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MN 551 Final Exam (2 Versions) / MN551 Final Exam/ MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answe... [Show More] rs| MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (2 Versions) / MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam/ MN551 Final Exam / MN 551 Final Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1. During an examination, the nurse observes a female patient's vestibule and expects to see the: A ) urethral meatus and vaginal orifice. B) vaginal orifice and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. C) urethral meatus and paraurethral (Skene) glands. D) paraurethral (Skene) and vestibular (Bartholin) glands. 2. During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal? A) Cervix B) Uterus C) Ovaries D) Fallopian tubes 3. The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as: A) anteverted and anteflexed. B) retroverted and anteflexed. C retroverted and retroflexed. D)superiorverted and anteflexed. 4. An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The nurse notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. The nurse should use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The nurse should: A) use the Tanner's table on the five stages of sexual development. B) describe her development and compare it with that of other girls her age. C) use Jacobsen's table on expected development on the basis of height and weight data. D) reassure her that her development is within normal limits and should tell her not to worry about the next step. 5. A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a checkup. The nurse reads on her chart that her cervix is softened and looks cyanotic. The nurse knows that the woman is exhibiting _____ sign and _____ sign. A) Tanner's; Hegar's B) Hegar's; Goodell's C) Chadwick's; Hegar's D) Goodell's; Chadwick's 6. A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true? A) If intercourse is avoided, then the risk for infection is minimal. B) A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection. C) The acidic pH of vaginal secretions promotes the growth of pathogenic bacteria. D) The mucus plug that forms in the cervical canal is a good medium for bacterial growth. 7. The changes normally associated with menopause occur generally because the cells in the reproductive tract are: A)aging. B)becoming fibrous. C)estrogen dependent. D)able to respond to estrogen. 8. The nurse is reviewing the changes that occur with menopause. Which of these are changes associated with menopause? A) Uterine and ovarian atrophy along with thinning vaginal epithelium B) Ovarian atrophy, increased vaginal secretions, and increasing clitoral size C) Cervical hypertrophy, ovarian atrophy, and increased acidity of vaginal secretions D) Vaginal mucosa fragility, increased acidity of vaginal secretions, and uterine hypertrophy 9. A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? "A postmenopausal woman: A) is not at any greater risk for heart disease than a younger woman is." B) should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions." C) has only stopped menstruating; there really are no other significant changes with which she should be concerned." D) is likely to have difficulty with sexual pleasure as a result of drastic changes in the female sexual response cycle." 10. A woman is in the clinic for an annual gynecologic examination. The nurse should plan to begin the interview with the: A) menstrual history because it is generally nonthreatening. B) obstetric history because it is the most important information. C) urinary system history because there may be problems in this area as well. D) sexual history because it will build rapport to discuss this first. 11. A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____. A) 2; 2; 1 B) 3; 2; 0 C) 3; 2; 1 D) 3; 3; 1 12. During the interview with a female patient, the nurse gathers data that indicate that the patient is perimenopausal. Which of these statements made by this patient leads to this conclusion? A)"I have noticed that my muscles ache at night when I go to bed." B) "I will be very happy when I can stop worrying about having a period." C) "I have been noticing that I sweat a lot more than I used to, especially at night." D) "I have only been pregnant twice, but both times I had breast tenderness as my first symptom." 13. A 50-year-old woman calls the clinic because she has noticed some changes in her body and breasts and wonders if they could be due to the hormone replacement therapy (HRT) she started 3 months ago. The nurse should tell her: A) "Hormone replacement therapy is at such a low dose that side effects are very unusual." B) "Hormone replacement therapy has several side effects, including fluid retention, breast tenderness, and vaginal bleeding." C) "It would be very unusual to have vaginal bleeding with hormone replacement therapy, and I suggest you come in to the clinic immediately to have this evaluated." D)"It sounds as if your dose of estrogen is too high; I think you may need to decrease the amount you are taking and then call back in a week." 14. A 52-year-old patient states that when she sneezes or coughs she "wets herself a little." She is very concerned that something may be wrong with her. The nurse suspects that the problem is: A) dysuria. B) stress incontinence. C) hematuria. D) urge incontinence. 15. During the interview a patient reveals that she has some vaginal discharge. She is worried that it may be a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse's most appropriate response to this would be: A) "Oh, don't worry. Some cyclic vaginal discharge is normal." B) "Have you been engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse?" C) "I'd like some information about the discharge. What color is it?" D) "Have you had any urinary incontinence associated with the discharge?" 