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NR507 Final Exam (7 Versions) & Study Guide (2 Versions), NR507 Midterm Exam (6 Versions) & Study Guide (2 Versions), NR507 Week 1 to 7 Quiz (2 Versions), Question Bank (New-2023): Chamberlain
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NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-1) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-1) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Corre... [Show More] ct Q & A| NR507 Week 8 Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Newest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question : 1 What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? Student Answer: Encephalocele Meningocele Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Instructor Explanation: Question 2. Question : What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? Student Answer: Glomerular filtration rate Hourly urine output Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine Question 3. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found? Student Answer: Skin Intestinal lining Kidney Thyroid Question 4. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? Student Answer: Trachea Segmental bronchi Alveolocapillary membrane Main bronchus Question 5. Question : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by: Student Answer: 2 years 1 year 10 months 5 months Question 6. Question : When renin is released, it is capable of which action? Student Answer: Inactivation of autoregulation Direct activation of angiotensin II Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Formation of angiotensin I Question 7. Question : The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? Student Answer: Immunotope Paratope Epitope Antigenitope Question 8. Question : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? Student Answer: Syphilis Herpes simplex virus Chlamydia Chancroid Question 9. Question : How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? Student Answer: Reticulocyte count Serum transferring Hemoglobin Serum vitamin B12 Question 10. Question : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Student Answer: Blood vessels Epithelial cells Connective tissue Glandular tissue Question 11. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? Student Answer: Viruses Bacteria and fungi Protozoa and Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Question 12. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Student Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 13. Question : An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom? Student Answer: Intermittent murmur Lack of symptoms Need for surgical repair Triad of congenital defects Question 14. Question : What is the function of erythrocytes? Student Answer: Tissue oxygenation Hemostasis Infection control Allergy response Question 15. Question : Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Student Answer: Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Question 16. Question : What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)? Student Answer: 20% 25% 33% 50% Question 17. Question : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? Student Answer: Nasal turbinates Alveolar macrophages Cilia Irritant receptors on the nares Question 18. Question : The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? Student Answer: Posterior pituitary Thyroid Parathyroid Anterior pituitary Question 19. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection? Student Answer: The virus does not circulate in the blood. It does not have antibody receptors. It resists agglutination. The virus is a soluble antigen. Question 20. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults? Student Answer: Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Decrease in urine output Question 21. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? Student Answer: IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 22. Question : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Student Answer: Norepinephrine Epinephrine Cortisol Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Question 23. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? Student Answer: The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. Question 24. Question : The function of the tumor cell marker is to: Student Answer: Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer. Treat certain types of cancer. Predict where cancers will develop. Screen individuals at high risk for cancer. Question 25. Question : Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection? Student Answer: Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails. Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections. Fungal infections release endotoxins. Vaccines prevent fungal infections. Question 26. Question : Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? Student Answer: The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. Estrogen levels are low. Question 27. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term? Student Answer: Relativity Survivability Prevalence Incidence Question 28. Question : Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Student Answer: Sodium intake Physical inactivity Psychosocial stress Obesity Question 29. Question : Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Student Answer: Atretic follicle Thecal follicle Corpus luteum Functional scar Question 30. Question : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? Student Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets Osteochondrosis Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Question 31. Question : What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding? Student Answer: Tolerance Perception Threshold Dominance Question 32. Question : Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of: Student Answer: Magnesium Calcium Sodium Water Question 33. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Student Answer: Hemorrhagic Thrombotic Embolic Lacunar Question 34. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Student Answer: Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Question 35. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? Student Answer: Heat cramps Heat stroke Malignant hyperthermia Heat exhaustion Question 36. Question : What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Student Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Salpingitis Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 37. Question : Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Student Answer: Thyroxine Aldosterone Follicle-stimulating hormone Insulin Question 38. Question : What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? Student Answer: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Question 39. Question : What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Student Answer: Diet high in saturated fats Increased production of cholesterol by the liver Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood Question 40. Question : Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? Student Answer: Genetic Empirical Relative Modifiable Question 41. Question : Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction? Student Answer: Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation Question 42. Question : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Student Answer: Twofold Threefold Fourfold Tenfold Question 43. Question : Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Student Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Estrogen Question 44. Question : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome? Student Answer: Turner Klinefelter Down Fragile X Question 45. Question : Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? Student Answer: Blunted affect Auditory hallucinations Poverty of speech Lack of social interaction Question 46. Question : What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? Student Answer: Agnosia Aphasia Akinesia Dysphasia Question 47. Question : Consanguinity refers to the mating of persons: Student Answer: Who are unrelated When one has an autosomal dominant disorder Having common family relations When one has a chromosomal abnormality Question 48. Question : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? Student Answer: Thalamus Brainstem Frontal lobe Hypothalamus Question 49. Question : Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? Student Answer: Sodium Potassium Calcium Magnesium Question 50. Question : Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? Student Answer: Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder Colonization of the bladder when urine is static Question 51. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? Student Answer: 3 6 9 12 Question 52. Question : What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? Student Answer: Periorbital edema Scrotal or labial edema Frothy urine Ascites Question 53. Question : An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? Student Answer: Chorionic Alpha fetoprotein Amniotic Embryonic Question 54. Question : What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases? Student Answer: 10% 30% 50% 70% Question 55. Question : Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact? Student Answer: Dislocation Subluxation Malunion Nonunion Question 56. Question : The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: Student Answer: Fracture Strain Disunion Sprain Question 57. Question : Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Student Answer: Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children. Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Question 58. Question : The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? Student Answer: Ovarian Lung Uterine Pancreatic Question 59. Question : Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? Student Answer: Potassium Calcium Sodium Phosphorus Question 60. Question : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? Student Answer: Procallus Joint capsule Hematoma Elastin fibers Question 61. Question : Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? Student Answer: Cortisol Oxytocin Epinephrine Growth hormone Question 62. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? Student Answer: IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 63. Question : The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder? Student Answer: Night terrors Insomnia Somnambulism Enuresis Question 64. Question : What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? Student Answer: Small channels called canaliculi Osteocytes within the lacunae Tiny spaces within the lacunae Haversian system Question 65. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: Student Answer: Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Frontal lobe Basal ganglia Question 66. Question : Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? Student Answer: GCT Pattern theory Specificity theory Neuromatrix theory Question 67. Question : Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)? Student Answer: IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 68. Question : What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture? Student Answer: Idiopathic Incomplete Pathologic Greenstick Question 69. Question : An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Student Answer: Congenital aganglionic megacolon Intussusception Malrotation Volvulus Question 70. Question : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Student Answer: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Question 71. Question : Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? Student Answer: Slow contraction speed Fast conduction velocities Profuse capillary supply Oxidative metabolism Question 72. Question : Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Student Answer: Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Question 73. Question : Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? Student Answer: Thyroxine Oxytocin Growth hormone Insulin Question 74. Question : How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? Student Answer: The release of epinephrine causes shivering. It affects muscle tone. It raises the metabolic rate. It increases and strengthens the heart rate. Question 75. Question : Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? Student Answer: Inhibin Leptin Activin Follistatin [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1 Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus Myasthenia gravis Question 2 How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Question 3 What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? Encephalocele Meningocele Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Question 4 Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? 6 to 8 weeks 8 to 12 months Until the iron level is normal The rest of one’s life Question 5 Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator? Leukotriene Histamine Prostaglandin Bradykinin Question 6 The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a BMI of: 18.5 to 24.9 25 to 29.9 30 to 39.9 40 to 50.9 IncorrectQuestion 7 When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero? Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible. Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment. The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble to water-soluble form. The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth. Question 8 Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? Increasing rate and depth of breathing Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin Question 9 An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 10 Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? Syphilis Gonorrhea Human papillomavirus Pelvic inflammatory disease Question 11 When renin is released, it is capable of which action? Inactivation of autoregulation Direct activation of angiotensin II Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Formation of angiotensin I Question 12 What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? Greater quantities of histamine More histamine receptors Greater quantities of IgE A deficiency in epinephrine Question 13 What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera? Decreased erythrocyte count Destruction of erythrocytes Increased blood viscosity Neurologic involvement Question 14 Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood? Superior vena cava Aorta Inferior vena cava Pulmonary veins Question 15 Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize: Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens Question 16 What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)? 20% 25% 33% 50% Question 17 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Blood vessels Epithelial cells Connective tissue Glandular tissue Question 18 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Question 19 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Toxigenicity Pathogenicity Virulence Question 20 An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 21 Which cancer originates from connective tissue? Osteogenic sarcoma Basal cell carcinoma Multiple myeloma Adenocarcinoma Question 22 Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? Iron Erythropoietin Cobalamin (vitamin B12) Folate Question 23 Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? Monocytes Platelets Macrophages Erythrocytes Question 24 What is the term for a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull? Encephalocele Meningocele Arachnoidocele Cephacephalocele Question 25 A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: Hemolytic shock Anaphylaxis Necrotizing vasculitis Systemic erythematosus Question 26 Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? Slow contraction speed Fast conduction velocities Profuse capillary supply Oxidative metabolism Question 27 What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture? Idiopathic Incomplete Pathologic Greenstick Question 28 What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Limbic system Parietal lobe Thalamus Hypothalamus Question 29 The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is: Posterior Inferior Anterior Superior Question 30 Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Paroxysmal Tardive Hyperkinesia Cardive Question 31 Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep? Non-REM Light REM Delta wave Question 32 Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness IncorrectQuestion 33 Where is oxytocin synthesized? Hypothalamus Paraventricular nuclei Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary IncorrectQuestion 34 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Kaposi sarcoma Toxoplasmosis Cytomegalovirus Question 35 Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Hemorrhagic Thrombotic Embolic Lacunar Question 36 How many days does it take for the entire epithelial population of the small intestines to be replaced? 30 to 45 15 to 25 7 to 15 4 to 7 Question 37 What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? Agnosia Aphasia Akinesia Dysphasia Question 38 Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: Decreased production of aqueous humor Increased production of vitreous humor Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Question 39 What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? Chondrosarcoma Fibrosarcoma Ewing Sarcoma Osteosarcoma Question 40 What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Diet high in saturated fats Increased production of cholesterol by the liver Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood Question 41 Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Sodium intake Physical inactivity Psychosocial stress Obesity Question 42 Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Thyroxine Aldosterone Follicle-stimulating hormone Insulin Question 43 When does the male body begin to produce sperm? Before birth Shortly after birth At puberty When erection is possible Question 44 Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 45 Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Phosphorus Calcium Alkaline phosphatase Total protein Question 46 What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis? Reduced excretion of purines Overproduction of uric acid Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels Overproduction of proteoglycans Question 47 Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria? Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus Pseudomonas aeruginosa Haemophilus Question 48 Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? NSAIDs Estrogen SSRIs Progesterone Question 49 What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? Down syndrome Fragile X syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Question 50 Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? Potassium Calcium Sodium Phosphorus Question 51 Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Estrogen Question 52 The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Thyroxine Insulin Cortisol. Antidiuretic hormone Question 53 Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor? Norepinephrine Gamma-aminobutyric acid Serotonin Dopamine Question 54 In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Disruption of the pituitary Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Physiologic hormonal delays Question 55 Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Question 56 What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? It becomes thinner. It becomes thicker. It assumes a neutral pH. It undergoes atrophy. Question 57 What is the first sign of puberty in girls? Breast enlargement Growth of pubic hair Menstruation Vaginal discharge Question 58 Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact? Dislocation Subluxation Malunion Nonunion Question 59 What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? Small channels called canaliculi Osteocytes within the lacunae Tiny spaces within the lacunae Haversian system Question 60 What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? Sharpey fibers Collagen fibers Glycoproteins Elastin fibers Question 61 Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: Positive feedback Negative feedback Neural regulation Physiologic regulation Question 62 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Premenstrual syndrome Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Polycystic ovary syndrome Primary dysmenorrhea Question 63 The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (wolffian system) in utero? Estrogen Progesterone Growth hormone Testosterone Question 64 Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production Question 65 Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Thyroxine (T4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Triiodothyronine (T3) Question 66 An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? C B12 B6 D Question 67 What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands? Enhancement of the motility of sperm Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse Question 68 Which hormone triggers uterine contractions? Thyroxine Oxytocin Growth hormone Insulin Question 69 Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? Heads of the femur Distal femurs Heads of the humerus Distal tibias Question 70 An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her: Phenotype Genotype Heterozygous locus Homozygous locus Question 71 What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout? Stones Spurs Tophi Nodes Question 72 Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor? Parietal Chief G H Question 73 A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 3 6 9 12 Question 74 A major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus is that there is: Partial insulin secretion An autoimmune cause factor Insulin resistance Obesity as a common risk factor Question 75 Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? Optic (CN I) Abducens (CN VI) Oculomotor (CN III) Trochlear (CN IV) [Show Less]
