increased sensitivity to touch. absence of pain sensation. Question: A patient who is being evaluated for frequent headaches, mentions that the headache worsens with coughing, sneezing, or when changing positions. Increasing pain with these maneuvers may be suggestive of: a brain tumor. amigraine. seizureactivity. subarachnoid hemorrhage. Question: The term used to describe an abnormal tremor consisting of involuntary jerking movements, especially in the hands is: asterixis. sciatica. dermatome. stereognosis. Question: Which one of the following assesses pain, temperature, and sensation using the distal and proximal areas testing pattern? Test the sensation in the thumbs and little fingers Compare the sensation in the right arm to that in the left arm Test the sensation in the fingers and the toes Stimulate first at an area of reduced sensation and move by progressive steps until the patient detects a change Question: The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the: basalganglion. thalamus. hypothalamus. cerebellum. Question: An example of tandem walking is having the patient: walk across the room. walk heel-to-toe. walk on the toes, then on the heels. walk with a shallow knee bend. Question: The central nervous system extends from the medulla into the: midbrain. pons. cerebrum. spinal cord. Question: A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves: I. II. III. VIII. Question: When assessing the patient's sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is: considered a normal finding. suggestive of ataxia related to dorsal column disease. suggestive of cerebellar ataxia. corticospinal track damage. Question: When evaluating the six cardinal directions of gaze, a loss of conjugate movements is noted when the patient looks to his left. This finding could be consistent with damage to which cranial nerve? Cranial Nerve II (CN II) Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV) Cranial Nerve V (CN V) Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII) Question: Dysarthria refers to: the inability to produce or understand language. the loss of voice. an impairment in volume of the voice. a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus. Question: Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the: voice. articulation of speech. written language. comprehension of language. Question: Unilateral weakness in cranial nerve V (CN V) would be suggestive of a: bilateral hemispheric disease. central nervous system lesions. pontine lesion. brainstem lesion. Question: The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is: Herpes simplex virus Type II Picornavirus Enteroviruses Herpes simplex virus Type I Question: The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which Cranial nerve? Cranial nerve III (CN III) Cranial nerve V (CN V) Cranial nerve VII (CN VII) Cranial nerve XII (CN XII) Question: Intention tremors appear with movement and: worsen with stress. increase during sleep. are more pronounced when maintaining a posture. worsen as the target gets closer. Question: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates a steady posture? Motor system Cerebellar system Vestibular system Sensory system Question: Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs may be consistent with: a myoclonic seizure. an absent seizure. a myoclonic atonic seizure. a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness. Question: A patient experiences difficulty rising from a sitting position without arm support. This would be suggestive of: distal muscle weakness of the pelvic girdle and legs. poor muscle coordination. proximal muscle weakness of the pelvic girdle and legs. a weak vestibular system. Question: Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following? Walks by placing the heels of the feet down first Moves about by crawling on the abdomen or all four extremities Generally meets motor developmental milestones on schedule Presence of crossed or touching knees Question: A teenager is being assessed for possible acute marijuana usage and appears intoxicated. Findings consistent with marijuana intoxication could include: euphoria, talkativeness, and paranoia. mild respiratory distress, ataxia, and normal blood pressure. drowsiness, constricted pupils, and memory impairment. impaired judgment, anxiety, and slurred speech. Question: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the triceps, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right triceps. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine? Cervical 5 and 6 Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4 Sacral 1 Question: The central nervous system extends from the medulla into the: midbrain. pons. cerebrum. spinal cord. Question: Which nerve runs from the spine through the neck, the axilla, and into the arm? Median nerve Ulnarnerve Radialnerve Brachial plexus [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Pregnancy / NR 509 APEA Exam Pregnancy (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Pregnancy / NR 509 APEA Exam Pregnancy (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| ... [Show More] NR 509 APEA Test (Pregnancy) / NR509 APEA Exam (Pregnancy) (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Pregnancy / NR 509 APEA Exam Pregnancy (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: What is the standard instrument used to auscultate fetal heart tones? Stethoscope Doppler Pre-natal monitor Ultrasound Question: During pregnancy, what sound may be auscultated at the second or third intercostal space at the sternal border due to increased blood flow through the vessels? Diastolic murmur Systolicmurmur Venous hum Bruit Question: If regular uterine contractions occur prior to 37 weeks gestation, this could be: a normal finding. preterm labor. preeclampsia. supine hypotensive syndrome. Question: Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 18.5 - 24.9, the total weight gain should be: 11-20 pounds. 15-25 pounds. 25-35 pounds 28-40 pounds. Question: During pregnancy, a palpable softening of the cervical isthmus is noted. This finding is: Hegar's sign. Chadwick'ssign. striaegravidarum. lineanigra. Question: As tension on the abdominal wall increases with advancing pregnancy, the rectus abdominis muscles may separate at the midline of the abdomen. This finding is termed: striaegravidarum. lineanigra. adnexae. diastasis recti. Question: Facial edema in a pregnant woman after 20 weeks gestation, could be: a normal finding. suggestive of preeclampsia. renal failure. In heart failure. Question: Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is < 18.5, the total weight gain should be: 11-20 pounds. 15-25 pounds. 25-35 pounds 28-40 pounds. Question: Murmurs audible during pregnancy may suggest: preeclampsia. hypertension. Inanemia. pulmonary embolus. Question: What is the importance of prenatal care? Determines gestational age Estimates expected date of delivery Optimizes health and minimizes risk for mother and fetus Obtain family history Question: During pregnancy, which hormone promotes endometrial growth that supports the early embryo? Progesterone In Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Estrogen Human placental lactogen Question: B/P readings greater than 140 mm HG systolic and greater than 90 mm HG diastolic prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum is: gestationalhypertension. preeclampsia. chronic hypertension. primary hypertension. In Question: Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy products, such as soft cheese, raw eggs, and delicatessen meats because of the risk of: ingesting large amounts of mercury. ingestion large amounts of vitamin A. contracting toxoplasmosis. contracting botulism. In Question: When performing a pelvic exam on a pregnant woman, a larger speculum may be needed because of: increased vascularity of the vagina. vaginal wall relaxation. increased vascularity of the cervical structures. swelling in the vaginal cavity. Question: During pregnancy, which hormone is produced by the placenta and supports progesterone synthesis in the corpus luteum? Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Estrogen Human placental lactogen Question: When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: vertical lie. transverselie. facepresentation. vertex presentation. In Question: During the vaginal examination of a pregnant woman in her first trimester, an adnexal mass with tenderness is palpated. This finding could be consistent with: multiplegestation. a fibroid tumor. In an ectopic pregnancy. a false pregnancy. Question: Normal changes in the breast and nipples during pregnancy include all of the following except: a marked venous pattern on the breast. darkenednipples. mastitis. darkened areola. Question: During pregnancy, a patient's fundal height measured 26 centimeters. This would suggest that the gestational age was: 13 weeks. 26 weeks. 30 weeks. 36 weeks. Question: When should an oral glucose tolerance test be performed during pregnancy? Initially, when the pregnancy is confirmed 8 weeks 24 weeks 30 weeks Question: Inflamed and overgrown gingiva during pregnancy is: a common finding during pregnancy. suggestive of anemia. suggestive of periodontal disease. indicative of poor nutrition. Question: When performing the third Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, the fetal head is the presenting part. This finding is referred to as the: verticallie. transverselie. facepresentation. vertex presentation. Question: Inaudible fetal heart tones (FHT) may indicate: extra amniotic fluid. In severe fetal morbidity. earlier gestation than expected. intrauterine growth restriction. Question: Which one of the following symptoms would be seen in a 39 week gestational age patient who was suspected of having HELLP syndrome? Decreased liver enzymes, low platelet count, and nausea Vomiting, flu - like symptoms, and platelet count < 100,000 Flu - like symptoms, low platelet count, and decreased liver enzymes Hypotensive, malaise, and elevated platelet count > 100,000 In Question: The cervical opening or shortening noted during a bimanual examination prior to 37 weeks gestation, may indicate: ectopicpregnancy. preterm labor. leiomyomata. cervical erosion. Question: Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 25 - 29.9, the total weight gain should be: 11-20 pounds. 