16. A woman states that 2 weeks ago she had a urinary tract infection that was treated with an antibiotic. As a part of the interview, the nurse should ask, "Have you noticed: A) a change in your urination patterns?" B) any excessive vaginal bleeding?" C) any unusual vaginal discharge or itching?" D) any changes in your desire for intercourse?" 17. Which statement would be most appropriate when the nurse is introducing the topic of sexual relationships during an interview? A)"Now it is time to talk about your sexual history. When did you first have intercourse?" B) "Women often feel dissatisfied with their sexual relationships. Would it be okay to discuss this now?" C) "Often women have questions about their sexual relationship and how it affects their health. Do you have any questions?" D) "Most women your age have had more than one sexual partner. How many would you say you have had?" 18. A 22-year-old woman has been considering using oral contraceptives. As a part of her history, the nurse should ask: A) "Do you have a history of heart murmurs?" B) "Will you be in a monogamous relationship?" C) "Have you thought this choice through carefully?" D) "If you smoke, how many cigarettes do you smoke per day?" 19. A married couple has come to the clinic seeking advice on pregnancy. They have been trying to conceive for 4 months and have not been successful. What should the nurse do first? A) Ascertain whether either of them has been using broad-spectrum antibiotics. B) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 1 year of unprotected intercourse. C) Immediately refer the woman to an expert in pelvic inflammatory disease—the most common cause of infertility. D) Explain that couples are considered infertile after 3 months of engaging in unprotected intercourse and that they will need a referral to a fertility expert. 20. A nurse is assessing a patient's risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be: A) "You know that it's important to use condoms for protection, right?" B) "Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?" C) "Do you have a sexually transmitted infection?" D) "You are aware of the dangers of unprotected sex, aren't you?" 21. When the nurse is interviewing a preadolescent girl, which opening statement would be least threatening? A) "Do you have any questions about growing up?" B) "What has your mother told you about growing up?" C) "When did you notice that your body was changing?" D) "I remember being very scared when I got my period. How do you think you'll feel?" 22. When the nurse is discussing sexuality and sexual issues with adolescents, a permission statement helps to convey that it is normal to think or feel a certain way. Which of these is the best example of a permission statement? A) "It is okay that you have become sexually active." B) "Often girls your age have questions about sexual activity. Have you any questions?" C) "If it is okay with you, I'd like to ask you some questions about your sexual history." D) "Often girls your age engage in sexual activity. It is okay to tell me if you have had intercourse." 23. The nurse is preparing to interview a postmenopausal woman. Which of these statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman? A) The nurse should ask a postmenopausal woman if she ever has vaginal bleeding. B) Once a woman reaches menopause, the nurse does not need to ask any further history questions. C) The nurse should screen for monthly breast tenderness. D) Postmenopausal women are not at risk for contracting sexually transmitted infections and thus these questions can be omitted. 24. During the examination portion of a patient's visit, she will be in lithotomy position. Which statement below reflects some things that the nurse can do to make this more comfortable for her? A) Ask her to place her hands and arms behind her head. B) Elevate her head and shoulders to maintain eye contact. C) Allow her to choose to have her feet in the stirrups or have them resting side by side on the edge of the table. D) Allow her to keep her buttocks about 6 inches from the edge of the table to prevent her from feeling as if she will fall off. 25. An 18-year-old patient is having her first pelvic examination. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? A) Invite her mother to be present during the examination. B) Avoid the lithotomy position this first time because it can be uncomfortable and embarrassing. C) Raise the head of the examination table and give her a mirror so that she can view the exam. D) Drape her fully, leaving the drape between her legs elevated to avoid embarrassing her with eye contact. 26. The nurse has just completed an inspection of a nulliparous woman's external genitalia. Which of these would be a description of a finding within normal limits? A) Redness of the labia majora B) Multiple nontender sebaceous cysts C) Discharge that is sticky and yellow-green D) Gaping and slightly shriveled labia majora 27. The nurse is preparing for an internal genitalia examination of a woman. Which order of the examination is correct? A) Bimanual, speculum, rectovaginal B) Speculum, rectovaginal, bimanual C) Speculum, bimanual, rectovaginal D) Rectovaginal, bimanual, speculum 28. During an internal examination of a woman's genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum? A) Instruct the woman to bear down, open the speculum blades, and apply in a swift, upward movement. B) Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 30-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down after the speculum is inserted. C) Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman's back. D) Lock the blades open by turning the thumbscrew. Once the blades are open, apply pressure to the introitus and insert the blades at a 45-degree angle downward to bring the cervix into view. 29. The nurse is examining a 35-year-old female patient. During the history, the nurse notices that she has had two term pregnancies, and both babies were delivered vaginally. During the internal examination the nurse observes that the cervical os is a horizontal slit with some healed lacerations and that the cervix has some nabothian cysts that are small, smooth, and yellow. In addition, the nurse notices that the cervical surface is granular and red, especially around the os. Finally, the nurse notices the presence of stringy, opaque, odorless secretions. Which of these findings are abnormal? A) Nabothian cysts are present. B) The cervical os is a horizontal slit. C) The cervical surface is granular and red. D) Stringy and opaque secretions are present. 