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NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-3) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-3) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Corre... [Show More] ct Q & A| NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1 What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? Refractory Threshold Sinoatrial (SA) Hyperpolarization Question 2 What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? 106/58 mm Hg 104/55 mm Hg 112/62 mm Hg 121/70 mm Hg Question 3 Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? Yeast Cancer cells Fungus Bacteria Question 4 An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Question 5 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Question 6 How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. Question 7 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Hair loss Nausea Weight loss Fatigue Question 8 At birth, which statement is true? Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. Question 9 What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? Vitamin B12 by injection Cyanocobalamin by oral intake Folate by oral intake Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection Question 10 Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? Cholera Rocky Mountain spotted fever Sleeping sickness Candida Question 11 Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age. The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake. Question 12 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. Question 13 During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? The nodes fill with purulent exudate. B lymphocytes proliferate. The nodes are not properly functioning. The nodes are inflamed. Question 14 What is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Traumatic injury Question 15 Which renal change is found in older adults? Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate Decrease in urine output Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons Question 16 After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? 24 to 36 18 to 20 6 to 14 1 to 2 Question 17 Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis? Neisseria syphilis Treponema pallidum Chlamydia trachomatis Haemophilusducreyi Question 18 The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? IgE IgG T cells IgM Question 19 Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as: Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Monocytes Question 20 In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Spleen Regional lymph nodes Thymus gland Bone marrow Question 21 Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? V IX X VIII Question 22 Which of the following causes condylomataacuminata or genital warts? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) Chlamydia Adenovirus Question 23 Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? Alarm Adaptation Flight or fight Arousal Question 24 Which chamber of the heart endures the highest pressures? Left ventricle Left atrium Right ventricle Right atrium Question 25 Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines? Uromodulin Urodilatin Cystatin Nephrin Question 26 Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Functional scar Thecal follicle Atretic follicle Corpus luteum Question 27 The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Health history Computed tomographic (CT) scan Skull x-ray studies Cerebrospinal fluid analysis Question 28 Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Alkaline phosphatase Calcium Total protein Phosphorus Question 29 How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature? It increases and strengthens the heart rate. The release of epinephrine causes shivering. It raises the metabolic rate. It affects muscle tone. Question 30 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Premenstrual syndrome Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Primary dysmenorrhea Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 31 What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty? It becomes thinner. It becomes thicker. It assumes a neutral pH. It undergoes atrophy. Question 32 Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults? Children have diarrhea more often than adults. Less water is absorbed from the colon in children. Fluid reserves are smaller in children. Children have a higher fluid volume intake. Question 33 The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations HLA associations and positive family history Autoantibodies and obesity Obesity and positive family history Question 34 What is the leading cause of infertility in women? Polycystic ovary syndrome Endometriosis Pelvic inflammatory disease Salpingitis Question 35 Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? Tenfold Fourfold Threefold Twofold Question 36 Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Ligament Tendon Bursa Mesentery Question 37 Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? Volvulus Intussusception Congenital aganglionic megacolon Malrotation Question 38 The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: Disunion Fracture Sprain Strain Question 39 Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Hyperkinesia Paroxysmal Tardive Cardive Question 40 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? Growth hormone Oxytocin Epinephrine Cortisol Question 41 It is true that myasthenia gravis: Is an acute autoimmune disease. Causes muscle weakness. May result in adrenergic crisis. Affects the nerve roots. Question 42 What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? Increases serum magnesium. Decreases serum calcium. Increases serum calcium. Decreases serum magnesium. Question 43 An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident? Embryonic Chorionic Alpha fetoprotein Amniotic Question 44 Which pancreatic enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of carbohydrates? Chymotrypsin Trypsin Amylase Lipase Question 45 What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Hypothalamus Thalamus Limbic system Parietal lobe Question 46 Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles? Calcium Magnesium Potassium Sodium Question 47 The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Cortisol. Insulin Thyroxine Antidiuretic hormone Question 48 In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption of the pituitary Physiologic hormonal delays Deficit in estrogen or testosterone Disruption in the hypothalamus Question 49 Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys Colonization of the bladder when urine is static Question 50 Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? Dementia syndrome Delirium Alzheimer disease Parkinson disease Question 51 Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? Estrogen levels are low. The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. Question 52 The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept? Incidence Ratio Risk Prevalence Question 53 Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness Question 54 Which assessment finding characterizes Osgood-Schlatter disease? Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow Question 55 Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? Abducens (CN VI) Trochlear (CN IV) Optic (CN I) Oculomotor (CN III) Question 56 What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Gradual decrease in estrogen levels Gradual increase in estrogen levels Sudden increase of LH Sharp rise in progesterone levels Question 57 Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia? Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps Question 58 Which would be considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia? Lack of social interaction Blunted affect Auditory hallucinations Poverty of speech Question 59 What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? Collagen fibers Elastin fibers Sharpey fibers Glycoproteins Question 60 At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? Pyloric stenosis Galactosemia Congenital aganglionic megacolon Esophageal atresia Question 61 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure? Sebaceous glands Eyelids Meibomian glands Conjunctiva Question 62 The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse. Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse. Question 63 What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout? Spurs Stones Nodes Tophi Question 64 The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder? Cri du chat Down syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome Question 65 Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? Relative Modifiable Empirical Genetic Question 66 Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Estrogen Luteinizing hormone (LH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Question 67 Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? Smoking Hypertension Polycythemia Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus Question 68 When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? Synergistic Direct Permissive Pharmacologic Question 69 Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction? Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling Question 70 Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia? Hypothalamus Limbic system Temporal lobe Parietal lobe . Question 71 Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? A depressed Hispanic woman A man diagnosed with schizophrenia An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday An individual on the second day after hip replacement Question 72 Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of: Calcium Water Sodium Magnesium Question 73 What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? Hyperspadias Hypospadias Chordee Epispadias Question 74 Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? SSRIs Estrogen NSAIDs Progesterone Question 75 A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 12 3 9 6 [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-4) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-4) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Final Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1 What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? a) Herpes simplex virus type 6 b) Herpes simplex virus type 2 c) Human papillomavirus d) Human immunodeficiency virus Question 2 Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma? a) An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b) A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging c) A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d) An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency Question 3 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: a) Infectivity b) Toxigenicity c) Pathogenicity d) Virulence Question 4 Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: a) Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling. b) The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults. c) The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults. d) The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively. Question 5 Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? a) 6 to 8 weeks b) 8 to 12 months c) Until the iron level is normal d) The rest of one’s life Question 6 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? a) Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b) Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging c) Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d) Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency Question 7 What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx? a) Nasal turbinates b) Alveolar macrophages c) Cilia d) Irritant receptors on the nares Question 8 As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole. a) Pressure; force Volume; b) strength Viscosity; c) force Viscosity; strength Question 9 The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by: a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 10 months d) 5 months Question 10 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a) Blood vessels b) Epithelial cells c) Connective tissue d) Glandular tissue Question 11 Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? a) Increasing rate and depth of breathing b) Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction c) Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen d) Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin Question 12 What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? a) Encephalocele b) Meningocele c) Spina bifida occulta d) Myelomeningocele Question 13 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a) Hypokalemia b) Hyperkalemia c) Hypocalcemia d) Hypercalcemia Question 14 After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months? a) 1 to 2 b) 6 to 14 c) 18 to 20 d) 24 to 36 Question 15 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? a) Norepinephrine b) Epinephrine c) Cortisol d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Question 16 Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? a) Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) Eosinophils d) Erythrocytes Question 17 Where are alveolar macrophages found? a) Skin b) Breasts c) Gastrointestinal tract d) Lungs Question 18 Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? a) Decreased flow resistance b) Fewer alveoli c) Stiffening of the chest wall d) Improved elastic recoil Question 19 An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom? a) Intermittent murmur b) Lack of symptoms c) Need for surgical repair d) Triad of congenital defects Question 20 Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? a) V b) VIII c) IX d) X Question 21 A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: a) Hemolytic shock b) Anaphylaxis c) Necrotizing vasculitis d) Systemic erythematosus Question 22 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? a) Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. b) Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. c) Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. d) Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Question 23 What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing? a) Anencephaly b) Myelodysplasia c) Cranial meningocele d) Hydrocephaly Question 24 At birth, which statement is true? a) Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. b) Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. c) Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises. d) Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise. Question 25 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? a) Nausea b) Fatigue c) Hair loss d) Weight loss Question 26 The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they: a) Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. b) Increase neurotransmitter levels in the presynapse. c) Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse. d) Decrease neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. Question 27 Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? a) Heat cramps b) Heat stroke c) Malignant hyperthermia d) Heat exhaustion Question 28 Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system? a) Central b) Parasympathetic c) Sympathetic d) Somatic Question 29 What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture? a) Idiopathic b) Incomplete c) Pathologic d) Greenstick Question 30 What is the leading cause of infertility in women? a) Pelvic inflammatory disease b) Endometriosis c) Salpingitis d) Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 31 Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia? a) Parietal lobe b) Limbic system c) Temporal lobe d) Hypothalamus . Question 32 What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands? a) Enhancement of the motility of sperm b) Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule c) Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage proliferation of pathogenic bacteria d) Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse Question 33 People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition? a) Renal calculi b) Joint trauma c) Anemia d) Hearing loss Question 34 The tear in a ligament is referred to as a: a) Fracture b) Strain c) Disunion d) Sprain Question 35 Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is considered to be what type of risk? a) Genetic b) Empirical c) Relative d) Modifiable Question 36 Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism? a) Twofold b) Threefold c) Fourfold d) Tenfold Question 37 What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis? a) Reduced excretion of purines b) Overproduction of uric acid c) Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels d) Overproduction of proteoglycans Question 38 It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): a) Is preceded by a viral illness. b) Involves a deficit in acetylcholine. c) Results in asymmetric paralysis. d) Is an outcome of HIV. Question 39 The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? a) Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Rickets c) Osteochondrosis d) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Question 40 Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? a) Increased consumption of dairy produces b) Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C c) Decreased consumption of foods high in fat d) Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring Question 41 The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder? a) Night terrors b) Insomnia c) Somnambulism d) Enuresis Question 42 Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? a) Human papillomavirus (HPV) b) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) c) Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) d) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Question 43 What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? a) Sharpey fibers b) Collagen fibers c) Glycoproteins d) Elastin fibers Question 44 2/ 2 pts Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor? a) Parietal b) Chief c) G d) H Question 45 Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion? a) Vitamin B6 b) Vitamin B1 c) Vitamin K d) Folic acid Question 46 What is the first sign of puberty in girls? a) Breast enlargement b) Growth of pubic hair c) Menstruation d) Vaginal discharge Question 47 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure? a) Eyelids b) Sebaceous glands c) Meibomian glands d) Conjunctiva Question 48 What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck? a) Down b) Cri du chat c) Turner d) Klinefelter Question 49 A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12 Question 50 Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: a) Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces b) Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells c) Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas d) Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production Question 51 Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? a) Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair b) An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears c) High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 d) Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness Question 52 Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? a) Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina. b) Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus. c) Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus. d) Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. Question 53 How can glaucoma cause blindness? a) Infection of the cornea b) Pressure on the optic nerve c) Opacity of the lens d) Obstruction of the venous return from the retina Question 54 Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s: a) Hypothalamus b) Anterior pituitary c) Frontal lobe d) Basal ganglia Question 55 Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? a) GCT Pattern theory b) Specificity theory c) Neuromatrix theory Question 56 Where is oxytocin synthesized? a) Hypothalamus b) Paraventricular nuclei c) Anterior pituitary d) Posterior pituitary Question 57 An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children? a) C b) B12 c) B6 d) D Question 58 What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? a) Hypospadias b) Epispadias c) Hyperspadias d) Chordee Question 59 The most critical aspect in ly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: a) Computed tomographic (CT) scan b) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis c) Skull x-ray studies d) Health history Question 60 Transcription is best defined as a process by which: a) DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA). b) RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis. c) RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. d) A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence. Question 61 Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium? a) An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday b) A depressed Hispanic woman c) An individual on the second day after hip replacement d) A man diagnosed with schizophrenia Question 62 Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? a) Inhibin b) Leptin c) Activin d) Follistatin Question 63 Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance? a) Secretory b) Motility c) Osmotic d) Small volume Question 64 An amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women who: a) Have a history of chronic illness b) Have a family history of genetic disorders c) Have experienced in vitro fertilization d) Had a late menarche Question 65 Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? a) Slow contraction speed b) Fast conduction velocities c) Profuse capillary supply d) Oxidative metabolism Question 66 The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM Question 67 Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? a) Optic (CN I) b) Abducens (CN VI) c) Oculomotor (CN III) d) Trochlear (CN IV) Question 68 Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone? a) Cortisol b) Oxytocin c) Epinephrine d) Growth hormone Question 69 What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? a) Periorbital edema b) Scrotal or labial edema c) Frothy urine d) Ascites Question 70 The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women? a) Ovarian b) Lung c) Uterine d) Pancreatic Question 71 The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept? a) Incidence b) Prevalence c) Ratio d) Risk Question 72 When a woman’s uterus is assessed as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Question 73 What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding? a) Tolerance b) Perception c) Threshold d) Dominance Question 74 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? a) Premenstrual syndrome b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding c) Polycystic ovary syndrome d) Primary dysmenorrhea Question 75 What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? a) Agnosia b) Aphasia c) Akinesia d) Dysphasia Question 76. : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a) IgE b) IgG c) IgM d) T cells Question 77 : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)? a) Cyanocobalamin by oral intake b) Vitamin B12 by injection c) Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection d) Folate by oral intake Question 78. : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? a) Syphilis b) Herpes simplex virus c) Chlamydia d) Chancroid Question 79. : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? a) B lymphocytes proliferate. b) The nodes are inflamed. c) The nodes fill with purulent exudate. d) The nodes are not properly functioning. Question 80. : What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child? a) 104/55 mm Hg b) 106/58 mm Hg c) 112/62 mm Hg d) 121/70 mm Hg Question 81. : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of: a) Epinephrine and aldosterone b) Norepinephrine and cortisol c) Epinephrine and norepinephrine d) Acetylcholine and cortisol Question 82. : What is the function of erythrocytes? a) Tissue oxygenation b) Hemostasis c) Infection control d) Allergy response Question 83. Where are Kupffer cells located? a) Kidneys b) Liver c) Pancreas d) Spleen Question 84. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? a) Hemolytic anemia b) Pernicious anemia c) Systemic lupus erythematosus d) Myasthenia gravis Question 85. Where are Langerhans cells found? a) Skin b) Intestinal lining c) Kidney d) Thyroid Question 86. What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera? a) Decreased erythrocyte count b) Destruction of erythrocytes c) Increased blood viscosity d) Neurologic involvement Question 87. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured? a) Reticulocyte count b) Serum transferring c) Hemoglobin d) Serum vitamin B12 Question 88. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? a) Yeast b) Cancer cells c) Bacteria d) Fungus Question 89. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM Question 90. Which renal change is found in older adults? a) Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate b) Sharp decline in renal blood flow c) Decrease in the number of nephrons d) Decrease in urine output Question 91. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated? a) Refractory b) Hyperpolarization c) Threshold d) Sinoatrial (SA) Question 92. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children? a) Chronic respiratory infections b) Adenotonsillar hypertrophy c) Obligatory mouth breathing d) Paradoxic breathing Question 93. Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area? a) Vulva or penis b) Umbilicus c) Thighs d) Lower abdomen Question 94. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? a) Greater quantities of histamine b) More histamine receptors c) Greater quantities of IgE d) A deficiency in epinephrine Question 95. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood? a) Superior vena cava b) Aorta c) Inferior vena cava d) Pulmonary veins Question 96. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? a) An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. b) An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. c) An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. d) An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Question 97. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel? a) Superior vena cava b) Pulmonary veins c) Pulmonary artery d) Coronary veins Question 98. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? a) Passive-acquired immunity b) Active-acquired immunity c) Passive-innate immunity d) Active-innate immunity Question 99. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? a) Posterior pituitary b) Thyroid c) Parathyroid d) Anterior pituitary Question 100. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful? a) Flight or fight b) Alarm c) Adaptation d) Arousal Question 101. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? a) T-cell immunity b) Alloimmunity c) Fetal immunity d) Autoimmunity Question 102. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? a) Small channels called canaliculi b) Osteocytes within the lacunae c) Tiny spaces within the lacunae d) Haversian system Question 103. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive? a) Stress b) Greenstick c) Insufficiency d) Pathologic Question 104. Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor? a) Norepinephrine b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid c) Serotonin d) Dopamine Question 105. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? a) Sodium intake b) Physical inactivity c) Psychosocial stress d) Obesity Question 106. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone? a) Pharmacologic b) Permissive c) Synergistic d) Direct Question 107. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: a) Positive feedback b) Negative feedback c) Neural regulation d) Physiologic regulation Question 108. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder? a) Esophageal atresia b) Congenital aganglionic megacolon c) Pyloric stenosis d) Galactosemia Question 109. Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder? a) Dementia syndrome b) Delirium c) Alzheimer disease d) Parkinson disease Question 110. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor? a) Hypothalamus b) Anterior pituitary c) Mammary glands d) Posterior pituitary Question 111. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry? a) Down syndrome b) Klinefelter syndrome c) Turner syndrome d) Cri du chat Question 112. : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b) Thyroxine (T4) c) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) d) Triiodothyronine (T3) Question 113. : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? a) Thyroxine b) Insulin c) Cortisol. d) Antidiuretic hormone Question 114. : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain? a) Thalamus b) Brainstem c) Frontal lobe d) Hypothalamus Question 115. : What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? a) Down syndrome b) Fragile X syndrome c) Klinefelter syndrome d) Turner syndrome Question 116. : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome? a) Turner b) Klinefelter c) Down d) Fragile X Question 117. : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? a) Increases serum calcium. b) Decreases serum calcium. c) Decreases serum magnesium. d) Increases serum magnesium. Question 118. : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? a) Procallus b) Joint capsule c) Hematoma d) Elastin fibers Question 119. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: a) Decreased production of aqueous humor b) Increased production of vitreous humor c) Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor d) Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Question 120 Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder? a) Obstructive sleep apnea b) Upper airway resistance syndrome c) Somnambulism d) narcolepsy Questions 121 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma b) Kaposi sarcoma c) Toxoplasmosis d) Cytomegalovirus [Show Less]
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NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-5) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
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NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-6) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 8 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-6) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| [Show Less]
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NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-7) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Final Exam (New-2023, Version-7) / NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Week 8 Final Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Corre... [Show More] ct Q & A| [Show Less]
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NR507 Final Exam Study Guide (2 Versions, New-2023) / NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | Download to Score “A”|
NR507 Final Exam Study Guide (2 Versions, New-2023) / NR 507 Final Exam Study Guide: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | Download t... [Show More] o Score “A”| NR507 Week 8 Final Exam Study Guide (2 Versions, New-2023) / NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam Study Guide: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | Download to Score “A”| [Show Less]
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NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-1) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-1) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology 1. Question : What is the final stage of the infectious process? Colonization Invasion Multiplication Spread Question 2. Question : Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bronchioles Question 3. Question : What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Immature immune system Small alveoli Surfactant deficiency Anemia Question 4. Question : Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. The cells are well-differentiated. Question 5. Question : Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? Lying on their left side Performing the Valsalva maneuver Squatting Hyperventilating Question 6. Question : Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? IL–1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF- IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Question 7. Question : Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B Question 8. Question : Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? Difficult deflation Easy inflation Stiffness Inability to diffuse oxygen Question 9. Question : Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Question 10. Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) Question 11. Question : How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved? 126 mgdl 150 mgdl 180 mgdl 200 mgdl Question 12. Question : What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy Question 13. Question : Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? Prefrontal cortex Anterior pituitary Limbic system Hypothalamus Question 14. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Question 15. Question : Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? 0 and 1 2 and 4 5 and 6 6 and 7 Question 16. Question : What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? Hypotension Hyperesthesia Hypoxia Ischemia Question 17. Question : What is the life span of platelets (in days)? 10 30 90 120 Question 18. Question : What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Macula densa Visceral epithelium Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Filtration slits Question 19. Question : An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 20. Question : The coronary ostia are located in the: Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Question 21. Question : The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the: Proximal convoluted tubules Distal tubules Ascending loop of Henle Descending loop of Henle Question 22. Question : The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III) Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Degrading the fibrin within blood clots Question 23. Question : Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? IgM IgG IgE IgA Question 24. Question : Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? I II III IV Question 25. Question : Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? Adrenal cortex Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Limbic system Question 26. Question : Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Question 27. Question : What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D? Erythropoietin Thyroid hormone Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone Question 28. Question : Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Perfusion Ventilation Respiration Diffusion Question 29. Question : Where are antibodies produced? Helper T lymphocytes Thymus gland Plasma cells Bone marrow Question 30. Question : What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? Folic acid deficiency Iron deficiency Hemoglobin abnormality Erythrocyte abnormality Question 31. Question : In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a: Basal cell Target cell Caretaker gene Proto-oncogene Question 32. Question : Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? Atelectasis and pneumonia Edema of the hands and feet Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Question 33. Question : What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)? 