15-25 pounds. 25-35 pounds 28-40 pounds. Question: During pregnancy, as the skin over the abdomen stretches to accommodate the fetus, this purplish mark may appear. This finding is: Hegar'ssign. Chadwick'ssign. striaegravidarum. lineanigra. Question: During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: preeclampsia. hypertension. peripartum cardiomyopathy. cocaine use. Question: When should a vaginal swab for Group B streptococcus be obtained in a pregnant woman? Initially, when the pregnancy is confirmed 12-18 weeks 24-30 weeks 35 -37 weeks Question: Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for one third of all low-birth-weight infants, placental abruption, and preterm labor? Illicit drugs Alcohol Tobacco Prescription drugs Question: Normal findings of the vaginal wall of a pregnant woman, include all of the following except: bluishcolor. deeprugae. leukorrhea. lochia. Question: During pregnancy, which hormone is responsible for increasing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia associated with gestational diabetes? Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Estrogen Human placental lactogen Question: To estimate the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele's rule, if the last menses was March 3, 2014, the EDD would be: December 7, 2014. January 10, 2015. January 7, 2015. December 10, 2014. Question: During pregnancy, which hormone results in increased blood viscosity? Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) In Estrogen Progesterone Erythropoietin Question: In the third trimester of pregnancy, which position affords the greatest comfort by reducing the weight of the uterus on the abdominal vessels? Left side lying In Right side lying Supine Semi-sitting with knees bent Question: Ingestion of large sea-going fish, such as tuna, swordfish and shark should be avoided in pregnant women, because they contain large amounts of: Vitamin A Mercury Iron Toxoplasmosis Question: When might fundal height in a pregnant woman most accurately predict gestational age? 10 weeks gestation 14 weeks gestation 18 weeks gestation 40weeks gestation In Question: If fetal movement cannot be perceived after 24 weeks gestation, all of the following may be considered except: fetaldemise. false pregnancy. an error in calculating gestational age. a normal finding. Question: During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4 centimeters smaller than expected, consider: large for gestationa l age infantextra amniotic fluid uterineleiomyomaintrauterine growth restriction. Question: During pregnancy, the Leopold maneuvers assist in determining all of the following except: fetal position within the maternal abdomen. readiness for vaginal birth. adequacy of fetal growth. In cervical effacement. Question: Irregular brownish patches around the forehead, cheeks, nose, and jaw noted during pregnancy are: pallor. nevi. chloasma. hirsutism. Question: Symptoms on initial assessment of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia are: blood pressure 158/100; urinary output 50 ml./hour; lungs clear upon auscultation; +1 urine protein on dipstick; and edema of the hands, ankles, and feet. On assessment an hour later, which one of the following symptoms would indicate worsening of preeclampsia? Blood pressure 158/104 Urinary output of 20 ml/ hour Reflexes 2+ Platelet count of 150,000 Question: During pregnancy, which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum and placenta to promote ligamentous laxity in the sacroiliac joint and pubic symphysis for passage of the fetus? Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Estrogen Human placental lactogen Relaxin Question: During the last trimester of pregnancy, the supine position causes the uterus to overlie the vertebral column and compress the descending aorta and inferior venal cava. This position causes the patient to become faint and dizzy resulting in: a hypertensive crisis. supine hypotensive syndrome. preeclampsia. gestational hypertension. Question: Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for the leading cause of preventable intellectual disability? Illicit drugs Alcohol Tobacco Prescription drugs Question: A five percent weight loss during the first trimester due to vomiting would be considered: normal weight loss. mild weight loss. moderate weight loss. excessive weight loss. Question: Increased vascularity throughout the pelvis during pregnancy gives the vagina a bluish color. This sign is: Hegar'ssign. Chadwick's sign. Quickeningsign. Leopold's sign. Question: Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is = 30, the total weight gain should be: 11-20 pounds. 