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MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam (2 Versions), MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (5 Versions), MN551 Unit 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
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MN 551 Final Exam (2 Versions) / MN551 Final Exam/ MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Final Exam (2 Versions) / MN551 Final Exam/ MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answe... [Show More] rs| MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam/ MN551 Final Exam / MN 551 Final Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1. During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the: A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands. D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. 2. During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal? A) Cervix B) Uterus C) Ovaries D) Fallopian tubes 3. The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as: A) anteverted and anteflexed. B) retroverted and anteflexed. C retroverted and retroflexed. D)superiorverted and anteflexed. 4. An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should: A) use the Tanner's table on the five stages of sexual development. B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age. C) use Jacobsen's table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data. D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step. 5. A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign. A) Tanner's; Hegar's B) Hegar's; Goodell's C) Chadwick's; Hegar's D) Goodell's; Chadwick's 6. A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true? A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal. B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection. C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria. D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth. 7. The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are: A)aging. B)becoming fibrous. C)estrogen dependent. D)able to respond to estrogen. 8. The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause? A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy 9. A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? "A postmenopausal woman: A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is." B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions." C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned." D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle." 10. A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the: A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening. B) obstetric history because it is the most important information. C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well. D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first. 11. A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____. A) 2; 2; 1 B) 3; 2; 0 C) 3; 2; 1 D) 3; 3; 1 12. During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion? A)"I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed." B) "I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period." C) "I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night." D) "I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom." 13. A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her: A) "Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual." B) "Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding." C) "It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated." D)"It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week." 14. A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she "wets herself a little." She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is: A) dysuria. B) stress incontinence. C) hematuria. D) urge incontinence. 15. During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be: A) "Oh, don't worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal." B) "Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?" C) "I'd like some information about the discharge. What color is it?" D) "Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?" 16. A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, "Have you noticed: A) a change in your urination patterns?" B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?" C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?" D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?" 17. Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview? A)"Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?" B) "Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?" C) "Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?" D) "Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?" 18. A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask: A) "Do you have a history of heart murmurs?" B) "Will you be in a monogamous relationship?" C) "Have you thought this choice through carefully?" D) "If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?" 19. A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first? A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics. B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility. D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert. 20. A nurse is assessing a patient's risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be: A) "You know that it's important to use condoms for protection, right?" B) "Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?" C) "Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?" D) "You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren't you?" 21. When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening? A) "Do you have any questions about growing up?" B) "What has your mother told you about growing up?" C) "When did you notice that your body was changing?" D) "I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?" 22. When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement? A) "It is okay that you have become sexually active." B) "Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?" C) "If it is okay with you, I'd like to ask you some questions about your sexual history." D) "Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse." 23. The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman? A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding. B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions. C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness. D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted. 24. During the examination portion of a patient's visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her? A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head. B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact. C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table. D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off. 25. An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination. B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing. C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam. D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact. 26. The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman's external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits? A) Redness of the labia majora B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora 27. The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct? A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum 28. During an internal examination of a woman's genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum? A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement. B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted. C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman's back. D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view. 29. The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal? A) Nabothian cysts are present. B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit. C) The cervical surface is granular and red. D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present. 30. A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are: A) "If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina." B) "Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment." C) "If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you." D) "We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office." 31. During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer? A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount ("wet prep") 32. When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse's interpretation of these results should be which of these? A) These findings are all within normal limits. B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm. C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy. D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix. 33. The nurse is palpating a female patient's adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to: A) tell the patient that her examination was normal. B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist. C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings. D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further. 34. A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit? A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking. B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done. C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard. D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination. 35. The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation? A) In the parent's lap B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended 36. When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply: A) "This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks." B "This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician." C) "We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits." D) "We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size." 37. During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions? A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Atrophic vaginitis D) Bacterial vaginosis 38. A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is: A) pediculosis pubis. B) contact dermatitis. C) human papillomavirus. D) herpes simplex virus type 2. 39. When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 40. A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer? A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms. B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer. C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening. D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years. 41. During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of: A) an ovarian cyst. B) endometriosis. C) ovarian cancer. D) an ectopic pregnancy. 42. A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of: A) endometriosis. B) uterine fibroids. C) ectopic pregnancy. D) pelvic inflammatory disease. 43. During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be: A) syphilitic chancre. B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis). C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts. D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice). 44. During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear: A) stellate. B) small and round. C) as a horizontal irregular slit. D) everted. 45. A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer. A) uterine B) cervical C) ovarian D) endometrial 46. During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as: A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree. B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree. C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree. D) a normal finding. 47. A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, "How often do I need to have this Pap test done?" Which reply by the nurse is correct? A)"It depends. Do you smoke?" B)"This will need to be done annually until you are 65." C)"If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests." D)"After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years." 48. The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass's characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply. A) Heavy and solid B) Mobile and fluctuant C)Mobile and solid D) Fixed E) Smooth and round F) Poorly defined MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 2 / 2 points A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone, which has fallen to the bottom, and there are a number of items in the bag in addition to the phone. Which of the following components of somatosensory conduction is most likely to provide the detailed sensory information that will help her distinguish her phone from other items? Question options: The primary dorsal root ganglion neuron, the dorsal column neuron, and the thalamic neuron A slow-conducting pathway that projects into the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus The opposite anterolateral pathway that travels to the reticular activating system A bilateral, multisynaptic, slow-conducting tract Question 2 2 / 2 points A 29-year-old female has been admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt by overdose of acetaminophen. What changes in the patient's liver and diagnostic results would the care team most likely anticipate? Question options: Centrilobular necrosis evidenced by increased ALT and AST levels Allergic inflammation accompanied by an increase in serum IgE and basophils Cholestatic reaction with increased bilirubin count Rapid onset of hepatitis and increased GGT, ALT, and bilirubin levels Question 3 2 / 2 points A nurse practitioner and social worker are facilitating a family meeting for the children and wife of a 79-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. What goal of treatment will the clinicians most likely prioritize in their interactions with the family? Question options: Modest reversal of brain plaque formation and improved symptomatology through cholinesterase inhibitors Surgical treatment of the ischemic changes that underlie the manifestations of the man's disease The use of medications such as donepezil and rivastigmine to slow the progression of the disease Cognitive and behavioral therapy to counteract the agitation, depression, and suspiciousness associated with Alzheimer disease. Question 4 2 / 2 points A 40-year-old woman has been found to have a deficiency in estrogen. Which of the following physiological phenomena is most likely to remain unaffected? Question options: Parathyroid hormone antagonism and the rate of bone resorption The regulation of uterine endothelial development The maintenance of normal skin and blood vessel structure The synthesis and release of adrenal glucocorticoids Question 5 2 / 2 points Following the identification of low levels of T3 and T4 coupled with the presence of a goiter, a 28-year-old female has been diagnosed with Hashimoto thyroiditis. In light of this diagnosis, which of the following assessment results would constitute an unexpected finding? Question options: The presence of myxedema in the woman's face and extremities Recent weight gain despite a loss of appetite and chronic fatigue Coarse, dry skin and hair with decreased sweat production Increased white cell count and audible crackles on chest auscultation Question 6 2 / 2 points Laparoscopic knee surgery on a 22-year-old basketball player has necessitated entry into the synovial cavity. The surgeon performing the procedure would be aware of which of the following relevant characteristics of synovial tissue? Question options: Synovial tissue has a slow rate of healing compared to muscle tissue. Damage to synovial tissue is known to be excruciatingly painful. The synovial membrane lacks direct blood supply, precluding bleeding into the joint. Few pain receptors are located in the synovial membrane. Question 7 2 / 2 points Having heard positive reports of the benefits of HT from her sister-in-law and friends, a 49-year-old woman has presented to her nurse practitioner asking to start HT. Her uterus is intact and previous bone scans have indicated low bone density. The patient also has a family history of heart disease. She characterizes her symptoms of menopause as “noticeable, but not debilitating by any means.” Based on the most current research, what is her nurse practitioner's best course of action? Question options: Begin estrogen-progesterone HT (EPT) to prevent future menopausal symptoms and coronary heart disease (CHD) Forgo HT in light of her preexisting low bone density and consequent risk of osteoporosis Forgo HT but consider alternative therapies and reevaluate if her symptoms significantly affect her quality of life Begin low-dose HT but perform regular breast cancer screening and heart health checks Question 8 2 / 2 points A 13-year-old female is undergoing rapid development of her breasts after experiencing menarche several months ago. Which of the following hormones are NOT active in the development of her breasts? Question options: Prolactin Oxytocin Estrogen Follicle-stimulating hormone Progesterone Question 9 2 / 2 points An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of GH. Which of the following teaching points about the patient's future health risks is most accurate? Question options: “It's not unusual for unusually high GH levels to cause damage to your hypothalamus.” “GH excess inhibits your pancreas from producing enough insulin.” “The high levels of GH that circulate in your body can result in damage to your liver.” “When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there's a real risk that you'll develop some sight deficiencies. Question 10 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis? Question options: The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are part of the sympathetic nervous system. The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones. Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the adrenal glands. Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function. Question 11 2 / 2 points A 41-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having a loose body of cartilage in her left knee. What data would be most likely to lead clinicians to this conclusion? Question options: A visible hematoma is present on the anterior portion of the knee. The woman experiences intermittent, painful locking of her joint. Computed tomography indicates a complete tear of her knee ligament. An X-ray shows that her femoral head and tibia are no longer articulated. Question 12 2 / 2 points Following exposure to poison oak while camping, a 20-year-old male is experiencing pruritus as a consequence of his immune response to irritants in the plant. What physiologic process best accounts for his complaint? Question options: His body is communicating a low-level pain response as a protective measure. Free nerve endings are initiating an itch-specific signal to the somatosensory cortex. Local irritation of Langerhans cells is sending signals by way of myelinated type C nerve fibers. Ruffini corpuscles are transmitting the message of pruritis to the cerebral cortex. Question 13 2 / 2 points Which of the following phenomena constitutes a component of axonal transport? Question options: Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS). Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials. Question 14 2 / 2 points A patient with a new diagnosis of an endocrine disorder is unclear about how the body can control the levels of different hormones over time. Which of the following statements most accurately underlies the dominant regulation process of hormone levels in the body? Question options: A positive feedback cycle ensures that stable levels of hormones exist in the body over time. With input from various sensors, hormone production and release are adjusted based on existing hormone levels. The hypothalamus ensures that hormone levels correspond accurately to the diurnal cycle. The pituitary gland is genetically programmed to stimulate and inhibit hormone production and/or release based on needs at different points in the life cycle. Question 15 2 / 2 points As part of the intake protocol at an eating disorders clinic, an interview precedes a physical examination. Which of the following questions would a clinician be justified in excluding from an intake interview for a 16-year-old female referred by her pediatrician for the treatment of anorexia nervosa? Question options: “Do you remember when your last menstrual period was? “Have you noticed any new hair growth on your body in the last several months?” “Have you had any episodes of shortness of breath in the recent past?” “Can you tell me about some of the habits that you have related to food in your daily routine?” Question 16 2 / 2 points Which of the following patients on a hospital medical unit is most clearly demonstrating the signs and symptoms of liver failure? Question options: A 44-year-old man with low hemoglobin levels, low platelet levels, and spider angiomas A 50-year-old woman with blood pressure of 189/103, jaundice, and multiple thromboses A 68-year-old female patient with sudden onset of confusion, a history of alcohol abuse, and low levels of serum AST and ALT A 55-year-old man with ascites, fever, and recent onset of atrial fibrillation Question 17 2 / 2 points A 43-year-old male patient has presented to the emergency department with vomiting that he claims is of sudden onset. The patient also states that the emesis has often contained frank blood in the hours prior to admission. Which of the following potential contributing factors would the care team first suspect? Question options: Overuse of aspirin Alcohol consumption Staphylococcal enterotoxins Effects of Helicobacter pylori Question 18 2 / 2 points A female toddler has been diagnosed with toeing-in (metatarsus adductus). What teaching should the nurse practitioner provide to the parents of the child about her diagnosis? Question options: “She will likely walk later than most children, but it will resolve itself with time.” “We'll likely need to start putting the first of a series of casts on her legs quite soon.” “The best time to perform the surgery that's needed will be at age three or four.” “While there's no effective treatment for her toeing-in, most children learn to accommodate the problem and walk independently.” Question 19 2 / 2 points A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a BMI of 33.2. Which of the following health problems is the patient at a significantly increased risk for compared with individuals with a BMI below 25? Question options: Cardiac arrhythmias Osteoarthritis Multiple sclerosis Atelectasis Gallbladder disease Insulin resistance Question 20 2 / 2 points A 51-year-old woman has been experiencing signs and symptoms of perimenopause and has sought help from her nurse practitioner. Doctors have confirmed a deficiency in estrogen levels as a contributing factor. Which of the following phenomena could potentially underlie the woman's health problem? Question options: Sufficient synthesis of estrogen but inadequate vesicle-mediated release Inadequate synthesis in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of her ovarian cells Insufficient estrogen production within the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the relevant cells A lack of prohormone precursors needed for estrogen synthesis and release Question 21 2 / 2 points Long, stretchy cervical mucus that exhibits ferning on a microscope slide is characteristic of which of the following? Question options: High LH levels Low estrogen levels High progesterone levels Low human chorionic gonadotropin levels Question 22 2 / 2 points A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her? Question options: Lamivudine Peginterferon and ribavirin Interferon-alfa-2b Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs Question 23 2 / 2 points A 74-year-old female has been diagnosed with osteoporosis after her bone density scan indicated osteopenia. Which of the following factors would her care team be most likely to rule out as contributors to her health problem? Question options: The woman is African American and was exposed to asbestos in her work. She has been a heavy drinker for her whole adult life and has diabetes mellitus. The patient takes corticosteroids for treatment of her long-standing osteoarthritis. The woman has an estrogen deficiency and has never undergone hormone therapy. Question 24 2 / 2 points A male newborn infant has been diagnosed with spina bifida occulta. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes has most likely contributed to the infant's health problem? Question options: The vertebral arches around his neural tube have failed to completely close. The infant's spinal cord and meninges protrude through his skin. The child's central and peripheral nervous systems have insufficiently differentiated during embryonic development. The infant's soma and viscera are underdeveloped. Question 25 2 / 2 points Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect? Question options: Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands Suppression of cholecystokinin Inflammation of the parotid glands Question 26 2 / 2 points A 43-year-old male who is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 216 pounds has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse be most justified in rejecting? Question options: Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. The patient faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia. He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors. The patient is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health. Question 27 2 / 2 points Which of the following pathophysiologic phenomena would be most indicative of ankylosing spondylitis? Question options: Loss of motion in the spinal column and eventual kyphosis A progressive loss of range of motion in knee and hip joints A facial “butterfly rash” and multiorgan involvement Decreased bone density in long bones Question 28 2 / 2 points A 32-year-old man is complaining of burning, itching, photophobia, and severe pain in his right eye after swimming in the ocean. To determine that the eye condition is corneal rather than a conjunctival disease, which of the following would be the distinguishing symptom? Question options: Burning Itching Photophobia Severe pain Question 29 2 / 2 points Following a progressive onset of fatigue, aching, and joint stiffness over the last 2 years, a 69-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following teaching points should his primary care nurse practitioner include during the office visit in which this diagnosis is communicated to the patient? Question options: “The symptoms you've been experiencing are the result of damage inside your joints, but I'll start you on medications that will reverse this damage.” “It's important that you maximize your level of activity, since decreasing your mobility will worsen the disease.” “The best treatment plan is to try all other available treatments before resorting to using medications.” “Steroids and anti-inflammatory drugs that I'll prescribe will likely bring some relief of your symptoms.” Question 30 2 / 2 points A 17-year-old male experienced third-degree, full-thickness burns to his lower limbs after a fire at his workplace 2 days ago. Which of the following complications should his care team NOT foresee and regularly assess for? Question options: Systemic infection Increased cardiac output Respiratory dysfunction Hypermetabolic response Constipation and Bowel obstruction Question 31 2 / 2 points A three-year-old girl has been diagnosed with amblyopia. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to underlie her health problem? Question options: The child may have a congenital deficit of rods and/or cones The girl may have chronic bacterial conjunctivitis She may have been born with infantile cataracts The child may have a neural pathway disorder Question 32 2 / 2 points The unique clinical presentation of a three-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?” “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?” “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?” “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?” Question 33 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the role of hormones in the body? Question options: Some chemical substances can function as either hormones or neurotransmitters. Hormones directly initiate many of the processes that contribute to homeostasis. Control of body processes is ensured by the fact that a single hormone can only exert one effect on one specific system or tissue. Each hormone that exists in the body is produced by only one specific endocrine gland. Question 34 2 / 2 points A 48-year-old male has a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following processes underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in his peripheral nervous system (PNS)? Question options: The destruction of myelin causes fewer Schwann cells to be produced in the patient's PNS. The axonal transport system is compromised by the lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells. Nerve cells lack insulation and impulse conduction is compromised by the destruction of myelin. A deficit of myelin predisposes the patient to infection by potential pathogens. Question 35 2 / 2 points A newborn male has been diagnosed with hypospadias following his postpartum assessment by a nurse practitioner. Which of the following diagnostics and treatment options is the nurse practitioner most likely to rule out first? Question options: Chromosomal studies Circumcision Surgical repair Testosterone supplementation Question 36 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of normal spermatogenesis? Question options: Testosterone chemically lyses each primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each. Sertoli cells differentiate into spermatids, each of which can contribute half of the chromosomes necessary for reproduction. Spermatogonia adjacent to the tubular wall undergo meiotic division and provide a continuous source of new germinal cells. Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two nuclear divisions, yielding four cells with 23 chromosomes each. Question 37 2 / 2 points A 30-year-old woman has sought care because of her recurrent photophobia, tearing, and eye irritation. During assessment, her care provider asks about any history of cold sores or genital herpes. What is the rationale for the care provider's line of questioning? Question options: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) conjunctivitis indicates a need for antiviral rather than antibacterial treatment. HSV infection of the cornea is a common cause of corneal ulceration and blindness. Chronic viral infection of the eyes can result in HSV autoinoculation of the mouth and labia. A history of HSV with eye irritation is suggestive of glaucoma. Question 38 2 / 2 points A patient in the intensive care unit who has a brain tumor has experienced a sharp decline. The care team suspects that water and protein have crossed the blood–brain barrier and been transferred from the vascular space into the patient's interstitial space. Which of the following diagnoses best captures this pathophysiology? Question options: Focal hypoxia Cytotoxic edema Hydrocephalus Vasogenic edema Question 39 2 / 2 points Which of the following hormones are derivatives of cholesterol? Question options: Epinephrine and norepinephrine Insulin and glucagon Aldosterone and testosterone Eicosanoids and retinoids Question 40 2 / 2 points When a 4-year-old boy stands erect with his medial malleoli touching, the distance between his knees is two inches. What is the child's most likely diagnosis and treatment? Question options: Genu varum, which can be treated by bracing Flatfoot, which will require orthopedic shoes Genu valgum, necessitating a series of surgeries Femoral torsion, which will spontaneously resolve before puberty Question 41 2 / 2 points A 71-year-old man has visited his nurse practitioner for a check-up, during which the nurse practitioner has initiated a discussion about the patient's sexual function. Which of the following phenomena would the nurse practitioner most likely consider a pathological rather than an age-related change? Question options: The presence of relative or absolute hypogonadism A decrease in the size and firmness of the patient's testes Cessation of FSH production A decrease in the force of the man's ejaculation Question 42 2 / 2 points A 39-year-old male patient has been recently diagnosed with primary hypogonadism. Which of the following lab results would be most indicative of this diagnosis? Question options: Normal levels of free testosterone; low levels of total testosterone Low free testosterone, LH, and FSH levels Low levels of GnRH Low testosterone levels; normal levels of LH and FSH Question 43 2 / 2 points Following a visit to her campus medical clinic motivated by persistent abdominal pain and dyspareunia, a 20-year-old female college student has been referred for a diagnostic workup to rule out pelvic inflammatory disease. Her elevated white cell and C-reactive protein levels lead her care provider to suspect pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What follow-up question is most likely to help with the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Are you using tampons during your period, or do you normally use pads?” “What does your daily hygiene routine usually consist of?” “How many sexual partners have you had?” “Have you ever had a therapeutic abortion in the past?” Question 44 2 / 2 points Which of the following situations would be considered pathologic in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old female? Question options: The woman's ovaries are not producing new ova. The woman's ovaries do not synthesize or secrete luteinizing hormone (LH). The epithelium covering the woman's ovaries is broken during the time of ovulation. The woman's ovaries are not producing progesterone. Question 45 2 / 2 points Which of the following individuals, who have recently presented to a hospital emergency department, is displaying an injury that involves his or her fibrocartilage? Question options: A seven-year-old girl whose ear has been lacerated during a dog attack A 24-year-old male who has had his trachea crushed in a workplace accident A 15-year-old boy who has suffered a knee injury during a football game A 78-year-old man who has fallen and is suspected of having a “slipped disc” in his back [Show Less]