20 to 30 60 to 90 100 to 120 200 to 240 Question 34. Question : Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia Question 35. Question : Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? A B C D Question 36. Question : What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Consolidation Pulmonary edema Atelectasis Bronchiolar plugging Question 37. Question : What is the action of urodilatin? Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Question 38. Question : Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia? Aplastic Sideroblastic Anemia of chronic disease Iron deficiency Question 39. Question : The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? Right-to-left blood shunting Left-to-right blood shunting Blood flow from the umbilical cord Blood flow to the lungs Question 40. Question : What is the most abundant class of plasma protein? Globulin Albumin Clotting factors Complement proteins Question 41. Question : When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected? Genital herpes Chancroid Syphilis Chlamydia Question 42. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils T lymphocytes Question 43. Question : What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? Stimulates antidiuretic hormones. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones. Stimulates renin and aldosterone. Inhibits renin and aldosterone. Question 44. Question : Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: Vagus nerve Sympathetic nervous system Somatic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Question 45. Question : What is the first stage in the infectious process? Invasion Colonization Spread Multiplication Question 46. Question : Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections? Acyclovir (Zovirax) 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir) Bichloroacetic acid (BCA) Question 47. Question : What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? Decreased dietary intake Chronic blood loss Vitamin deficiency Autoimmune disease Question 48. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Question 49. Question : A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following? No antigens No antibodies Both A and B antigens Both A and B antibodies Question 50. Question : Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 51. Question : Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation. Question 52. Question : Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child? Parental history of asthma Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing Improvement on a trial of asthma medication Question 53. Question : The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve? Vagus Phrenic Brachial Pectoral Question 54. Question : The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life? Fetal Neonatal Infancy Puberty Question 55. Question : What is the role of collagen in the clotting process? Initiates the clotting cascade. Activates platelets. Stimulates fibrin. Deactivates fibrinogen. Question 56. Question : What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? Increased blood pressure during periods of stress Bounding pulse felt on palpation Cyanosis observed on excretion Murmur heard on auscultation Question 57. Question : The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? Bones Brain Bladder Kidney Question 58. Question : What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone? Sodium retention Sodium excretion Water retention Water excretion Question 59. Question : Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder? Mitral regurgitation Mitral stenosis Pulmonary edema Jugular vein distention Question 60. Question : Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Yeasts [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-2) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing... [Show More] |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1. Question : What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? Increased blood pressure during periods of stress Bounding pulse felt on palpation Cyanosis observed on excretion Murmur heard on auscultation Question 2. Question : Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens Helicobacter pylori Treponema pallidum Question 3. Question : It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding? Cancer is confined to the organ of origin. Cancer has spread to regional structures. Cancer is locally invasive. Cancer has spread to distant sites Question 4. Question : Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia? Aplastic Sideroblastic Anemia of chronic disease Iron deficiency Question 5. Question : When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds? Left lung Right lung Trachea Carina Question 6. Question : What is the first stage in the infectious process? Invasion Colonization Spread Multiplication Question 7. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease : Question 8. Question : Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia : Question 9. Question : The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III) Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Degrading the fibrin within blood clots : Question 10. Question : What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections? Development of antibiotic resistance Changes in virulence Changes in pathogenicity Mutations into different strains : Question 11. Question : What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? Folic acid deficiency Iron deficiency Hemoglobin abnormality Erythrocyte abnormality : Question 12. Question : What is the most abundant class of plasma protein? Globulin Albumin Clotting factors Complement proteins : Question 13. Question : Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? Difficult deflation Easy inflation Stiffness Inability to diffuse oxygen 0 of 2 Question 14. Question : Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? IgM IgG IgE IgA : Question 15. Question : What is the functional unit of the kidney called? Glomerulus Nephron Collecting duct Pyramid : Question 16. Question : An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur. 11 9 7 5 : Question 17. Question : Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants? Infants are obligatory nose breathers. Their noses are small in diameter. Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing. Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s. : Question 18. Question : The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? 16 and 20 20 and 24 24 and 30 30 and 36 : Question 19. Question : What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? Stimulates antidiuretic hormones. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones. Stimulates renin and aldosterone. Inhibits renin and aldosterone. : Question 20. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease : Question 21. Question : Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication? Retropharyngeal abscess Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration : Question 22. Question : When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected? Genital herpes Chancroid Syphilis Chlamydia : Question 23. Question : Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma? Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes Memory T lymphocytes : Question 24. Question : How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported? Dissolved in plasma Bound to hemoglobin In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2) Bound to protein : Question 25. Question : What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? Decreased dietary intake Chronic blood loss Vitamin deficiency Autoimmune disease : Question 26. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase deficiency : Question 27. Question : Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? PRS QRS QT interval P : Question 28. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils T lymphocytes : Question 29. Question : What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Consolidation Pulmonary edema Atelectasis Bronchiolar plugging : Question 30. Question : Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? Alcohol Steroids Antihistamines Antidepressants : Question 31. Question : The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the: Proximal convoluted tubules Distal tubules Ascending loop of Henle Descending loop of Henle : Question 32. Question : Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder? Mitral regurgitation Mitral stenosis Pulmonary edema Jugular vein distention : Question 33. Question : Apoptosis is a(an): Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia : Question 34. Question : The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? Right-to-left blood shunting Left-to-right blood shunting Blood flow from the umbilical cord Blood flow to the lungs : Question 35. Question : If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? 60 to 70 40 to 60 30 to 40 10 to 20 : Question 36. Question : Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate? Principle cells Podocin cells Mesangial cells Intercalated cells : Question 37. Question : An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? IgG IgM IgA IgE : Question 38. Question : The coronary ostia are located in the: Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta : Question 39. Question : What is the role of collagen in the clotting process? Initiates the clotting cascade. Activates platelets. Stimulates fibrin. Deactivates fibrinogen. : Question 40. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium : Question 41. Question : What is the role of caretaker genes? Maintenance of genomic integrity Proliferation of cancer cells Secretion of growth factors Restoration of normal tissue structure : Question 42. Question : What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy : Question 43. Question : Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B : Question 44. Question : Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) : Question 45. Question : Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure? Gut Spleen Bone marrow Thymus : Question 46. Question : What is the final stage of the infectious process? Colonization Invasion Multiplication Spread : Question 47. Question : Which statement is true concerning the IgM? IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. : Question 48. Question : Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves? Peripheral nerves Parasympathetic fibers Sympathetic nervous system Tenth thoracic nerve roots : Question 49. Question : Which statement best describes a Schilling test? Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia. : Question 50. Question : Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Yeasts : Question 51. Question : Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections? Acyclovir (Zovirax) 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir) Bichloroacetic acid (BCA) : Question 52. Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) : Question 53. Question : Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever? Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) : Question 54. Question : What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Macula densa Visceral epithelium Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Filtration slits : Question 55. Question : Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? Atelectasis and pneumonia Edema of the hands and feet Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly : Question 56. Question : A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following? No antigens No antibodies Both A and B antigens Both A and B antibodies : Question 57. Question : Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? Ligase chain reaction (LCR) Gram-stain technique Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) DNA testing : Question 58. Question : Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? Adrenal cortex Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Limbic system : Question 59. Question : Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? IgA IgE IgG IgM : Question 60. Question : Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Passive-acquired immunity Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity : [Show Less]
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NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-3) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-3) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1. Question Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? Alcohol Steroids Antihistamines Antidepressants Question 2. Question Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia Question 3. Question What is the final stage of the infectious process? Colonization Invasion Multiplication Spread Question 4. Question What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? Folic acid deficiency Iron deficiency Hemoglobin abnormality Erythrocyte abnormality Question 5. Question Which statement is true concerning the IgM? IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. Question 6. Question Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bronchioles Question 7. Question What is the role of caretaker genes? Maintenance of genomic integrity Proliferation of cancer cells Secretion of growth factors Restoration of normal tissue structure Question 8. Question During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils T lymphocytes Question 9. Question When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected? Genital herpes Chancroid Syphilis Chlamydia Question 10. Question What is the action of urodilatin? Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Question 11. Question Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? I II III IV Question 12. Question What is the life span of platelets (in days)? 10 30 90 120 Question 13. Question An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? IgG IgM IgA IgE Question 14. Question What is the role of collagen in the clotting process? Initiates the clotting cascade. Activates platelets. Stimulates fibrin. Deactivates fibrinogen. Question 15. Question How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved? 126 mg/dl 150 mg/dl 180 mg/dl 200 mg/dl Question 16. Question Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes? Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia. Question 17. Question How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness? 75 to 100 ml 100 to 150 ml 250 to 300 ml 350 to 400 ml Question 18. Question Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? Capillary hydrostatic Interstitial hydrostatic Plasma oncotic Interstitial oncotic Question 19. Question Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication? Retropharyngeal abscess Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration Question 20. Question Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child? Parental history of asthma Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing Improvement on a trial of asthma medication Question 21. Question Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? Atelectasis and pneumonia Edema of the hands and feet Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Question 22. Question What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload? Glomerular filtration Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Increased heart rate Compensatory hypertrophy Question 23. Question If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? Question If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? 60 to 70 40 to 60 30 to 40 10 to 20 Question 24. Question How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported? Attached to oxygen In the form of bicarbonate Combined with albumin Dissolved in the plasma Question 25. Question What is the trigone? A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle Question 26. Question The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? Ovarian Uterine Cervical Vaginal Question 27. Question The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve? Vagus Phrenic Brachial Pectoral Question 28. Question Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an) Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens Question 29. Question Causes of hyperkalemia include Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Question 30. Question Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants? Infants are obligatory nose breathers. Their noses are small in diameter. Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing. Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s. Question 31. Question Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves? Peripheral nerves Parasympathetic fibers Sympathetic nervous system Tenth thoracic nerve roots Question 32. Question What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? Stimulates antidiuretic hormones. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones. Stimulates renin and aldosterone. Inhibits renin and aldosterone. Question 33. Question Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s High body surface–to–body size ratio Slow metabolic rate Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty Question 34. Question What is the first stage in the infectious process? Invasion Colonization Spread Multiplication Question 35. Question Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. The cells are well-differentiated. Question 36. Question Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? Prefrontal cortex Anterior pituitary Limbic system Hypothalamus Question 37. Question Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? 0 and 1 2 and 4 5 and 6 6 and 7 Question 38. Question The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? Bones Brain Bladder Kidney Question 39. Question An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur. 11 9 7 5 Question 40. Question Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder? Mitral regurgitation Mitral stenosis Pulmonary edema Jugular vein distention Question 41. Question What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Immature immune system Small alveoli Surfactant deficiency Anemia Question 42. Question Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life? Monocytes Platelets Neutrophils Lymphocytes Question 43. Question What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? Increased blood pressure during periods of stress Bounding pulse felt on palpation Cyanosis observed on excretion Murmur heard on auscultation Question 44. Question What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)? 20 to 30 60 to 90 100 to 120 200 to 240 Question 45. Question What is the most important negative inotropic agent? Norepinephrine Epinephrine Acetylcholine Dopamine Question 46. Question Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Perfusion Ventilation Respiration Diffusion Question 47. Question What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow? Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction. They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction. Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation. They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation. Question 48. Question What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D? Erythropoietin Thyroid hormone Calcitonin Parathyroid hormone Question 49. Question Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? A B C D Question 50. Question Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-4) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-4) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing... [Show More] |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1. Question : Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B Question 2. Question : Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication? Retropharyngeal abscess Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration Question 3. Question : If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? 60 to 70 40 to 60 30 to 40 10 to 20 Question 4. Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) Question 5. Question : Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? IL–D1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF-a IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Question 6. Question : What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload? Glomerular filtration Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Increased heart rate Compensatory hypertrophy Question 7. Question : Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 8. Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Question 9. Question : What is the first stage in the infectious process? Invasion Colonization Spread Multiplication Question 10. Question : Which statement is true concerning the IgM? IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. Question 11. Question : An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 12. Question : What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy Question 13. Question : Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation. Question 14. Question : What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone? Sodium retention Sodium excretion Water retention Water excretion Question 15. Question : What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men? Epididymis Lymph nodes Urethra Prostate Question 16. Question : Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. The cells are well-differentiated. Question 17. Question : Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? Iron deficiency Pernicious Sideroblastic Hemolytic Question 18. Question : Apoptosis is a(an): Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia Question 19. Question : What is the functional unit of the kidney called? Glomerulus Nephron Collecting duct Pyramid Question 20. Question : Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? A B C D Question 21. Question : The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries Diffusion rate in the renal cortex Diffusion rate in the renal medulla Glomerular active transport Question 22. Question : Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? Difficult deflation Easy inflation Stiffness Inability to diffuse oxygen Question 23. Question : What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? Decreased dietary intake Chronic blood loss Vitamin deficiency Autoimmune disease Question 24. Question : Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections? Acyclovir (Zovirax) 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir) Bichloroacetic acid (BCA) Question 25. Question : In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a: Basal cell Target cell Caretaker gene Proto-oncogene Question 26. Question : What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Immature immune system Small alveoli Surfactant deficiency Anemia Question 27. Question : Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure? Gut Spleen Bone marrow Thymus Question 28. Question : Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium Question 29. Question : Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Yeasts Question 30. Question : Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys? Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Erythropoietin Angiotensinogen Question 31. Question : Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Question 32. Question : Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? Ligase chain reaction (LCR) Gram-stain technique Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) DNA testing Question 33. Question : During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils T lymphocytes Question 34. Question : What is the life span of platelets (in days)? 10 30 90 120 Question 35. Question : What is the role of caretaker genes? Maintenance of genomic integrity Proliferation of cancer cells Secretion of growth factors Restoration of normal tissue structure Question 36. Question : Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life? Monocytes Platelets Neutrophils Lymphocytes Question 37. Question : Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Perfusion Ventilation Respiration Diffusion Question 38. Question : In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase deficiency Question 39. Question : Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? Alcohol Steroids Antihistamines Antidepressants Question 40. Question : Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Question 41. Question : Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Passive-acquired immunity Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity Question 42. Question : Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer? Liver Endometrial Stomach Colon Question 43. Question : What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Macula densa Visceral epithelium Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Filtration slits Question 44. Question : What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? Hypotension Hyperesthesia Hypoxia Ischemia Question 45. Question : Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? 0 and 1 2 and 4 5 and 6 6 and 7 Question 46. Question : What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement? To evaluate the cause of hypoxia To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations Question 47. Question : Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes? Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia. Question 48. Question : The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III) Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Degrading the fibrin within blood clots Question 49. Question : The coronary ostia are located in the: Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Question 50. Question : Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: Vagus nerve Sympathetic nervous system Somatic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Question 51. Question : Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia Question 52. Question : Which statement best describes a Schilling test? Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia. Question 53. Question : What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections? Development of antibiotic resistance Changes in virulence Changes in pathogenicity Mutations into different strains Question 54. Question : What is the action of urodilatin? Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Question 55. Question : How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported? Attached to oxygen In the form of bicarbonate Combined with albumin Dissolved in the plasma Question 56. Question : The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? Bones Brain Bladder Kidney Question 57. Question : Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? I II III IV Question 58. Question : Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? IgM IgG IgE IgA Question 59. Question : The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? Ovarian Uterine Cervical Vaginal Question 60. Question : The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? 16 and 20 20 and 24 24 and 30 30 and 36 [Show Less]
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NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-5) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-5) / NR 507 Midterm Exam / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100%... [Show More] Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology The coronary ostia are located in the: (Points : 2) Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? (Points : 2) Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bronchioles Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? (Points : 2) IgA IgE IgG IgM Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an): (Points : 2) Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens What is the final stage of the infectious process? (Points : 2) Colonization Invasion Multiplication Spread 1. Colonization 2. Invasion 3. Multiply 4. spread The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? (Points : 2) Right-to-left blood shunting Left-to-right blood shunting Blood flow from the umbilical cord Blood flow to the lungs It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding? (Points : 2) Cancer is confined to the organ of origin. Cancer has spread to regional structures. Cancer is locally invasive. Cancer has spread to distant sites What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? (Points : 2) Consolidation Pulmonary edema Atelectasis Bronchiolar plugging Which statement is true concerning the IgM? (Points : 2) IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. Apoptosis is a(an): (Points : 2) Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? (Points : 2) The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. The cells are well-differentiated. Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations? (Points : 2) PRS QRS QT interval P Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? (Points : 2) Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens Helicobacter pylori Treponemapallidum Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? (Points : 2) Adrenal cortex Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Limbic system What is the role of caretaker genes? (Points : 2) Maintenance of genomic integrity Proliferation of cancer cells Secretion of growth factors Restoration of normal tissue structure Where are antibodies produced? (Points : 2) Helper T lymphocytes Thymus gland Plasma cells Bone marrow The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve? (Points : 2) Vagus Phrenic Brachial Pectoral What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? (Points : 2) Increased blood pressure during periods of stress Bounding pulse felt on palpation Cyanosis observed on excretion Murmur heard on auscultation What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? (Points : 2) Immature immune system Small alveoli Surfactant deficiency Anemia What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? (Points : 2) Hypotension Hyperesthesia Hypoxia Ischemia Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? (Points : 2) Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? (Points : 2) Iron deficiency Pernicious Sideroblastic Hemolytic How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported? (Points : 2) Attached to oxygen In the form of bicarbonate Combined with albumin Dissolved in the plasma Question 24.24. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? (Points : 2) IgM IgG IgE IgA Question 25.25. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? (Points : 2) IgG IgM IgA IgE Question 26.26. Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication? (Points : 2) Retropharyngeal abscess Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration Question 27.27. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? (Points : 2) Ligase chain reaction (LCR) Gram-stain technique Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) DNA testing Question 28.28. Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response? (Points : 2) The immune response is similar each time it is activated. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. The response to a specific pathogen is short term. The response is innate, rather than acquired. Question 29.29. When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds? (Points : 2) Left lung Right lung Trachea Carina Question 30.30. What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men? (Points : 2) Epididymis Lymph nodes Urethra Prostate Question 31.31. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? (Points : 2) Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium Question 32.32. An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? (Points : 2) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 33.33. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? (Points : 2) Lying on their left side Performing the Valsalva maneuver Squatting Hyperventilating Question 34.34. In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a: (Points : 2) Basal cell Target cell Caretaker gene Proto-oncogene Question 35.35. Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s: (Points : 2) High body surface–to–body size ratio Slow metabolic rate Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty Question 36.36. A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following? (Points : 2) No antigens No antibodies Both A and B antigens Both A and B antibodies Question 37.37. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? (Points : 2) Passive-acquired immunity Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity Question 38.38. Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia? (Points : 2) Aplastic Sideroblastic Anemia of chronic disease Iron deficiency Question 39.39. How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported? (Points : 2) Dissolved in plasma Bound to hemoglobin In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2) Bound to protein Question 40.40. What is the action of urodilatin? (Points : 2) Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Question 41.41. What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? (Points : 2) Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy Question 42.42. What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? (Points : 2) Folic acid deficiency Iron deficiency Hemoglobin abnormality Erythrocyte abnormality Question 43.43. What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)? (Points : 2) Deficit of interleukin (IL)–1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN- Deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) Deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF- Deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF) Question 44.44. Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? (Points : 2) Atelectasis and pneumonia Edema of the hands and feet Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Question 45.45. What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload? (Points : 2) Glomerular filtration Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Increased heart rate Compensatory hypertrophy Question 46.46. What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone? (Points : 2) Sodium retention Sodium excretion Water retention Water excretion Question 47.47. Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate? (Points : 2) Principle cells Podocin cells Mesangial cells Intercalated cells Question 48.48. Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer? (Points : 2) Liver Endometrial Stomach Colon Question 49.49. What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? (Points : 2) Stimulates antidiuretic hormones. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones. Stimulates renin and aldosterone. Inhibits renin and aldosterone. Question 50.50. Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma? (Points : 2) Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes Memory T lymphocytes Question 51.51. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? (Points : 2) Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase deficiency What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? (Points : 2) 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) Question 53.53. The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? (Points : 2) Bones Brain Bladder Kidney Question 54.54. Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? (Points : 2) The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation. Question 55.55. The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the: (Points : 2) Proximal convoluted tubules Distal tubules Ascending loop of Henle Descending loop of Henle Question 56.56. How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved? (Points : 2) 126 mg/dl 150 mg/dl 180 mg/dl 200 mg/dl Question 57.57. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? (Points : 2) IL–1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF- IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Question 58.58. Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys? (Points : 2) Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Erythropoietin Angiotensinogen Question 59.59. What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow? (Points : 2) Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction. They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction. Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation. They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation. Question 60.60. The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? (Points : 2) Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries Diffusion rate in the renal cortex Diffusion rate in the renal medulla Glomerular active transport [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-6) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (New-2023, Version-6) / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR507 Midterm Exam: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing... [Show More] |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Chamberlain NR 507 Midterm Exam / Chamberlain NR507 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology Question 1 2 / 2 pts The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve? Correct! Vagus Phrenic Brachial Pectoral Fibers of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) travel only in the vagus nerve to the lung. Question 2 2 / 2 pts What is the action of urodilatin? Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. Correct! It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Urodilatin (a natriuretic peptide) inhibits sodium and water reabsorption from the medullary part of collecting duct, thereby producing diuresis. It is not involved in the actions described by the other options. Question 3 2 / 2 pts What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone? Sodium retention Correct! Sodium excretion Water retention Water excretion Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) inhibit the secretion of renin, inhibit angiotensin-induced secretion of aldosterone, vasodilate the afferent and constrict the efferent glomerular arterioles, and inhibit sodium and water absorption by kidney tubules. The other actions are not a result of the atrial natriuretic hormone. Question 4 2 / 2 pts Which statement best describes a Schilling test? Correct! Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia. The Schilling test indirectly evaluates vitamin B12 absorption by administering radioactive B12 and measuring excretion in the urine. This selection is the only option that accurately describes a Schilling test. Question 5 2 / 2 pts Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Correct! Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes. Maternal-fetal incompatibility exists only if the mother and fetus differ in ABO blood type or if the fetus is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative. This erythrocyte incompatibility does not exist in any of the other options. Question 6 2 / 2 pts Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma? Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes Correct! CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes Memory T lymphocytes Asthma develops because the Th2 response (in which CD4 T-helper cells produce specific cytokines, such as interleukin [IL]–4, IL-5, and IL-13) promotes an atopic and allergic response in the airways. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the appropriate T-lymphocyte phenotype. Question 7 2 / 2 pts Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? Prefrontal cortex Anterior pituitary Correct! Limbic system Hypothalamus Perceived stressors elicit an anticipatory response that begins in the limbic system of the brain, the only option responsible for emotions and cognition. Question 8 2 / 2 pts Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an): Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person Correct! Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host. The other options are not accurate definitions of hypersensitivity. Question 9 2 / 2 pts It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding? Cancer is confined to the organ of origin. Cancer has spread to regional structures. Correct! Cancer is locally invasive. Cancer has spread to distant sites Cancer confined to the organ of origin is stage 1; cancer that is locally invasive is stage 2; cancer that has spread to regional structures, such as the lymph nodes, is stage 3; and cancer that has spread to distant sites, such as a liver cancer spreading to the lung or a prostate cancer spreading to bone, is stage 4. Question 10 2 / 2 pts An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Correct! Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect On physical examination, a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill can be detected at the left lower sternal border. The intensity of the murmur reflects the pressure gradient across the VSD. An apical diastolic rumble may be present with a moderate-to-large defect, reflecting increased flow across the mitral valve. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Question 11 2 / 2 pts Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Correct! Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. The other options are not true of exotoxins. Question 12 2 / 2 pts The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? Correct! Right-to-left blood shunting Left-to-right blood shunting Blood flow from the umbilical cord Blood flow to the lungs The nonfused septum secundum and ostium secundum result in the formation of a flapped orifice known as the foramen ovale, which allows the right-to-left shunting necessary for fetal circulation. The foramen ovale is not involved in the blood flow described by the other options. Question 13 2 / 2 pts Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? Ligase chain reaction (LCR) Correct! Gram-stain technique Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) DNA testing Microscopic evaluation of Gram-stained slides of clinical specimens is deemed positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae if gram-negative diplococci with the typical “kidney bean” morphologic appearance are found inside polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Such a finding is considered adequate for the diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man. The other options are not relevant to the diagnosis of this condition. Question 14 2 / 2 pts Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants? Atelectasis and pneumonia Correct! Edema of the hands and feet Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Symmetric, painful swelling of the hands and feet (hand-foot syndrome) caused by infarction in the small vessels of the extremities is often the initial manifestation of SCD in infants. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the manifestations of a vasoocclusive crisis associated with SCD in infancy. Question 15 2 / 2 pts Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. Correct! The cells are well-differentiated. A benign tumor is well-differentiated with its tissue appearing similar to the tissue from which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor. Question 16 2 / 2 pts Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response? The immune response is similar each time it is activated. Correct! The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. The response to a specific pathogen is short term. The response is innate, rather than acquired. Unlike inflammation, which is nonspecifically activated by cellular damage and pathogenic microorganisms, the immune response is primarily designed to afford long-term specific protection (i.e., immunity) against particular invading microorganisms; that is, it has a memory function. The other options are not unique characteristics of the immune response. Question 17 2 / 2 pts Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child? Parental history of asthma Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels Correct! Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing Improvement on a trial of asthma medication Confirmation of the diagnosis of asthma relies on pulmonary function testing using spirometry, which can be accomplished only after the child is 5 to 6 years of age. Reduced expiratory flow rates that are reversible in response to an inhaled bronchodilator would be characteristic abnormalities. For younger children, an empiric trial of asthma medications is commonly initiated. The remaining options are major historical and physical factors that contribute but do not confirm the diagnosis of asthma in children. Question 18 0 / 2 pts Where are antibodies produced? Helper T lymphocytes Thymus gland Correct Answer Plasma cells You Answered Bone marrow An antibody or immunoglobulin is a serum glycoprotein produced only by plasma cells in response to a challenge by an immunogen. Question 19 2 / 2 pts How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness? 75 to 100 ml 100 to 150 ml Correct! 250 to 300 ml 350 to 400 ml When the bladder accumulates 250 to 300 ml of urine, it contracts and the internal urethral sphincter relaxes through activation of the spinal reflex arc (known as the micturition reflex). Question 20 2 / 2 pts Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever? Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) Correct! Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) Pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever are generally present with the most common symptoms reflecting the consequence of bone marrow failure, which results in decreased red blood cells and platelets and changes in white blood cells. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the disease with the symptoms described. Question 21 2 / 2 pts Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes? Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. Correct! Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia. Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to the epithelium and have not broken through the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding tissue. Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell structure. Question 22 2 / 2 pts What is the life span of platelets (in days)? Correct! 10 30 90 120 A platelet circulates for approximately 10 days and ages. Macrophages of the mononuclear phagocyte system, mostly in the spleen, remove platelets. Question 23 2 / 2 pts What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Immature immune system Small alveoli Correct! Surfactant deficiency Anemia RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. None of the other options are related to the cause of RDS. Question 24 2 / 2 pts What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)? 20 to 30 60 to 90 Correct! 100 to 120 200 to 240 Because it cannot undergo mitotic division, the erythrocyte has a limited life span of approximately 120 days. Question 25 2 / 2 pts Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure? Capillary hydrostatic Interstitial hydrostatic Correct! Plasma oncotic Interstitial oncotic Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin is the only option that contributes to a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure. Question 26 2 / 2 pts Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life? Correct! Monocytes Platelets Neutrophils Lymphocytes Only monocyte counts are high in the first year of life and then decrease to adult levels. Question 27 2 / 2 pts Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? Adrenal cortex Correct! Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Limbic system The alarm phase of the GAS begins when a stressor triggers the actions of the hypothalamus and the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) (see Figure 11-1). The other organs are not stimulated by the alarm phase of GAS. Question 28 2 / 2 pts Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Correct! Bacteria Fungi Viruses Yeasts Invasion is the direct confrontation with an individual’s primary defense mechanisms against only bacteria, which include the complement system, antibodies, and phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages. Question 29 2 / 2 pts What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Macula densa Visceral epithelium Correct! Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Filtration slits Control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion occur at the JGA. Together, the juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells form the JGA. The control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion is not directed by any of the other options. Question 30 2 / 2 pts The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? 16 and 20 20 and 24 24 and 30 Correct! 30 and 36 Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS decreases. Question 31 2 / 2 pts What is the functional unit of the kidney called? Glomerulus Correct! Nephron Collecting duct Pyramid The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. Although the other options are also located in the kidney, they are not its functional units. Question 32 2 / 2 pts Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? A Correct! B C D Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted. Question 33 2 / 2 pts Which statement is true concerning the IgM? Correct! IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not true statements regarding IgM. Question 34 2 / 2 pts Apoptosis is a(an): Correct! Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia Normal cells have a mechanism that causes them to self-destruct when growth is excessive and cell cycle checkpoints have been ignored. Diverse stimuli, including normal development and excessive growth, trigger this self-destruct mechanism, called apoptosis. The remaining options do not describe apoptosis. Question 35 2 / 2 pts What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)? Deficit of interleukin (IL)–1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α) Deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) Correct! Deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α Deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF) Abnormal cytokine profiles have been documented in CF airway fluids, including deficient IL-10 and excessive IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α, all changes conducive to promoting inflammation. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the abnormalities in cytokines observed in children with CF. Question 36 2 / 2 pts Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer? Liver Endometrial Stomach Correct! Colon The World Cancer Research Fund summarizes the effects as convincingfor cancers of the colon and probable for postmenopausal breast cancer and endometrial cancer. The relationship is not supported for the remaining options. Question 37 2 / 2 pts Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants? Correct! Infants are obligatory nose breathers. Their noses are small in diameter. Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing. Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s. Infants up to 2 to 3 months of age are obligatory nose breathers and are unable to breathe in through their mouths. Nasal congestion is therefore a serious threat to a young infant. This selection is the only option that accurately describes why nasal congestion is a serious threat to young infants. Question 38 2 / 2 pts Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? 0 and 1 Correct! 2 and 4 5 and 6 6 and 7 The incidence of SIDS is low during the first month of life but sharply increases in the second month of life, peaking at 2 to 4 months and is unusual after 6 months of age. Question 39 2 / 2 pts In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease Correct! DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase deficiency The principal immunologic defect in DiGeorge syndrome is the partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. The other options are not the result of either a partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. Question 40 2 / 2 pts Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: Vagus nerve Correct! Sympathetic nervous system Somatic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system The blood vessels of the kidney are innervated by the sympathetic noradrenergic fibers that cause arteriolar vasoconstriction and reduce renal blood flow. The other options are not involved in this process. Question 41 2 / 2 pts An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? IgG IgM Correct! IgA IgE The IgA molecules found in bodily secretions are dimers anchored together through a J-chain and secretory piece. This secretory piece is attached to the IgA antibodies inside the mucosal epithelial cells and may function to protect these immunoglobulin antibodies against degradation by enzymes also found in the secretions, thus decreasing the risk of infections in the mucous membrane. The other options do not accurately identify the immunoglobulin antibody involved in mucous membrane infections. Question 42 2 / 2 pts Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Perfusion Correct! Ventilation Respiration Diffusion Of the options available, ventilation is the only term used to identify the mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs. Question 43 2 / 2 pts What is the first stage in the infectious process? Invasion Correct! Colonization Spread Multiplication From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread. Question 44 2 / 2 pts What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload? Glomerular filtration Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Increased heart rate Correct! Compensatory hypertrophy Compensatory hypertrophy allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload throughout life. The remaining options are not relevant to accommodating an increased workload. Question 45 2 / 2 pts Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia Correct! Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome include VSD and PDA (see Table 33-2). The other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome. Question 46 2 / 2 pts What is the trigone? A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys Correct! A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle The trigone is a smooth triangular area lying between the openings of thetwo ureters and the urethra. The other options do not accurately identify the trigone. Question 47 2 / 2 pts The coronary ostia are located in the: Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Correct! Aorta Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called the coronary ostia. Question 48 2 / 2 pts What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Correct! Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS. Question 49 2 / 2 pts The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location? Correct! Bones Brain Bladder Kidney The bone, especially the lumbar spine area, is the most common metastasis site for prostate cancer. Question 50 2 / 2 pts Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? Iron deficiency Correct! Pernicious Sideroblastic Hemolytic Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. The remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias. Question 51 2 / 2 pts The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? Correct! Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries Diffusion rate in the renal cortex Diffusion rate in the renal medulla Glomerular active transport The filtration of the plasma per unit of time is known as the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is directly related to only the perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries. Question 52 2 / 2 pts In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a: Basal cell Target cell Caretaker gene Correct! Proto-oncogene In its normal nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a proto-oncogene. The other options are not terms used to identify a nonmutant oncogene. Question 53 2 / 2 pts What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? Decreased dietary intake Correct! Chronic blood loss Vitamin deficiency Autoimmune disease The most common cause of IDA in well-developed countries is pregnancy and chronic blood loss. Question 54 2 / 2 pts What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? Stimulates antidiuretic hormones. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones. Stimulates renin and aldosterone. Correct! Inhibits renin and aldosterone. Natriuretic peptides inhibit renin and aldosterone during heart failure when the heart dilates. These make up a group of peptide hormones, including atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), secreted from myocardial cells in the atria and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) secreted from myocardial cells in the cardiac ventricles. When the heart dilates during volume expansion or heart failure, ANP and BNP inhibit sodium and water absorption by kidney tubules, inhibit the secretion of renin and aldosterone, vasodilate the afferent arterioles, and constrict the efferent arterioles. The result is increased urine formation, leading to decreased blood volume and blood pressure. Question 55 2 / 2 pts What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections? Correct! Development of antibiotic resistance Changes in virulence Changes in pathogenicity Mutations into different strains Several types of drug-resistant strains have been identified; they are penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae (PPNG), which is resistant to penicillin; tetracycline-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (TRNG), which is resistant to tetracycline; chromosomal control of mechanisms of resistance of N. gonorrhoeae (CMRNG), which is resistant to penicillin and tetracycline; and increasingly a fluoroquinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (QRNG). The other options are not major concerns. Question 56 2 / 2 pts Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Correct! I II III IV Hypersensitivity reactions have been divided into four distinct types: type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, type II (tissue-specific) hypersensitivity reactions, type III (immune complex–mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, and type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions. Question 57 2 / 2 pts Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? Correct! IL–1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF-α IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Although a number of stress factors initiate the production of CRH, of the options available, only high levels of IL-1 and IL-6 initiate such a response. Question 58 2 / 2 pts What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men? Epididymis Lymph nodes Correct! Urethra Prostate Uncomplicated local infections are observed primarily as urethral infections in men. Question 59 2 / 2 pts Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder? Mitral regurgitation Mitral stenosis Correct! Pulmonary edema Jugular vein distention Pressure changes are important because increased left ventricular filling pressures back up into the pulmonary circulation, where they force plasma out through vessel walls, causing fluid to accumulate in lung tissues (pulmonary edema). This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the disorder described in the question. Question 60 2 / 2 pts Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? Trachea Left lung Correct! Bronchus Bronchioles Approximately 75% of aspirated foreign bodies lodge in a bronchus. The other options are not locations where children aspirate the majority of foreign objects. [Show Less]