15-25 pounds. 25-35 pounds 28-40 pounds. Question: In pregnant women, between 10 to 18 weeks gestation, fetal heart tones (FHT) can be auscultated along the: woman'sback. woman's upper left quadrant. In midline of the woman's lower abdomen. upper left quadrant. Question: When performing the third Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, the cephalic prominence is on the same side as the back. This finding is referred to as the: verticallie. transverse lie. In face presentation. vertex presentation. Question: Hypertension that occurs after 20 weeks gestation in the absence of proteinuria is: gestational hypertension. preeclampsia. chronichypertension. primary hypertension. Question: During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4 centimeters larger than expected, consider all of the following except: large for gestational age infantextra amniotic fluid uterineleiomyomafetal anomaly Question: During pregnancy, which hormone increases tidal volume and alveolar minute ventilation, lowers esophageal sphincter tone, and relaxes tone in the uterus and bladder? Progesterone Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) Estrogen Human placental lactogen Question: The normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range is: 60-90 beats per minute. 90-110 beats per minute. 120-160 beats per minute. 140-180 beats per minute. Question: New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is: gestationalhypertension. preeclampsia. chronichypertension. primary hypertension. Question: A form of milk produced by the mammary glands during late pregnancy is referred to as: witch'smilk. colostrum. breastmilk. lactating milk. Question: When examining the pregnant patient, conjunctival pallor may indicate: leukemia. anemia. preeclampsia. hypertension. Question: When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are not easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: verticallie. transverse lie. facepresentation. vertex presentation. Question: After 24 weeks gestation, auscultation of more than one fetal heart tone (FHT) in different locations with varying rates suggests: decelerations. fetaldistress. intrauterine growth restriction. multiple gestation. Question: During pregnancy, a brownish black pigmented vertical stripe along the midline of the abdomen may appear. This finding is: Hegar'ssign. Chadwick'ssign. striaegravidarum. lineanigra. Question: During the examination of a pregnant woman, knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes appear hyperreflexic. This finding could be suggestive of: hypertension. gestationaldiabetes. preeclampsia. an embolus. Question: Upon cervical examination of the pregnant woman, cervical erosion, erythema, and irritation are noted. These findings could be suggestive of: cervicalcancer. a non-pregnant state. cervicitis. bacterial vaginosis. [Show Less]
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NR509 APEA Test Womens health / NR 509 APEA Exam Womens health (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR509 APEA Test Womens health / NR 509 APEA Exam Womens health (Latest-2021): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q ... [Show More] & A| NR 509 APEA Test (Womens health) / NR509 APEA Exam (Womens health): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR509 APEA Test Womens health / NR 509 APEA Exam Womens health (Latest): Advanced physical assessment: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question: When palpating the cervix during the bimanual exam, cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign) is noted. This tenderness could be suggestive of: retroversion of the uterus. pelvic inflammatory disease. vulvar lesions. Bartholin gland infection. Question: In a female diagnosed with a first-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix: is located in its normal position. has slipped but is well within the vagina. is located in the introitus. and vagina are outside the introitus. Question: Daughters of women who took Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy are at a high risk for developing all of the following abnormalities except: columnar epithelium covering most or all of the cervix. a slit- like cervical os. vaginaladenosis. a circular collar or ridge of tissue