NR 566 / NR566 Week 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 Quiz bank| LATEST, Q &... - $37.45 Add To Cart
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 6 Quiz bank |Chapters 22,31,38,44 | LATEST, Q & A| Chamberlain College Chapter 22. Drugs ... [Show More] Affecting the Reproductive System ____ 1. The medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection has a Black Box Warning due to: 1. The potential development of significant hypertension 2. Increased risk of strokes 3. Decreased bone density 4. The risk of a life-threatening rash such as Stevens-Johnson ____ 2. Shana received her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection 6 weeks ago and calls the clinic with a concern that she has been having a light “period” off and on since receiving her Depo shot. What would be the management of Shana? 1. Reassurance that some spotting is normal the first few months of Depo and it should improve. 2. Schedule an appointment for an exam as this is not normal. 3. Prescribe 4 weeks of estrogen to treat the abnormal vaginal bleeding. 4. Order a pregnancy test and suggest she use a back-up method of contraception until she has her next shot. ____ 3. William is a 62-year-old male who is requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He should be screened for ________________ before prescribing sildenafil. 1. Renal dysfunction 2. Unstable coronary artery disease 3. Benign prostatic hypertrophy 4. History of priapism ____ 4. Men who are prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) need ongoing monitoring for: 1. Development of chest pain or dizziness 2. Weight gain 3. Priapism 4. Renal function ____ 5. Men who are prescribed an erectile dysfunction drug such as sildenafil (Viagra) should be warned about the risk for: 1. Impotence when combined with antihypertensives 2. Fatal hypotension if combined with nitrates 3. Weight gain if combined with antidepressants 4. All of the above ____ 6. Androgens are indicated for: 1. Symptomatic treatment for male deficiency 2. Female libido, endometriosis, and postmenopausal symptoms 3. Increased muscle mass 4. Symptomatic treatment in both sexes for cancer and HIV 5. 1, 2, and 4 6. All of the above ____ 7. A 19-year-old female is a nasal Staph aureus carrier and is placed on 5 days of rifampin for treatment. Her only other medication is combined oral contraceptives. What education should she receive regarding her medications? 1. Separate the oral ingestion of the rifampin and oral contraceptive by at least an hour. 2. Both medications are best tolerated if taken on an empty stomach. 3. She should use a back-up method of birth control such as condoms for the rest of the current pill pack. 4. If she gets nauseated with the medications she should call the office for an antiemetic prescription. ____ 8. A 56-year-old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. To treat her symptoms with the lowest adverse effects she should be prescribed: 1. Low-dose oral estrogen 2. A low-dose estrogen/progesterone combination 3. A vaginal estradiol ring 4. Vaginal progesterone cream ____ 9. Shana is receiving her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection. Shana will need to be monitored for: 1. Depression 2. Hypertension 3. Weight loss 4. Cataracts ____ 10. When prescribing medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injections, essential education would include advising of the following potential adverse drug effects: 1. Hypertension and dysuria 2. Depression and weight gain 3. Abdominal pain and constipation 4. Orthostatic hypotension and dermatitis ____ 11. Men who use transdermal testosterone gel (AndroGel) should be advised to avoid: 1. Washing their hands after applying the gel 2. Wearing occlusive clothing while using the gel 3. Exposure to estrogens while using the gel 4. Skin-to-skin contact with pregnant women while using the gel ____ 12. Education when prescribing androgens to male patients includes advising that: 1. Short-term use places the patient at risk for hepatocellular carcinoma. 2. Cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice may occur with low doses of androgens. 3. Gynecomastia is a rare occurrence with the use of androgens. 4. Low sperm levels only occur with long-term use of androgens. ____ 13. Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido: 1. Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider 2. Is treated with increased doses of androgens, so the patient should let the provider know if he is having problems 3. May be a sign of early prostate cancer and he should make an appointment for a prostate screening exam 4. May occur with androgen therapy ____ 14. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration warns that androgens may cause: 1. Peliosis hepatis [Show Less]