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MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam/ MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam/ MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct... [Show More] Answers| MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (5 Versions)/ MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam/ MN 551 Midterm Exam / MN551 Midterm Exam/: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University MN 551 Week 5 Midterm Exam / MN551 Week 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1.1. A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? (Points : 3) “Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.” “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.” “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.” “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the time of birth.” Question 2.2. A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? (Points : 3) The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence. The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition. Question 3.3. The NP is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which of the following statements best captures the rationale underlying the NPs advice?(Points : 3) Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia. Question 4.4. The nurse practitioner is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis, and he notes that the patient's sclerae are jaundiced. The nurse practitioner recalls that jaundice is caused by excess accumulation of bilirubin, a pigment that can accumulate in which part of the cell? (Points : 3) Nucleus Cytoplasm Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Question 5.5. Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not require extra screening for cancer? (Points : 3) A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis Question 6.6. A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? (Points : 3) “The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful. “Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.” “She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.” “The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.” Question 7.7. A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes, neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? (Points : 3) The trait is an expression of multiple alleles. Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome. The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance. The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes. Question 8.8. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury due to impaired calcium homeostasis? (Points : 3) Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels. Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium. Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium. Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes. Question 9.9. A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the genetic rationale for this situation? (Points : 3) There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible. The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated. The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome. The disorders likely share the same locus. Question 10.10. A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem? (Points : 3) “I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.” “My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.” “I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.” “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.” Question 11.11. As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? (Points : 3) They can manifest when present in one or both gene pairs. There is a one in two chance of an affected child in each pregnancy with an affected mother. They tend to have a more uniform symptomatology than autosomal dominant disorders. The associated disorders are usually attributable to abnormalities in structural proteins. Question 12.12. The nurse practitioner working in occupational health has been asked to speak to a group of factory workers about the importance of wearing gloves when working with strong chemicals such as turpentine and paint thinner. Which of the following characteristics of cell membranes underlies the nurse's teaching? (Points : 3) Cell membranes are impermeable to all but lipid-soluble substances. Cell membranes have lipids that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Cell membranes contain receptors for hormones and biologically active substances. Transmembrane proteins can pass through the cell membrane into the intracellular environment. Question 13.13. The NP is providing care for a 21-year-old female patient with gas gangrene of a compound fracture in her arm. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most reasonably expect to find when caring for a patient with a diagnosis of gas gangrene? (Points : 3) Inflammation of the affected tissue A positive culture for Staphylococcus Spreading edema Impaired alveolar gas exchange Question 14.14. A community health nurse practitioner is teaching a group of female high school students about the importance of regular Papanicolaou (Pap) smears. The nurse recognizes that which of the following items underlies the rationale for this teaching? (Points : 3) The active substitution of normal cells in the cervix correlates to cancer risk. Undifferentiated stem cells are an early indicator of cervical cancer. Cancer of the uterine cervix develops incrementally at a cellular level. Dysplasia in the connective tissue of the cervix is a strong precursor to cancer. Question 15.15. Which target of both chemotherapy and radiation treatment accounts for adverse as well as therapeutic effects? (Points : 3) Cell-surface receptors Circulating hormone levels Blood vessels Rapidly proliferating cells Question 16.16. A patient who has a diagnosis of lung cancer is scheduled to begin radiation treatment. The NP providing pretreatment education is explaining some of the potential unwanted effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate? (Points : 3) “Some patients experience longer-term irritation of skin adjacent to the treatment site.” “Sometimes you might find that your blood takes longer to clot than normal.” “The changes that you might see are normally irreversible.” “The unwanted effects will be limited to the exposed portions of your skin.” Question 17.17. The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages of small cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia? (Points : 3) Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat Question 18.18. The nurse practitioner is seeing a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The NP recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the patient's pathology? (Points : 3) Simple columnar epithelium Glandular epithelium Simple cuboidal epthelium Stratified epithelium Question 19.19. Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly? (Points : 3) A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver A woman who has herpes simplex and recently recovered from endocarditis A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy Question 20.20. A nurse practitioner employed in the emergency department admits a patient who has experienced severe frostbite to his hands and toes after becoming lost on a ski trail. The NP recognizes that which of the following phenomena has caused the tissue damage? (Points : 3) Decreased blood viscosity has resulted in interstitial bleeding. Reactive vasodilation has compromised perfusion. Autonomic nervous stimulation has resulted in injury. Decreased blood flow has induced hypoxia. Question 21.21. A nurse practitioner employed in a hospitalist notices that a patient is experiencing muscle atrophy following 2 weeks in traction after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to the atrophy of the patient's muscle cells? (Points : 3) High levels of insulin and IGF-1 in the patient's blood during immobilization Denervation of the affected muscles during the time of traction A reduction of skeletal muscle use secondary to the traction treatment Reduced oxygen consumption and cellular function that ensures muscle cell survival Question 22.22. An infant who is four days postpartum has been diagnosed with a single-gene disorder. The parents of the child have a number of questions about the etiology of the health problem, which the physician is attempting to address in detail. Which of the following teaching points most accurately captures an aspect of single-gene congenital disorders? (Points : 3) Affected genes are present on autosomal chromosomes rather than sex chromosomes. The majority of single-gene disorders manifest near the time of puberty. A particular defect can be caused by mutations at one of several different loci. Single-gene disorders are associated with existing rather than new mutations. Question 23.23. A researcher is involved in the production of insulin through recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements could the researcher best provide as a rationale for her work? (Points : 3) The gene fragment responsible for insulin production can be isolated and reproduced. Particular bacteria are capable of insulin production. It is possible to reproduce the chromosome responsible for insulin production. Recombination of DNA base pairs can result in a gene that will produce insulin. Question 24.24. A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional's lowest priority? (Points : 3) A test of the child's visual acuity A musculoskeletal assessment Tests of kidney function Cardiovascular assessment Question 25.25. Following a biopsy, a 54-year-old man has been diagnosed as having a benign neoplastic tumor. Which of the following characteristics most likely applies to his tumor? (Points : 3) The tumor is poorly approximated and has the potential to break loose. The tumor may secrete hormones or cytokines. The well-differentiated neoplastic cells are clustered together in a single mass. It has a rapid rate of growth and can induce ischemia. 1. A 40-year-old woman who experiences severe seasonal allergies has been referred by her family physician to an allergist for weekly allergy injections. The woman is confused as to why repeated exposure to substances that set off her allergies would ultimately benefit her. Which of the following phenomena best captures the rationale for allergy desensitization therapy? (Points : 3) Repeated exposure to offending allergens binds the basophils and mast cells that mediate the allergic response. Exposure to allergens in large, regular quantities overwhelms the IgE antibodies that mediate the allergic response. Repeated exposure stimulates adrenal production of epinephrine, mitigating the allergic response. Injections of allergens simulate production of IgG, which blocks antigens from combining with IgE. Question 2.2. A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms? (Points : 3) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy's neutrophils. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genomes of others. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes. Question 3.3. A 66-year-old female patient has presented to the emergency department because of several months of intermittently bloody stools that has recently become worse. The woman has since been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to overuse of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that she takes for her arthritis. The health care team would realize that which of the following situations is most likely?(Points : 3) The woman has depleted blood volume due to her ongoing blood loss. She will have iron-deficiency anemia due to depletion of iron stores. The patient will be at risk for cardiovascular collapse or shock. She will have delayed reticulocyte release. Question 4.4. Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from transplantation of thymic tissue or major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-compatible bone marrow? (Points : 3) A 12-year-old girl with a history of epilepsy and low IgG levels secondary to phenytoin use A 7-year-old boy whose blood work indicates decreased IgA and IgG with increased IgM A 6-year-old boy whose pre-B cells are incapable of translation to normal B cells A 9-year-old girl who has a diagnosis of IgA deficiency Question 5.5. A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail four days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to the touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in response to the infection? (Points : 3) Proliferation of immature neutrophils High circulatory levels of myeloblasts Increased segmented neutrophil production Phagocytosis by myelocytes Question 6.6. Sputum samples from a patient with pneumonia contain an infective agent that has a peptidoglycan cell wall, expresses endotoxins, replicates readily in broth and on agar, grows in clusters, has pili, and does not stain when exposed to crystal violet. This pneumonia is most likely: (Points : 3) Chlamydial Viral Mycoplasmal Bacterial Question 7.7. A child has been diagnosed with thalassemia. Which of the following other health problems is the child at risk for? (Points : 3) Hypocoagulation Iron and ferritin deficiencies Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Neutropenia Question 8.8. A nurse practitioner is providing prenatal care and education for a first-time expectant mother, 22 weeks' gestation, who has a diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. Which of the following statements by the expectant mother demonstrates an adequate understanding of vertical disease transmission and congenital infections? (Points : 3) “Gonorrhea and chlamydia pose the greatest risks of transmission from mother to child.” “I know that my baby will need observation for HIV signs and symptoms in the weeks following my delivery.” “My baby could become infected either across the placenta or during the birth itself.” “Prophylactic immunization will reduce my baby's chance of being born with an illness.” Question 9.9. As part of his diagnostic workup, a 77-year-old man's nurse practitioner has ordered blood work that includes ferritin levels. The man is very interested in the details of his health care and is unfamiliar with ferritin and its role. He asks his nurse practitioner to explain the significance of it and the rationale for testing it. Which of the following explanations by the nurse practitioner is most accurate?(Points : 3) “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.” “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.” “Ferritin is a protein-iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.” “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to the red blood cells that need it.” Question 10.10. A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care nurse practitioner by her mother due to the girl's persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl's history and examination would lead the nurse practitioner to rule out infectious mononucleosis? (Points : 3) The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally. Question 11.11. A 30-year-old man has spent 5 hours on a cross-country flight seated next to a passenger who has been sneezing and coughing, and the man has been inhaling viral particles periodically. Which of the following situations would most likely result in the stimulation of the man's T lymphocytes and adaptive immune system? (Points : 3) Presentation of a foreign antigen by a familiar immunoglobulin Recognition of a foreign MHC molecule Recognition of a foreign peptide bound to a self MHC molecule Cytokine stimulation of a T lymphocyte with macrophage or dendritic cell mediation Question 12.12. A 22-year-old female who adheres to a vegan diet has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following components of her diagnostic blood work would be most likely to necessitate further investigation? (Points : 3) Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit Microcytic, hypochromic red cells Decreased erythropoietin levels Question 13.13. A couple who are expecting their first child have been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple have approached their nurse practitioner with this request and are seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting them. How can the nurse practitioner best respond to the couple's inquiry? (Points : 3) “Stem cells can help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.” “Stem cells can be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.” “Stem cells can be used as a source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.” “Stem cells can help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.” Question 14.14. A 23-year-old man has received a recent diagnosis of appendicitis following 24 hours of acute abdominal pain. The nurse practitioner providing care for the man is explaining that while it is unpleasant, the inflammation of his appendix is playing a role in his body's fight against the underlying infectious process. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse practitioner eliminate from his teaching for the patient? (Points : 3) “Inflammation can help to remove the body tissue cells that have been damaged by infection.” “Inflammation will start your body on the path to growing new, healthy tissue at the site of infection. “Inflammation helps your body to produce the right antibodies to fight the infection.” “Inflammation ultimately aids in eliminating the initial cause of the cell injury in your appendix.” Question 15.15. A 60-year-old woman is suspected of having non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Which of the following aspects of her condition would help to rule out Hodgkin lymphoma? (Points : 3) Her neoplasm originates in secondary lymphoid structures. The lymph nodes involved are located in a large number of locations in the lymphatic system. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells has been confirmed. The woman complains of recent debilitating fatigue. Question 16.16. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of lymphatic system activity? (Points : 3) B and T lymphocyte development begins in the bone marrow and ends in the peripheral lymphoid structures. B cells and macrophages are released from the bone marrow in their completed state. Stem cells in the lymph nodes initiate and regulate the process of white cell synthesis. Leukocytes bypass vascular circulation and are distributed instead by the lymphatic system. Question 17.17. A nurse practitioner is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the damage that Mycobacterium tuberculosis could do to lung tissue. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the nurse practitioner's explanation? (Points : 3) Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis. Macrophages are unable to digest the bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens. Question 18.18. A 2-year-old girl has had repeated ear and upper respiratory tract infections since she was born. A pediatrician has determined a diagnosis of transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy. What is the physiological origin of the child's recurrent infections? (Points : 3) Antibody production by plasma cells is compromised because of impaired communication between B and T cells. The child had a congenital absence of immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies and her body is only slowly beginning to produce them independently. The child was born with immunoglobulin A (IgA) and immunoglobulin (IgM) antibodies, suggesting intrauterine infection. The child lacks the antigen presenting cells integral to normal B-cell antibody production. Question 19.19. Following a course of measles, a 5-year-old girl developed scattered bruising over numerous body surfaces and was diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). As part of her diagnostic workup, blood work was performed. Which of the following results is most likely to be considered unexpected by the health care team? (Points : 3) Increased thrombopoietin levels Decreased platelet count Normal vitamin K levels Normal leukocyte levels Question 20.20. A 60-year-old male patient with an acute viral infection is receiving interferon therapy. The nurse practitioner is teaching the family of the patient about the diverse actions of the treatment and the ways that it differs from other anti-infective therapies. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse practitioner exclude? (Points : 3) “Interferon can help your father's unaffected cells adjacent to his infected cells produce antiviral proteins that limit the spread of the infection.” “Interferon can help limit the replication of the virus that's affecting your father.” “Interferon helps your father's body recognize infected cells more effectively.” “Interferon can bolster your father's immune system by stimulating natural killer cells that attack viruses.” Question 21.21. A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has: (Points : 3) A mild parasitic infection A severe bacterial infection A mild viral infection A severe fungal infection Question 22.22. A nurse practitioner student is familiarizing herself with the overnight admissions to an acute medical unit of a university hospital. Which of the following patients would the student recognize as being least likely to have a diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome in his or her medical history? (Points : 3) A 66-year-old obese male with left-sided hemiplegia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident A 90-year-old female resident of a long-term care facility who has been experiencing transient ischemic attacks A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of left leg DVT and a pulmonary embolism A 21-year-old male with a diagnosis of cellulitis and suspected endocarditis secondary to intravenous drug use Question 23.23. The blood work of a 44-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of liver disease secondary to alcohol abuse indicates low levels of albumin. Which of the following phenomena would a clinician be most justified in anticipating? (Points : 3) Impaired immune function Acid-base imbalances Impaired thermoregulation Fluid imbalances Question 24.24. A nurse practitioner is teaching her colleagues about the role of cytokines in a variety of pathologies. Which of the following teaching points best captures an aspect of the functions and nature of cytokines? (Points : 3) “A particular cytokine can have varied effects on different systems, a fact that limits their therapeutic use.” “Cytokine production is constant over time, but effects are noted when serum levels cross a particular threshold.” “Most cytokines are produced by granular leukocytes, and different cells are capable of producing the same cytokine.” “Cytokine actions are self-limiting in that activation of one precludes activation of other cytokines with similar actions.” Question 25.25. Which of the following phenomena would be least likely to result in activation of the complement system? (Points : 3) Recognition of an antibody bound to the surface of a microbe The binding of mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins Activation of Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on complement proteins Direct recognition of microbial proteins 1. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? (Points : 3) “Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.” “Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time.” “Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system.” “Left-sided and right-sided pumping action at each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution.” Question 2.2. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? (Points : 3) Pheochromocytoma Essential hypertension Coarctation of the aorta An adrenocortical disorder Question 3.3. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? (Points : 3) Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing Question 4.4. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient's nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner's choice of blood work? (Points : 3) BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure and measuring it can help differentiate the patient's dyspnea from a respiratory pathology. BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the RAA system in compensating for heart failure. BNP levels correlate with the patient's risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia. BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects. Question 5.5. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 3) Hypovolemic shock Septic shock Neurogenic shock Obstructive shock Question 6.6. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? (Points : 3) A 70-year-old woman who is complaining of shortness of breath and vague chest discomfort A 66-year-old man who has presented with fatigue, nausea and vomiting, and cool, moist skin A 43-year-old man who woke up with substernal pain that is radiating to his neck and jaw A 71-year-old man who has moist skin, fever, and chest pain that is excruciating when he moves but relieved when at rest Question 7.7. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient's nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? (Points : 3) The patient's juxtaglomerular cells are releasing aldosterone as a result of sympathetic stimulation. Epinephrine from his adrenal gland is initiating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Vasopressin is exerting an effect on his chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, resulting in vasoconstriction. The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in his lungs causes increases in blood pressure and sodium reabsorption. Question 8.8. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? (Points : 3) His resting blood pressure is normally in the range of 150/90 and an echocardiogram indicates his ejection fraction is 30%. His end-diastolic volume is higher than normal and his resting heart rate is regular and 82 beats per minute. He is presently volume overloaded following several days of intravenous fluid replacement. Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal. Question 9.9. Which of the following assessment findings in a newly admitted 30-year-old male patient would be most likely to cause his nurse practitioner to suspect polyarteritis nodosa? (Points : 3) The man's blood work indicates polycythemia (elevated red cells levels) and leukocytosis (elevated white cells). The man's blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests. The man is acutely short of breath and his oxygen saturation is 87%. The man's temperature is 101.9°F and he is diaphoretic (heavily sweating). Question 10.10. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn't even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? (Points : 3) The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium. The resolution of the problem is dependent on spontaneous recovery and is resistant to pacing interventions. The child is likely to have a normal ECG apart from the rapid heart rate. The boy's atria are experiencing abnormal sympathetic stimulation. Question 11.11. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? (Points : 3) Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricule Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle Reduced protection from infectious organisms Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction Question 12.12. Which of the following situations related to the transition from fetal to perinatal circulation would be most likely to necessitate medical intervention? (Points : 3) Pressure in the pulmonary circulation and the right side of the infant's heart fall markedly. Alveolar oxygen tension increases, causing reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction of the fetal arteries. Systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular pressure are both increasing. Pulmonary vascular resistance, related to muscle regression in the pulmonary arteries, rises over the course of the infant's first week. Question 13.13. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider's preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? (Points : 3) Acute arterial occlusion that will be treated with angioplasty Raynaud disease that will require antiplatelet medications Atherosclerotic occlusive disease necessitating thrombolytic therapy Giant cell temporal arteritis that will be treated with corticosteroids Question 14.14. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? (Points : 3) Increased preload due to vascular resistance High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis Question 15.15. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor? (Points : 3) A 61-year-old man who has a heart valve infection and recurrent fever An 81-year-old woman who has had an ischemic stroke and has consequent one-sided weakness A 44-year-old man awaiting a kidney transplant who requires hemodialysis three times per week A 66-year-old woman with poorly controlled angina and consequent limited activity tolerance Question 16.16. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? (Points : 3) Plasma angiotensin I and II and renin Urinary sodium and potassium Platelet count, serum creatinine, and liver enzymes Urinary catecholamines and metabolites Question 17.17. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? (Points : 3) “Remember, the 'H' in HDL and the 'L' in LDL correspond to high danger and low danger to your health.” “Having high cholesterol increases your risk of developing diabetes and irregular heart rate.” “Smoking and being overweight increases your risk of primary hypercholesterolemia.” “Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherited risk.” Question 18.18. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist's report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? (Points : 3) “Scarring of urethra suggestive of recurrent urinary tract infections is evident.” “Bilateral renal hypertrophy noted.” “Vessel wall changes suggestive of venous stasis are evident.” “Arterial sclerosis of subcortical brain regions noted.” Question 19.19. A nurse practitioner has ordered the measurement of a cardiac patient's electrolyte levels as part of the patient's morning blood work. Which of the following statements best captures the importance of potassium in the normal electrical function of the patient's heart? (Points : 3) Potassium catalyzes the metabolism of ATP, producing the gradient that results in electrical stimulation. Potassium is central to establishing and maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells. The impermeability of cardiac cell membranes to potassium allows for action potentials achieved by the flow of sodium ions. The reciprocal movement of one potassium ion for one sodium ion across the cell membrane results in the production of an action potential. Question 20.20. In which of the following patient situations would a nurse practitioner be most justified in preliminarily ruling out pericarditis as a contributing pathology to the patient's health problems? (Points : 3) A 61-year-old man whose ECG was characterized by widespread T wave inversions on admission but whose T waves have recently normalized A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 sounds, an irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation A 56-year-old obese man who is complaining of chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration and is radiating to his neck and scapular ridge A 60-year-old woman whose admission blood work indicates elevated white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels Question 21.21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides? (Points : 3) Aneurysms are commonly a result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms. Individuals with an aneurysm are normally asymptomatic until the aneurysm ruptures. Aneurysms can normally be resolved with lifestyle and diet modifications. Question 22.22. A 66-year-old patient's echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 3) Mitral valve regurgitation Aortic valve stenosis Mitral valve stenosis Aortic valve regurgitation Question 23.23. A nurse practitioner is teaching a student NP about the physiologic basis for damage to the circulatory and neurological systems that can accompany hypotension. Which of the following responses by the student would warrant correction by the nurse practitioner? (Points : 3) “As vessel wall thickness increases, tension decreases.” “Smaller blood vessels require more pressure to overcome wall tension.” “The smaller the vessel radius, the greater the pressure needed to keep it open.” “Tension and vessel thickness increase proportionately.” Question 24.24. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient's condition? (Points : 3) Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest. Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart. Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction. Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion. Question 25.25. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? (Points : 3) Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility Infusion of normal saline of Ringer lactate to maintain the vascular space Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion 1. Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? (Points : 3) A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F A woman complaining of generalized aches who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways Question 2.2. A 44-year-old woman developed calf pain during a transatlantic flight followed by acute shortness of breath upon arrival at her destination. She was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE), which resolved with anticoagulant therapy. Which of these statements best characterizes the underlying problem of her PE? (Points : 3) She was short of breath because ventilation was occurring but perfusion was inadequate. The combination of normal perfusion but compromised ventilation caused hypoxia. She developed a transient anatomic shunt resulting in impaired oxygenation. Impaired gas diffusion across alveolar membranes resulted in dyspnea and hypoxia. Question 3.3. A premature infant on mechanical ventilation has developed bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and is showing signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, low lung compliance, and respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the infant's present health problem? (Points : 3) High inspired oxygen concentration and injury from positive-pressure ventilation Failure to administer corticosteroids to the infant in utero Insufficient surfactant production and insufficient surfactant therapy Insufficient supplemental oxygen therapy Question 4.4. Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? (Points : 3) A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells An 81-year-old male who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke Question 5.5. A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency department accompanied by his wife who claims that he has been acting confused. The man is complaining of a sudden onset of severe weakness and malaise and has a dry cough and diarrhea. His temperature is 102.8°F and his blood work indicates his sodium level is 126 mEq/L (normal is 135 to 145 mEq/L). What will be the assessing nurse practitioner's most likely suspicion? (Points : 3) Bronchopneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Legionnaire disease Pneumococcal pneumonia Question 6.6. A 51-year-old female patient who is 2 days postoperative on a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk for developing atelectasis as a result of being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse practitioner is most appropriate? (Points : 3) “Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often.” “You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed.” “Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid our having to insert a chest tube.” “I'll prescribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in.” Question 7.7. Due to complications, a male postoperative patient has been unable to mobilize for several days following surgery and has developed atelectasis. Which of the following processes would his care team anticipate with relation to his health problem? (Points : 3) Vasodilation in the alveolar vessels in the affected region of his lung Increased workload for the left side of the patient's heart Increased blood flow to the area of atelectasis Redirection of blood flow away from the lung regions that are hypoxic Question 8.8. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a patient who has interstitial lung disease rather than COPD? (Points : 3) Audible wheezing on expiration Diminished expiratory flow rates Increased respiratory rate with decreased tidal volume Normal compliance of alveolar tissue [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 1 Quiz (3 Versions) / MN551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN551 Week 1 Quiz / MN 551 Week 1 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 1 Quiz (3 Versions) / MN551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN551 Week 1 Quiz / MN 551 Week 1 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN55... [Show More] 1 Unit 1 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN551 Week 1 Quiz / MN 551 Week 1 Quiz (3 Latest Versions): Kaplan University A nurse practitioner is educating a patient with a recent diagnosis of diabetes about the roles that glucose and insulin play in the disease pathology and the fact that glucose must enter the cell in order to provide energy for the patient. The nurse practitioner knows that which of the following processes allows glucose to enter body cells (Points : 0.4) Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Active transport Diffusion Question 2.2. As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? (Points : 0.4) They can manifest when present in one or both gene pairs. *There is a one in two chance of an affected child in each pregnancy with an affected mother. They tend to have a more uniform symptomatology than autosomal dominant disorders. The associated disorders are usually attributable to abnormalities in structural proteins. Question 3.3. A woman is surprised to read on the Internet that certain infections can cause cancer and has sought clarification from her nurse practitioner during an office visit. How can the NP best respond to the woman's query? (Points : 0.4) *“Though it's not particularly common, it's true that certain bacteria and viruses can lead to cancer.” “Most cancers that cannot be attributed to family history or lifestyle are in fact associated with viruses.” “There are many viruses, but only a very few of them have been shown to cause cancer in humans.” “This is true; for example, HIV has been shown to cause cancer in some patients.” Question 4.4. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury due to impaired calcium homeostasis? (Points : 0.4) Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels. Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium. *Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium. Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes. Question 5.5. A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? (Points : 0.4) The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence. *The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition. Question 6.6. A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the genetic rationale for this situation? (Points : 0.4) There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible. The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated. *The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome. The disorders likely share the same locus. Question 7.7. A nurse practitioner employed in a hospitalist notices that a patient is experiencing muscle atrophy following 2 weeks in traction after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to the atrophy of the patient's muscle cells? (Points : 0.4) High levels of insulin and IGF-1 in the patient's blood during immobilization Denervation of the affected muscles during the time of traction A reduction of skeletal muscle use secondary to the traction treatment *Reduced oxygen consumption and cellular function that ensures muscle cell survival Question 8.8. A researcher is involved in the production of insulin through recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements could the researcher best provide as a rationale for her work? (Points : 0.4) The gene fragment responsible for insulin production can be isolated and reproduced. Particular bacteria are capable of insulin production. It is possible to reproduce the chromosome responsible for insulin production. *Recombination of DNA base pairs can result in a gene that will produce insulin. Question 9.9. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of lead toxicity. Which of the following assessment findings is most congruent with the patient's diagnosis? (Points : 0.4) Decreased deep tendon reflexes Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL * Diffuse muscle pain White blood cells (WBC) 11,000/mm3 Question 10.10. The nurse practitioner is seeing a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The NP recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the patient's pathology? (Points : 0.4) *Simple columnar epithelium Glandular epithelium Simple cuboidal epthelium Stratified epithelium Question 11.11. A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes, neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? (Points : 0.4) *The trait is an expression of multiple alleles. Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome. The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance. The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes. Question 12.12. A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? (Points : 0.4) “The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful. “Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.” “She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.” *“The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.” Question 13.13. A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem? (Points : 0.4) “I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.” *“My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.” “I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.” “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.” Question 14.14. Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not require extra screening for cancer? (Points : 0.4) A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant *A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis *Question 15.15. The nurse practitioner is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis, and he notes that the patient's sclerae are jaundiced. The nurse practitioner recalls that jaundice is caused by excess accumulation of bilirubin, a pigment that can accumulate in which part of the cell? (Points : 0.4) Nucleus *Cytoplasm Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Question 16.16. The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages of small cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia? (Points : 0.4) Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting *Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat Question 17.17. A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional's lowest priority? (Points : 0.4) A test of the child's visual acuity *A musculoskeletal assessment Tests of kidney function Cardiovascular assessment Question 18.18. The NP is providing care for a 21-year-old female patient with gas gangrene of a compound fracture in her arm. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most reasonably expect to find when caring for a patient with a diagnosis of gas gangrene? (Points : 0.4) Inflammation of the affected tissue *A positive culture for Staphylococcus Spreading edema Impaired alveolar gas exchange Question 19.19. A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? (Points : 0.4) *“Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.” “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.” “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.” “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the time of birth.” Question 20.20. The nurse practitioner working in occupational health has been asked to speak to a group of factory workers about the importance of wearing gloves when working with strong chemicals such as turpentine and paint thinner. Which of the following characteristics of cell membranes underlies the nurse's teaching? (Points : 0.4) *Cell membranes are impermeable to all but lipid-soluble substances. Cell membranes have lipids that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Cell membranes contain receptors for hormones and biologically active substances. Transmembrane proteins can pass through the cell membrane into the intracellular environment. Question 21.21. Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly? (Points : 0.4) A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver A woman who has herpes simplex and recently recovered from endocarditis * A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy Question 22.22. Which target of both chemotherapy and radiation treatment accounts for adverse as well as therapeutic effects? (Points : 0.4) Cell-surface receptors Circulating hormone levels Blood vessels *Rapidly proliferating cells Question 23.23. An infant who is four days postpartum has been diagnosed with a single-gene disorder. The parents of the child have a number of questions about the etiology of the health problem, which the physician is attempting to address in detail. Which of the following teaching points most accurately captures an aspect of single-gene congenital disorders? (Points : 0.4) *Affected genes are present on autosomal chromosomes rather than sex chromosomes. The majority of single-gene disorders manifest near the time of puberty. A particular defect can be caused by mutations at one of several different loci. Single-gene disorders are associated with existing rather than new mutations. Question 24.24. Following a biopsy, a 54-year-old man has been diagnosed as having a benign neoplastic tumor. Which of the following characteristics most likely applies to his tumor? (Points : 0.4) The tumor is poorly approximated and has the potential to break loose. The tumor may secrete hormones or cytokines. *The well-differentiated neoplastic cells are clustered together in a single mass. It has a rapid rate of growth and can induce ischemia. Question 25.25. A nurse practitioner employed in the emergency department admits a patient who has experienced severe frostbite to his hands and toes after becoming lost on a ski trail. The NP recognizes that which of the following phenomena has caused the tissue damage? (Points : 0.4) Decreased blood viscosity has resulted in interstitial bleeding. Reactive vasodilation has compromised perfusion. Autonomic nervous stimulation has resulted in injury. *Decreased blood flow has induced hypoxia. MN551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN551 Week 1 Quiz / MN 551 Week 1 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages of small cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia? Question options: Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia Question 2 A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes, neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? Question options: The trait is an expression of multiple alleles. Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome. The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes. The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance. Question 3 A 45-year-old patient who experienced exposure to radiation during an industrial accident several years prior is being assessed. Which of the following phenomena may underlie the genetic changes that have been noted in the patient? Question options: Base pairs may have been rearranged by the radiation exposure. Endonucleases may have influenced the DNA structure following exposure. The radiation may have produced redundant or degenerate genetic code. Two paired bases may have exchanged helical positions after the accident. Question 4 Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly? Question options: A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver A woman who has herpes simplex and recently recovered from endocarditis A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis Question 5 The nurse practitioner is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis, and he notes that the patient's sclerae are jaundiced. The nurse practitioner recalls that jaundice is caused by excess accumulation of bilirubin, a pigment that can accumulate in which part of the cell? Question options: Nucleus Cytoplasm Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Golgi apparatus Question 6 A patient who has a diagnosis of lung cancer is scheduled to begin radiation treatment. The NP providing pretreatment education is explaining some of the potential unwanted effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate? Question options: “Some patients experience longer-term irritation of skin adjacent to the treatment site.” “Sometimes you might find that your blood takes longer to clot than normal.” “The unwanted effects will be limited to the exposed portions of your skin.” “The changes that you might see are normally irreversible.” Question 7 A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem? Question options: “I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.” “My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.” “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.” “I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.” Question 8 A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the genetic rationale for this situation? Question options: There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible. The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated. The disorders likely share the same locus. The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome. Question 9 The NP is working with a family whose daughter has been recently diagnosed with the chromosomal disorder Turner syndrome. The NP would recognize that which of the following statements about the characteristics of human chromosomes is accurate? Question options: Individual variations are attributable to differences in the appearance of autosomes. Chromosomes undergo variation during each episode of cell division. Each of the 22 pairs of autosomes has a homologue. Autosomes contain the determination of an individual's sex. Question 10 The NP is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which of the following statements best captures the rationale underlying the NPs advice? Question options: Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules. Question 11 Which target of both chemotherapy and radiation treatment accounts for adverse as well as therapeutic effects? Question options: Cell-surface receptors Circulating hormone levels Rapidly proliferating cells Blood vessels Question 12 Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not require extra screening for cancer? Question options: A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet Question 13 A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of lead toxicity. Which of the following assessment findings is most congruent with the patient's diagnosis? Question options: Decreased deep tendon reflexes Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL White blood cells (WBC) 11,000/mm3 Diffuse muscle pain Question 14 The NP is providing care for a 21-year-old female patient with gas gangrene of a compound fracture in her arm. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most reasonably expect to find when caring for a patient with a diagnosis of gas gangrene? Question options: Inflammation of the affected tissue A positive culture for Staphylococcus Impaired alveolar gas exchange Spreading edema Question 15 A community health nurse practitioner is teaching a group of female high school students about the importance of regular Papanicolaou (Pap) smears. The nurse recognizes that which of the following items underlies the rationale for this teaching? Question options: The active substitution of normal cells in the cervix correlates to cancer risk. Undifferentiated stem cells are an early indicator of cervical cancer. Dysplasia in the connective tissue of the cervix is a strong precursor to cancer. Cancer of the uterine cervix develops incrementally at a cellular level. Question 16 Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury due to impaired calcium homeostasis? Question options: Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels. Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium. Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes. Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium. Question 17 A woman is surprised to read on the Internet that certain infections can cause cancer and has sought clarification from her nurse practitioner during an office visit. How can the NP best respond to the woman's query? Question options: “Though it's not particularly common, it's true that certain bacteria and viruses can lead to cancer.” “Most cancers that cannot be attributed to family history or lifestyle are in fact associated with viruses.” “This is true; for example, HIV has been shown to cause cancer in some patients.” “There are many viruses, but only a very few of them have been shown to cause cancer in humans.” Question 18 The nurse practitioner working in occupational health has been asked to speak to a group of factory workers about the importance of wearing gloves when working with strong chemicals such as turpentine and paint thinner. Which of the following characteristics of cell membranes underlies the nurse's teaching? Question options: Cell membranes are impermeable to all but lipid-soluble substances. Cell membranes have lipids that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Transmembrane proteins can pass through the cell membrane into the intracellular environment. Cell membranes contain receptors for hormones and biologically active substances. Question 19 A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional's lowest priority? Question options: A test of the child's visual acuity A musculoskeletal assessment Cardiovascular assessment Tests of kidney function Question 20 A nurse practitioner employed in a hospitalist notices that a patient is experiencing muscle atrophy following 2 weeks in traction after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to the atrophy of the patient's muscle cells? Question options: High levels of insulin and IGF-1 in the patient's blood during immobilization Denervation of the affected muscles during the time of traction Reduced oxygen consumption and cellular function that ensures muscle cell survival A reduction of skeletal muscle use secondary to the traction treatment Question 21 A nurse practitioner is educating a patient with a recent diagnosis of diabetes about the roles that glucose and insulin play in the disease pathology and the fact that glucose must enter the cell in order to provide energy for the patient. The nurse practitioner knows that which of the following processes allows glucose to enter body cells Question options: Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Diffusion Active transport Question 22 A researcher is involved in the production of insulin through recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements could the researcher best provide as a rationale for her work? Question options: The gene fragment responsible for insulin production can be isolated and reproduced. Particular bacteria are capable of insulin production. Recombination of DNA base pairs can result in a gene that will produce insulin. It is possible to reproduce the chromosome responsible for insulin production. Question 23 A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? “Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.” “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.” “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the time of birth.” “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.” Question 24 A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? Question options: The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver. The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence. Question 25 The nurse practitioner is seeing a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The NP recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the patient's pathology? Question options: Simple columnar epithelium Glandular epithelium Stratified epithelium Simple cuboidal epthelium Question 26 An infant who is four days postpartum has been diagnosed with a single-gene disorder. The parents of the child have a number of questions about the etiology of the health problem, which the physician is attempting to address in detail. Which of the following teaching points most accurately captures an aspect of single-gene congenital disorders? Question options: Affected genes are present on autosomal chromosomes rather than sex chromosomes. The majority of single-gene disorders manifest near the time of puberty. Single-gene disorders are associated with existing rather than new mutations. A particular defect can be caused by mutations at one of several different loci. Question 27 Following a biopsy, a 54-year-old man has been diagnosed as having a benign neoplastic tumor. Which of the following characteristics most likely applies to his tumor? The tumor is poorly approximated and has the potential to break loose. The tumor may secrete hormones or cytokines. It has a rapid rate of growth and can induce ischemia. The well-differentiated neoplastic cells are clustered together in a single mass. Question 28 As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? Question options: They can manifest when present in one or both gene pairs. There is a one in two chance of an affected child in each pregnancy with an affected mother. The associated disorders are usually attributable to abnormalities in structural proteins. They tend to have a more uniform symptomatology than autosomal dominant disorders. Question 29 A nurse practitioner employed in the emergency department admits a patient who has experienced severe frostbite to his hands and toes after becoming lost on a ski trail. The NP recognizes that which of the following phenomena has caused the tissue damage? Question options: Decreased blood viscosity has resulted in interstitial bleeding. Reactive vasodilation has compromised perfusion. Decreased blood flow has induced hypoxia. Autonomic nervous stimulation has resulted in injury. Question 30 A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? Question options: “The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful. “Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.” “The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.” “She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.” MN551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 1 Quiz / MN551 Week 1 Quiz / MN 551 Week 1 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1. A community health nurse practitioner is teaching a group of female high school students about the importance of regular Papanicolaou (Pap) smears. The nurse recognizes that which of the following items underlies the rationale for this teaching? The active substitution of normal cells in the cervix correlates to cancer risk. Undifferentiated stem cells are an early indicator of cervical cancer. Cancer of the uterine cervix develops incrementally at a cellular level. Dysplasia in the connective tissue of the cervix is a strong precursor to cancer. Question 2. A patient who has a diagnosis of lung cancer is scheduled to begin radiation treatment. The NP providing pretreatment education is explaining some of the potential unwanted effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate? “Some patients experience longer-term irritation of skin adjacent to the treatment site.” “Sometimes you might find that your blood takes longer to clot than normal.” “The changes that you might see are normally irreversible.” “The unwanted effects will be limited to the exposed portions of your skin.” Question 3. Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not require extra screening for cancer? A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis Question 4. A nurse practitioner is educating a patient with a recent diagnosis of diabetes about the roles that glucose and insulin play in the disease pathology and the fact that glucose must enter the cell in order to provide energy for the patient. The nurse practitioner knows that which of the following processes allows glucose to enter body cells Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Active transport Diffusion Question 5. A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? “Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.” “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.” “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.” “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the time of birth.” Question 6. The nurse practitioner is seeing a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The NP recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the patient's pathology? Simple columnar epithelium Glandular epithelium Simple cuboidal epthelium Stratified epithelium Question 7. A nurse practitioner employed in a hospitalist notices that a patient is experiencing muscle atrophy following 2 weeks in traction after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to the atrophy of the patient's muscle cells? High levels of insulin and IGF-1 in the patient's blood during immobilization Denervation of the affected muscles during the time of traction A reduction of skeletal muscle use secondary to the traction treatment Reduced oxygen consumption and cellular function that ensures muscle cell survival Question 8. A 7-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of lead toxicity. Which of the following assessment findings is most congruent with the patient's diagnosis? Decreased deep tendon reflexes Hemoglobin 9.9 g/dL Diffuse muscle pain White blood cells (WBC) 11,000/mm3 Question 9. The NP is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which of the following statements best captures the rationale underlying the NPs advice? Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia. Question 10. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury due to impaired calcium homeostasis? Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels. Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium. Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium. Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes. Question 11. The NP is providing care for a 21-year-old female patient with gas gangrene of a compound fracture in her arm. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most reasonably expect to find when caring for a patient with a diagnosis of gas gangrene? Inflammation of the affected tissue A positive culture for Staphylococcus Spreading edema Impaired alveolar gas exchange Question 12. A 45-year-old patient who experienced exposure to radiation during an industrial accident several years prior is being assessed. Which of the following phenomena may underlie the genetic changes that have been noted in the patient? Base pairs may have been rearranged by the radiation exposure. Endonucleases may have influenced the DNA structure following exposure. Two paired bases may have exchanged helical positions after the accident. The radiation may have produced redundant or degenerate genetic code. Question 13. A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes, neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? The trait is an expression of multiple alleles. Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome. The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance. The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes. Question 14. A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the genetic rationale for this situation? There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible. The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated. The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome. The disorders likely share the same locus. Question 15. A researcher is involved in the production of insulin through recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements could the researcher best provide as a rationale for her work? The gene fragment responsible for insulin production can be isolated and reproduced. Particular bacteria are capable of insulin production. It is possible to reproduce the chromosome responsible for insulin production. Recombination of DNA base pairs can result in a gene that will produce insulin. Question 16. An infant who is four days postpartum has been diagnosed with a single-gene disorder. The parents of the child have a number of questions about the etiology of the health problem, which the physician is attempting to address in detail. Which of the following teaching points most accurately captures an aspect of single-gene congenital disorders? Affected genes are present on autosomal chromosomes rather than sex chromosomes. The majority of single-gene disorders manifest near the time of puberty. A particular defect can be caused by mutations at one of several different loci. Single-gene disorders are associated with existing rather than new mutations. Question 17. A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem? “I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.” “My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.” “I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.” “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.” Question 18. A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional's lowest priority? A test of the child's visual acuity A musculoskeletal assessment Tests of kidney function Cardiovascular assessment Question 19. A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? “The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful. “Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.” “She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.” “The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.” Question 20. As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? They can manifest when present in one or both gene pairs. There is a one in two chance of an affected child in each pregnancy with an affected mother. They tend to have a more uniform symptomatology than autosomal dominant disorders. The associated disorders are usually attributable to abnormalities in structural proteins. Question 21. Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly? A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver A woman who has herpes simplex and recently recovered from endocarditis A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy Question 22. A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence. The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition. Question 23. A woman is surprised to read on the Internet that certain infections can cause cancer and has sought clarification from her nurse practitioner during an office visit. How can the NP best respond to the woman's query? “Though it's not particularly common, it's true that certain bacteria and viruses can lead to cancer.” “Most cancers that cannot be attributed to family history or lifestyle are in fact associated with viruses.” “There are many viruses, but only a very few of them have been shown to cause cancer in humans.” “This is true; for example, HIV has been shown to cause cancer in some patients.” Question 24. The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages of small cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia? Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat Question 25. The nurse practitioner working in occupational health has been asked to speak to a group of factory workers about the importance of wearing gloves when working with strong chemicals such as turpentine and paint thinner. Which of the following characteristics of cell membranes underlies the nurse's teaching? Cell membranes are impermeable to all but lipid-soluble substances. Cell membranes have lipids that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Cell membranes contain receptors for hormones and biologically active substances. Transmembrane proteins can pass through the cell membrane into the intracellular environment. [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 2 Quiz / MN551 Unit 2 Quiz / MN551 Week 2 Quiz / MN 551 Week 2 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 2 Quiz / MN551 Unit 2 Quiz / MN551 Week 2 Quiz / MN 551 Week 2 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN551 Unit 2 Quiz... [Show More] / MN 551 Unit 2 Quiz / MN551 Week 2 Quiz / MN 551 Week 2 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from transportation of thymic tissue or major histocompatibility complex ( MHC) – compatible bone marrow? A 12-year old girl with a history of epilepsy and low IgG levels secondary to phenytoin use A 7-year old boy whose blood work indicates decreased IgA and IgG with increased IgM A 6-year-old boy whose pre-B cells are incapable of translation to normal B cells A 9-year-old girl who has a diagnosis of IgA deficiency Question 2 As part of his diagnostic workup, a 77 yo man nurse practitioner has ordered blood work that includes ferritin levels. The man is very interested in the details of his health care is unfamiliar with ferritin and it’s role. Which of the following explanations by the nurse practitioner is most accurate? “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.” “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.” “Ferritin is a protein-iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.” “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to the red blood cells that need it.” Question 3 The blood work of a 44 yo male with a diagnosis of liver disease secondary to alcohol abuse indicates low levels of albumin. Which of the following phenomena would a clinician be most justified in anticipating? Impaired immune function Acid–base imbalances Impaired thermoregulation Fluid imbalances Question 4 A 14 yo boy has been diagnosed with infectious Mono.Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms? The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy’s neutrophils. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genome of others. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes. Question 5 Which of the following phenome would be least likely to result in activation of the complement system? Recognition of an antibody bound to the surface of a microbe Increase in tissue blood flow and capillary permeability, so fluids/proteins can leak into the area Activation of toll-like receptors (TLRs) on complement proteins Direct recognition of microbial proteins Question 6 Following a course of the measles a 5yo girl developed scattered bruising over numerous body surfaces and was diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP). Diagnostic workup, blood work was performed.Which results is most likely to be considered unexpected by the health care team Increased thrombopoietin levels Decreased platelet count Normal vitamin K levels Normal leukocyte levels Question 7 A patient presented to the ED with a swollen, reddened, painful leg wound , diagnosed with MRSA cellulitis. The nurse practitioner ordered a CBC and white cell diff. Which of the following blood components would the nurse anticipate to be elevated? Basophils Eosinophils Platelets Neutrophils Question 8 A nurse practitioner is explaining to a 40 yo male pt the damage that Mycobacterium tuberculosis could do to lung tissue. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the NP explanation? Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis. Macrophages are unable to digest the bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens Question 9 A 29 yo construction worker got silver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is reddened, painful, swollen, and warm. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in response to the infection? Proliferation of immature neutrophils High circulatory levels of myeloblasts Increased segmented neutrophil production Phagocytosis by myelocytes Question 10 Which of the following patients would the student recognize as being least likely to have a diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome in his or her medical historory? A 66-year-old obese male with left-sided hemiplegia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident A 90-year-old female resident of a long-term care facility who has been experiencing transient ischemic attacks A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of left leg deep vein thrombosis and a pulmonary embolism A 21-year-old male with a diagnosis of cellulitis and suspected endocarditis secondary to intravenous drug use Question 11 A couple who are expecting their first child have been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple have approached their NP with this request and are seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable.How can the nurse practitioner best respond to the couple’s inquiry? Stem cells can help correct autoimmune diseases and come congenital defects Stem cells can be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise Stem cells can be used as a source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system Stem cells can help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself" Question 12 A 16 yo female has been brought to her primary NP by her mother due to perisistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl history and exam would lead the NP to r/o infectious mononucleosis? The girl has a temperature of 38.1 °C (100.6 °F) and has enlarged lymph nodes. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally. Question 13 A 60 yo woman is suspected of having non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Which of the following aspects of her condition would help to r/o Hodgkin lymphoma? Her neoplasm originates in secondary lymphoid structures. The lymph nodes involved are located in a large number of locations in the lymphatic system. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells has been confirmed. The woman complains of recent debilitating fatigue. Question 14 A NP is providing prenatal care and eduction for a first-time expectant mother, 22 wks gest, who has a diagnosis of a STD. Which of the following statements by the expectant mother demonstrates an adequate understanding of vertical disease transmission and congenital infections? “Gonorrhea and chlamydia pose the greatest risks of transmission from mother tochild.” “I know that my baby will need observation for HIV signs and symptoms in the weeks following my delivery.” “My baby could become infected either across the placenta or during the birth itself.” “Prophylactic immunization will reduce my baby's chance of being born with an illness.” Question 15 A 71 yo male pt w/ a hx of MI and peripheral vascular disease has been advised by his NP to begin taking 81 mg of ASP once daily.Which of the underlying rationale for the NP suggestion? Platelet aggregation can be precluded through inhibition of prostaglandin production by aspirin. Aspirin helps to inhibit adenosine disphosphate (ADP) action and minimizes platelet plug formation. Aspirin can reduce unwanted platelet adhesion by inhibiting thromboxane A2 (TXA2) synthesis. Aspirin inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin and consequent platelet plug formation Question 16 Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of lymphatic system activity? B and T lymphocyte development begins in the bone marrow and ends in the peripheral lymphoid structures. B cells and macrophages are released from the bone marrow in their completed state. Stem cells in the lymph nodes initiate and regulate the process of white cell synthesis. Leukocytes bypass vascular circulation and are distributed instead by the lymphatic system. Question 17 A 23 yo man has received a recent dx of appendicitis following 24 hrs of acute abd pain. The NP providing care for the man is explaining that while it is unpleasant, the inflammation of his appendix is playing a role in his body’s fight against the underlying infectious process.Which of the following teaching points should the NP eliminate from his teaching for the patient? “Inflammation can help to remove the body tissue cells that have been damaged by infection.” “Inflammation will start your body on the path to growing new, healthy tissue at thesite of infection.” “Inflammation helps your body to produce the right antibodies to fight the infection.” “Inflammation ultimately aids in eliminating the initial cause of the cell injury in your appendix.” Question 18 A 66yo female pt has presented to the ED w/ several months of intermittently bloody stools that has recently become worse. The woman has since been diagnosed w/ a GI bleed secondary to overuse of NSAIDs that she takes for her arthritis. The health care team would realize that which of the following situations is most likely? The woman has depleted blood volume due to her ongoing blood loss. She will have iron deficiency anemia due to depletion of iron stores. The patient will be at risk for cardiovascular collapse or shock. She will have delayed reticulocyte release. Question 19 A 40 yo woman experiences severe seasonal allergies has been referred by her family physician to an allergist for weekly allergy injections. The woman is confused as to why repeated exposure to substances that set off her allergies would ultimately benefit her. Which of the following phenomena best captures the rationale for allergy desensitization therapy? Repeated exposure to offending allergens binds the basophils and mast cells that mediate the allergic response. Allergens in large, regular quantities overwhelm the IgE antibodies that mediate the allergic response. Repeated exposure stimulates adrenal production of epinephrine, mitigating the allergic response. Injections of allergens simulate production of IgG, combining with the antigens to prevent activation of IgE antibodies. Question 20 A 44 yo female patient presents to the ED with abnormal bleeding and abd pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease.Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a caus of the patient’s bleeding? Excess calcium Vitamin K deficiency Hemophilia B Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Question 21 A NP is teaching her colleagues about the role of cytokines in a variety of pathologies. Which of the following teaching points best captures an aspect of the functions and nature of cytokines? “A particular cytokine can have varied effects on different systems, a fact that limits their therapeutic use.” “Cytokine production is constant over time, but effects are noted when serum levels cross a particular threshold.” “Most cytokines are produced by granular leukocytes, and different cells are capable of producing the same cytokine.” “Cytokine actions are self-limiting in that activation of one precludes activation of other cytokines with similar actions.” Question 22 A 24 yo woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has: a mild parasitic infection. a severe bacterial infection. a mild viral infection. a severe fungal infection. Question 23 A tourist presented to a primary care health clinic complaining of malaise, fever, and headache. She has been diagnosed with Rocky Mountain Spotted fever, a pathology caused by Rickettsiaceae. Which of the following statements best captures a characteristic trait of Rickettsiaceae? They are eukaryotic. They have both RNA and DNA. They have a distinct spiral-shaped morphology. They are neither gram-negative nor gram-positive Question 24 A 22 yo female who adheres to a vegen diet has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following componets of her diagnostic blood work would be most likely to necessitate further investigation? Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit Microcytic, hypochromic red cells Decreased erythropoietin levels Question 25 Sputum samples from a pt with pneumonia contain an infective agent that has a peptidoglycan cell wall, expresses endotoxins, replicates readily in broth and on agar, grows in clusters, has pili, and does not stain when exposed to crystal violet. This pneumonia is most likely: Chlamydial Viral Mycoplasmal Bacterial [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 3 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 3 Quiz / MN551 Week 3 Quiz / MN 551 Week 3 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 3 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 3 Quiz / MN551 Week 3 Quiz / MN 551 Week 3 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN55... [Show More] 1 Unit 3 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 3 Quiz / MN551 Week 3 Quiz / MN 551 Week 3 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Kaplan University Question 1. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? “Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.” “Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time.” “Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system.” “Left-sided and right-sided pumping action at each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution Question 2. Which of the short term and long term compensatory mechanisms is least likely to decrease the symptoms of his heart failure? AV node pacemaking activity and vagal nerve suppression Activation of the renin angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) system and secretion of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Sympathetic stimu lation and increased serum levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine An increase in preload via the Frank-Starling mechanism Question 3. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patientindicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? (Points : 3) Essential hypertension Coarctation of the aorta Pheochromocytoma An adrenocortical disorder Question 4. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electricalactivity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? (Points : 3) Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing Question 5. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient's nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levelsalong with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner's choice of blood work? (Points : 3) BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure and measuring it can help differentiate the patient’s dyspnea from a respiratory pathology. BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the RAA system in compensating for heart failure. BNP levels correlate with the patient’s risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia. BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects. Question 6. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 3) Hypovolemic shock Septic shock Neurogenic shock Obstructive shock Question 7. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hourswith complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? (Points : 3) A 70-year-old woman who is complaining of shortness of breath and vague chest discomfort A 66-year-old man who has presented with fatigue, nausea and vomiting, and cool, moist skin A 43-year-old man who woke up with substernal pain that is radiating to his neck and jaw A 71-year-old man who has moist skin, fever, and chest pain that is excruciating when he moves but relieved when at rest Question 8. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension ismeeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient's nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? (Points : 3) The patient’s juxtaglomerular cells are releasing aldosterone as a result of sympathetic stimulation. Epinephrine from his adrenal gland is initiating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Vasopressin is exerting an effect on his chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, resulting in vasoconstriction. The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in his lungs causes increases in blood pressure and sodium reabsorption. Question 9. A 66-year-old obese manwith a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? (Points : 3) His resting blood pressure is normally in the range of 150/90 and an echocardiogram indicates his ejection fraction is 30%. His end-diastolic volume is higher than normal and his resting heart rate is regular and 82 beats per minute. He is presently volume overloaded following several days of intravenous fluid replacement. Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal. Question 10. Which of the following assessment findings in a newly admitted 30-year-old male patient would be most likely to cause his nurse practitioner to suspect polyarteritis nodosa? (Points : 3) The man’s blood work indicates polycythemia (elevated red cells levels) and leukocytosis (elevated white cells). The man’s blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests. The man is acutely short of breath and his oxygen saturation is 87%. The man’s temperature is 101.9°F and he is diaphoretic (heavily sweating). Question 11. A 6-year-old boyhas been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn't even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? (Points : 3) The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium. The resolution of the problem is dependent on spontaneous recovery and is resistant to pacing interventions. The child is likely to have a normal ECG apart from the rapid heart rate. The boy’s atria are experiencing abnormal sympathetic stimulation. Question 12. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicleaccident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? (Points : 3) Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricle Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle Reduced protection from infectious organisms Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction Question 13. Which of the following situations related to the transition from fetal to perinatal circulationwould be most likely to necessitate medical intervention? (Points : 3) Pressure in the pulmonary circulation and the right side of the infant’s heart fall markedly. Alveolar oxygen tension increases, causing reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction of the fetal arteries. Systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular pressure are both increasing. Pulmonary vascular resistance, related to muscle regression in the pulmonary arteries, rises over the course of the infant’s first week. Question 14. A 70-year-old malepatient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider's preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? (Points : 3) Acute arterial occlusion that will be treated with angioplasty Raynaud disease that will require antiplatelet medications Atherosclerotic occlusive disease necessitating thrombolytic therapy Giant cell temporal arteritis that will be treated with corticosteroids Question 15. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure.Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? (Points : 3) Increased preload due to vascular resistance High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis Question 16. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor? (Points : 3) Increased preload due to vascular resistance High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis Question 17. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hgand she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? (Points : 3) Plasma angiotensin I and II and renin Urinary sodium and potassium Platelet count, serum creatinine, and liver enzymes Urinary catecholamines and metabolites Question 18. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group ofolder adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol.Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? “Remember, the ‘H’ in HDL and the ‘L’ in LDL correspond to high danger and low danger to your health.” “Having high cholesterol increases your risk of developing diabetes and irregular heart rate.” “Smoking and being overweight increases your risk of primary hypercholesterolemia.” “Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherited risk.” Question 19. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old femalewho died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist's report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? “Scarring of urethra suggestive of recurrent urinary tract infections is evident.” “Bilateral renal hypertrophy noted.” “Vessel wall changes suggestive of venous stasis are evident.” “Arterial sclerosis of subcortical brain regions noted.” Question 20. A nurse practitioner has ordered the measurement of a cardiac patient's electrolyte levels as part of the patient's morning blood work. Which of the following statements best captures the importance of potassium in the normal electrical function of the patient's heart? (Points : 3) Potassium catalyzes the metabolism of ATP, producing the gradient that results in electrical stimulation. Potassium is central to establishing and maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells. The impermeability of cardiac cell membranes to potassium allows for action potentials achieved by the flow of sodium ions. The reciprocal movement of one potassium ion for one sodium ion across the cell membrane results in the production of an action potential. Question 21. In which of the following patient situations would a nurse practitioner be most justified in preliminarily ruling out pericarditis as a contributing pathology to the patient's health problems? A 61-year-old man whose ECG was characterized by widespread T wave inversions on admission but whose T waves have recently normalized A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 sounds, an irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation A 56-year-old obese man who is complaining of chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration and is radiating to his neck and scapular ridge A 60-year-old woman whose admission blood work indicates elevated white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels Question 22. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refersthe woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides? Aneurysms are commonly a result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms. Individuals with an aneurysm are normally asymptomatic until the aneurysm ruptures. Aneurysms can normally be resolved with lifestyle and diet modifications. Question 23. A 66-year-old patient's echocardiogramreveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? Mitral valve regurgitation Aortic valve stenosis Mitral valve stenosis Aortic valve regurgitation Question 24. A nurse practitioner is teaching a student NP about the physiologic basis for damage to the circulatory and neurological systems that can accompany hypotension. Which of the following responses by the student would warrant correction by the nurse practitioner? “As vessel wall thickness increases, tension decreases.” “Smaller blood vessels require more pressure to overcome wall tension.” “The smaller the vessel radius, the greater the pressure needed to keep it open.” “Tension and vessel thickness increase proportionately.” Question 25. An 81-year-old femalepatient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient's condition? Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest. Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart. Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction. Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion. Question 26. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemicshock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility Infusion of normal saline or Ringer lactate to maintain the vascular space Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion Question 27. A 68-year-old malecomplains to his NP when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his HR is always low. He feels his heart racing and it seems to pause at times. He is lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is the patient’s diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it? Sick sinus syndrome as a result of a disease of his sinus node and atrial or junctional arrhythmias Ventricular arrhythmia as a result of alternating vagal and sympathetic stimulation Torsades de pointes as a result of disease of the bundle of His Premature atrial contractions that vacillate between tachycardic and bradycardic episodes as a consequence of an infectious process Question 28. A 77-year-old woman with a recent onset of syncopal episodeshas been referred to a cardiologist by her family physician. As a part of the patient’s diagnostic work-up, the nurse practitioner conducting the intake assessment has ordered a Holter monitor for 24 hours. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of Holter monitor? A Holter monitor is preferable to standard ECG due to its increased sensitivity to cardiac electrical activity. The primary goal is to allow the cardiologist to accurately diagnose cardiomyopathies. Accurate interpretation of the results requires correlating the findings with the activity that the woman was doing at the time of recording. Holter monitors are normally set to record electrical activity of the heart at least once per hour. MN551 Unit 3 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 3 Quiz / MN551 Week 3 Quiz / MN 551 Week 3 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 1 / 1 point Which of the following situations related to the transition from fetal to perinatal circulation would be most likely to necessitate medical intervention? Question options: Pulmonary vascular resistance, related to muscle regression in the pulmonary arteries, rises over the course of the infant's first week. Systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular pressure are both increasing. Alveolar oxygen tension increases, causing reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction of the fetal arteries. Pressure in the pulmonary circulation and the right side of the infant's heart fall markedly. Question 2 1 / 1 point A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his nurse practitioner. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the nurse practitioner most likely take into account when teaching the patient? Question options: Hyperlipidemia is a consequence of diet and lifestyle rather than genetics. HDL cholesterol is often characterized as being beneficial to health. Cholesterol is a metabolic waste product that the liver is responsible for clearing. The goal of medical treatment is to eliminate cholesterol from the vascular system. Question 3 1 / 1 point As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? Question options: Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG Question 4 1 / 1 point A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? Question options: Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricule Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle Reduced protection from infectious organisms Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction Question 5 1 / 1 point An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient's nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner's choice of blood work? Question options: BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects. BNP levels correlate with the patient's risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia. BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the RAA system in compensating for heart failure. BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure and measuring it can help differentiate the patient's dyspnea from a respiratory pathology. Question 6 1 / 1 point The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? Question options: “Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.” “Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time.” “Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system.” “Left-sided and right-sided pumping action at each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution.” Question 7 1 / 1 point A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? Question options: “Remember, the 'H' in HDL and the 'L' in LDL correspond to high danger and low danger to your health.” “Having high cholesterol increases your risk of developing diabetes and irregular heart rate.” “Smoking and being overweight increases your risk of primary hypercholesterolemia.” “Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherited risk.” Question 8 1 / 1 point A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn't even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? Question options: The boy's atria are experiencing abnormal sympathetic stimulation. The child is likely to have a normal ECG apart from the rapid heart rate. The resolution of the problem is dependent on spontaneous recovery and is resistant to pacing interventions. The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium. Question 9 1 / 1 point A 68-year-old male complains to his nurse practitioner that when he tests his blood pressure using a machine at his pharmacy, his heart rate is nearly always very low. At other times, he feels that his heart is racing, and it also seems to pause at times. The man has also occasionally had lightheadedness and a recent syncopal episode. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis and the phenomenon underlying it? Question options: Ventricular arrhythmia as a result of alternating vagal and sympathetic stimulation Sick sinus syndrome as a result of a disease of his sinus node and atrial or junctional arrhythmias Premature atrial contractions that vacillate between tachycardic and bradycardic episodes as a consequence of an infectious process Torsades de pointes as a result of disease of the bundle of His Question 10 1 / 1 point A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider's preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? Question options: Giant cell temporal arteritis that will be treated with corticosteroids Atherosclerotic occlusive disease necessitating thrombolytic therapy Raynaud disease that will require antiplatelet medications Acute arterial occlusion that will be treated with angioplasty [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 4 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 4 Quiz / MN551 Week 4 Quiz / MN 551 Week 4 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 4 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 4 Quiz / MN551 Week 4 Quiz / MN 551 Week 4 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| ... [Show More] MN551 Unit 4 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 4 Quiz/ MN551 Week 4 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 4 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University Question 1.1. Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? Fever and facial pain are more commonly associated with rhinosinusitis rather than the common cold. The other noted symptoms are indicative of the common cold rather than rhinosinusitis. A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°pg 929-930 A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F A woman complaining of generalized aches who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways Question 2.2. A 44-year-old woman developed calf pain during a transatlantic flight followed by acute shortness of breath upon arrival at her destination. She was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE), which resolved with anticoagulant therapy. Which of these statements best characterizes the underlying problem of her PE? Ventilation was occurring, but perfusion was inadequate causing shortness of breath. Impaired blood flow to a portion of the lung, such as with a PE, is associated with ventilation without perfusion, rather than perfusion without ventilation. The situation is not related to an anatomic shunt or impaired diffusion across alveolar membranes. She was short of breath because ventilation was occurring but perfusion was inadequate.Pg 984-985 The combination of normal perfusion but compromised ventilation caused hypoxia. She developed a transient anatomic shunt resulting in impaired oxygenation. Impaired gas diffusion across alveolar membranes resulted in dyspnea and hypoxia. Question 3.3. A premature infant on mechanical ventilation has developed bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and is showing signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, low lung compliance, and respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the infant's present health problem? (Despite the administration of corticosteroids in utero to hasten alveolar maturation, premature infants suffering respiratory distress syndrome often must be treated with supplemental oxygen and mechanical ventilation. However, overly forceful positive-pressure ventilation (barotrauma) can lead to the chronic lung impairment of BPD. Surfactant therapy is a first-line defense against the development of RDS and is also used to treat cases of BPD; additional time on a ventilator is often required as well. High inspired oxygen concentration and injury from positive-pressure ventilation. Pg 952 Failure to administer corticosteroids to the infant in utero Insufficient surfactant production and insufficient surfactant therapy Insufficient supplemental oxygen therapy Question 4.4. Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections are associated with COPD, while pain, fever, and increased white cells are not common signs and symptoms of COPD. Acute shortness of breath and bronchoconstriction are associated with asthma. A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells An 81-year-old male who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections. pg 975 An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke/ 5.5. A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency department accompanied by his wife who claims that he has been acting confused. The man is complaining of a sudden onset of severe weakness and malaise and has a dry cough and diarrhea. His temperature is 102.8°F and his blood work indicates his sodium level is 126 mEq/L (normal is 135 to 145 mEq/L). What will be the assessing nurse practitioner's most likely suspicion? Confusion, dry cough, diarrhea, and hyponatremia are associated with Legionnaire disease and less so with bronchopneumonia, Mycoplasma pneumonia, or pneumococcal pneumonia. Bronchopneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Legionnaire disease Pg. 938 Pneumococcal pneumonia Question 6.6. A 51-year-old female patient who is 2 days postoperative on a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk for developing atelectasis as a result of being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse practitioner is most appropriate? (Atelectasis is characterized by incomplete lung expansion and can often be prevented by deep breathing and coughing. Pleural effusion, not atelectasis, is associated with fluid accumulation between the lungs and their lining, and neither chest tube insertion nor bronchodilators are common treatments for atelectasis. “Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often.” “You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed.” “Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid our having to insert a chest tube.” “I'll prescribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in.” Question 7.7. Due to complications, a male postoperative patient has been unable to mobilize for several days following surgery and has developed atelectasis. Which of the following processes would his care team anticipate with relation to his health problem? Regional hypoxia, such as with a diagnosis of atelectasis, is associated with vasoconstriction and redirection of blood away from, not toward, the affected area of the lung. This also contributes to an increased workload for the right side of the heart. Vasodilation in the alveolar vessels in the affected region of his lung Increased workload for the left side of the patient's heart Increased blood flow to the area of atelectasis Redirection of blood flow away from the lung regions that are hypoxic Question 8.8. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a patient who has interstitial lung disease rather than COPD? (Because it takes less work to move air through the airways at an increased rate than it does to stretch a stiff lung to accommodate a larger tidal volume, interstitial lung disease is commonly associated with an increased respiratory rate but decreased tidal volume. Wheezing and decreased expiratory flow rate are more closely associated with COPD. Audible wheezing on expiration Diminished expiratory flow rates Increased respiratory rate with decreased tidal volume Normal compliance of alveolar tissue Question 9.9. A male lifetime smoker has died as a result of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following phenomena regarding his alveoli would his care team have most reasonably expected in the weeks prior to his death? Smokers often retain large numbers of carbon-filled macrophages in their septal connective tissue. NK cell proliferation is not a noted phenomenon in the alveoli, and tubercles are associated specifically with tuberculosis infection. Type I alveoli are incapable of regeneration. Proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells in the alveolar lumen Large numbers of alveolar macrophages in septal connective tissue The presence of tubercles in the intra-alveolar spaces Compensatory regeneration of type I alveolar cells Question 10.10. A 21-year-old male patient has suffered a head injury during a crash on his motorcycle, and a deficit that assessments have revealed is an impaired swallowing mechanism. He has also developed aspiration pneumonia. Which of the following statements most accurately capture an aspect of his condition? (The vocal folds contribute to blocking of the airways during swallowing; compromise to this function is likely to allow food to enter the lungs. The epiglottis is performing its normal, protective role against aspiration when it covers the larynx, and the vocal folds contribute to sound enunciation, not swallowing or protection against aspiration. Tracheobronchial obstruction would not contribute to aspiration. His oropharynx is obstructed. His epiglottis is covering his larynx His vocal folds have been compromised. His tracheobronchial tree is intermittently obstructed Question 11.11. A short, nonsmoking middle-aged man presents to the emergency department with left-sided chest pain and a cough. He says that the pain started abruptly, just after lunch, and that breathing and coughing make it worse. He denies recent injury. He is breathing shallowly and rapidly and expresses fear that he may be having a heart attack. Breath sounds are normal, and he is not cyanotic. Which condition is most likely causing his symptoms? Pleuritis, which frequently accompanies infections that cause cough, is unilateral, starts abruptly, and is worsened by coughing or deep breathing. The client's shallow, rapid breathing may be due to anxiety but also is a way of maintaining adequate air intake while avoiding deep breathing, which exacerbates the pain of pleuritis. His cough may be an indication of infection, especially as he is not a smoker. The pain of myocardial infarction is not worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Spontaneous pneumothorax would be very unlikely in a short, nonsmoking middle-aged man. Tachypnea might indicate obstructive atelectasis, but normal breath sounds and lack of cyanosis argue against it. Myocardial infarction Spontaneous pneumothorax Pleuritis related to infection Obstructive atelectasis Question 12.12. Which of the following statements best conveys an aspect of the respiratory pressures that govern ventilation? Negative intrapleural pressure holds the lungs in place against the chest wall and prevents their natural elastic properties from causing them to collapse. Intrapleural pressure is negative in relation to the inflated lung, and the chest wall exerts negative pressure on the lungs that keeps them from contracting and contributes to inspiration. Intrapulmonary pressure oscillates between positive and negative relative to atmospheric pressure with expiration and inspiration. Intrapleural pressure slightly exceeds that of the inflated lung The chest wall exerts positive pressure on the lungs that contributes to expiration The lungs are prevented from collapsing by constant positive intrapulmonary pressure Negative intrapleural pressure holds the lungs against the chest wall Question 13.13. The mother of a 7-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with childhood asthma has come to the education center to learn more about her son's condition. Which of the following teaching points is most justifiable? Viruses have been implicated as a contributing factor in childhood asthma. Wheezing may or may not be present in children, and inhaled corticosteroids are not common as an initial therapy. Current treatment guidelines do not advise the categorical avoidance of exercise. “Research has shown that viruses may actually be a factor in many children's asthma.” “The most reliable indicator that your child is having an asthma attack is audible wheezing.” “Steroids that your child can inhale will likely be the first line of defense. “Your son will likely need to limit or avoid exercise and sports.” Question 14.14. Which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring during a child's alveolar stage of lung development? During the alveolar stage of lung development from late fetal to early childhood, a single capillary network appears, and the lungs are ready to perform respiration. The development of alveolar sacs and production of surfactant are associated with the saccular period, and formation of the conducting airways occurs during the pseudoglandular period. Formation of primitive alveoli takes place during the canalicular period. Terminal alveolar sacs are developing and surfactant production is beginning. A single-capillary network exists and the lungs are capable of respiration. The conducting airways are formed, but respiration is not yet possible. Primitive alveoli are formed and the bronchi and bronchioles become much larger. Question 15.15. A 71-year-old woman is dependent on oxygen therapy and bronchodilators due to her diagnosis of emphysema. Which of the following processes would her care team be most justified in ruling out? In lung pathology, such as emphysema, large amounts of air are trapped at the end of a given breath, a situation that corresponds to increased residual volume and decreased vital capacity. Elastic recoil would tend to suffer, and both alveolar and anatomical dead space consequently increase. Decreased elastic recoil due to alveolar damage Decreased residual lung volume due to impaired alveolar ventilation Increased anatomic dead space due to reduced tidal volume Increased alveolar dead space due to incorrect intrapleural pressure Question 16.16. A definitive test for cystic fibrosis is? If a genetic test or blood test suggests CF, a doctor will confirm the diagnosis using a sweat test. This test is the most useful test for diagnosing CF. A sweat test measures the amount of salt in sweat. The sweat test------- A sputum culture --------- A fecal fat test A Chymex test for pancreatic insufficiency Question 17.17.A patient who presented with shortness of breath and difficulty climbing stairs has been diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, a disease characterized by scarring of the alveoli. What would her care team anticipate when observing her breathing? Scarring diminishes the elasticity of the lung tissue, resulting in noncompliant lungs that are more difficult to inflate. In order to maintain a sufficient tidal volume and oxygen level with the lungs that require extra work to expand, the individual must take shallower, more rapid breaths. The effort and time required for him to breathe deeply would detract from his ability to bring in enough air. Rapid, deep breaths - Wheezing breaths- Short, shallow breaths - Pursed-lip breaths Question 18.18. Which of the following patients are NOT displaying known risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli? Postsurgical immobility, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives are all identified risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli. Impaired Cl- and Na+ regulation are associated with cystic fibrosis, while amiodarone and radiation therapy are linked to interstitial lung diseases A patient who is immobilized following orthopedic surgery A patient who has impaired Cl– and Na+ regulation A patient who is taking amiodarone for the treatment of a cardiac arrhythmia A patient who is a smoker and takes oral contraceptive A patient who is undergoing radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer Question 19.19.Following a winter power outage, a patient who had been using a home gasoline generator began to experience dizziness and headaches and was diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the goal of hyperbaric oxygen treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning? While increased alveolar PO2 improves the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin, carbon monoxide occupies the hemoglobin sites usually available for oxygen. With much of the blood composed, temporarily, of carboxyhemoglobin, it is necessary to rely upon alternate means to deliver oxygen to the tissues. Plasma's normally low carrying capacity for dissolved oxygen can be increased by administration of 100% oxygen in the high atmospheric pressure of a hyperbaric chamber. To increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma To increase the production of unbound hemoglobin To stimulate the release of oxygen at the capillaries To remove bound CO from hemoglobin Question 20.20. A nurse practitioner is performing patient teaching about the influenza virus with each patient who has come to the clinic to receive that year's vaccine. Which of the following statements by patients best reflects an accurate understanding of the flu virus? Viral and bacterial pneumonia are known sequelae of influenza. Antiviral drugs do exist for the flu, and the efficacy of staying warm and increasing fluid consumption have been demonstrated. The flu vaccine is recommended for higher risk individuals, and guidelines do not indicate the need for all individuals to be vaccinated. “I could come down with viral or bacterial pneumonia as a result of a bad flu bug.” “I know my vaccination is especially important since there aren't any drugs that can treat the flu once I get sick with it.” “The emphasis on bundling up, staying warm, and drinking lots of fluids is outdated and actually ineffective.” “Like all vaccines, it is ideal if everyone in a population gets immunized against the flu.” Question 21.21.A 77-year-old lifetime smoker has been diagnosed with a tumor in his lung at the site of an old tubercle scarring site, located in a peripheral area of his bronchiolar tissue. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? Adenocarcinoma is associated with the periphery of the lungs, often at the site of scarring, and can occur in alveolar or bronchiolar tissue. Squamous cell carcinoma, small cell lung cancer, and large cell carcinoma are less commonly associated with these traits. Squamous cell carcinoma Small cell lung cancer Large cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Question 22.22.As a result of dehydration, a patient's epithelial cells are producing insufficient amounts of mucus. Consequently, the patient's mucociliary blanket is compromised. Which of the following changes would a care provider most reasonably anticipate as a direct result of this change? The primary role of the mucociliary blanket is to trap foreign particles and bacteria and thus prevent their entry into the lungs. Impaired ciliary function may result in an inadequate mucociliary blanket, but the opposite relationship is unlikely. Decreased oxygen and increased carbon dioxide levels may eventually result, but not as a direct or immediate consequence. Impaired function of the patient's cilia Decreased levels of oxygen saturation Increased amounts of bacteria in the lung Increased carbon dioxide levels Question 23.23.Which of the following statements best captures the etiology of the acute response phase of extrinsic (atopic) asthma? The acute response phase of extrinsic asthma is characterized by the release of chemical mediators from mast cells that have been sensitized. Epithelial injury and edema, as well as airway remodeling, are not associated with the acute phase, and IgE, not IgG, is primarily involved in asthma. IgG production is heightened as a consequence of exposure to an allergen. Airway remodeling results in airflow limitations. Epithelial injury and edema occur along with changes in mucociliary function. Chemical mediators are released from presensitized mast cells. Question 24.24.A 62-year-old female smoker is distraught at her recent diagnosis of small cell lung cancer (SCLC). How can her nurse practitioner most appropriately respond to her? Metastases are common with SCLC. Survival rates are very low; surgical options do not exist; and remission is very unlikely. “I'm sure this is very hard news to hear, but be aware that with aggressive treatment your chances of beating this are quite good.” “This is very difficult to hear, I'm sure, and we have to observe to see if it spreads because that often happens.” “I'm very sorry to have to give you this news; I'd like to talk to you about surgical options, however.” “This is a difficult diagnosis to receive, but there is a chance that the cancer may go into remission.” Question 25.25.About 3 weeks after razing an old chicken house, a 71-year-old retired farmer has developed a fever, nausea, and vomiting. After ruling out more common health problems, his care provider eventually makes a diagnosis of histoplasmosis. Which of the following processes is most likely taking place? Disseminated histoplasmosis results from the inability of macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system to destroy the fungi. Fungi do not produce toxins, and antibody production and autoimmune responses are not involved in the pathophysiology of this fungal infection. Toxin production by Histoplasma capsulatum is triggering an immune response. Antibody production against the offending fungi is delayed by the patient's age and the virulence of the organism. Spore inhalation initiates an autoimmune response that produces the associated symptoms. Macrophages are able to remove the offending fungi from the bloodstream but can't destroy them. 26. Which of the following situations would be most deserving of a pediatrician’s attention? Retraction and grunting indicate a significant increase in the work of breathing that can be indicative of respiratory distress syndrome, a situation that would require medical intervention. Periods of hyperventilation interspersed with reduced breathing rates are common during the transition to postpartum ventilation, and infants are commonly unable to mouth breathe. Nostril flaring could be a sign of dyspnea, but it can also be a compensatory mechanism that the infant uses to increase oxygen intake; this situation would not be considered as serious as an infant who has chest retractions and grunting. A) The mother of an infant 2 days postpartum notes that her baby has intermittent periods of hyperventilation followed by slow respirations or even brief periods of apnea. B)A volunteer in the nursery notes that one of the infants, aged 2 weeks, appears unable to breathe through his mouth, even when his nose is congested. C)A neonate is visibly flaring her nostrils on inspiration. D)A midwife notes that a newborn infant's chest is retracting on inspiration and that the child is grunting. 27. A female patient is requiring supplementary oxygen by facemask due to her reduced lung compliance. Which of the following pathophysiological processes is most likely a contributor to her low lung compliance? Impaired thoracic cage flexibility can be a contributor to reduced lung compliance. Increased recoil and a modest excess of surfactant would increase lung compliance, and turbulent flow in the airways is a normal, not pathological, finding. A)The woman's lungs have more recoil than a healthy person's. B) Her type II alveolar cells are producing a slight excess of surfactant. C) Turbulent airflow is taking place in the patient's large airways. D) Her thoracic cage is less flexible than when she was healthy. 28). As a consequence of long-standing lung disease, a patient is in a chronic state of hypoxia. Which of the following phenomena would the patient’s nurse practitioner be most justified in anticipating? Increased production of erythropoietin, hyperventilation, and cognitive and personality changes are all associated with hypoxemia. Acidosis, not alkalosis, and vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation are likely to occur Metabolic alkalosis B) Increased erythropoietin production C) Pulmonary vasodilation D) Hyperventilation E) Personality changes 29). A 3 yr old boy has developed croup following a winter cold. His nurse practitioner would recognize that which of the following causative microoganisms and treatments are most likely?The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses, and common treatment modalities are humidified air or mist tents as well as supplementary oxygen. Respiratory syncytial virus accounts for some croup diagnoses, but intubation is not normally required. Haemophilus influenza is responsible for epiglottitis, while Staphylococcus aureus is not commonly responsible for croup. Respiratory syncytial virus treated with intubation B) Parainfluenza virus treated with a mist tent and oxygen therapy C) Haemophilus influenza treated with appropriate antibiotics D) Staphylococcus aureus treated with bronchodilators and mist tent MN551 Unit 4 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 4 Quiz/ MN551 Week 4 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 4 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University Question 1. 1. A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency department accompanied by his wife who claims that he has been acting confused. The man is complaining of a sudden onset of severe weakness and malaise and has a dry cough and diarrhea. His temperature is 102.8°F and his blood work indicates his sodium level is 126 mEq/L (normal is 135 to 145 mEq/L). What will be the assessing nurse practitioner's most likely suspicion? (Points : 0.4) Bronchopneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Legionnaire disease Pneumococcal pneumonia Question 2. 2. A 51-year-old female patient who is 2 days postoperative on a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk for developing atelectasis as a result of being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse practitioner is most appropriate?(Points : 0.4) “Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often.” “You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed.” “Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid our having to insert a chest tube.” “I'll prescribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in.” Question 3. 3. Which of the following situations would be most deserving of a pediatrician's attention? (Points : 0.4) The mother of an infant 2 days postpartum notes that her baby has intermittent periods of hyperventilation followed by slow respirations or even brief periods of apnea. A volunteer in the nursery notes that one of the infants, age 2 weeks, appears unable to breathe through his mouth, even when his nose is congested. A neonate is visibly flaring her nostrils on inspiration. A midwife notes that a newborn infant's chest is retracting on inspiration and that the child is grunting. Question 4. 4. A 77-year-old lifetime smoker has been diagnosed with a tumor in his lung at the site of an old tubercle scarring site, located in a peripheral area of his bronchiolar tissue. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 0.4) Squamous cell carcinoma Small cell lung cancer Large cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Question 5. 5. Which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring during a child's alveolar stage of lung development? (Points : 0.4) Terminal alveolar sacs are developing and surfactant production is beginning. A single-capillary network exists and the lungs are capable of respiration. The conducting airways are formed, but respiration is not yet possible. Primitive alveoli are formed and the bronchi and bronchioles become much larger. Question 6. 6. Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? (Points : 0.4) A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells An 81-year-old male who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke Question 7. 7. Following a winter power outage, a patient who had been using a home gasoline generator began to experience dizziness and headaches and was diagnosed with carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the goal of hyperbaric oxygen treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?(Points : 0.4) To increase the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma To increase the production of unbound hemoglobin To stimulate the release of oxygen at the capillaries To remove bound CO from hemoglobin Question 8. 8. A male lifetime smoker has died as a result of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following phenomena regarding his alveoli would his care team have most reasonably expected in the weeks prior to his death? (Points : 0.4) Proliferation of natural killer (NK) cells in the alveolar lumen Large numbers of alveolar macrophages in septal connective tissue The presence of tubercles in the intra-alveolar spaces Compensatory regeneration of type I alveolar cells Question 9. 9. A 44-year-old woman developed calf pain during a transatlantic flight followed by acute shortness of breath upon arrival at her destination. She was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE), which resolved with anticoagulant therapy. Which of these statements best characterizes the underlying problem of her PE? (Points : 0.4) She was short of breath because ventilation was occurring but perfusion was inadequate. The combination of normal perfusion but compromised ventilation caused hypoxia. She developed a transient anatomic shunt resulting in impaired oxygenation. Impaired gas diffusion across alveolar membranes resulted in dyspnea and hypoxia. Question 10. 10. A 21-year-old male patient has suffered a head injury during a crash on his motorcycle, and a deficit that assessments have revealed is an impaired swallowing mechanism. He has also developed aspiration pneumonia. Which of the following statements most accurately capture an aspect of his condition? (Points : 0.4) His oropharynx is obstructed. His epiglottis is covering his larynx His vocal folds have been compromised. His tracheobronchial tree is intermittently obstructed. Question 11. 11. As a consequence of long-standing lung disease, a patient is in a chronic state of hypoxia. Which of the following phenomena would the patient's nurse practitioner be most justified in anticipating? Select all that apply: (Points : 0.4) Metabolic alkalosis Increased erythropoietin production Pulmonary vasodilation Hyperventilation A shift to the right of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve Personality changes Question 12. 12. The mother of a 7-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with childhood asthma has come to the education center to learn more about her son's condition. Which of the following teaching points is most justifiable? (Points : 0.4) “Research has shown that viruses may actually be a factor in many children's asthma.” “The most reliable indicator that your child is having an asthma attack is audible wheezing.” “Steroids that your child can inhale will likely be the first line of defense. “Your son will likely need to limit or avoid exercise and sports.” Question 13. 13. Which of the following statements best conveys an aspect of the respiratory pressures that govern ventilation? (Points : 0.4) Intrapleural pressure slightly exceeds that of the inflated lung The chest wall exerts positive pressure on the lungs that contributes to expiration The lungs are prevented from collapsing by constant positive intrapulmonary pressure Negative intrapleural pressure holds the lungs against the chest wall Question 14. 14. A premature infant on mechanical ventilation has developed bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and is showing signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, low lung compliance, and respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the infant's present health problem? (Points : 0.4) High inspired oxygen concentration and injury from positive-pressure ventilation Failure to administer corticosteroids to the infant in utero Insufficient surfactant production and insufficient surfactant therapy Insufficient supplemental oxygen therapy Question 15. 15. Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? (Points : 0.4) A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F A woman complaining of generalized aches who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways Question 16. 16. A definitive test for cystic fibrosis is (Points : 0.4) The sweat test A sputum culture A fecal fat test A Chymex test for pancreatic insufficiency Question 17. 17. A patient who presented with shortness of breath and difficulty climbing stairs has been diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, a disease characterized by scarring of the alveoli. What would her care team anticipate when observing her breathing? (Points : 0.4) Rapid, deep breaths Wheezing breaths Short, shallow breaths Pursed-lip breaths Question 18. 18. Which of the following patients are NOT displaying known risk factors for the development of pulmonary emboli? (Points : 0.4) A patient who is immobilized following orthopedic surgery A patient who has impaired Cl– and Na+ regulation A patient who is taking amiodarone for the treatment of a cardiac arrhythmia A patient who is a smoker and takes oral contraceptives A patient who is undergoing radiation therapy for the treatment of breast cancer Question 19. 19. A female patient is requiring supplementary oxygen by facemask due to her reduced lung compliance. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to be a contributor to her low lung compliance? (Points : 0.4) The woman's lungs have more recoil than a healthy person's. Her type II alveolar cells are producing a slight excess of surfactant. Turbulent airflow is taking place in the patient's large airways. Her thoracic cage is less flexible than when she was healthy. Question 20. 20. A 71-year-old woman is dependent on oxygen therapy and bronchodilators due to her diagnosis of emphysema. Which of the following processes would her care team be most justified in ruling out? (Points : 0.4) Decreased elastic recoil due to alveolar damage Decreased residual lung volume due to impaired alveolar ventilation Increased anatomic dead space due to reduced tidal volume Increased alveolar dead space due to incorrect intrapleural pressure Question 21. 21. As a result of dehydration, a patient's epithelial cells are producing insufficient amounts of mucus. Consequently, the patient's mucociliary blanket is compromised. Which of the following changes would a care provider most reasonably anticipate as a direct result of this change? (Points : 0.4) Impaired function of the patient's cilia Decreased levels of oxygen saturation Increased amounts of bacteria in the lungs Increased carbon dioxide levels Question 22. 22. A 3-year-old boy has developed croup following a winter cold. His nurse practitioner would recognize that which of the following causative microorganisms and treatments are most likely? (Points : 0.4) Respiratory syncytial virus; treatment with intubation Parainfluenza virus; treatment with a mist tent and oxygen therapy Haemophilus influenza; treatment with appropriate antibiotics Staphylococcus aureus; treatment with bronchodilators and a mist tent Question 23. 23. A short, nonsmoking middle-aged man presents to the emergency department with left-sided chest pain and a cough. He says that the pain started abruptly, just after lunch, and that breathing and coughing make it worse. He denies recent injury. He is breathing shallowly and rapidly and expresses fear that he may be having a heart attack. Breath sounds are normal, and he is not cyanotic. Which condition is most likely causing his symptoms? (Points : 0.4) Myocardial infarction Spontaneous pneumothorax Pleuritis related to infection Obstructive atelectasis Question 24. 24. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a patient who has interstitial lung disease rather than COPD? (Points : 0.4) Audible wheezing on expiration Diminished expiratory flow rates Increased respiratory rate with decreased tidal volume Normal compliance of alveolar tissue Question 25. 25. A nurse practitioner is doing the admission assessment on a patient who has been transferred to the floor after being diagnosed by the emergency room physician with bilateral pleural effusion. Which of the following findings from the nurse practitioner's initial assessment of the patient is incongruent with the patient's diagnosis, and would require further investigation? (Points : 0.4) The patient complains of sharp pain exacerbated by deep inspiration. The patient's breath sounds are diminished on auscultation. Pulse oximetry indicates that the patient is hypoxemic. The patient complains of dyspnea and increased work of breathing. [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 6 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 6 Quiz / MN551 Week 6 Quiz / MN 551 Week 6 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 6 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 6 Quiz / MN551 Week 6 Quiz / MN 551 Week 6 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN... [Show More] 551 Unit 6 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 6 Quiz/ MN551 Week 6 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 6 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University 1. A 35yearold female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical exam? Digital rectal exam Pelvic exam Sexual history All of the above Hiatal hernia – protrusion of the stomach or regurgitation of the stomach contents into the esophagus 2. A patient is seen in the office and is complaining of constipation. The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation? Multivitamin Magnesium hydroxide PeptoBismol Ibuprofen 3. A patient with complaints of diarrhea is seen. Which of the following should be included on the differential diagnosis list for a patient with diarrhea? Gastroenteritis Inflammatory bowel disease Lactase deficiency All of the above 4. Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months for which he takes Tums with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain? The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves. Coffee and fried foods do not bother him. He awakens at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth. All of the above 5. A 29yearold Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly for 2 weeks. He gets temporary relief from Alka Seltzer. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up into his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?Pg 1181 His gender His age His use of Alka Seltzer 6. Which of the following is most effective in diagnosing appendicitis?Pg 1193 History and physical Sedimentation rate Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB) radiograph Complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential (note: there is not always and elevated WBC count) 7. Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (AKA celiac sprue or gluten-sensitivity enteropathy)?Pg 1199 Malabsorption Constipation Rectal bleeding Esophageal ulceration 8. A 45yearold patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical exam is remarkable for left lower quadrant (LLQ) tenderness. Which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis at this time?Pg 1192 Endometriosis Colon cancer Diverticulitis All of the above 9. A 46yearold female is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests isessential for this patient? Complete blood cell (CBC) count with differential Urine hCG Barium enema Computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen 10. A 25yearold accountant is seen in the clinic complaining ofcrampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives. Following this, she has diarrhea for a couple of days. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be? Obtain a complete history. Order a barium enema. Schedule a Bernstein’s test. (tests esophageal function) Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics. 11. A 28yearold patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain, particularly with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely? Pg 1192-1193 Her age(typically seen by age 60) Frequent constipation (common with diverticulitis) Flatulence (common with diverticulitis) Colicky abdominal pain 12. A 28yearold patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following questions would help the clinician establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?Pg 1184 Feels relief after a bowel movement Sometimes is constipated Does not defecate in the middle of the night All of the above 13. A patient is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following information should the clinician include in the explanation of the pathology report?Pg 1175 This is a premalignant tissue. This tissue is resistant to gastric acid. This tissue supports healing of the esophagus. All of the above 14. Which of the following dietary information should be given to a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? Eliminate coffee. Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress. Recline and rest after meals. Limit the amount of antacids. Notes: Proton pump inhibitors, avoiding large meals, and remaining upright after meals helps with GERD. 15. The patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities? Swimming Weight lifting Golfing Walking 16. A patient is diagnosed with Giardia (protozoan infection) after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be the appropriate treatment? Vancomycin Penicillin Metronidazole Bactrim 17. A 22yearold is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?Pg 1193 Very early 3 to 4 hours after perforation Late in inflammation Appendicitis never presents with vague pain. 18. The clinician suspects the patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the clinician to this conclusion? Pg 1181 Use of NSAIDs (and infection with H. pylori are two most important) Cigarette smoker Alcohol (ETOH) consumption All of the above 19. A patient is seen and a urine sample is taken. The urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin, and the urine is dark colored. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem? Increased breakdown of red blood cells Inadequate hepatocyte function Biliary obstruction All of the above 20. A 21yearold student presents with a chief complaint of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and overthecounter (OTC) cold preparations, but feels worse. The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. An examination reveals cervical adenopathy and enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following laboratory tests would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point? Stool culture Liver enzymes AntiHDV (antibody to hepatitis D virus) Thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) 21. On further questioning, the 21yearold patient with the chief complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a daycare center. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis? HAV IgM HAV IgG AntiHAcAg AntiHAsAg 22. A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain that is radiating to the middle of the back. The clinician suspects acute cholelithiasis. The clinician should expect which of the following laboratory findings? Pg 1215 Decreased alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) Elevated alkaline phosphatase Elevated indirect bilirubin Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count 23. The patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s Criteria. In order to plan care, the clinician understands that this criteria score has which of the following meanings? A high mortality rate An increased chance of recurrence A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic All of the above 24. A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the clinician to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease? Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea Awakens at night with diarrhea History of international travel All of the above 25. Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for the patient with irritable bowel syndrome? Highfiber diet Tylenol with codeine Daily laxatives All of the above data Question 26. Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect? Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands Suppression of cholecystokinin Inflammation of the parotid glands Rationale: Brunner glands, which produce large amounts of alkaline mucus that protects the duodenum from acid and digestive enzymes, are strongly affected by sympathetic stimulation, which causes a marked decrease in mucus production. Where the stomach contents and secretions from the liver and pancreas enter the duodenum, deficiency of mucus can cause irritation and, potentially, ulcers. Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands is not produced by the SNS. The hormone cholecystokinin, which is thought in part to control gastric emptying, is released in response to the pH, osmolality, and fatty acid composition of the chyme. The two largest salivary glands are called parotid glands. One is located in each cheek over the jaw in front of the ears. Inflammation of one or more of these glands is called parotitis. Question 27.Which of the following patients is most clearly displaying the signs and symptoms of IBD? A 32-year-old mother who complains of intermittent abdominal pain that persists even after defecation. A 51-year-old male who states that his stomach pain is in his lower abdomen, “comes and goes,” and “feels more like a cramp than a dull ache.” A 44-year-old man who is under great financial stress and who states that his lower abdominal pain is much worse at night than during the day. A 24-year-old man who has a stressful job but whose diarrhea and cramping do not worsen during periods of high stress. Rationale: IBD is commonly manifested as intermittent lower abdominal pain that feels like cramping. Defecation normally relieves the pain, and symptoms are normally not present at night or during sleep. Stress commonly exacerbates symptoms. Question 28.A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her? Lamivudine Peginterferon and ribavirin Interferon-alfa-2b Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs Rationale: This woman's hepatitis is probably caused by an autoimmune disorder rather than a virus. Lamivudine, peginterferon/ribavirin, and interferon alfa-2b are all antiviral agents. Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic, usually progressive, inflammatory disease of the liver. Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment and have been shown to produce remission. Azathioprine, an immunosuppressant medication, is sometimes used along with prednisone. Using both medications may allow you to take a smaller dose of prednisone, reducing its side effects. Most people with this disease require long-term maintenance treatment. Question 29.Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of fat digestion and absorption? Ingested triglycerides are broken down into absorbable form by gastric lipase. Simple forms of fats are absorbed in the upper jejunum. Long-chain fatty acids are absorbed more readily than medium-chain triglycerides. Stool is not excreted until all fat is absorbed. Triglycerides are digested with the aid of bile salts. Rationale: After breakdown, by pancreatic lipase, triglycerides are absorbed primarily in the upper jejunum. Long-chain fatty acids are absorbed less easily than medium-chain triglycerides, while stool often contains a certain amount of fat. Question 30.A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a BMI of 33.2. Which of the following health problems is the patient at a significantly increased risk for compared with individuals with a BMI below 25? Cardiac arrhythmias Osteoarthritis Multiple sclerosis Atelectasis Gallbladder disease Insulin resistance Rationale: Obesity is associated with significantly increased risk for osteoarthritis due to bone and joint stress. Insulin resistance and gallbladder disease are also identified consequences of obesity. Cardiac arrhythmias are less likely to result directly from obesity, given their etiology rooted in electrical conductivity. Multiple sclerosis and other neurological effects are also unlikely, and atelectasis is not commonly a direct effect of high levels of body fat. Question 31. David has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. Which of the following lab tests would you expect to be decreased with Crohn’s Disease? Sedimenatation rate Liver enzyme levels Vitamins A, B complex and C levels Bilirubin level Question 32.A 51-year-old male professional is in the habit of consuming six to eight rum and cokes each evening after work. He assures the nurse practitioner, who is performing his regular physical exam, that his drinking is under control and does not have negative implications for his work or family life. How could the nurse best respond to the patient’s statement? “You are more than likely inflicting damage on your liver, but this damage would cease as soon as you quit drinking. “That may be the case, but you are still creating a high risk of hepatitis A or B or liver cancer.” “In spite of that, the amount of alcohol you are drinking is likely to result first in cirrhosis and, if you continue, in hepatitis or fatty liver changes.” “When your body has to regularly break down that much alcohol, your blood and the functional cells in your liver accumulate a lot of potentially damaging toxic byproducts.” Rationale: The hepatic effects of alcohol use are related to the accumulation of toxic metabolites in the hepatocytes and blood. Damage can continue even after an individual stops drinking. Specific consequences do not usually include HAV, HBV, or liver cancer. Cirrhosis represents the culmination, not the beginning, of negative hepatic effects. Question 33.A nurse practitioner is providing care for a male patient with a long-standing hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements most accurately captures an aspect of the pathophysiology of hiatal hernias? Paraesophageal hiatal hernias are common and are normally not treated if the patient is asymptomatic. (this is true for small sliding hiatal hernias) The root causes of hiatal hernias are normally treatable with medication. If esophageal acid clearance is impaired, esophagitis can result.(Pg 1174) An incompetent pyloric sphincter and high fat diet are commonly implicated in the development of hiatal hernias. Question 34.As a result of oral ingestion of the microorganisms, an individual has contracted H. pylori. Which of the following health problems is the individual now at increased risk for? Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) Gastric adenocarcinoma(pg 1178) Gastric atrophy Peptic ulcer Esophagitis Diverticular disease Question 35.A 43-year-old male who is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 216 pounds has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse be most justified in rejecting? Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. The patient faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia. He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors. The patient is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health.