between the cervix and the vagina. Question: A female patient presents with a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. This vaginal discharge is most consistent with: candidalvaginitis. bacterialvaginosis. Trichomonal vaginitis. gonorrhea. Question: The most common causes of sexual problems in females are related to: lack of sexual desire. inadequate vaginal lubrication. psychosocial factors. pelvic disorders. Question: Chronic pelvic pain refers to pain that does not respond to therapy and: lasts more than 3 months. lasts more than 6 months. lasts more than 9 months. lasts more than 12 months. Question: In female patients with dyspareunia, superficial pain is most likely related to all of the following except: localinflammation. atrophic vaginitis. pressure on a normal ovary. inadequate lubrication. Question: If urethritis or inflammation of the paraurethral glands is suspected in a female patient, the index finger should be inserted into the vagina and: milk the urethra gently from the outside inward. milk the urethra gently from the inside outward. massage the urethral meatus with the other hand. massage the pelvic floor muscles in a clockwise fashion. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a swollen red ring is noted around the urethral opening. This finding is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa. urethral caruncle. cystocele. cystourethrocele. Question: When performing a bimanual vaginal exam, a solid, nodular-like lesion is palpated over the right ovary. This finding is most consistent with: ovarian cancer. an ovarian tumor. a right tubal pregnancy. atubo-ovarian abscess. Question: Indications for performing a rectovaginal exam include all of the following except to: palpate a retroverteduterus. assess pelvic pathology. assess an inguinal hernia. screen for colorectal cancer in women over 50. Question: Examination of a female patient's right breast reveals a retraction of the nipple and areola. This finding is consistent with: breast cancer. mastitis. Paget's disease of the breast. fibrocystic breast disease. Question: To assess pelvic floor muscle strength during the bimanual vaginal exam, have the patient squeeze around the inserted fingers for as long as possible. To consider full strength, snug compression should last for: 1 seconds. 2 seconds. 3 seconds. at lease 5 seconds. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a tense, hot, very tender abscess with labial swelling is noted. This finding is most consistent with a: cystocele. urethralcaruncle. rectocele. bartholin gland infection. Question: A female patient has a history of a retroverted uterus. This condition refers to: the normal position of the uterus and cervix. a tilting backward of the uterus and cervix. a backward angulation of the uterus in relation to its cervix. the cervix being located at the introitus and the uterus in the vaginal canal. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra create a bulge. This condition is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa. urethralcaruncle. cystocele. cystourethrocele. Question: Urethritis in a female patient may arise from all of the following organisms except: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Herpes simplex. Chlamydiatrachomatis. Campylobacter. Question: To palpate the uterus during a bimanual exam, the examiner would lubricate the index and middle fingers of one hand and insert them into the vagina. The other hand would be placed on the abdomen: near the symphysis pubis while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. about midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis while elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. just above the umbilicus while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. just below the umbilicus while pressing downward and elevating the cervix and uterus with the other hand. Question: When do the ovaries become non-palpable after menopause? One year Twoyears Three to five years Six to ten years Question: When performing a rectal exam on a female, a hard nodular rectal "shelf" is palpable at the tip of the examiner's finger. This finding is suggestive of: an ovarian cyst. metastatic tissue in the rectouterine pouch. rectal polyp. carcinoma of the rectum. Question: A twenty-year-old female complains of a milky discharge bilaterally from her breasts. This suggests: a normal finding in women in their early twenties. pregnancy or elevated prolactin level. breastdisease. breast cancer. Question: A woman complains of infrequent menses with intervals greater than 35 days. This condition is termed: oligomenorrhea. polymenorrhea. metrorrhagia. menorrhagia. Question: The most common cause of acute pelvic pain in women is: ruptured ovarian cysts. appendicitis. pelvic inflammatory disease. mittelschmerz. Question: When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the upper blade as a retractor could expose a: rectocele. cystocele. Bartholin gland infection. prolapse of the urethral mucosa. Question: When preparing to perform a pelvic exam in an older female, vaginal atrophy is noted. Due to this finding, the speculum: should not be used. should be a larger size. should be a smaller size. should be completely dry. Question: Upon examination of the cervix, a yellow drainage is visible around the cervical os. This finding is most likely suggestive of: candidalvaginitis. cervicalpolyp. carcinoma of the cervix. mucopurulent cervicitis. Question: When examining the cervix, a bright, red, soft and fragile lesion is noted on the cervical surface. This finding is consistent with: a retention cyst. an epidermoid cyst. a syphilitic chancre. a cervical polyp. Question: During examination of the vagina, a bulge in the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall is noted. This symptom is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa. urethralcaruncle. cystocele. cystourethrocele. Question: The most common type of hernia in women is the: femoralhernia. indirect inguinal hernia. incisionalhernia. umbilical hernia. Question: A female patient presents with a gray, thin, malodorous (fishy) vaginal discharge. These symptoms are most consistent with: candidalvaginitis. bacterial vaginosis Trichomonalvaginitis. gonorrhea. Question: When performing a bimanual vaginal exam, a smooth and rather compressible non-tender lesion is palpated over the right ovary. This finding is most consistent with: ovarian cancer. an ovarian cyst. a right tubal pregnancy. atubo-ovarian abscess. Question: When performing the bimanual vaginal exam, a nodule on the anterior uterine surface could suggest a (an): ovariancyst. myoma. pregnancy. pelvic inflammatory disease. Question: Cessation of the menses for 12 months is termed: oligomenorrhea. menopause. menorrhagia. metrorrhagia. Question: A woman complains of experiencing uterine bleeding between expected menstrual cycles. This condition is termed: oligomenorrhea. polymenorrhea. metrorrhagia. menorrhagia. Question: A 45-year old female presents to the nurse practitioner with complaints of postcoital bleeding (greater than spotting) unrelated to the menstrual cycle. What is the most likely cause? Endometriosis Cervical cancer Earlypregnancy Menopause Question: When performing the bimanual vaginal exam, uterine enlargement is noted. This enlargement could suggest: a malignancy. retroversion of the uterus. retroflexion of the uterus. pelvic inflammatory disease. Question: In which of the following situations would it be difficult for the examiner to palpate an ovary during the bimanual vaginal exam? A slender woman A woman who is anxious A relaxed woman A one year postmenopausal woman Question: Causes of post menopausal bleeding typically include all of the following except: endometrialcancer. hormone replacement therapy. atrophic vaginitis. uterine polyps. Question: A 35-year-old female presents with complaints of swelling of her right breast. Findings reveal edema of the lower portion of her right breast. The skin appears thickened with enlarged pores. This condition is consistent with: Paget's disease. thepeaud'orange sign. nippledeviation. skin dimpling. Question: The shiny, pink area located around the cervical os is known as: a retention cyst. the columnar epithelium. squamous epithelium. theendocervix. Question: During a speculum exam of the cervix the speculum is maintained in an open position by: sliding the speculum along the posterior wall of the vagina. rotating and adjusting the speculum until it cups the cervix. gently tightening the thumb screw on the speculum. rotating the speculum into a horizontal position while maintaining pressure posteriorly. Question: A female patient presents with a white and curd-like thin vaginal discharge. This discharge is most consistent with: candidal vaginitis. bacterial vaginosis Trichomonalvaginitis. gonorrhea. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a bulge is noted in the lower posterior wall of the vagina. This finding is most consistent with a: cystocele. cystourethrocele. rectocele. bartholin's gland infection. Question: Upon examination of the cervix, an irregular cauliflower-like growth was noted around the cervical os. This finding is most suggestive of: venerealwarts. a cervical polyp. carcinoma of the cervix. genital herpes. Question: Upon examination of the vagina, a small, red, benign tumor is noted at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. This finding is most consistent with a: prolapse of the urethral mucosa. urethral caruncle. cystocele. cystourethrocele. Question: To palpate an indirect inguinal hernia in a woman, have her stand and palpate