NR 507 Final Exam
1. Question :
What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion ... [Show More] of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
Student Answer:
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Myelomeningocele
Instructor Myelomeningocele is a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, Explanation: spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra. The remaining options are not appropriate terms to identity the described condition.
Question 2 Question :
. What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue?
Student Answer:
Glomerular filtration rate
Hourly urine output
Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine
Instructor The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of
Explanation: functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function.
Question 3 Question :
. Where are Langerhans cells found?
Student Answer:
Skin
Intestinal lining
Kidney
Thyroid
Instructor Of the available options, only the skin is the location for Langerhans cells. Explanation:
Question 4 Question :
. Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
Student Answer:
Trachea
Segmental bronchi
Alveolocapillary membrane
Main bronchus
Instructor Gas exchange occurs only across the alveolocapillary membrane. Explanation:
Question 5 Question :
. The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
Student Answer: 2 years
1 year
10 months
5 months
Instructor The tonic neck reflex should be unobtainable by 5 months of age. Explanation:
Question 6 Question :
. When renin is released, it is capable of which action?
Student Answer:
Inactivation of autoregulation
Direct activation of angiotensin II
Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Formation of angiotensin I
Instructor When renin is released, it cleaves an -globulin (angiotensinogen produced Explanation: by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I.
Question 7 Question :
. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
Student Answer: Immunotope
Paratope
Epitope
Antigenitope
Instructor The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is
Explanation: called its antigenic determinant or epitope. The other options are not used to identify this portion of the antigen.
Question 8 Question :
. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
Student Answer:
Syphilis
Herpes simplex virus
Chlamydia
Chancroid
Instructor The coexistence of chlamydial infection with gonorrhea frequently occurs. No Explanation: coexistence exists with the other options.
Question 9 Question :
. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
Student Answer: Reticulocyte count
Serum transferring
Hemoglobin
Serum vitamin B12
Instructor Explanation: The effectiveness of cobalamin replacement therapy is determined by a rising reticulocyte count. The other options are not used as indicators of the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy
Question 10 Question :
. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which
tissue origin?
Student Answer:
Blood vessels
Epithelial cells
Connective tissue
Glandular tissue
Instructor Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas. Explanation:
Question 11 Question :
. Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
Student Answer:
Instructor
Explanation: Viruses
Bacteria and fungi
Protozoa and Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Only bacteria and fungi have the capacity to reproduce on the skin.
Question 12 Question :
. An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
Student Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect
Instructor Explanation: Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendodecrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms.
Question 13 Question :
. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
would likely exhibit which symptom?
Student Answer:
Intermittent murmur
Lack of symptoms
Need for surgical repair
Triad of congenital defects
Instructor Infants with a small PDA usually remain asymptomatic; the other options are Explanation: incorrect.
Question 14 Question :
. What is the function of erythrocytes?
Student Answer:
Tissue oxygenation
Hemostasis
Infection control
Allergy response
Instructor Erythrocytes are solely responsible for tissue oxygenation. Explanation:
Question 15 Question :
. Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and
malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?
Student
Answer: Liposarcoma, lipoma
Lipoma, liposarcoma
Adisarcoma, adipoma
Adipoma, adisarcoma
Instructor In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they Explanation: originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma.
Question 16 Question :
. What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?
Student Answer: 20%
25%
33%
50%
Instructor A 25% chance exists with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with
Explanation: sickle cell trait will have SCD. Genetic counseling enables people with SCD or with the sickle cell trait to make informed decisions about transmitting this genetic disorder to their offspring.
Question 17 Question :
. What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
Student Answer: Nasal turbinates
Alveolar macrophages
Cilia
Irritant receptors on the nares
Instructor The submucosal glands of the bronchial lining produce mucus, contributing to the
Explanation: mucous blanket that covers the bronchial epithelium. The ciliated epithelial cells rhythmically beat this mucous blanket toward the trachea and pharynx, where it can be swallowed or expectorated by coughing. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the pulmonary defense mechanism described.
Question 18 Question :
. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
Student Answer: Posterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Anterior pituitary
Instructor Explanation: ADH, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland, controls the concentration of the final urine. ADH is not secreted by any of the other options.
Question 19 Question :
. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
Student Answer:
The virus does not circulate in the blood.
It does not have antibody receptors.
It resists agglutination.
The virus is a soluble antigen.
Instructor Many viruses (e.g., measles, herpes) are inaccessible to antibodies after the
Explanation: initial infection only because these viruses do not circulate in the bloodstream; rather, they remain inside infected cells, spreading by direct cell-to-cell contact.
Question 20 Question :
. Which renal change is found in older adults?
Student Answer:
Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Decrease in the number of nephrons
Decrease in urine output
Instructor With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not Explanation: necessarily related to aging.
Question 21 Question :
. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and
respiratory secretions?
Student
Answer: IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Instructor IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are
Explanation: predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question.
Question 22 Question :
. Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal
during a stress response?
Student Answer:
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Instructor Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, Explanation: increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses.
Question 23 Question :
. Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?
Student Answer: The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.
The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.
The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.
The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.
Instructor To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first
Explanation: few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of
maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age.
Question 24 Question :
. The function of the tumor cell marker is to:
Student Answer:
Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer.
Treat certain types of cancer.
Predict where cancers will develop.
Screen individuals at high risk for cancer.
Instructor Explanation: Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can be used. These markers are not used to definitively diagnosis or treat cancer and are not useful in predicting specific sites of cancer development.
Question 25 Question :
. Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?
Student Answer: Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.
Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections.
Fungal infections release endotoxins.
Vaccines prevent fungal infections.
Instructor The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of
Explanation: neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. The other options are not true of fungal infections.
Question 26 Question :
. Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
Student Answer: The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
Estrogen levels are low.
Instructor At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial
Explanation: lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection.
Question 27 Question :
. The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?
Student Answer: Relativity
Survivability
Prevalence
Incidence
Instructor The prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a
Explanation: specific point in time. Thus both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in affected individuals determine prevalence. The description in the question does not relate to any of the other options.
Question 28 Question :
. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
Student Answer: Sodium intake
Physical inactivity
Psychosocial stress
Obesity
Instructor The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased Explanation: sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment.
Question 29 Question :
. Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):
Student Answer: Atretic follicle
Thecal follicle
Corpus luteum
Functional scar
Instructor Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus Explanation: luteum.
Question 30 Question :
. The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
Student Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Rickets
Osteochondrosis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Instructor Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to Explanation: become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity.
Question 31 Question :
. What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
Student Answer: Tolerance
Perception
Threshold
Dominance
Instructor Pain tolerance is the duration of time or the intensity of pain that an individual will [Show Less]