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 5 Quiz bank |Chapters 18, 19, 27, | LATEST, Q & A | Chamberlain College Chapter 18. Drugs... [Show More] Affecting the Hematopoietic System ____ 1. The FDA issued a safety announcement regarding the use of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) in 2010 with the recommendation that: 1. ESAs no longer be prescribed to patients with chronic renal failure 2. The risk of tumor development be explained to cancer patients on ESA therapy 3. Patients should no longer receive ESA therapy to prepare for allogenic transfusions 4. ESAs be prescribed only to patients younger than age 60 years ____ 2. When patients are started on darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) they need monitoring of their blood counts to determine a dosage adjustment in: 1. 6 weeks if they are a cancer patient 2. 1 week if they have chronic renal failure 3. 2 weeks if they are taking it for allogenic transfusion 4. Each week throughout therapy ____ 3. Jim is having a hip replacement surgery and would like to self-donate blood for the surgery. In addition to being prescribed epogen alpha he should also be prescribed: 1. Folic acid to prevent megaloblastic anemia 2. Iron, to start when the epogen starts 3. An antihypertensive to counter the adverse effects of epogen 4. Vitamin B12 to prevent pernicious anemia ____ 4. Monitoring for a patient being prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes: 1. Reticulocyte count 1 week after therapy is started 2. Complete blood count every 2 weeks throughout therapy 3. Hemoglobin level at 1 week of therapy 4. INR weekly throughout therapy ____ 5. Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes: 1. Doubling the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels 2. Taking the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach 3. Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice 4. Antacids such as Tums may help the upset stomach caused by iron therapy ____ 6. The routine monitoring recommended for low molecular weight heparin is: 1. INR every 2 days until stable, then weekly 2. aPTT every week while on therapy 3. Factor Xa levels if the patient is pregnant 4. White blood cell count every 2 weeks ____ 7. When writing a prescription for warfarin it is common to write _________ on the prescription. 1. OK to substitute for generic 2. The brand name of warfarin and Do Not Substitute 3. PRN refills 4. Refills for 1 year ____ 8. Education of patients who are taking warfarin includes discussing their diet. Instructions include: 1. Avoiding all vitamin K-containing foods 2. Avoiding high-vitamin K-containing foods 3. Increasing intake of iron-containing foods 4. Making sure they eat 35 grams of fiber daily ____ 9. Patients who are being treated with epoetin alfa need to be monitored for the development of: 1. Thrombocytopenia 2. Neutropenia 3. Hypertension 4. Gout ____ 10. Patients with pernicious anemia require treatment with: 1. Iron 2. Folic acid 3. Epogen alpha 4. Vitamin B12 [Show Less]
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 3 & 4 Quiz Bank |Chapters 16,25,28,36,39,40 | LATEST, Q & A | Chamberlain College Chapter 1... [Show More] 6. Drugs Affecting the Cardiovascular and Renal Systems ____ 1. Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule? 1. It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen. 2. Gastrointestinal adverse effects are common so the drug should be taken with food. 3. Adherence can be improved by using a sustained release formulation that can be given once daily. 4. Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level. ____ 2. Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. Notify your health-care provider immediately if you have visual change. 2. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily. 3. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy. 4. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces. ____ 3. The NP orders a thyroid panel for a patient on amiodarone. The patient tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test is ordered. Which is a correct response? 1. Amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism. 2. Amiodarone damages the thyroid gland and can result in inflammation of that gland, causing hyperthyroidism. 3. Amiodarone is a broad spectrum drug with many adverse effects. Many different tests need to be done before it is given. 4. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits in up to 25% of patients. ____ 5. Vera, age 70, has isolated systolic hypertension. Calcium channel blocker dosages for her should be: 1. Started at about half the usual dosage 2. Not increased over the usual dosage for an adult 3. Given once daily because of memory issues in the older adult 4. Withheld if she experiences gastroesophageal reflux ____ 6. Larry has heart failure, which is being treated with digoxin because it exhibits: 1. Negative inotropism 2. Positive chronotropism 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 ____ 7. Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure that includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes: 1. Hemoglobin 2. Serum potassium 3. Blood urea nitrogen 4. Serum glucose ____ 8. Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct. 1. Older adults because of reduced renal function 2. Administration of aldosterone antagonist diuretics because of decreased potassium levels 3. Taking an antacid for gastroesophageal reflux disease because it increases the absorption of digoxin 4. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day ____ 9. Serum digoxin levels are monitored for potential toxicity. Monitoring should occur: 1. Within 6 hours of the last dose 2. Because a reference point is needed in adjusting a dose 3. After three half-lives from the starting of the drug 4. When a patient has stable renal function ____ 10. Isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a patient with chronic stable angina. This drug is administered twice daily, but the schedule is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. because: 1. It is a long-acting drug with potential for toxicity. 2. Nitrate tolerance can develop. 3. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect. 4. It must be taken with milk or food. 11. Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension and an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the NP should assess for: 1. Hypokalemia 2. Impotence 3. Decreased renal function 4. Inability to concentrate ____ 12. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are the drug of choice in treating hypertension in diabetic patients because they: 1. Improve insulin sensitivity 2. Improve renal hemodynamics 3. Reduce the production of angiotensin II 4. All of the above ____ 13. A potentially life-threatening adverse response to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response? 1. Swelling of the tongue or hoarseness are the most common symptoms. 2. It appears to be related to the decrease in aldosterone production. 3. Presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response. 4. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about 1 week. ____ 14. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are useful in a variety of disorders. Which of the following statements are true about both its usefulness in the disorder and the reason for its use? 1. Stable angina because it decreases the thickening of vascular walls due to decreased modified release. 2. Heart failure because it reduces remodeling of injured myocardial tissues. 3. Both 1 and 2 are true and the reasons are correct. 4. Both 1 and 2 are true but the reasons are wrong. 5. Neither 1 nor 2 are true. [Show Less]
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 2 Quiz bank | Chapters 17, 42, 43, 45 | LATEST, Q & A | Chamberlain College Chapter 17.... [Show More] Drugs Affecting the Respiratory System ____ 1. Howard is a 72-year-old male who occasionally takes diphenhydramine for his seasonal allergies. Monitoring for this patient taking diphenhydramine would include assessing for: 1. Urinary retention 2. Cardiac output 3. Peripheral edema 4. Skin rash ____ 2. First-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they are: 1. More effective than first-generation antihistamines 2. Less sedating than the first-generation antihistamines 3. Prescription products, therefore are covered by insurance 4. Able to be taken with central nervous system (CNS) sedatives, such as alcohol ____ 3. When recommending dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) to treat motion sickness, patients should be instructed to: 1. Take the dimenhydrinate after they get nauseated 2. Drink lots of water while taking the dimenhydrinate 3. Take the dimenhydrinate 15 minutes before it is needed 4. Double the dose if one tablet is not effective ____ 4. Decongestants such as pseudoephedrine (Sudafed): 1. Are Schedule III drugs in all states 2. Should not be prescribed or recommended for children under 4 years of age 3. Are effective in treating the congestion children experience with the common cold 4. May cause drowsiness in patients of all ages ____ 5. Cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic decongestant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what population: 1. Older adults 2. Hypertensive patients 3. Infants 4. All of the above ____ 6. Martin is a 60-year-old patient with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to prescribe would be: 1. Oral pseudoephedrine 2. Oral phenylephrine 3. Nasal oxymetazoline 4. Nasal azelastine 7. Montelukast (Singulair) may be prescribed for: 1. A 6-year-old child with exercise-induced asthma 2. A 2-year-old child with moderate persistent asthma 3. An 18-month-old child with seasonal allergic rhinitis 4. None of the above; montelukast is not approved for use in children ____ 8. The known drug interactions with the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone (QVAR) include: 1. Albuterol 2. MMR vaccine 3. Insulin 4. None of the above ____ 9. When educating patients who are starting on inhaled corticosteroids, the provider should tell them that: [Show Less]