(pg 1252) Question 36. Which of the following measures would likely be rejected as part of a first-line weight loss plan for a patient with a BMI of 30.2 type 2 DM, and HTN? Prescription drug therapy Gastric bypass Calorie reduction by 500 to 1000 kcal/day 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity activity at least days per week Rationale: Weight loss surgery should be limited to individuals with a BMI greater than 40 or those with a BMI greater than 35 with comorbid conditions in whom medical therapy has failed. Calorie reduction is appropriate for anyone with a BMI of 25 to 29.9 plus two risk factors (in this case, type 2 diabetes and hypertension). Prescription drug therapy can be considered for those with a BMI of 30 or more, and increased physical activity, although it does not lead to significant weight loss, helps prevent further weight gain and reduces cardiovascular and diabetes risk beyond that achieved by weight loss alone. Question 37. A 20-year-old male who is addicted to crystal methamphetamine has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of protein-calorie malnutrition after many months of inadequate food intake. Which of the following treatment plans would the care team most likely favor? Intravenous infusion of albumin coupled with vitamin supplementation Total parenteral nutrition Incremental feeding combined with vitamin and mineral supplementation Rapid administration of normal saline and carbohydrates Rationale: Slow administration of protein and calories combined with mineral and vitamin supplementation is important in the treatment of protein-calorie malnutrition. Albumin transfusions and total parenteral feeding would likely not be necessary, and rapid administration of fluids and carbohydrates may precipitate congestive heart failure. Question 38. As part of the intake protocol at an eating disorders clinic, an interview precedes a physical examination. Which of the following questions would a clinician be justified in excluding from an intake interview for a 16-year-old female referred by her pediatrician for the treatment of anorexia nervosa? “Do you remember when your last menstrual period was? “Have you noticed any new hair growth on your body in the last several months?” “Have you had any episodes of shortness of breath in the recent past?” “Can you tell me about some of the habits that you have related to food in your daily routine?” Rationale: Respiratory complications are not a noted consequence of anorexia nervosa. Amenorrhea, development of lanugo, and complex and important rituals around food preparation are common. Question 39. A female neonate has been in respire distress since delivery and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. Endoscopy has confirmed a diagnosis of esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula (EA/TEF). Which of the following explanations should the care team provide to the infant’s parents? "We will have to perform surgery to correct the hole in her throat to make sure that she is able to swallow and breathe normally." "This problem will require respiratory therapy and supplementary feeding, but it will likely resolve itself over time." "The biggest risk that your daughter will face until this is fixed is the danger of malnutrition and dehydration." "The priority in our immediate treatment prior to her surgery will be pain management, as the contents of her stomach can burn her lungs." Rationale: A/TFE necessitate surgery and preclude both normal respiration and swallowing. Aspiration is the primary immediate risk and the priority for treatment. Although the infant will require respiratory therapy to assist with proper tube placement and ventilator maintenance, the only effective treatment is surgery. Aspiration of feeding (aspiration pneumonia) is a major complication that can occur immediately and can be life threatening. Maintaining an open airway and adequate gas exchange are the priority nursing diagnoses for this infant. Question 40. While on tour, a 32-year-old male musician has presented to the emergency department of a hospital after a concert complaining of severe and sudden abdominal painHe admits to a history of copious alcohol use in recent years, and his vital signs include temperature 46.8 °C (101.8 °F), blood pressure 89/48 mm Hg, and heart rate 116 beats/minute. Blood work indicates that his serum levels of C-reactive protein, amylase, and lipase are all elevated. Which of the following diagnoses would the care team suspect first? Hepatitis C Cholecystitis Liver cirrhosis Acute pancreatitis Rationale: Alcohol use, fever, hypotension, and tachycardia are often associated with pancreatitis, as are elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. These enzymes would unlikely rise in cases of hepatitis, cholecystitis, or cirrhosis. The precise mechanisms whereby alcohol exerts its action are largely unknown. Question 41. The patient who has been consuming a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) of 450 kcal/day should be assessed for which of the following high-risk complications? Select all that apply. Irregular heart rhythms Bone/joint inflammation Abdominal pain related to gallstones Flank pain and spasm associated with kidney sludge Elevated cholesterol levels Rationale: VLCDs have higher risks, including abnormal heart rhythms and cholelithiasis. Anyone on this diet should be under direct supervision of a medical professional. Usually bone/joint pain/inflammation decreases with weight loss. Kidney sludge is usually related to the amount of water a person consumes. Question 42. During a humanitarian trip to an underdeveloped country, a medical student is assessing a 6-year-old male who has a protuberant abdomen, dry hair, and wrinkled skin. The child's heart rate is 59 beats/minute, blood pressure 89/50, and temperature 95.2°F (35.1°C). What is the most likely etiology of the child's health problems? A diet lacking in fat-soluble vitamins Fluid and electrolyte imbalances secondary to low -carbohydrate intake A diet that is low or high in carbohydrates but low in fat A diet deficient in both protein and calories Rationale: The child's presentation is typical of marasmus, a diagnosis caused by deficiencies in protein and calorie intake. Question 43. A teenage female has been admitted for complications resulting from bulimia nervosa. She has abused laxatives for many years and has been self-inducing vomiting since the age of 9. The nurse's admission assessment should pay close attention to which of the following complications that can arise from this disorder? Select all that apply. Assess for dry, cracked lips and poor skin turgor. missing tooth enamel and increased number of dental cavities. painful swallowing and stomach cramping related to reflux and esophagitis. fruity breath and labored, deep, gasping respirations. jaundice of the skin and eyes. Rationale: Distracters A, B, and C are associated with complications of bulimia nervosa. Answer choice A relates to dehydration/fluid volume deficit; answer choice B relates to dental abnormalities associated with high acid content of the vomitus; answer choice C relates to esophagitis. Answer choice D is indicative of DKA primarily caused by undiagnosed or undertreated diabetes. Jaundice of the skin and eyes is usually associated with liver disease. Question 44. A 72 year-old patient with a long-standing history of chronic nausea and vomiting but a near-insatiable appetite has had her symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency. What enzyme can be contributing to this? Pg 1161 Secretin Gastrin Ghrelin Cholycystokinin (CCK) Question 45. A 29-year-old female has been admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt by overdose of acetaminophen. What changes in the client's liver and diagnostic results would the care team most likely anticipate? Hepatocellular necrosis evidenced by increased ALT and AST levels Allergic inflammation accompanied by an increase in serum IgE and basophils Cholestatic reaction with increased bilirubin count Rapid onset of hepatitis and increased GGT, ALT, and bilirubin MN551 Unit 6 Quiz / MN 551 Unit 6 Quiz / MN551 Week 6 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 6 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1. A 42-year-old female patient with a long-standing history of chronic nausea and vomiting but a near-insatiable appetite has had her symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency. Further diagnostic testing indicates that she has inadequate pancreatic enzyme levels and that her large appetite is due to a lack of enzyme control of food intake inhibition. In which of the following enzymes is the woman most likely deficient? (Points : 0.4) Cholecystokinin Ghrelin Gastrin Secretin Question 2. A 20-year-old male college student has recently finished a Thanksgiving dinner of heroic proportions while home for the holiday weekend. Which of the following phenomena would most likely have produced his sensation of satiety? (Points : 0.4) Stretch receptors in the stomach and small intestine signal the feeding center in the medulla. Increased levels of leptin stimulate a decrease in appetite by way of the vagus nerve. The breakdown of products of lipids such as ketoacids produces a decrease in appetite. Cholecystokinin and glucagon-like peptide-1 suppress the hunger impulse. Question 3. A 20-year-old male who is addicted to crystal methamphetamine has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of protein-calorie malnutrition after many months of inadequate food intake. Which of the following treatment plans would the care team most likely favor? (Points : 0.4) Intravenous infusion of albumin coupled with vitamin supplementation Total parenteral nutrition Incremental feeding combined with vitamin and mineral supplementation Rapid administration of normal saline and carbohydrates Question 4. Which of the following measures would likely be rejected as part of a first-line weight loss plan for a patient with a BMI of 30.2, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension? (Points : 0.4) Prescription drug therapy Gastric bypass Calorie reduction by 500 to 1,000 kcal/day 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity activity at least 3 days per week Question 5. Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect?(Points : 0.4) Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands Suppression of cholecystokinin Inflammation of the parotid glands Question6. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a male patient with a long-standing hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements most accurately captures an aspect of the pathophysiology of hiatal hernias? (Points : 0.4) Paraesophageal hiatal hernias are common and are normally not treated if the patient is asymptomatic. The root causes of hiatal hernias are normally treatable with medication. If esophageal acid clearance is impaired, esophagitis can result. An incompetent pyloric sphincter and high fat diet are commonly implicated in the development of hiatal hernias. Question 7. Cheryl has celiac disease. Which diet should you place her on? (Points : 0.4) Low fat diet Low residue diet Gluten free diet High protein diet Question8. A male patient complaining of chronic cramping, bloating, and diarrhea has been determined to have a deficiency in brush border enzymes within his small intestine. Which of the following meals or snacks is most likely to exacerbate the patient's signs and symptoms? (Points : 0.4) Bran cereal and prunes Tossed salad with an oil and vinegar dressing Roast beef and a baked potato Tortilla chips and guacamole Question9. As a result of oral ingestion of the microorganisms, an individual has contracted H. pylori. Which of the following health problems is the individual now at increased risk for? (Points : 0.4) Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) Gastric adenocarcinoma Gastric atrophy Peptic ulcer Esophagitis Diverticular disease Question 10. Which of the following patients is most clearly displaying the signs and symptoms of IBD? (Points : 0.4) A 32-year-old mother who complains of intermittent abdominal pain that persists even after defecation. A 51-year-old male who states that his stomach pain is in his lower abdomen, “comes and goes,” and “feels more like a cramp than a dull ache.” A 44-year-old man who is under great financial stress and who states that his lower abdominal pain is much worse at night than during the day. A 24-year-old man who has a stressful job but whose diarrhea and cramping do not worsen during periods of high stress. Question11. For several years, a 39-year-old female has been averaging two to three bottles of wine each night after her children go to sleep, and has included several ounces of brandy in recent years as well. Despite negative consequences to her career and the dissolution of her marriage, her drinking continued and now has culminated in a diagnosis of cirrhosis. Which of the following physical manifestations of the health problem would her care team anticipate? (Points : 0.4) Ascites Anorexia Fever Cognitive changes Epigastric pain Obesity Question12. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of fat digestion and absorption? (Points : 0.4) Ingested triglycerides are broken down into absorbable form by gastric lipase. Simple forms of fats are absorbed in the upper jejunum. Long-chain fatty acids are absorbed more readily than medium-chain triglycerides. Stool is not excreted until all fat is absorbed. Question13. A 51-year-old male professional is in the habit of consuming six to eight rum and cokes each evening after work. He assures the nurse practitioner, who is performing his regular physical exam, that his drinking is under control and does not have negative implications for his work or family life. How could the nurse best respond to the patient's statement? (Points : 0.4) “You are more than likely inflicting damage on your liver, but this damage would cease as soon as you quit drinking. “That may be the case, but you are still creating a high risk of hepatitis A or B or liver cancer.” “In spite of that, the amount of alcohol you are drinking is likely to result first in cirrhosis and, if you continue, in hepatitis or fatty liver changes.” “When your body has to regularly break down that much alcohol, your blood and the functional cells in your liver accumulate a lot of potentially damaging toxic byproducts.” Question14. A 43-year-old male patient has presented to the emergency department with vomiting that he claims is of sudden onset. The patient also states that the emesis has often contained frank blood in the hours prior to admission. Which of the following potential contributing factors would the care team first suspect? (Points : 0.4) Overuse of aspirin Alcohol consumption Staphylococcal enterotoxins Effects of Helicobacter pylori Question 15. A 48-year-old woman has been diagnosed with extrahepatic cholestasis following a thorough history, ultrasound, and blood work. Which of the following symptoms most likely caused her to seek medical treatment, and what consequences of her health problem would the medical team anticipate? (Points : 0.4) Complaints of lower flank pain with consequences of impaired fat metabolism Anorexia with consequences of impaired drug metabolism and blood filtration Skin xanthomas (focal accumulations of cholesterol) with consequences of increased risk of bleeding due to deficient clotting factors Pruritus with consequences of deficient levels of fat-soluble vitamins Question 16. A 29-year-old female has been admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt by overdose of acetaminophen. What changes in the patient's liver and diagnostic results would the care team most likely anticipate? (Points : 0.4) Centrilobular necrosis evidenced by increased ALT and AST levels Allergic inflammation accompanied by an increase in serum IgE and basophils Cholestatic reaction with increased bilirubin count Rapid onset of hepatitis and increased GGT, ALT, and bilirubin levels Question17. A female neonate has been in respiratory distress since delivery and is unresponsive to oxygen therapy. Endoscopy has confirmed a diagnosis of esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula (EA/TEF). Which of the following explanations should the care team provide to the infant's parents? (Points : 0.4) “We will have to perform surgery to correct the hole in her throat to make sure that she is able to swallow and breathe normally.” “This problem will require respiratory therapy and supplementary feeding, but it will likely resolve itself over time.” “The biggest risk that will face your daughter until this is fixed is the danger of malnutrition and dehydration.” “The priority in our immediate treatment prior to her surgery will be pain management, as the contents of her stomach can burn her lungs.” Question 18. A gastroenterologist is teaching a group of nurse practitioner students about the enteric nervous system in preparation for a consultation on a patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury. Which of the physician's teaching points is most accurate? (Points : 0.4) “The myenteric plexus is responsible for controlling the function of each segment of the intestinal tract.” “The enteric nervous system is made up of the myenteric and submucosal plexuses; these are located in the wall of the GI tract.” “Sympathetic innervation of much of the GI tract occurs by way of the vagus nerve.” “Parasympathetic stimulation blocks the release of the excitatory neuromediators and inhibits GI motility.” Question19. The mother of a 19-week-old infant has brought her baby to a nurse practitioner for assessment because of the baby's persistent weight loss and diarrhea. An intestinal biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of celiac disease, and the child's mother is anxious to know what caused the disease. Which of the following aspects of the etiology of celiac disease would underlie the explanation that the nurse practitioner provides? (Points : 0.4) Bacterial or chemical invasion of the peritoneum leads to decreased nutrient absorption and transport. An inappropriate T-cell mediated response results in increased levels of antibodies and an inflammatory response. Neurogenic or muscular inhibition of peristalsis results in inappropriate motility of ingested food in the lower small intestine and the colon. Inability to process or absorb the fat content of breast milk results in malnutrition and deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins. Question20. A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her? (Points : 0.4) Lamivudine Peginterferon and ribavirin Interferon-alfa-2b Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs Question21. After several months of persistent heartburn, a 57-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following treatment regimens is likely to best address the woman's health problem? (Points : 0.4) Surgical correction of the incompetent pylorus Antacids, avoiding positions that exacerbate reflux, and a soft-textured diet Weight loss and administration of calcium channel blocking medications Proton pump inhibitors, avoiding large meals, and remaining upright after meals Question22. A 43-year-old male who is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 216 pounds has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse be most justified in rejecting? (Points : 0.4) Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. The patient faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia. He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors. The patient is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health. Question 23. David has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. Which of the following lab tests would you expect to be decreased? (Points : 0.4) Sedimenatation rate Liver enzyme levels Vitamins A, B complex and C levels Bilirubin level Question24. A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a BMI of 33.2. Which of the following health problems is the patient at a significantly increased risk for compared with individuals with a BMI below 25? (Points : 0.4) Cardiac arrhythmias Osteoarthritis Multiple sclerosis Atelectasis Gallbladder disease Insulin resistance Question25. Which of the following patients on a hospital medical unit is most clearly demonstrating the signs and symptoms of liver failure?(Points : 0.4) A 44-year-old man with low hemoglobin levels, low platelet levels, and spider angiomas A 50-year-old woman with blood pressure of 189/103, jaundice, and multiple thrombosis A 68-year-old female patient with sudden onset of confusion, a history of alcohol abuse, and low levels of serum AST and ALT A 55-year-old man with ascites, fever, and recent onset of atrial fibrillation [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 7 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 7 Quiz / MN551 Week 7 Quiz / MN 551 Week 7 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 7 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 7 Quiz / MN551 Week 7 Quiz / MN 551 Week 7 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN55... [Show More] 1 Unit 7 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 7 Quiz/ MN551 Week 7 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 7 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University Question 1. 1. Following a long history of fatigue, weakness, and poor appetite, a 39-year-old male has been diagnosed with hypopituitarism. Which of the following clinical findings would most likely cause his care team to suspect that the man has an additional endocrine disorder from a different source? (Points : 2) The man has a low sperm count and has been unable to have children. The man has a chronic platelet deficiency and is occasionally anemic. The patient is 5 feet 2 inches tall and was consistently short for his age as a child. The man displays the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. Question 2. 2. A 79-year-old male resident of a long-term care facility has contracted Clostridium difficile and is experiencing consequent diarrhea. Auscultation of the man's abdomen indicates hyperactive bowel sounds. What processes in the man's small intestine are most likely accompanying his current status? (Points : 2) Pathogenic microorganisms are causing dilation of his small intestine, increasing motility. Segmentation waves have become more frequent as a result of his infection. Intestinal stasis brought on by infection is preventing his small intestine from sufficiently slowing the rate of motility. Inflammation is accompanied by an increase in peristaltic movements of his small intestine. Question 3. 3. A 51-year-old male professional is in the habit of consuming six to eight rum and cokes each evening after work. He assures the nurse practitioner, who is performing his regular physical exam, that his drinking is under control and does not have negative implications for his work or family life. How could the nurse best respond to the patient's statement? (Points : 2) “You are more than likely inflicting damage on your liver, but this damage would cease as soon as you quit drinking. “That may be the case, but you are still creating a high risk of hepatitis A or B or liver cancer.” “In spite of that, the amount of alcohol you are drinking is likely to result first in cirrhosis and, if you continue, in hepatitis or fatty liver changes.” “When your body has to regularly break down that much alcohol, your blood and the functional cells in your liver accumulate a lot of potentially damaging toxic byproducts.” Question 4. 4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's following questions is least likely to yield data that will allow for a confirmation or ruling out of migraines as the cause of his problem? (Points : 2) “Does your son have a family history of migraines?” “When your son has a headache, does he ever have nausea and vomiting as well?” “Does your son have any food allergies that have been identified?” “Is your son generally pain free during the intervals between headaches?” Question 5. 5. A 51-year-old woman who has been receiving estrogen and progesterone therapy (EPT) for the last 5 years has visited her care provider because her peers have told her about the risks of heart disease, stroke, and breast cancer that could accompany hormone therapy (HT). How should her care provider respond to her concerns? (Points : 2) “There is a demonstrable increase in breast cancer risk with HT, but the risk of stroke or heart disease actually goes down slightly.” “All things considered, the benefits of HT outweigh the slightly increased risks of heart disease, stroke, or breast cancer.” “HT is actually associated with a decrease in heart disease risk, but there is an increase in stroke risk; the breast cancer connection is still unclear.” “There's in fact a slight protective effect against stroke associated with HT, but this is partially offset by increased rates of heart disease and breast cancer.” Question 6. 6. Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect? (Points : 2) Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands Suppression of cholecystokinin Inflammation of the parotid glands Question 7. 7. Following a motor vehicle accident three months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents? (Points : 2) “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.” “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.” “If you or the care team notice any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan. “Your daughter's condition is an unfortunate combination of total loss of consciousness with continuation of all other normal brain functions.” Question 8. 8. A 13-year-old female is undergoing rapid development of her breasts after experiencing menarche several months ago. Which of the following hormones are NOT active in the development of her breasts? (Points : 2) Prolactin Oxytocin Estrogen Follicle-stimulating hormone Progesterone Question 9. 9. After surviving an ischemic stroke, a 79-year-old male has demonstrated significant changes in his emotional behavior, with his family noting that he now experiences wide mood swings and exaggerated responses of empathy, anger, and sadness to situations. His care team would most likely attribute these responses to ischemic changes in which of the following brain structures?(Points : 2) The man's occipital lobe The patient's temporal lobe in general and Wernicke area in particular The man's parietal lobe The components of the patient's limbic system Question 10. 10. A 29-year-old woman has been trying for many months to become pregnant, and fertilization has just occurred following her most recent ovulation. What process will now occur that will differentiate this ovulatory cycle from those prior? (Points : 2) Human chorionic gonadotropin will be produced, preventing luteal regression. The remaining primary follicles will provide hormonal support for the first 3 months of pregnancy. The corpus luteum will atrophy and be replaced by corpus albicans. The basal layer of the endometrium will be sloughed in preparation for implantation. Question 11. 11. A patient with a history of an endocrine disorder exhibits signs and symptoms of hormone deficiency. Which of the following processes would the patient's care team most likely rule out first as a contributing factor? (Points : 2) The patient's target cells lack sufficient receptors for the hormone in question. Hormone production is sufficient, but affinity on the part of the target cells is lacking. The process of down-regulation has resulted in decreased hormone sensitivity. Up-regulation has increased the sensitivity of the body to particular hormone levels. Question 12. 12. John presents to the clinic with complaints of scrotal heaviness. Your assessment reveals swelling of the testicle and warm scrotal skin. What would your diagnosis be? (Points : 2) Cryptorchidism Orchitis Testicular torsion Epididymitis Question 13. 13. The parents of a 15-year-old boy are frustrated by his persistent inability to fall asleep at a reasonable hour at night, as well as the extreme difficulty that they have in rousing him in the morning. While sleepy after waking, the son claims not to feel drowsy after lunch or in the evening. What is the most likely classification of the boy's sleep disorder? (Points : 2) Delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS) Non–24-hour sleep–wake syndrome Advanced sleep phase syndrome (ASPS) Chronic insomnia Question 14. 14. Following the identification of low levels of T3 and T4 coupled with the presence of a goiter, a 28-year-old female has been diagnosed with Hashimoto thyroiditis. In light of this diagnosis, which of the following assessment results would constitute an unexpected finding? (Points : 2) The presence of myxedema in the woman's face and extremities Recent weight gain despite a loss of appetite and chronic fatigue Coarse, dry skin and hair with decreased sweat production Increased white cell count and audible crackles on chest auscultation Question 15. 15. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which of the following components of his white matter has most likely been damaged? (Points : 2) The inner layer (archilayer) The middle layer (paleolayer) The outer layer (neolayer) The reticular formation Question 16. 16. An 11-year-old boy with skin lesions characteristic of ringworm on his trunk has been brought to the family's primary care provider by his mother. Which of the following aspects of the clinician's assessment relates most directly to the suspected diagnosis? (Points : 2) Previous infection with other parasitic worms Potential contact with the fungus from pets or other children Allergic reactions to drugs and environmental substances The child's infanthood immunization history Question 17. 17. Which of the following women is most likely to have a sexually transmitted infection as a contributing factor to her health problem? (Points : 2) A 29-year-old woman with a diagnosis of localized vulvodynia A 40-year-old who is being treated for vaginal cancer A 32-year-old who is undergoing diagnostics to rule out endometriosis A 41-year-old with a diagnosis of mucopurulent cervicitis Question 18. 18. Having heard positive reports of the benefits of HT from her sister-in-law and friends, a 49-year-old woman has presented to her nurse practitioner asking to start HT. Her uterus is intact and previous bone scans have indicated low bone density. The patient also has a family history of heart disease. She characterizes her symptoms of menopause as “noticeable, but not debilitating by any means.” Based on the most current research, what is her nurse practitioner's best course of action? (Points : 2) Begin estrogen-progesterone HT (EPT) to prevent future menopausal symptoms and coronary heart disease (CHD) Forgo HT in light of her preexisting low bone density and consequent risk of osteoporosis Forgo HT but consider alternative therapies and reevaluate if her symptoms significantly affect her quality of life Begin low-dose HT but perform regular breast cancer screening and heart health checks Question 19. 19. A 41-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having a loose body of cartilage in her left knee. What data would be most likely to lead clinicians to this conclusion? (Points : 2) A visible hematoma is present on the anterior portion of the knee. The woman experiences intermittent, painful locking of her joint. Computed tomography indicates a complete tear of her knee ligament. An X-ray shows that her femoral head and tibia are no longer articulated. Question 20. 20. Which of the following situations would be considered pathologic in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old female? (Points : 2) The woman's ovaries are not producing new ova. The woman's ovaries do not synthesize or secrete luteinizing hormone (LH). The epithelium covering the woman's ovaries is broken during the time of ovulation. The woman's ovaries are not producing progesterone. Question 21. 21. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a 68-year-old female whose anxiety disorder is significantly decreasing her quality of life. Which of the following pharmacologic therapies is most likely to benefit the woman? (Points : 2) A drug that influences gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) An antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors An epinephrine and norepinephrine supplement Question 22. 22. Following exposure to poison oak while camping, a 20-year-old male is experiencing pruritus as a consequence of his immune response to irritants in the plant. What physiologic process best accounts for his complaint? (Points : 2) His body is communicating a low-level pain response as a protective measure. Free nerve endings are initiating an itch-specific signal to the somatosensory cortex. Local irritation of Langerhans cells is sending signals by way of myelinated type C nerve fibers. Ruffini corpuscles are transmitting the message of pruritis to the cerebral cortex. Question 23. 23. A care aide at a long-term care facility has informed a resident's nurse practitioner that the 80-year-old woman's eyes appear to be inflamed and her eyelids are caked with sticky secretions. The woman subsequently has been diagnosed with posterior blepharitis. Which of the following treatments is the nurse practitioner likely to initiate? (Points : 2) Surgical repair of the woman's blocked meibomian glands Warm compresses to be applied regularly to her eyes in addition to oral antibiotics Regularly scheduled cleansing of the woman's eyes with normal saline Intravenous steroids coupled with topical antibiotic ointment Question 24. 24. Which of the following conditions usually improves when a woman is taking oral contraceptives? (Points : 2) Human Papillomavirus infection Migraine headaches Iron deficiency anemia Herpes simplex virus Question 25. 25. Which of the following patients on a hospital medical unit is most clearly demonstrating the signs and symptoms of liver failure? (Points : 2) A 44-year-old man with low hemoglobin levels, low platelet levels, and spider angiomas A 50-year-old woman with blood pressure of 189/103, jaundice, and multiple thromboses A 68-year-old female patient with sudden onset of confusion, a history of alcohol abuse, and low levels of serum AST and ALT A 55-year-old man with ascites, fever, and recent onset of atrial fibrillation Question 26. 26. A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with otosclerosis after several years of progressive hearing loss. What pathophysiologic process has characterized her diagnosis? (Points : 2) New, sclerotic bone has been formed around her stapes and oval window. Her incus, malleus, and stapes have become disconnected from her normal neural pathways. Her temporal bone is experiencing unusually rapid resorption. Her tympanic cavity is becoming filled with bone due to inappropriate osteogenesis. Question 27. 27. What is stiffness or fixation of a joint called? (Points : 2) Contracture Ankylosis Dislocation Subluxation Question 28. 28. The father of an 18-month-old girl noticed a small vesicle on her face several days ago. The lesion ruptured and left a straw-colored crust that remained on the girl's face. The eruption of new vesicles has prompted him to bring the child to the emergency department. Which of the following treatments for the child's skin problem is most likely? (Points : 2) A topical antifungal ointment An oral corticosteroid An antiviral ointment A topical antibiotic Question 29. 29. A stroke affecting which of the following areas of the brain would be most likely to leave an individual's vestibular system intact and posture and balance maintained? (Points : 2) The brain stem The thalamus The temporal and parietal cortex The limbic system of the cerebrum Question 30. 30. Long, stretchy cervical mucus that exhibits ferning on a microscope slide is characteristic of which of the following? (Points : 2) High LH levels Low estrogen levels High progesterone levels Low human chorionic gonadotropin levels Question 31. 31. During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system has the highest level of control over her arm and hand action? (Points : 2) Cerebelum Thalamus Basal ganglia Frontal lobe Question 32. 32. A 40-year-old woman has been found to have a deficiency in estrogen. Which of the following physiological phenomena is most likely to remain unaffected? (Points : 2) Parathyroid hormone antagonism and the rate of bone resorption The regulation of uterine endothelial development The maintenance of normal skin and blood vessel structure The synthesis and release of adrenal glucocorticoids Question 33. 33. A 24-year-old woman has presented to an inner-city free clinic because of the copious, foul vaginal discharge that she has had in recent days. Microscopy has confirmed the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the woman's most likely treatment and prognosis? (Points : 2) Abstinence will be required until the infection resolves, since treatments do not yet have proven efficacy. Oral antibiotics can prevent complications such as infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. Antifungal medications are effective against the anovulation and risk of HIV that accompany the infection. Vaginal suppositories and topical ointments can provide symptom relief but cannot eradicate the microorganism. Question 34. 34. As part of the diagnostic workup for a patient's long-standing vertigo, a clinician wants to gauge the patient's eye movements. Which of the following tests is the clinician most likely to utilize? (Points : 2) Romberg test Rotational tests Electronystagmography (ENG) Caloric stimulation Question 35. 35. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a male patient with a long-standing hiatal hernia. Which of the following statements most accurately captures an aspect of the pathophysiology of hiatal hernias? (Points : 2) Paraesophageal hiatal hernias are common and are normally not treated if the patient is asymptomatic. The root causes of hiatal hernias are normally treatable with medication. If esophageal acid clearance is impaired, esophagitis can result. An incompetent pyloric sphincter and high fat diet are commonly implicated in the development of hiatal hernias. Question 36. 36. A patient with a diagnosis of insomnia is surprised when his physician explains to him that his brain is still highly active during normal sleep. Which of the following statements best captures the character of brain activity during sleep? (Points : 2) “Fewer neurons in your brain are firing when you're asleep, but they're more synchronized than when you're awake.” “While you're obviously less aware of stimuli when you're asleep, your brain is actually more active when you're asleep than when you're awake.” “There are four types of brain activity, and actually all of them occur at different stages of sleep.” “Your brain alternates between periods of activity and periods of inactivity when you're asleep, and these correspond to your eye movement.” Question 37. 37. While being tackled, a 20-year-old football player put out his hand to break his fall to the ground. Because the intense pain in his wrist did not subside by the end of the game, he was brought to an emergency department where diagnostic imaging indicated an incomplete tear of the ligament surrounding his wrist joint. At the time of admission, his wrist was swollen and had a severely restricted range of motion. What will his care team most likely tell the player about his diagnosis and treatment? (Points : 2) “This strain will likely resolve itself with sufficient rest.” “You've suffered a severe sprain and you might need a cast.” “Your wrist contusion will have to be observed for bleeding under the skin surface.” “It looks like a mild to moderate sprain and you'll need to keep it immobilized for a few weeks.” Question 38. 38. A 71-year-old male has been recently diagnosed with a stage III tumor of colorectal cancer and is attempting to increase his knowledge about his diagnosis. Which of the following statements about colorectal cancer demonstrates a sound understanding of the disease? (Points : 2) “If accurate screening tests for this type of cancer existed, it could likely have been caught earlier.” “The NSAIDs and aspirin that I've been taking for many years probably contributed to my getting cancer.” “While diet is thought to play a role in the development of colorectal cancer, the ultimate causes are largely unknown.” “A large majority of patients who have my type of colon cancer survive to live many more years.” Question 39. 39. As a result of oral ingestion of the microorganisms, an individual has contracted H. pylori. Which of the following health problems is the individual now at increased risk for? (Points : 2) Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) Gastric adenocarcinoma Gastric atrophy Peptic ulcer Esophagitis Diverticular disease Question 40. 40. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of normal spermatogenesis? (Points : 2) Testosterone chemically lyses each primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each. Sertoli cells differentiate into spermatids, each of which can contribute half of the chromosomes necessary for reproduction. Spermatogonia adjacent to the tubular wall undergo meiotic division and provide a continuous source of new germinal cells. Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two nuclear divisions, yielding four cells with 23 chromosomes each. Question 41. 41. David has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. Which of the following lab tests would you expect to be decreased? (Points : 2) Sedimenatation rate Liver enzyme levels Vitamins A, B complex and C levels Bilirubin level Question 42. 42. Which of the following patients is most clearly displaying the signs and symptoms of IBD? (Points : 2) A 32-year-old mother who complains of intermittent abdominal pain that persists even after defecation. A 51-year-old male who states that his stomach pain is in his lower abdomen, “comes and goes,” and “feels more like a cramp than a dull ache.” A 44-year-old man who is under great financial stress and who states that his lower abdominal pain is much worse at night than during the day. A 24-year-old man who has a stressful job but whose diarrhea and cramping do not worsen during periods of high stress. Question 43. 43. The mother of a 19-week-old infant has brought her baby to a nurse practitioner for assessment because of the baby's persistent weight loss and diarrhea. An intestinal biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of celiac disease, and the child's mother is anxious to know what caused the disease. Which of the following aspects of the etiology of celiac disease would underlie the explanation that the nurse practitioner provides? (Points : 2) Bacterial or chemical invasion of the peritoneum leads to decreased nutrient absorption and transport. An inappropriate T-cell mediated response results in increased levels of antibodies and an inflammatory response. Neurogenic or muscular inhibition of peristalsis results in inappropriate motility of ingested food in the lower small intestine and the colon. Inability to process or absorb the fat content of breast milk results in malnutrition and deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins. Question 44. 44. Which of the following individuals is likely to have the highest risk of developing tuberculosis osteomyelitis? (Points : 2) A 55-year-old female who is in renal failure secondary to poorly controlled type 1 diabetes A 79-year-old man who is immunocompromised following a bone marrow transplant A 30-year-old man who has undergone open reduction and internal fixation of his fractured tibia A 68-year-old woman who had a laminectomy 4 days prior for treatment of her chronic back pain Question 45. 45. While on tour, a 32-year-old male musician has presented to the emergency department of a hospital after a concert complaining of severe and sudden abdominal pain. He admits to a history of copious alcohol use in recent years, and his vital signs include a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure of 89/48 mm Hg, and heart rate of 116 beats per minute. Blood work indicates that his serum levels of C-reactive protein, amylase, and lipase are all elevated. Which of the following diagnoses would the care team first suspect? (Points : 2) Hepatitis C Cholecystitis Liver cirrhosis Acute pancreatitis MN551 Unit 7 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 7 Quiz/ MN551 Week 7 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 7 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University Question 1. A 4-year-old boy has had otitis media with effusion (OME) for several weeks and his condition has recently progressed to acute otitis media (AOM). Which of the following factors could have contributed to his AOM? Reflux of fluid from the boy's nose into his middle ear A deficiency in immunoglobulin G Accumulation of cerumen in the external acoustic meatus Sensorineural deficits in the auditory control apparatus Question 2. Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis? The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are part of the sympathetic nervous system. The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the adrenal glands. Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function. Question 3. A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with otosclerosis after several years of progressive hearing loss. What pathophysiologic process has characterized her diagnosis? New, sclerotic / spongy bone has been formed around her stapes and oval window. Her incus, malleus, and stapes have become disconnected from her normal neural pathways. Her temporal bone is experiencing unusually rapid resorption. Her tympanic cavity is becoming filled with bone due to inappropriate osteogenesis. Question 4. A three-year-old girl has just been diagnosed with type 1A diabetes and her parents are currently receiving education from the diabetes education nurse at the hospital where their daughter is receiving treatment. How can the nurse best explain the etiology of their daughter's health problem to her parents? “The problem that underlies her diabetes is that her own body has destroyed the cells in her pancreas that produce insulin.” “It's not known exactly why your daughter has completely stopped making insulin, and treatment will consist of your rigidly controlling her diet.” “This tendency to produce insufficient amounts of insulin is likely something that she inherited.” “Environmental and lifestyle factors are known to play a part in the fact that her pancreas secretes and withholds insulin at the wrong times.” Question 5. An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of GH. Which of the following teaching points about the patient's future health risks is most accurate? “It's not unusual for unusually high GH levels to cause damage to your hypothalamus.” “GH excess inhibits your pancreas from producing enough insulin.” “The high levels of GH that circulate in your body can result in damage to your liver.” “When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there's a real risk that you'll develop some sight deficiencies. Question 6. Following a long history of fatigue, weakness, and poor appetite, a 39-year-old male has been diagnosed with hypopituitarism. Which of the following clinical findings would most likely cause his care team to suspect that the man has an additional endocrine disorder from a different source? The man has a low sperm count and has been unable to have children. The man has a chronic platelet deficiency and is occasionally anemic.. The patient is 5 feet 2 inches tall and was consistently short for his age as a child. The man displays the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism. Question 7. Which of the following questions is most likely to be clinically useful in the differential diagnosis of sensorineural versus conductive hearing loss? “What medications do you currently take?” “What effect is this hearing loss having on your quality of life?” “Has your hearing loss developed quickly or more slowly?” “Do you ever hear a persistent ringing in your ears?” Question 8. As part of the diagnostic workup for a patient's long-standing vertigo, a clinician wants to gauge the patient's eye movements. Which of the following tests is the clinician most likely to utilize? Romberg test Rotational tests Electronystagmography (ENG Caloric stimulation Question 9. A 51-year-old woman has been experiencing signs and symptoms of perimenopause and has sought help from her nurse practitioner. Doctors have confirmed a deficiency in estrogen levels as a contributing factor. Which of the following phenomena could potentially underlie the woman's health problem? Sufficient synthesis of estrogen but inadequate vesicle-mediated release Inadequate synthesis in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of her ovarian cells Insufficient estrogen production within the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the relevant cells A lack of prohormone precursors needed for estrogen synthesis and release Question 10. A woman with a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been ordered by her primary care provider to have a hemoglobin A1C test for the first time. The woman states, “I don't see why you want to test my blood cells when it's sugar that's the problem.” What aspect of physiology will underlie the care provider's response to the patient? The amount of glucose attached to A1C cells reflects the average blood glucose levels over the life of the cell. Hemoglobin synthesis by the bone marrow is inversely proportionate to blood glucose levels, with low A1C indicating hyperglycemia. The high metabolic needs of red cells and their affinity for free glucose indicate the amount of glucose that has been available over 6 to 12 weeks. Insulin is a glucose receptor agonist on the hemoglobin molecule, and high glucose suggests low insulin levels. Question 11. A 46-year-old male has presented to the emergency department because of the eye pain, severe headache, and blurred vision that have followed an eye exam at an optometrist's office earlier in the day. The patient tells the triage nurse that he received eyedrops during the exam “to keep my pupils wide open.” What differential diagnosis will the care team first suspect? Infectious conjunctivitis Keratitis Corneal trauma Angle-closure glaucoma Question 12. A 28-year-old male who is 6 feet 11 inches tall has a diagnosis of acromegaly. The man is explaining to a curious but sympathetic coworker exactly what accounts for his extraordinary height. Which of the following explanations demonstrates a sound understanding of his health problem? “My pituitary gland produced a much higher than normal amount of growth hormone when I was a child.” “A tumor in my brain threw off my hormone levels after I was finished with adolescence.” “My liver is malfunctioning and produces too many of the hormones that ultimately cause growth.” T“The high sugar levels that go along with my diabetes made my pituitary gland overproduce the hormones that cause you to grow.” Question 13. A stroke affecting which of the following areas of the brain would be most likely to leave an individual's vestibular system intact and posture and balance maintained? The brain stem The thalamus The temporal and parietal cortex The limbic system of the cerebrum Question14. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the role of hormones in the body? Some chemical substances can function as either hormones or neurotransmitters. Hormones directly initiate many of the processes that contribute to homeostasis. Control of body processes is ensured by the fact that a single hormone can only exert one effect on one specific system or tissue. Each hormone that exists in the body is produced by only one specific endocrine gland. Question15. A 60-year-old man has presented to his nurse practitioner because of an earache that has become progressively more painful in recent days. After giving his history and having an examination with an otoscope, the man has been diagnosed with otitis externa. Which of the nurse practitioner's following statements to the man is most accurate? “You'll need to avoid getting any water in your ear until you finish your course of antibiotic pills.” “I'm going to instill some warm water into your ear to flush out debris and bacteria.” “I'll prescribe some ear drops for you, and in the meantime it's important not to use ear swabs.” “This likely happened because your ears aren't draining like they should, but antibiotics that you'll put in your ears will resolve this.” Question 16. A 30-year-old man with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes is aware of the multiple effects that insulin has on his metabolism. Which of the following physiological processes are actions of insulin? Decreasing glucose transport to skeletal muscles Promoting the breakdown of stored triglycerides Facilitating triglycerides from glucose in fat cells Inhibiting protein breakdown Promoting glucose uptake by target cells Question 17. During descent, an airplane passenger is complaining that his “ears are plugged.” What aspect of the structure and function of the ear best accounts for the passenger's complaint? The inner ear adjusts its volume in response to atmospheric pressure, increasing during low pressure and decreasing in high pressure. The eustachian tubes must remain patent to equalize pressure between the middle ear and inner ear. The tympanic membrane is selectively permeable in order to accommodate pressure changes and this capacity is often impaired during upper respiratory infections. Air must be able to flow between the middle ear and the nasopharynx in order to accommodate pressure changes. Queston 18 A patient with a new diagnosis of an endocrine disorder is unclear about how the body can control the levels of different hormones over time. Which of the following statements most accurately underlies the dominant regulation process of hormone levels in the body? A) A positive feedback cycle ensures that stable levels of hormones exist in the body over time. B) With input from various sensors, hormone production and release are adjusted based on existing hormone levels. C) The hypothalamus ensures that hormone levels correspond accurately to the diurnal cycle. D) The pituitary gland is genetically programmed to stimulate and inhibit hormone production and/or release based on needs at different points in the life cycle Queston 19 .A 21-year-old female is suspected of having inadequate function of her hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid system. Her care provider is planning to inject thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and then measure her levels of TSH. Which of the following diagnostic tests is being performed? A)Suppression test B)Radioimmunoassay (RIA) test C)Stimulation test D)Metabolite excretion test Queston 20 Following a meal, a woman's blood glucose level has increased. In addition, her pancreas has increased the amount of insulin produced and released. Which of the following phenomena has occurred? A)Increased hormone level according to a negative feedback mechanism B)Adjustment according to the level of the substance a hormone regulates C)Hormone production and release via the positive feedback cycle D)Hypothalamic–pituitary control of hormone levels Queston 21 Whichof the following statements best captures the relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland as it relates to endocrine function? A)The hypothalamus directly measures the levels of most hormones throughout the body and inhibits or stimulates the pituitary accordingly. B)The pituitary gland coordinates and dictates the release of hormones from the hypothalamus that act on their intended target cells. C) The pituitary gland and hypothalamus have two-way communication that mediates the signals from neuronal inputs. D)The hypothalamus receives input from numerous sources throughout the body and directs the pituitary to then control many target glands and cells. Queston 22 An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of growth hormone (GH). Which of the following teaching points about the client's future health risks is most accurate? A)“It's not unusual for high GH levels to cause damage to your hypothalamus.” B)“GH excess inhibits your pancreas from producing enough insulin.” C)“The high levels of GH that circulate in your body can result in damage to your liver.” D)“When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there's a real risk that you'll develop some sight deficiencies.” Queston 23 . A three-year-old girl has just been diagnosed with type 1A diabetes and her parents are currently receiving education from the diabetes education nurse at the hospital where their daughter is receiving treatment. How can the nurse best explain the etiology of their daughter's health problem to her parents? "The problem that underlies her diabetes is that her own body has destroyed the cells in her pancreas that produce insulin." "It's not known exactly why your daughter has completely stopped making insulin, and treatment will consist of your rigidly controlling her diet." "This tendency to produce insufficient amounts of insulin is likely something that she inherited." "Environmental and lifestyle factors are known to play a part in the fact that her pancreas secretes and withholds insulin at the wrong times." Question 24. A 60-year-old man has presented to his nurse practitioner because of an earache that has become progressively more painful in recent days. After giving his history and having an examination with an otoscope, the man has been diagnosed with otitis externa. Which of the nurse practitioner's following statements to the man is most accurate? "You'll need to avoid getting any water in your ear until you finish your course of antibiotic pills." "I'm going to instill some warm water into your ear to flush out debris and bacteria." "I'll prescribe some ear drops for you, and in the meantime it's important not to use ear swabs." "This likely happened because your ears aren't draining like they should, but antibiotics that you'll put in your ears will resolve this." Question 25. A patient with a new diagnosis of an endocrine disorder is unclear about how the body can control the levels of different hormones over time. Which of the following statements most accurately underlies the dominant regulation process of hormone levels in the body? A positive feedback cycle ensures that stable levels of hormones exist in the body over time. With input from various sensors, hormone production and release are adjusted based on existing hormone levels. The hypothalamus ensures that hormone levels correspond accurately to the diurnal cycle. The pituitary gland is genetically programmed to stimulate and inhibit hormone production and/or release based on needs at different points in the life cycle. Question 26. What does a high level of thyroid-stimulating hormone indicate? Hypothyroidism Myxedema Hyperthyroidism Thyroid nodule [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 8 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 8 Quiz / MN551 Week 8 Quiz / MN 551 Week 8 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 8 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 8 Quiz / MN551 Week 8 Quiz / MN 551 Week 8 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN55... [Show More] 1 Unit 8 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 8 Quiz/ MN551 Week 8 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 8 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University Question 1.A 40-year-old woman has been found to have a deficiency in estrogen. Which of the following physiological phenomena is most likely to remain unaffected? Parathyroid hormone antagonism and the rate of bone resorption The regulation of uterine endothelial development The maintenance of normal skin and blood vessel structure The synthesis and release of adrenal glucocorticoid Question 2.During a group prenatal class, the nurse teaching the course is explaining the thinning of the cervix that accompanies the stages of labor leading up to delivery? A participant admits that she is not familiar with either the location or normal role of the cervix. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? "Your cervix is just the term for the lowest part of your uterus, and it is tightly shut at all times except in woman who are giving birth." "The cervix is the opening between the uterus and the vagina, and so it opens wide during the lead-up to birth." "Your cervix is the part of your uterus where the fallopian tubes join in and the baby has to pass through it to the vagina." "The cervix is the soft lining of your uterus that has to expand greatly to accommodate your baby during delivery." Question 3.A 14-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by his mother in excruciating pain that is radiating from his scrotum to his inguinal area. The boy's heart rate is 122 beats/minute, and he has vomited twice before arrival at the hospital. Examination reveals that his scrotum is reddened and slightly swollen, and the testes are firm to touch and tender, with extensive cremaster muscle contraction noted. What is the boy's most likely diagnosis? Epididymitis Hydrocele Testicular torsion Varicocele Question 4.A 40-year-old male patient with multiple health problems has been diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency. Which of the following - he nurse knows that which of the following assessment findings would correlate with a testosterone deficiency? Select all that apply. A high-pitched voice Long-lasting chronic hip dysplasia Complaints of multiple upper respiratory infections A low muscle mass in proportion to his total body weight Hot flashes and diaphoresis Question 5.A long stretchy cervical mucus that exhibits ferning on a microscope slide is characteristic of which of the following? High LH levels Low estrogen levels High progesterone levels Low human chorionic gonadotropin level Question 6.A 29-year-old woman has been trying for many months to become pregnant, and fertilization has just occurred.Following her most recent ovulation. What process will nowoccur that will differentiate this ovulatory cycle from those prior? Human chorionic gonadotropin will be produced, preventing luteal regression. The remaining primary follicles will provide hormonal support for the first 3 months of pregnancy. The corpus luteum will atrophy and be replaced by corpus albicans. The basal layer of the endometrium will be sloughed in preparation for implantation Question 7.After a long and frustrating course of constant vaginal pain, a 38-year old woman has been diagnosed with generalized vulvodynia by her gynecologist. What treatment plan is her physician most likely to propose? Alternative herbal therapies coupled with antifungal medications Antidepressant and antiepileptic medications Lifestyle modifications aimed at accommodating and managing neuropathic pain Narcotic analgesia and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication Question 8. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of normal spermatogenesis? Testosterone chemically lyses each primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each. Sertoli cells differentiate into spermatids, each of which can contribute half of the chromosomes necessary for reproduction. Spermatogonia adjacent to the tubular wall undergo meiotic division and provide a continuous source of new germinal cells. Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two nuclear divisions yielding four cells with 23 chromosomes each. Question 9.A couple that has three daughters would like to add a son to their family, and they have recently learned that the woman is pregnant. Which of the following phenomena would most likely be associated with the woman's eventual delivery of a healthy son? The production of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by the embryo and DHT's differentiation into testosterone Development of testes under the influence of the X chromosome Suppression of female reproductive structures by antimullerian hormone (AMH) Atrophy of the Wolffian ducts during embryonic development Question 10.Which of the following situations would be considered pathologic in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old female? The woman's ovaries are not producing new ova. The woman's ovaries do not synthesize or secrete luteinizing hormone (LH). The epithelium covering the woman's ovaries is broken during the time of ovulation. The woman's ovaries are not producing progesterone. Question 11.A 20-year-old male has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection, and his primary care provider is performing teaching in an effort to prevent the client from infectingothers in the future. Which of the following statements by the client demonstrates the best understanding of his health problem? "Either me or a partner could end up with an eye infection from chlamydia that could make us blind." "Even though I couldn't end up sterile, a woman that I give it to certainly could." "Each of the three stages of the disease seems to be worse than the previous one." "Even if I spread it to someone else, there's a good chance she won't have any symptoms or know she has it." Question 12. A 66-year-old man has presented to a nurse practitioner to get a refill for his antiplatelet medication. The patient has a history of ischemia heart disease and suffered a myocardial infarction 5 years ago and has unstable angina; he uses a transdermal nitroglycerin patch to control his angina. The client has a 40 pack-year smoking history and uses nebulized bronchodilators at home for the treatment of transient shortness of breath. He has long-standing hypertension that is treated with a potassium-sparing diuretic and a β-adrenergic-blocking medication. During the nurse's assessment, the man states that he has been unable to maintain his erection in recent months. Which of the following aspects of the man's health problems and treatments would the nurse identify as NOT contributing to his erectile difficulty (ED)? antihypertensive medications use of bronchodilators hypertension diuretic use smoking history age Question 13.Which of the following sexually active women most likely faces the highest risk ofdeveloping an ectopic pregnancy? A 14-year-old who experienced menarche 2 years prior. A 42-year-old who has decided to try to have one more child and has had her tubal ligation reversed A 27-year-old who stopped using medroxyprogesterone contraceptive injection (Depo-Provera) several months ago. A 22-year-old who has a history of anorexia nervosa and who has a body mass index (BMI) of 12.0 (normal weight = 18.5 to 24.9). Question 14.A 57-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis has expressed her surprise to her care provider citing a lifetime largely free of gynecological health problems. She has asked what may have contributed to her problem. How can the care provider best respond? “The lower levels of estrogen since you've begun menopause make your vagina prone to infection.” “Vaginitis is not usually the direct result of any single problem, but rather an inevitability of the vaginal dryness that accompanies menopause.” “This type of vaginitis is most commonly a symptom of a latent sexually transmitted infection that you may have contracted in the distant past.” “The exact cause of this problem isn't known, but it can usually be resolved with a diet high in probiotic bacteria. Question 15. Which of the following factors areknown to contribute to vaginal yeast infections? Inflammation of the Skene and Bartholin glands Poorly controlled diabetes Recent antibiotic therapy Excessive physical exercise Use of oral contraceptives High hormone levels during pregnancy Question 16.A pregnant 23-year-old female with a diagnosis of herpes simplex virus (HSV) is receiving prenatal care from her nurse practitioner. To prevent transmission of the virus to her baby, the physician will educate to include which of the following accurate statements? "After your caesarean section, it will be safest if you don't breast-feed your child." "If there aren't any visible lesions when you enter labor, a vaginal delivery will be safe to go ahead with." "A vaginal delivery will be safe as long as you are consistent with taking your valacyclovir." "We'll have to book you a caesarian delivery in order to ensure your baby isn't exposed to the virus." Question 17. Following a visit to her campus medical clinic motivated by persistent abdominal pain and dyspareunia, a 20-year-old female college student has been referred for a diagnostic workup to rule out pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Her elevated white cell and C-reactive protein levels lead her care provider to suspect pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What follow-up question is most likely to help with the differential diagnosis? "Are you using tampons during your period or do you normally use pads?" "What does your daily hygiene routine usually consist of?" "How many sexual partners have you had?" "Have you ever had a therapeutic abortion in the past?" Question 18. Which of the following conditions usually improves when a woman is taking oral contraceptives? Human Papillomavirus infection Migraine headaches Iron deficiency anemia Herpes simplex virus Question 19.A 24-year-old woman has presented to an inner-city free clinic because of the copious, foul vaginal discharge that she has had in recent days. Microscopy has confirmed the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis. What are the woman's most likely treatment and prognosis? Abstinence will be required until the infection resolves, since treatments do not yet have proven efficacy. Oral antiprotozoals to the patient and sexual partners to help prevent complications. Antifungal medications are effective against the anovulation and risk of HIV that accompany the infection. Vaginal suppositories and topical ointments can provide symptom relief but cannot eradicate the microorganism. Question 20.A 60-year-old woman who is 11 years menopausal has presented to the emergency department stating “I haven’t had my period in years, but lately I've been bleeding again, and quite heavily in the last few days." The care team needs to rule out endometrial cancer. How should they best explain the most accurate plan for confirming or ruling out the diagnosis? "We're going to book a CT scan for you as soon as possible so that we can see what is inside your uterus." "We're going to have to open your cervix with a speculum and take scrapings from the wall of your uterus." "We are going to order blood work that will measure your hormone levels.” "We can do a Pap smear right now, and we will get the results as soon as we can Question 21.A 51-year-old woman who has been receiving estrogen and progesterone therapy (EPT) for the last 5 years has visited her care provider because her peers have told her about the risks of heart disease, stroke, and breast cancer that could accompany hormone therapy (HT). How should her care provider respond to her concerns? "There is a demonstrable increase in breast cancer risk with HT, but the risk of stroke or heart disease actually go down slightly." "All considered, the benefits of HT outweigh the slightly increased risks of heart disease, stroke, or breast cancer." "HT is actually associated with a decrease in heart disease risk, but there is an increase in stroke risk; the breast cancer connection is still unclear." "There's in fact a slight protective effect against stroke associated with HT, but this is partially offset by increased rates of heart disease and breast cancer." Question 22.Which of the following women is most likely to have a sexually transmitted infection as a contributing factor to her health problem? A 29-year-old woman with a diagnosis of localized vulvodynia A 40-year-old who is being treated for vaginal cancer A 32-year-old who is undergoing diagnostics to rule out endometriosis A 41-year-old with a diagnosis of mucopurulent cervicitis Question 23.A 39-year-old male patient has been recently diagnosed with primary hypogonadism. Which of the following lab results would be most indicative of this diagnosis? Normal levels of free testosterone; low levels of total testosterone Low free testosterone, luteinizing hormone (LH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels Low levels of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Low testosterone levels; high levels of LH and FSH Question 24.A newborn male has been diagnosed with hypospadias following his postpartum assessment by a nurse practitioner. Which of the following diagnostics and treatment options is the physician most likely to rule out first? Chromosomal studies Circumcision Surgical repair Testosterone supplementation Question 25. While educating a mother about the benefits of giving her child the human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine, Gardisil, which of the following statements will the nurse need to clarify for the parent? Select all that apply. The vaccine is: A) best administered before the child becomes sexually active. B) 100% effective against development of cervical cancer for her life span. C) effective against the two most common strains of genital warts. D) only recommended for females between the ages of 9 and 26. E) recommended prior to exposure to HPV, and if the child has genital warts, they are already exposed Question 26.A 28-year-old female has been told she has atypical glandular cells following Pap smear. The physician will likely recommend which procedure that can be performed in his office to remove the abnormal zone and provide a specimen for further histological evaluation? Cone biopsy Intracavitary irradiation Trachelectomy Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) Question 27.A 20-year-old male has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is seeking information about his diagnosis from a number of websites. Which of the following statements that he has read is most plausible? “Testicular cancer is a leading cause of death among males who should be in the prime of their lives.” “Men with cryptorchidism—the term for an undescended testicle—are known to have a higher risk of developing testicular cancer.” “For most men with testicular cancer, bloody urine is their first sign that something is wrong.” “Recent developments in the treatment of testicular cancer mean that few men now need to have a testicle removed.” Question 28. John presents to the clinic with complaints of scrotal heaviness. Your assessment reveals swelling of the testicle and warm scrotal skin. What would your diagnosis be? Cryptorchidism Orchitis Testicular torsion Epididymitis??? Question 29. A 13-year-old female is undergoing rapid development of her breasts after experiencing menarche several months ago. Which of the following hormones areNOT active in the development of her breasts? Prolactin Oxytocin Luteinizing hormone Estrogen Follicle-stimulating hormone Progesterone Question 30. Two nursing students are debating the merits and demerits of infant circumcision. Which of the following statements is most accurate? "Circumcised men tend to have a lower incidence of penile cancer." "Getting circumcised basically rules out the possibility of getting Peyronie disease later in life." "Circumcision reduces pressure on the deep dorsal vein and the dorsal artery, making erection easier later in life." "The odds of getting infant priapism fall with circumcision." Question 31.A 54-year-oldmale diabetic patient has come to the urology clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. His history includes obesity, coronary artery disease that required CABG 3 years ago, hypertension, and gout.The nurse practitioner is reviewing his record in order to prescribe medication. The practitioner is considering prescribing sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following home medications is contraindicated if taken concurrently with sildenafil? Diltiazem (Cardizem), a calcium channel blocker Cordarone (amiodarone), an antiarrhythmic Imdur (isosorbide mononitrate), a vasodilator Lasix (furosemide), a diuretic Question 32. A male college student has arrived at the student clinic complaining of tingling, itching, and pains in his groin.Upon inspection, the nurse notices some pustules and vesicles. While taking a detailed sexual history, the nurse should ask which of the following questions to rule out further complications? "Do you get cold sores very often?" "Do you have pain when you urinate or have difficulty starting the stream?" "Have you noticed excessive swelling in your scrotum the last few days?" "Have you been experiencing flank pain and bloody urine?" Question 33. The cremaster muscles work in concert with the pampiniform plexus that surrounds the testicular artery to move the testes into the scrotum maintain testicular temperature empty fluid from the seminal vesicles into the genital ducts move sperm from the ampulla to the penis Question 34.During a group prenatal class, the nurse teaching the course is explaining the thinning of the cervix that accompanies the stages of labor leading up to delivery.A participant admits that she is not familiar with either the location or normal role of the cervix. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? "Your cervix is just the term for the lowest part of your uterus, and it is tightly shut at all times except in woman who are giving birth." "The cervix is the opening between the uterus and the vagina, and so it opens wide during the lead-up to birth." "Your cervix is the part of your uterus where the fallopian tubes join in and the baby has to pass through it to the vagina." "The cervix is the soft lining of your uterus that has to expand greatly to accommodate your baby during delivery." Question 35.A 20-year-old female has come to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps. The clinic nurse practitioner knows that dysmenorrhea occurs when which muscle group contracts? Perimetrium Myometrium Endometrium Fundus Question 36. A 31-year-old male was diagnosed with genital herpes of the HSV-2 type 5 years ago. He is now broaching the subject with a woman he has recently formed a relationship with. Which of his statements is most accurate? "If you've been exposed to the herpes virus in the past, then there's no significant risk of reinfection." "The worst case scenario is that you'll develop cold sores, since this is the type of herpes virus that I've got." "If you've had cold sores when you were younger, it means that you've got antibodies against this type of herpes virus." "Even when I'm not having a recurrence, I could still pass the virus on to you." Question 37.A 68-year-old male has visited his family physician because the size of his scrotum has increased exponentially in recent months. He has subsequently been diagnosed with an inguinal hernia.Which of the following statements best captures the nature of his health problem? Part of his intestine and parietal peritoneum are protruding through the inguinal opening. Rupture of the tunica vaginalis has allowed a part of his small bowel to protrude into the intrascrotal space. Incomplete closure of the inguinal opening during his development has contributed to testicular hypertrophy and hyperplasia. Occlusion of the efferent ductules and epididymis causes massive dilation of the testes. Question 38. A 41-year-old male has presented to his family physician stating that for the last 2 years his erection "is as crooked as a dog's hind leg and hurts too." He has subsequently been diagnosed with Peyronie disease.Which of the following statements by his physician is most appropriate? "Even though it's obviously distressing, you should know that this will likely resolve on its own with time." "I'll refer you to a urologist who will likely want to perform a circumcision." "This might need surgery, but it could possibly disappear over time without needing treatment." "There are things you can do to minimize this, such as getting more exercise, stopping smoking, and maintaining a healthy diet." Question 39. A campus-based peer counseling group is conducting an information blitz on sexually transmitted diseases. Which of the following statements about genital warts requires correction? "Genital warts can take up to a month after exposure to first become visible." "There is no existing treatment that can eradicate the virus once it's contracted." "Condoms do not necessarily prevent the transmission of the virus that causes genital warts." "There are a number of subtypes of the virus that cause genital warts, but current vaccines protect against most common causes of them." Question 40.The nurse knows that if which of the following hormones listed below are not available during embryonic development, a male embryo with an XY chromosomal pattern may develop female external genitalia?Select all that apply. antimullerian hormone (AMH) Testosterone Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) Acrosome Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) MN551 Unit 8 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 8 Quiz/ MN551 Week 8 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 8 Quiz (Latest) : Kaplan University A newborn male has been diagnosed with hypospadias following his postpartum assessment by a nurse practitioner. Which of the following diagnostics and treatment options is the nurse practitioner most likely to rule out first? Question options: Testosterone supplementation Surgical repair Circumcision Chromosomal studies Question 2 1 / 1 point Which of the following conditions usually improves when a woman is taking oral contraceptives? Question options: Herpes simplex virus Iron deficiency anemia Migraine headaches Human Papillomavirus infection Question 3 1 / 1 point A 20-year-old male has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is seeking information about his diagnosis from a number of websites. Which of the following statements that he has read is most plausible? Question options: “Recent developments in the treatment of testicular cancer mean that few men now need to have a testicle removed.” “For most men with testicular cancer, bloody urine is their first sign that something is wrong.” “Men with cryptorchidism—the term for an undescended testicle—are known to have a higher risk of developing testicular cancer.” “Testicular cancer is a leading cause of death among males who should be in the prime of their lives.” Question 4 1 / 1 point A 40-year-old woman has been found to have a deficiency in estrogen. Which of the following physiological phenomena is most likely to remain unaffected? Question options: The synthesis and release of adrenal glucocorticoids The maintenance of normal skin and blood vessel structure The regulation of uterine endothelial development Parathyroid hormone antagonism and the rate of bone resorption Question 5 0 / 1 point A 66-year-old man has presented to a nurse practitioner to get a refill for his antiplatelet medication. The patient has a history of ischemic heart disease and suffered a myocardial infarction 5 years ago and has unstable angina; he uses a transdermal nitroglycerin patch to control his angina. The patient has a 40-pack-year smoking history and uses nebulized bronchodilators at home for the treatment of transient shortness of breath. He has long-standing hypertension that is treated with a potassium-sparing diuretic and a ß-adrenergic blocking medication. During the nurse's assessment, the man notes that he has been unable to maintain his erection in recent months. Which of the following aspects of the man's health problems and treatments would the nurse identify as NOT being contributing to his erectile dysfunction (ED)? antihypertensive medications use of bronchodilators hypertension diuretic use smoking history age Question 6 1 / 1 point Which of the following situations would be considered pathologic in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old female? Question options: The woman's ovaries are not producing progesterone. The epithelium covering the woman's ovaries is broken during the time of ovulation. The woman's ovaries do not synthesize or secrete luteinizing hormone (LH). The woman's ovaries are not producing new ova. Question 7 1 / 1 point A 40-year-old male patient with multiple health problems has been diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency. Which of the following assessment findings would his care provider attribute to an etiology other than this deficiency? Question options: The patient has a low muscle mass as a proportion of total body weight. The patient has a history of susceptibility to upper respiratory infections. The patient has long-standing anemia and low red cell counts. The patient has a voice that is unusually high in pitch. Question 8 1 / 1 point Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of normal spermatogenesis? Question options: Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two nuclear divisions, yielding four cells with 23 chromosomes each. Spermatogonia adjacent to the tubular wall undergo meiotic division and provide a continuous source of new germinal cells. Sertoli cells differentiate into spermatids, each of which can contribute half of the chromosomes necessary for reproduction. Testosterone chemically lyses each primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each. Question 9 1 / 1 point Having heard positive reports of the benefits of HT from her sister-in-law and friends, a 49-year-old woman has presented to her nurse practitioner asking to start HT. Her uterus is intact and previous bone scans have indicated low bone density. The patient also has a family history of heart disease. She characterizes her symptoms of menopause as “noticeable, but not debilitating by any means.” Based on the most current research, what is her nurse practitioner's best course of action? Question options: Begin low-dose HT but perform regular breast cancer screening and heart health checks Forgo HT but consider alternative therapies and reevaluate if her symptoms significantly affect her quality of life Forgo HT in light of her preexisting low bone density and consequent risk of osteoporosis Begin estrogen-progesterone HT (EPT) to prevent future menopausal symptoms and coronary heart disease (CHD) Question 10 0 / 1 point A pregnant 23-year-old with a diagnosis of herpes simplex virus (HSV) is receiving prenatal care from her nurse practitioner. What is the nurse practitioner most likely to tell the patient about the precautions that will be taken to prevent transmission of the virus to her baby? Question options: “We'll have to book you for a caesarean delivery in order to ensure that your baby isn't exposed to the virus.” “A vaginal delivery will be safe as long as you are consistent about taking your vancyclovir.” “If there aren't any visible lesions when you enter labor, a vaginal delivery will be safe to go ahead with.” “After your caesarean section, it will be safest if you don't breast-feed your child.” Which of the following women is most likely to have a sexually transmitted infection as a contributing factor to her health problem? Question options: A 41-year-old with a diagnosis of mucopurulent cervicitis A 32-year-old who is undergoing diagnostics to rule out endometriosis A 40-year-old who is being treated for vaginal cancer A 29-year-old woman with a diagnosis of localized vulvodynia Question 2 1 / 1 point A 60-year-old woman who is 11 years menopausal has presented to the emergency department stating, “I haven't had my period in years, but lately I've been bleeding again, and quite heavily in the last few days.” The care team needs to rule out endometrial cancer. How should they best explain the most accurate plan for confirming or ruling out the diagnosis? Question options: “We can do a Pap smear right now and we will get the results as soon as we can.” “We are going to order blood work that will measure your hormone levels.” “We're going to have to open your cervix with a speculum and take scrapings from the wall of your uterus.” “We're going to book a CT scan for you as soon as possible so that we can see what is inside your uterus.” Question 3 1 / 1 point A 20-year-old male has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection, and his primary care provider is performing teaching in an effort to prevent the patient from infecting others in the future. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates the best understanding of his health problem? Question options: “Even if I spread it to someone else, there's a good chance she won't have any symptoms or know she has it.” “Each of the three stages of the disease seems to be worse than the previous one.” “Even though I couldn't end up sterile, a woman that I give it to certainly could.” “Either me or a partner could end up with an eye infection from chlamydia that could make us blind.” Question 4 0 / 1 point John presents to the clinic with complaints of scrotal heaviness. Your assessment reveals swelling of the testicle and warm scrotal skin. What would your diagnosis be? Question options: Epididymitis ? Testicular torsion Orchitis Cryptorchidism Question 5 1 / 1 point A couple that has three daughters would like to add a son to their family, and they have recently learned that the woman is pregnant. Which of the following phenomena would most likely be associated with the woman's eventual delivery of a healthy son? Question options: The production of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by the embryo and DHT's differentiation into testosterone Development of testes under the influence of the X chromosome Suppression of female reproductive structures by antimüllerian hormone (AMH) Atrophy of the wolffian ducts during embryonic development Question 6 1 / 1 point A 13-year-old patient undergoing puberty is alarmed to find small, white bumps surrounding the areolae on her nipples. You reassure her that these are a normal sign of her sexual maturation and tell her that they are which of the following: Question options: Cooper ligaments Montgomery tubercles Bartholin glands Skene glands Question 7 1 / 1 point A 29-year-old woman has been trying for many months to become pregnant, and fertilization has just occurred following her most recent ovulation. What process will now occur that will differentiate this ovulatory cycle from those prior? Question options: The basal layer of the endometrium will be sloughed in preparation for implantation. The corpus luteum will atrophy and be replaced by corpus albicans. The remaining primary follicles will provide hormonal support for the first 3 months of pregnancy. Human chorionic gonadotropin will be produced, preventing luteal regression. Question 8 0 / 1 point Which of the following factors are NOT known to contribute to vaginal yeast infections? Question options: High hormone levels during pregnancy Use of oral contraceptives Recent antibiotic therapy Poorly controlled diabetes' Inflammation of the Skene and Bartholin glands Question 9 1 / 1 point A 24-year-old woman has presented to an inner-city free clinic because of the copious, foul vaginal discharge that she has had in recent days. Microscopy has confirmed the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the woman's most likely treatment and prognosis? Question options: Vaginal suppositories and topical ointments can provide symptom relief but cannot eradicate the microorganism. Antifungal medications are effective against the anovulation and risk of HIV that accompany the infection. Oral antibiotics can prevent complications such as infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. Abstinence will be required until the infection resolves, since treatments do not yet have proven efficacy. Question 10 1 / 1 point During a group prenatal class, the nurse teaching the course is explaining the thinning of the cervix that accompanies the stages of labor leading up to delivery. A participant admits that she is not familiar with either the location or normal role of the cervix. Which of the following responses, by the nurse, would be most appropriate? Question options: “The cervix is the soft lining of your uterus that has to expand greatly to accommodate your baby during delivery.” “Your cervix is the part of your uterus where the fallopian tubes join it and the baby has to pass through it to the vagina.” “The cervix is the opening between the uterus and the vagina and so it opens wide during the lead-up to birth.” “Your cervix is just the term for the lowest part of your uterus and it is tightly shut at all times except in women who are giving birth.” A 13-year-old female is undergoing rapid development of her breasts after experiencing menarche several months ago. Which of the following hormones are NOT active in the development of her breasts? Question options: Prolactin Oxytocin Estrogen Follicle-stimulating hormone Progesterone Question 2 1 / 1 point A 57-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis has expressed her surprise to her care provider, citing a lifetime largely free of gynecological health problems. She has asked what may have contributed to her problem. How can the care provider best respond? Question options: “The exact cause of this problem isn't known, but it can usually be resolved with a diet high in probiotic bacteria.” “This type of vaginitis is most commonly a symptom of a latent sexually transmitted infection that you may have contracted in the distant past.” “Vaginitis is not usually the direct result of any single problem, but rather an inevitability of the vaginal dryness that accompanies menopause.” “The lower levels of estrogen since you've begun menopause make your vagina prone to infection.” Question 3 1 / 1 point A 51-year-old woman who has been receiving estrogen and progesterone therapy (EPT) for the last 5 years has visited her care provider because her peers have told her about the risks of heart disease, stroke, and breast cancer that could accompany hormone therapy (HT). How should her care provider respond to her concerns? Question options: “There's in fact a slight protective effect against stroke associated with HT, but this is partially offset by increased rates of heart disease and breast cancer.” “HT is actually associated with a decrease in heart disease risk, but there is an increase in stroke risk; the breast cancer connection is still unclear.” “All things considered, the benefits of HT outweigh the slightly increased risks of heart disease, stroke, or breast cancer.” “There is a demonstrable increase in breast cancer risk with HT, but the risk of stroke or heart disease actually goes down slightly.” Question 4 1 / 1 point Following a visit to her campus medical clinic motivated by persistent abdominal pain and dyspareunia, a 20-year-old female college student has been referred for a diagnostic workup to rule out pelvic inflammatory disease. Her elevated white cell and C-reactive protein levels lead her care provider to suspect pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What follow-up question is most likely to help with the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Have you ever had a therapeutic abortion in the past?” “How many sexual partners have you had?” “What does your daily hygiene routine usually consist of?” “Are you using tampons during your period, or do you normally use pads?” Question 5 1 / 1 point A 14-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by his mother in excruciating pain that is radiating from his scrotum to his inguinal area. The boy's heart rate is 122 beats per minute and he vomited twice before arrival at the hospital. Examination reveals that his scrotum is reddened and slightly swollen and the testes are firm to the touch and tender, with extensive cremaster muscle contraction noted. What is the boy's most likely diagnosis? Question options: Varicocele Testicular torsion Hydrocele Epididymitis Question 6 1 / 1 point Long, stretchy cervical mucus that exhibits ferning on a microscope slide is characteristic of which of the following? Question options: Low human chorionic gonadotropin levels High progesterone levels Low estrogen levels High LH levels Question 7 1 / 1 point After a long and frustrating course of constant vaginal pain, a 38-year-old woman has been diagnosed with generalized vulvodynia by her nurse practitioner. What treatment plan is her nurse practitioner most likely to propose? Question options: Narcotic analgesia and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications Lifestyle modifications aimed at accommodating and managing neuropathic pain Antidepressant and antiepileptic medications Alternative herbal therapies coupled with antifungal medications Question 8 1 / 1 point A 71-year-old man has visited his nurse practitioner for a check-up, during which the nurse practitioner has initiated a discussion about the patient's sexual function. Which of the following phenomena would the nurse practitioner most likely consider a pathological rather than an age-related change? Question options: A decrease in the force of the man's ejaculation Cessation of FSH production A decrease in the size and firmness of the patient's testes The presence of relative or absolute hypogonadism Question 9 1 / 1 point A 39-year-old male patient has been recently diagnosed with primary hypogonadism. Which of the following lab results would be most indicative of this diagnosis? Question options: Low testosterone levels; normal levels of LH and FSH Low levels of GnRH Low free testosterone, LH, and FSH levels Normal levels of free testosterone; low levels of total testosterone Question 10 1 / 1 point Which of the following sexually active women most likely faces the highest risk of developing an ectopic pregnancy? Question options: A 22-year-old who has a history of anorexia nervosa and who has a body mass index (BMI) of 12.0 (normal is 18.5 to 24.9). A 27-year-old who stopped using medroxyprogesterone contraceptive injection (Depo-Provera) several months ago A 42-year-old who has decided to try to have one more child and has had her tubal ligation reversed A 14-year-old who experienced menarche 2 years prior [Show Less]
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MN 551 Unit 9 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 9 Quiz / MN551 Week 9 Quiz / MN 551 Week 9 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers|
MN 551 Unit 9 Quiz (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 9 Quiz / MN551 Week 9 Quiz / MN 551 Week 9 Quiz: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN55... [Show More] 1 Unit 9 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 9 Quiz/ MN551 Week 9 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 9 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1. 1. The unique clinical presentation of a three-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis? (Points : 0.4) “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?” “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?” “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?” “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?” Question 2. 2. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a 68-year-old female whose anxiety disorder is significantly decreasing her quality of life. Which of the following pharmacologic therapies is most likely to benefit the woman? (Points : 0.4) A drug that influences gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) An antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors An epinephrine and norepinephrine supplement Question 3. 3. A 51-year-old has been admitted to a rehabilitation center after hospital treatment for an ischemic stroke. Which of the following aspects of the patient's history would not be considered to have contributed to his stroke? (Points : 0.4) He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes eight years ago Elevated cholesterol Blood pressure that is normally 120/80 The patient is an African American Male History of sickle cell anemia Question 4. 4. Following a motor vehicle accident three months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents? (Points : 0.4) “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.” “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.” “If you or the care team notice any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.” “Your daughter's condition is an unfortunate combination of total loss of consciousness with continuation of all other normal brain functions.” Question 5. 5. A patient with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which of the following processes will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in her chemical synapses? (Points : 0.4) Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily. More serotonin molecules will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors. Question 6. 6. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's following questions is least likely to yield data that will allow for a confirmation or ruling out of migraines as the cause of his problem? (Points : 0.4) “Does your son have a family history of migraines?” “When your son has a headache, does he ever have nausea and vomiting as well?” “Does your son have any food allergies that have been identified?” “Is your son generally pain free during the intervals between headaches?” Question 7. 7. A 60-year-old male patient with a long history of back pain has had little success with a variety of analgesic regimens that his nurse practitioner has prescribed. He has recently been diagnosed formally with a chronic pain disorder. Which of the following teaching points about chronic pain would his nurse practitioner most likely emphasize to the patient? (Points : 0.4) “If your pain comes and goes, then we won't characterize it as chronic, and it will require different treatment.” “You need to remind yourself that this is a purely physical phenomenon that requires physical treatment.” “Our challenge is to bring you relief but still treat the underlying back problem that your body is telling you about.” “These pain signals your body is sending likely serve no real, useful, or protective function.” Question 8. 8. Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes an aspect of the neurobiology of sleep? (Points : 0.4) The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior and posterior pituitary to modulate sleeping–waking cycles. The pituitary releases melatonin at predictable points in the circadian rhythm in order to facilitate sleep. The reticular formation, thalamus, and cerebral cortex interact to integrate the sleep–wake cycle. Input from the retinas is interpreted by the cerebellum and contributes to maintenance of the circadian rhythm. Question 9. 9. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which of the following components of his white matter has most likely been damaged? (Points : 0.4) The inner layer (archilayer) The middle layer (paleolayer) The outer layer (neolayer) The reticular formation Question 10. 10. A patient with a diagnosis of insomnia is surprised when his physician explains to him that his brain is still highly active during normal sleep. Which of the following statements best captures the character of brain activity during sleep? (Points : 0.4) “Fewer neurons in your brain are firing when you're asleep, but they're more synchronized than when you're awake.” “While you're obviously less aware of stimuli when you're asleep, your brain is actually more active when you're asleep than when you're awake.” “There are four types of brain activity, and actually all of them occur at different stages of sleep.” “Your brain alternates between periods of activity and periods of inactivity when you're asleep, and these correspond to your eye movement.” Question 11. 11. A patient on an acute medicine unit of a hospital, with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction, is complaining of intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which of the following physiologic phenomena is most likely contributing to her complaint? (Points : 0.4) Nociceptive afferents are conducting the sensation of pain along the cranial and spinal nerve pathways of the ANS. First-order neurons are inappropriately signaling pain to the dorsal root ganglion. The patient is experiencing neuropathic pain. The patient's C fibers are conducting pain in the absence of damaged Ad fibers. Question 12. 12. Which of the following factors is most responsible for the fact that prefrontal lobotomy is no longer a common treatment for mental illness? (Points : 0.4) Individuals treated by lobotomy have difficulty interpreting somatic, visual, and auditory information. Lobotomy inhibits the individual's ability to add perception and meaning to sensory information. Severing connections between the brain and its prefrontal areas inhibits problem solving and results in a loss of ambition. Loss of communication to and from the prefrontal cortex changes, but ultimately exacerbates, symptoms of mental illness. Question 13. 13. After surviving an ischemic stroke, a 79-year-old male has demonstrated significant changes in his emotional behavior, with his family noting that he now experiences wide mood swings and exaggerated responses of empathy, anger, and sadness to situations. His care team would most likely attribute these responses to ischemic changes in which of the following brain structures? (Points : 0.4) The man's occipital lobe The patient's temporal lobe in general and Wernicke area in particular The man's parietal lobe The components of the patient's limbic system Question 14. 14. A woman with severe visual and auditory deficits is able to identify individuals by running her fingers lightly over their face. Which of the following sources is most likely to provide the input that allows for the woman's ability? (Points : 0.4) Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini end organs Meissner corpuscles Free nerve endings Question 15. 15. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to experience global ischemia to his or her brain? (Points : 0.4) A male patient who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction A woman who is being brought to the hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater Question 16. 16. During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system has the highest level of control over her arm and hand action? (Points : 0.4) Cerebelum Thalamus Basal ganglia Frontal lobe Question 17. 17. A 17-year-old female is suspected of having narcolepsy. Which of the following aspects of her medical history and sleep analysis would contribute to a confirmation of the diagnosis? (Points : 0.4) She repeatedly moves her large toe, ankle, and knee during sleep. She complains of a powerful urge to move her legs when in bed at night. She has frequently awakened unable to move or speak. She believes that she experiences auditory hallucinations when she awakens. Her sleep latency is normally around 1 hour. Question 18. 18. Which of the following phenomena constitutes a component of axonal transport? (Points : 0.4) Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS). Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials. Question 19. 19. A 44-year-old female has been diagnosed with major depression. Which of the following neuroimaging findings is most congruent with the woman's diagnosis? (Points : 0.4) Decreased brain activity in the pons and brain stem Reduced activity and gray matter volume in the prefrontal cortex Atrophy and decreased blood flow in the amygdala Enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles and reduction in frontal and temporal volumes Question 20. 20. A nurse practitioner and social worker are facilitating a family meeting for the children and wife of a 79-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. What goal of treatment will the clinicians most likely prioritize in their interactions with the family? (Points : 0.4) Modest reversal of brain plaque formation and improved symptomatology through cholinesterase inhibitors Surgical treatment of the ischemic changes that underlie the manifestations of the man's disease The use of medications such as donepezil and rivastigmine to slow the progression of the disease Cognitive and behavioral therapy to counteract the agitation, depression, and suspiciousness associated with Alzheimer disease. Question 21. 21. A nurse practitioner is providing care for a 40-year-old male who is experiencing chronic insomnia in recent months while going through a divorce and child custody proceedings. The man is requesting a prescription for “sleeping pills” to help him through this time. Which of the following statements forms a valid basis for the nurse practitioner's plan for treatment? (Points : 0.4) Sedative and hypnotic drugs will not provide safe relief of the man's health problem. The man is suffering from primary insomnia. Melatonin supplements will be the safest and most effective long-term pharmacological treatment. Behavioral therapies, counseling, and education may be of some use to the patient. Question 22. 22. The parents of a 15-year-old boy are frustrated by his persistent inability to fall asleep at a reasonable hour at night, as well as the extreme difficulty that they have in rousing him in the morning. While sleepy after waking, the son claims not to feel drowsy after lunch or in the evening. What is the most likely classification of the boy's sleep disorder? (Points : 0.4) Delayed sleep phase syndrome (DSPS) Non–24-hour sleep–wake syndrome Advanced sleep phase syndrome (ASPS) Chronic insomnia Question 23. 23. A clinician is conducting an assessment of a male patient suspected of having a disorder of motor function. Which of the following assessment findings would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion? (Points : 0.4) The patient has decreased deep tendon reflexes. The patient displays increased muscle tone. The patient's muscles appear atrophied. The patient displays weakness in the distal portions of his limbs. Question 24. 24. A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone, which has fallen to the bottom, and there are a number of items in the bag in addition to the phone. Which of the following components of somatosensory conduction is most likely to provide the detailed sensory information that will help her distinguish her phone from other items? (Points : 0.4) The primary dorsal root ganglion neuron, the dorsal column neuron, and the thalamic neuron A slow-conducting pathway that projects into the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus The opposite anterolateral pathway that travels to the reticular activating system A bilateral, multisynaptic, slow-conducting tract Question 25. 25. A 48-year-old male has a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following processes underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in his peripheral nervous system (PNS)? (Points : 0.4) The destruction of myelin causes fewer Schwann cells to be produced in the patient's PNS. The axonal transport system is compromised by the lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells. Nerve cells lack insulation and impulse conduction is compromised by the destruction of myelin. A deficit of myelin predisposes the patient to infection by potential pathogens. MN551 Unit 9 Quiz/ MN 551 Unit 9 Quiz/ MN551 Week 9 Quiz/ MN 551 Week 9 Quiz (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 1 / 1 point A patient with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which of the following processes will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in her chemical synapses? Question options: More serotonin molecules will cross the synaptic cleft and bond with postsynaptic receptors. The neurotransmitter will cross gap junctions more readily. Communication between a neuron and the single neuron it is connected with will be facilitated. Two-way communication between neurons is permitted, in contrast to the one-way communication in electrical synapses. Question 2 1 / 1 point During a late-night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system has the highest level of control over her arm and hand action? Question options: Frontal lobe Basal ganglia Thalamus Cerebelum Question 3 1 / 1 point A patient in the intensive care unit who has a brain tumor has experienced a sharp decline. The care team suspects that water and protein have crossed the blood–brain barrier and been transferred from the vascular space into the patient's interstitial space. Which of the following diagnoses best captures this pathophysiology? Question options: Vasogenic edema Hydrocephalus Cytotoxic edema Focal hypoxia Question 4 1 / 1 point The unique clinical presentation of a three-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?” “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?” “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?” “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?” Question 5 1 / 1 point Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult? Question options: High intracellular concentration of glutamate Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation Moderate increase in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor Mean arterial blood pressure (MABP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP) Question 6 1 / 1 point A patient on an acute medicine unit of a hospital, with a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction, is complaining of intense, diffuse pain in her abdomen. Which of the following physiologic phenomena is most likely contributing to her complaint? Question options: The patient's C fibers are conducting pain in the absence of damaged Ad fibers. The patient is experiencing neuropathic pain. First-order neurons are inappropriately signaling pain to the dorsal root ganglion. Nociceptive afferents are conducting the sensation of pain along the cranial and spinal nerve pathways of the ANS. Question 7 1 / 1 point A nurse practitioner is assessing a 7-year-old boy who has been brought to the clinic by his mother, who is concerned about her son's increasingly frequent, severe headaches. Which of the nurse's following questions is least likely to yield data that will allow for a confirmation or ruling out of migraines as the cause of his problem? Question options: “Is your son generally pain free during the intervals between headaches?” “Does your son have any food allergies that have been identified?” “When your son has a headache, does he ever have nausea and vomiting as well?” “Does your son have a family history of migraines?” Question 8 1 / 1 point A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with a stroke that resulted in an infarct to his cerebellum. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with cerebellar insult? Question options: Unsteady gait and difficulty speaking and swallowing Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia Difficulty starting movement, stopping movement, and maintaining rhythmic movement Flaccid loss of muscle tone Question 9 1 / 1 point A woman with severe visual and auditory deficits is able to identify individuals by running her fingers lightly over their face. Which of the following sources is most likely to provide the input that allows for the woman's ability? Question options: Free nerve endings Meissner corpuscles Ruffini end organs Pacinian corpuscles Question 10 1 / 1 point A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone, which has fallen to the bottom, and there are a number of items in the bag in addition to the phone. Which of the following components of somatosensory conduction is most likely to provide the detailed sensory information that will help her distinguish her phone from other items? Question options: A bilateral, multisynaptic, slow-conducting tract The opposite anterolateral pathway that travels to the reticular activating system A slow-conducting pathway that projects into the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus The primary dorsal root ganglion neuron, the dorsal column neuron, and the thalamic neuron [Show Less]
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