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NR507 Midterm Exam Study Guide (2 Versions, New-2023) / NR 507 Midterm Exam Study Guide: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | Download to Score “A”|
NR507 Midterm Exam Study Guide (2 Versions, New-2023) / NR 507 Midterm Exam Study Guide: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing | Downlo... [Show More] ad to Score “A”| [Show Less]
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NR507 Question Bank / Test Bank (New-2023) / NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Question Bank: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Question Bank / Test Bank (New-2023) / NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Question Bank: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
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NR507 Week 1 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 1 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 1 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 1 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 1... [Show More] Quiz ( 2 Latest Versions): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 1 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1. Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis? Bacteria Fungi Viruses Mycoplasma Question 2. What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide? Starvation Traumatic injury Cardiovascular disease Infectious disease Question 3. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? It converts single DNA into double-stranded DNA. It is needed to produce integrase. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA. Question 4. Which statement is true about fungal infections? They occur only on skin, hair, and nails. They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes. They result in release of endotoxins. They are prevented by vaccines. Question 5. Which statement about vaccines is true? Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection. Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections. Question 6. After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months. 1 to 2 6 to 14 18 to 20 24 to 36 Question 7. A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies. A B A and B O Question 8. In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of complement-mediated cell lysis. phagocytosis by macrophages. phagocytosis in the spleen. neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products. Question 9. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Iron Zinc Iodine Magnesium Question 10. What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Myasthenia gravis Question 11. In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity? Bruton disease DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency Question 12. The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is IgA. IgE. IgG. IgM. Question 13. During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? Bronchial edema caused by chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors Question 14. Stress-induced norepinephrine results in decreased blood flow to the brain and skin. peripheral vasoconstriction. increased glycogen synthesis in the liver. decreased muscle contraction as a result of an energy depletion. Question 15. Stress-age syndrome results in decreased catecholamines. ACTH. cortisol. immune system. Question 16. Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids? Epinephrine Norepinephrine Cortisol Growth hormone Question 17. Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)? IL-1 and IL-6 IL-2 and TNF-a IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Question 18. Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of dysplasia. hyperplasia. myoplasia. anaplasia. Question 19. Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy. an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer. tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth. Question 20. Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Question 21. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? Proto-oncogenes Oncogenes Tumor-suppressor genes Growth-promoting genes Question 22. By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes Question 23. In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? Point mutation Chromosome fusion Gene amplification Chromosome translocation Question 24. Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney? Women older than 45 years of age Women who never had children Women who had a high body mass index Woman who smoked for more than 10 years Question 25. What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children? Down syndrome Wilms tumor Retinoblastoma Neuroblastoma [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 2 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 2 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 2 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 2 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 2... [Show More] Quiz ( 2 Latest versions): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 2 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing 1. Question : In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of cardiac cell hypopolarization. cardiac cell hyperexcitability. depression of the sinoatrial (SA) node. cardiac cell repolarization. Question 2. Question : Which are indications of dehydration? Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit Muscle weakness and decreased deep tendon reflexes Tachycardia and weight loss Polyuria and hyperventilation Question 3. Question : How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis? Loss of chloride stimulates the release of aldosterone, which causes the retained sodium to bind with the chloride. Loss of chloride causes hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium to maintain cation balance. Loss of chloride causes retention of bicarbonate to maintain the anion balance. Loss of chloride causes hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis. Question 4. Question : When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated? By an increase in the antidiuretic hormone secreted into the plasma By an increase in aldosterone secreted into the plasma By an increase in the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma By an increase in the osmotic pressure of the plasma Question 5. Question : At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure. capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure. interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure. capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure. Question 6. Question : What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses? The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular sodium The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular potassium The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+ The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+ Question 7. Question : Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate hypokalemia. hyperkalemia. hypocalcemia. hypercalcemia. Question 8. Question : Which of the following is a true statement? Hypoventilation causes hypocapnia. Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia. Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia. Hyperventilation results in an increased PaCO2. Question 9. Question : In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation. increased capillary permeability, which causes alveoli and respiratory bronchioles to fill with fluid. inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells. increased capillary hydrostatic pressure that forces fluid into the alveoli and respiratory bronchioles. Question 10. Question : Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma? Neutrophil proteases, bradykinin, and histamine Bradykinin, serotonin, and neutrophil proteases Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes Lymphokines, serotonin, and prostaglandins Question 11. Question : Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration? Spontaneous pneumothorax Tension pneumothorax Open pneumothorax Secondary pneumothorax Question 12. Question : _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) Pneumonia Pulmonary emboli Acute pulmonary edema Question 13. Question : A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma. consolidation cavitation empyema abscess Question 14. Question : Dyspnea is not a result of decreased pH, increased PaCO2, and decreased PaO2. decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata. stimulation of stretch or J-receptors. fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm. Question 15. Question : Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of chronic bronchitis. emphysema. pneumonia. asthma. Question 16. Question : Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg. 10 20 30 40 Question 17. Question : High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through shunting. hypoventilation. decreased inspired oxygen. diffusion abnormalities. Question 18. Question : Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern with alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing. commonly observed in pulmonary fibrosis. commonly observed in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. with a slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause. Question 19. Question : Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n) autosomal recessive inheritance. autosomal dominant inheritance. infection. malignancy. Question 20. Question : An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n) obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation. pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray. pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency. Question 21. Question : What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn? An immature immune system Small alveoli A surfactant deficiency Anemia Question 22. Question : Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults. lower than higher than the same as unlike that Question 23. Question : The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing atelectasis and decreased lung compliance. disruption of alveolocapillary membrane. pulmonary hypertension. pulmonary fibrosis. Question 24. Question : Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect? Administering glucocorticoids to women in preterm labor accelerates the maturation of the fetus’s lungs. Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor increases their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus. Treatment includes the instillation of exogenous surfactant down an endotracheal tube of infants weighing less than 1,000 g. Supporting the infant’s respiratory function by using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). An infant’s respiratory function is supported by using continuous pressure (CPAP). Question 25. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma? IgM IgG IgE IgA [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 3 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 3 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 3 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 3 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 3... [Show More] Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 3 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing 1. Question : The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12. microcytic pernicious hypochromic hemolytic Question 2. Question : Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia? Iron deficiency Pernicious Sideroblastic Aplastic Question 3. Question : In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen. heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin. the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT). the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin. Question 4. Question : Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes? Folic acid Hemolytic Iron deficiency Pernicious Question 5. Question : A woman complains of chronic gastritis, fatigue, weight loss, and tingling in her fingers. Laboratory findings show low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and a high mean corpuscular volume. These findings are consistent with _____ anemia. folate deficiency pernicious iron deficiency aplastic Question 6. Question : What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia? Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T cells Malignancy of the bone marrow in which unregulated proliferation of erythrocytes crowd out other blood cells Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated immunoglobulins Inherited genetic disorder with recessive X-linked transmission Question 7. Question : Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC? Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF); IL-2, IL-4, and IL-10; and IFN-g Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF); IL-3, IL-5, and IL-9, and IFN-g Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF); IL-7, IL-11, and IL-14; and PAF TNF-a; IL-1, IL-6, and IL-8; and PAF Question 8. Question : Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n) IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets. hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body’s needs. IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets. cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells. Question 9. Question : Which of the following is a description consistent with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)? There are defects in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein. The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes. There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins. The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL. Question 10. Question : What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency? Administration of warfarin (Coumadin) Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with antibiotic therapy An IgG-mediated autoimmune disorder Liver failure Question 11. Question : Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against neutrophils. eosinophils. platelets. basophils. Question 12. Question : The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents. has a mild form of sickle cell disease that causes sickling during fever and infection, but not during acidosis or hypoxia, whereas the child with sickle cells disease develops sickling during each of these conditions. has a milder form of the disease that is characterized by vaso-occlusive crises and is believed to result from higher hemoglobin values and viscosity. has the mildest form of the disease with normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin F, which prevents sickling. Question 13. Question : In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days. 30 to 50; 80 60 to 80; 120 90 to 110; 140 120 to 130; 150 Question 14. Question : What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain? Kernicterus Icterus neonatorum Jaundice Icterus gravis neonatorum Question 15. Question : The type of anemia that occurs as a result of thalassemia is microcytic, hypochromic. microcytic, normochromic. macrocytic, hyperchromic. macrocytic, normochromic. Question 16. Question : G6PD and sickle cell disease are inherited X-linked recessive disorders. inherited autosomal recessive disorders. disorders initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis. diagnosed equally in men and women. Question 17. Question : An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with: myocardial ischemia. hypertension. myocardial infarction (MI). coronary artery disease. Question 18. Question : Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein? Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) Triglycerides (TGs) Question 19. Question : Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by causing ischemia of the intima. increasing nitric oxide. eroding the vessel wall. obstructing the vessel. Question 20. Question : Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes? 10 15 20 25 Question 21. Question : An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Question 22. Question : The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____. right atrium; right ventricle right ventricle; left ventricle right atrium; left atrium left atrium; left ventricle Question 23. Question : What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate? Congestive heart failure (CHF) Cor pulmonale Pulmonary hypertension Cerebral hypertension Question 24. Question : Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click? Coarctation of the aorta Pulmonic stenosis Aortic stenosis Hypoplastic left heart syndrome Question 25. Question : When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise? One month before birth During the beginning stage of labor One hour after birth Once the placenta is removed from circulation [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 5 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 5 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 5 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 5 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 5... [Show More] Quiz (Latest, 2 Versions): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 5 (Latest, 2 Versions): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing Question 1 Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the • thyroid gland. • smooth and skeletal muscles. • glomeruli of nephrons. • tubules of nephrons. Question 2 A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation? • The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water. • The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol. • The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels. • The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). Question 3 Hormones are effective communicators because they • are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities. • increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels. • are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell. • decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels. Question 4 When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone. • direct • pharmacologic • synergistic • permissive Question 5 What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances? • It directly increases calcium reabsorption. • It directly increases sodium reabsorption. • It directly increases magnesium reabsorption. • It directly increases water reabsorption. Question 6 Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? • Triiodothyronine (T3) • Thyroxine (T4) • Parathyroid hormone (PTH) • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Question 7 Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger? • Testosterone • Thyroxine • Estrogen • Angiotensin II Question 8 What hormone or electrolyte imbalance slows down the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? • Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) • Decreased serum magnesium levels • Decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) • Increased serum calcium levels Question 9 A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone? • Somatostatin • Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) • Alpha endorphin • Thyroid hormones Question 10 Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located • on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. • on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. • inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm. • inside the mitochondria. Question 11 What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)? • Anterior pituitary • Hypothalamus • Mammary glands • Posterior pituitary Question 12 Where is oxytocin synthesized? • Posterior pituitary • Paraventricular nuclei • Anterior pituitary • Hypothalamus Question 13 The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually • high. • low. • normal. • in constant flux. Question 14 A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder? • Diabetes insipidus (DI) • Cushing disease • Hypoaldosteronism • Hyperthyroidism Question 15 The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute • dilution and water loss. • dilution and water retention. • retention and water retention. • retention and water loss. Question 16 0 2 pts Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of • chronic insulin resistance. • the formation of ketones. • an increase in antidiuretic hormone. • an elevation in serum glucose. Question 17 Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)? • Increased serum glucose • Glycosuria • Fluid loss • Kussmaul respirations Question 18 Diagnosing a thyroid carcinoma is best done with • fine-needle aspiration biopsy. • measurement of serum thyroid levels. • ultrasonography. • radioisotope scanning. Question 19 A man with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 Lday. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in his polyuria. These are indications of • neurogenic diabetes insipidus. • psychogenic polydipsia. • osmotically induced diuresis. • syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Question 20 Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by • hypothalamic hyposecretion. • a neurohypophysial tumor. • a pituitary adenoma. • autoimmune disorder of the pituitary. Question 21 The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves disease include • constipation and lethargy. • bradycardia and bradypnea. • constipation with gastric distention. • hyperthermia and tachycardia. Question 22 Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults? • Cushing syndrome • Myxedema • Acromegaly • Giantism Question 23 The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the • anterior pituitary. • renal tubules. • thalamus. • posterior pituitary. Question 24 The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is • hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement. • hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury. • hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease. • myxedema secondary to surgery. Question 25 What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? • The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow. • Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries. • The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia. • There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water NR507 Week 5 Quiz (Set 2) 1 Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm. on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. inside the mitochondria. on the inner surface of the plasma membrane. Question 2. Where is oxytocin synthesized? Hypothalamus Paraventricular nuclei Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary Question 3. A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation? The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels. The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol. The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water. Question 4. What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes? It increases serum calcium. It decreases serum calcium. It decreases serum magnesium. It increases serum magnesium. Question 5. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)? Hypothalamus Anterior pituitary Mammary glands Posterior pituitary Question 6. A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone? Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Thyroid hormones Somatostatin Alpha endorphin Question 7. Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Thyroxine (T4) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Triiodothyronine (T3) Question 8. Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the tubules of nephrons. thyroid gland. glomeruli of nephrons. smooth and skeletal muscles. Question 9. The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary. posterior inferior anterior superior Question 10. Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones? Iron Zinc Iodide Copper Question 11. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone. pharmacologic permissive synergistic direct Question 12. Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger? Angiotensin II Thyroxine Estrogen Testosterone Question 13. The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is dipstick test for urine ketones. increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN). protein on urinalysis. cloudy urine on the urinalysis. Question 14. The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the anterior pituitary. thalamus. posterior pituitary. renal tubules. Question 15. Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults? Cushing syndrome Acromegaly Giantism Myxedema Question 16. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow. There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water. The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia. Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries. Question 17. Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality Serum K+ 5 and urine hyperosmolality Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality Question 18. Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)? Urine specific gravity Serum sodium Urine protein Serum total protein Question 19. The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute retention and water retention. retention and water loss. dilution and water retention. dilution and water loss. Question 20. The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually high. low. normal. in constant flux. Question 21. Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the formation of ketones. chronic insulin resistance. an elevation in serum glucose. an increase in antidiuretic hormone. Question 22. The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is pituitary hyposecretion. parathyroid adenoma. parathyroid gland damage. autoimmune parathyroid disease. Question 23. Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)? Fluid loss Glycosuria Increased serum glucose Kussmaul respirations Question 24. A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder? Hyperthyroidism Hypoaldosteronism Diabetes insipidus (DI) Cushing disease Question 25. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a posterior pituitary adenoma. thymoma. prolactinoma. growth hormone adenoma. [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 6 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 6 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 6 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 6 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 6... [Show More] Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 6 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing 1. Question : A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture. idiopathic incomplete pathologic greenstick Question 2. Question : Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone? Tendon Ligament Bursa Mesentery Question 3. Question : _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact. Dislocation Subluxation Malunion Nonunion Question 4. Question : Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone? Osteomalacia Paget disease Osteoporosis Osteosarcoma Question 5. Question : What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis? Reduced excretion of purines Overproduction of uric acid Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels Overproduction of proteoglycans Question 6. Question : Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply. smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia. lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade. release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells. Question 7. Question : Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts? ERKs increase the life span of osteoclasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoblasts. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoclasts and decrease the life span of osteoblasts. ERKs and RANKL increase the life span of osteoblasts and decrease the life span of osteoclasts. ERKs increase the life span of osteoblasts and RANKL decreases the life span of osteoclasts. Question 8. Question : Cerebral palsy is usually a result of brain ischemia during birth. prematurity. congenital defects. genetic defect. Question 9. Question : An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children. C B12 B6 D Question 10. Question : Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane? Syntrophin Laminin Dystrophin Troponin Question 11. Question : Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with TP53. src. myc. TSC2. Question 12. Question : Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s father. mother. affected parent. maternal lineage. Question 13. Question : The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures. epiphyseal line physeal plate epiphyseal cartilage metaphyseal plate Question 14. Question : The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value? Albumin Blood urea nitrogen Creatinine Creatine Question 15. Question : Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta? Phosphorus Calcium Alkaline phosphatase Total protein Question 16. Question : Chickenpox may be followed years later by erysipelas. cytomegalovirus. warts (verrucae). herpes zoster. Question 17. Question : Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n) X-linked recessive gene. X-linked dominant gene. virus. autoantibodies. Question 18. Question : Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus? IgA IgE IgG IgM Question 19. Question : Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair. elastin collagen stroma reticular fibers Question 20. Question : Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix? Macrophages Mast cells Fibroblasts Histiocytes Question 21. Question : Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis? Papular rash High fever Vesicles that burst and form crusts Itching Question 22. Question : Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by Staphylococcus. Streptococcus. herpesvirus. Candida albicans. Question 23. Question : What is the cause of chickenpox? Poxvirus Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) Adenovirus Human papillomavirus Question 24. Question : Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site? Pediculosis Tinea capitis Scabies Rubeola Question 25. Question : What is a common source of tinea corporis? Mites Kittens Fleas Ticks [Show Less]
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NR507 Week 7 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 7 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|
NR507 Week 7 Quiz (2 Versions, New-2023)/ NR 507 Week 7 Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A| NR507 Week 7... [Show More] Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 7 (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing NR 507 Week 7 Quiz: Latest Spring Complete Solution, All Answers Correct, Chamberlain. Question 1 Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension? Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4 Question 2. What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions? Limbic Prefrontal Parietal Occipital Question 3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing the cerebrospinal fluid flow between the ventricles. the cerebrospinal fluid flow into the subarachnoid space. blood flow to the arachnoid villi. the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the arachnoid villi. Question 4. Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure? Alternative tonic and clonic movements Consciousness is impaired as well as the ability to respond to exogenous stimuli Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute Question 5. Which disease process is infratentorial? Cerebellar neoplasm Encephalitis Parkinson disease Cerebral neoplasm Question 6. Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery? Anterior communicating artery Posterior communicating artery Circle of Willis Middle cerebral artery Question 7. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Paroxysmal Tardive Hyperkinesia Cardive Question 8. With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to respond in writing, but not in speech. speak back, but not comprehend speech. comprehend speech, but not respond verbally. respond verbally, but not comprehend speech. Question 9. What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury? Headache, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure Confusion, irritability, and retrograde amnesia Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis Hypertension, neurogenic shock, and tachycardia Question 10. A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region. frontal temporal parietal occipital Question 11. Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating? The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of sympathetic nervous system damage. The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of sympathetic nervous system damage. The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of parasympathetic nervous system damage. The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to spinal nerve roots. Question 12. Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia? Mild concussion Classic concussion Cortical contusion Acute subdural hematoma Question 13. Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia? Blunted affect Auditory hallucinations Poverty of speech Lack of social interaction Question 14. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression in pregnant women. to enhance the effect of antidepressants. as a first-line treatment before medications. that is unipolar. Question 15. What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? Orthostatic hypotension and weight gain Dry mouth and sexual dysfunction Sleep disturbances and nausea Hypertensive crisis and agitation Question 16. Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the brain and skull. spinal cord. vertebrae. peripheral nerves. Question 17. The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life. second fourth eighth twelfth Question 18. Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n) sac-like cyst of meninges protruding through vertebrae. abnormal growth of hair along the spine. decrease in head circumference. palpable unfused neural arch. Question 19. Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by telescoping of part of the intestine into another usually causing strangulation of the blood supply. twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle causing occlusion of the blood supply. the loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus. forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to intestinal omentum and cause obstruction. Question 20. _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem. Retch Periodic Duodenal Projectile Question 21. Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis? Pancreatic acinar cells metabolize ethanol, which generates toxic metabolites. Injury to the pancreatic acinar cells permits leakage of pancreatic enzymes that digest pancreatic tissue. Acute pancreatitis is an autoimmune disease in which IgG coats the pancreatic acinar cells so they are destroyed by the pancreatic enzymes. When gallstones are present, bile flows into the pancreas, contributing to attacks. Question 22. Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid? Wilson disease Cystic fibrosis Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) Galactosemia Question 23. Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? Salt tablets Pancreatic enzymes Insulin Antibiotics Question 24. Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system. central parasympathetic sympathetic somatic Question 25. An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Congenital aganglionic megacolon Intussusception Malrotation Volvulus [Show Less]
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NR507 Final Exam Possible Questions A-Z / NR507 Final Study Guide (New-2023): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |Download to Score “A”|
NR507 Final Exam Possible Questions A-Z / NR507 Final Study Guide (New-2023): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing |Download to Score �... [Show More] ��A”| [Show Less]
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