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 1 Quiz bank | Chapters 21, 33, 41 | LATEST, Q & A| Chamberlain College Chapter 21. Drugs Affe... [Show More] cting the Endocrine System 1. Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss are: A. Cortical bones B. Femoral neck bones C. Cervical vertebrae D. Pelvic bones 2. Bisphosphonates treat or prevent osteoporosis by: A. Inhibiting osteoclastic activity B. Fostering bone resorption C. Enhancing calcium uptake in the bone D. Strengthening the osteoclastic proton pump 3. Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs? A. Selective estrogen receptor modulators B. Aspirin C. Glucocorticoids D. Calcium supplements 4. Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. Each replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of: A. Lipase B. Protease C. Amylase D. Pancreatin 5. Brands of pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs are: A. Bioequivalent B. About the same in cost per unit of lipase across brands C. Able to be interchanged between generic and brand-name products to reduce cost D. None of the above 6. Sitagliptin has been approved for: A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses B. Combination therapy with metformin C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 7. GLP-1 agonists: A. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell B. Have been approved for monotherapy C. Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite D. Can be given orally once daily 8. Avoid concurrent administration of exenatide with which of the following drugs? A. Digoxin B. Warfarin C. Lovastatin D. All of the above 9. Administration of exenatide is by subcutaneous injection: A. 30 minutes prior to the morning meal B. 60 minutes prior to the morning and evening meal C. 15 minutes after the evening meal D. 60 minutes before each meal daily 10. Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report: A. Tinnitus and decreased salivation B. Fever and sore throat C. Hypocalcemia and osteoporosis D. Laryngeal edema and difficulty swallowing 11. When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes some form of insulin may be added to the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks. Which of the following statements is accurate based on research? A. Premixed insulin analogues are better at lowering HbA1C and have less risk for hypoglycemia. B. Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral antidiabetic agents. [Show Less]
NR 566 / NR566 Advanced Pharmacology Care of the Family Week 7 & 8 Quiz bank |Chapters 48, 49, 50, 51 | LATEST, Q & A | Chamberlain College Chapter 48: ... [Show More] Women as Patients ____ 1. Hot flashes are often a concern during menopause. Which of the following may help in reducing them? 1. Drink one caffeinated liquid per day 2. Take progesterone supplementation 3. Exercise 20-40 minutes/day 4. Increase intake of carrots, yams, and soy products ____ 2. Factors common in women that can affect adherence to a treatment regimen include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. Number of drugs taken: Women tend to take fewer drugs over longer periods of time 2. Fear that medications can cause disease: Information obtained from social networks may be inaccurate for a specific woman 3. Nutritional status: Worries about possible weight gain from a given drug may result in nonadherence 4. Religious differences: A patient’s belief system that is not congruent with the treatment regimen presents high risk for nonadherence ____ 3. Dysmenorrhea is one of the most common gynecological complaints in young women. The first line of drug treatment for this disorder is: 1. Oral contraceptive pills 2. Caffeine 3. NSAIDs 4. Aspirin ____ 4. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) occurs in a fairly small number of patients. Theories of the pathology behind PMDD that are supported in research include: 1. Altered sensitivity in the serontonic system 2. Inhibition of the cyclooxygenase system 3. Fluctuations of the gonadal hormones 4. All of these are theories supported by research ____ 5. Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of: 1. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control 2. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia 3. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants 4. Decreased risk for abuse during this time 6. Treatment of PMDD that affects all or most of the symptoms includes: 1. Tryptophan up to 6 g/d 2. Vitamin E 200-400 mg/d 3. Evening primrose oil 500 mg/d 4. Fluoxetine 20 mg/d ____ 7. Women are now the fastest growing population with HIV infection and AIDS. HIV-infected women: 1. Are less likely to become pregnant or to carry a pregnancy to term 2. Have higher rates of cervical dysplasia and HPV-concurrent infections 3. Are most often over 35 years of age 4. Most often come from Asian and Caucasian ethnic groups ____ 8. Maternal-to-child transmission of HIV infection during pregnancy may be prevented by: 1. Use of antiviral drugs such as zidovudine 2. Use of condoms during intercourse 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 ____ 9. Erroneous information about LGBTQ individuals can lead to failure to give accurate advice to them as patients. Which of the following statements is true about lesbians: 1. Lesbians cannot contract a sexually transmitted infection from their female partner. 2. Screening for cervical cancer is not required. 3. Lesbians as a group are less likely to have health-care insurance. 4. Like women in general, lesbians are more likely than gay men to seek care for health-related issues. ____ 10. Which of the following holds true for the pharmacokinetics of women? 1. Gastric emptying is faster than that of men. 2. Organ blood flow is the same as that of men. 3. Evidence is strong concerning renal differences in elimination. [Show Less]
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