in the labia majora and: palpate the external floor muscles in a clockwise position. apply pressure against the anterior and lateral walls of the vagina. in the rectum. palpate upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercles. Question: An ulcerated vulvar lesion in an elderly woman may indicate: Condylomataacuminata. a syphilitic chancre. vulvar cancer. ovarian cancer. Question: Pelvic floor muscle weakness may be due to all of the following except: aging. dyspareunia. stressincontinence. Parkinson's disease Question: In a female diagnosed with a third-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix: is located in its normal position. has slipped but is well within the vagina. is located in the introitus. and vagina are outside the introitus. Question: A woman complains of abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual periods that occur at regular intervals. This condition is most likely: oligomenorrhea. polymenorrhea. metrorrhagia. menorrhagia. Question: In a female diagnosed with a second-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix: is located in its normal position. has slipped but is well within the vagina. is located in the introitus. andvagina are outside the introitus. Question: A woman complains of experiencing frequent menses with intervals of fewer than 21 days. This condition is termed: oligomenorrhea. polymenorrhea. metrorrhagia. menorrhagia. Question: If performed ly and in a timely fashion, which one of the following is most definitive for the diagnosis of breast cancer? Breast tissue sample Digital mammogram Self-breast examination Clinical breast exam Question: Retraction of the nipple and areola suggest: a cystic breast. an underlying breast mass. afibroadenoma. a normal finding in most women. Question: The vaginal mucosa lies in transverse folds called the: fornices. rugae. corpus. fornix. Question: The most important risk factor for cervical cancer is: failure to undergo screening. multiple sexual partners. long term use of oral contraception. persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes. Question: When performing a bimanual exam of the vagina, the examiner should lubricate the index and middle fingers of a gloved hand. From a standing position, the fingers should be inserted into the vagina while exerting pressure primarily: anteriorly. posteriorly. toward the "4-o"clock" position. toward the "8-o"clock" position. Question: Fixed flattening of the nipple suggests: dimpling. nipple retraction. cysticbreasts. galactorrhea. Question: Chronic pelvic pain may be secondary to all of the above except: sexually transmitted diseases. sexualabuse. fibroids. peptic ulcer disease. Question: When discussing the female anatomy, the introitus is also known as the: uterus. vaginalcanal. vaginal opening. cervicalos. Question: When performing a breast exam, a mobile mass becomes fixed when the arm relaxes. This suggests that the mass is: cystic. attached to the rib or intercostal muscle. nonmalignant. attached to the pectoral fascia. Question: To palpate the right ovary when performing the bimanual vaginal exam, the abdominal hand should be on the right lower quadrant and the pelvic hand needs to be: in the left lateral fornix. in the right lateral fornix. exerting pressure primarily posteriorly. elevating the cervix and uterus simultaneously. Question: When performing an examination of the external genitalia of a female patient, a small, firm, round cystic nodule in the labia is identified. This lesion is most consistent with: a syphilitic chancre. an epidermoid cyst. Condylomataacuminata. genital herpes. Question: Primary dysmenorrhea results from: endometriosis. increased prostaglandin production during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. pelvic inflammatory disease. endometriosis in the muscular layers of the uterus. Question: The deep red area located around the cervical os is known as: a retention cyst. the columnar epithelium. squamousepithelium. theendocervix. Question: When examining the cervix, a translucent nodule is noted on the cervical surface. This finding is consistent with: a retention cyst. an epidermoid cysta syphilitic chancre. a cervical polyp. Question: To palpate the left ovary when performing the bimanual vaginal exam, the abdominal hand should be on the left lower quadrant and the pelvic hand needs to be: in the left lateral fornix. in the right lateral fornix. exerting pressure primarily posteriorly. elevating the cervix and uterus simultaneously. Question: When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the lower blade as a retractor during bearing down could expose an anterior wall defect such as a: rectocele. cystocele. Bartholin gland infection. prolapse of the urethral mucosa. [Show Less]
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