30. A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are: A) "If you are menstruating, please use pads to avoid placing anything into the vagina." B) "Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment." C) "If you suspect that you have a vaginal infection, please gather a sample of the discharge to bring with you." D) "We would like you to use a mild saline douche before your examination. You may pick this up in our office." 31. During an examination, which tests will the nurse collect to screen for cervical cancer? A) Endocervical specimen, cervical scrape, and vaginal pool B) Endocervical specimen, vaginal pool, and acetic acid wash C) Endocervical specimen, KOH preparation, and acetic acid wash D) Cervical scrape, acetic acid wash, saline mount ("wet prep") 32. When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse's interpretation of these results should be which of these? A) These findings are all within normal limits. B) The cervical consistency should be soft and velvety—not firm. C) The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy. D) Pain may occur during palpation of the cervix. 33. The nurse is palpating a female patient's adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to: A) tell the patient that her examination was normal. B) give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist. C) suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings. D) tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further. 34. A 65-year-old woman is in the office for routine gynecologic care. She had a complete hysterectomy 3 months ago after cervical cancer was detected. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true with regard to this visit? A) Her cervical mucosa will be red and dry looking. B) She will not need to have a Pap smear done. C) The nurse can expect to find that her uterus will be somewhat enlarged and her ovaries small and hard. D) The nurse should plan to lubricate the instruments and the examining hand well to avoid a painful examination. 35. The nurse is preparing to examine the external genitalia of a school-age girl. Which of these positions would be most appropriate in this situation? A) In the parent's lap B) In a frog-leg position on the examining table C) In the lithotomy position with the feet in stirrups D) Lying flat on the examining table with legs extended 36. When assessing a newborn infant's genitalia, the nurse notices that the genitalia are somewhat engorged. The labia majora are swollen, the clitoris looks large, and the hymen is thick. The vaginal opening is difficult to visualize. The infant's mother states that she is worried about the labia being swollen. The nurse should reply: A) "This is a normal finding in newborns and should resolve within a few weeks." B "This could indicate an abnormality and may need to be evaluated by a physician." C) "We will need to have estrogen levels evaluated to make sure that they are within normal limits." D) "We will need to keep close watch over the next few days to see if the genitalia decrease in size." 37. During a vaginal examination of a 38-year-old woman, the nurse notices that the vulva and vagina are erythematous and edematous with thick, white, curdlike discharge adhering to the vaginal walls. The woman reports intense pruritus and thick white discharge from her vagina. The nurse knows that these history and physical examination findings are most consistent with which of these conditions? A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Atrophic vaginitis D) Bacterial vaginosis 38. A 22-year-old woman is being seen at the clinic for problems with vulvar pain, dysuria, and fever. On physical examination, the nurse notices clusters of small, shallow vesicles with surrounding erythema on the labia. There is also inguinal lymphadenopathy present. The most likely cause of these lesions is: A) pediculosis pubis. B) contact dermatitis. C) human papillomavirus. D) herpes simplex virus type 2. 39. When performing an external genitalia examination of a 10-year-old girl, the nurse notices that there is no pubic hair, and the mons and the labia are covered with fine vellus hair. These findings are consistent with stage _____ of sexual maturity, according to the Sexual Maturity Rating scale. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 40. A 46-year-old woman is in the clinic for her annual gynecologic examination. She voices a concern about ovarian cancer because her mother and sister died of it. The nurse knows that which of these statements is correct regarding ovarian cancer? A) Ovarian cancer rarely has any symptoms. B) The Pap smear detects the presence of ovarian cancer. C) Women at high risk for ovarian cancer should have annual transvaginal ultrasonography for screening. D) Women over age 40 years should have a thorough pelvic examination every 3 years. 41. During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed, with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of: A) an ovarian cyst. B) endometriosis. C) ovarian cancer. D) an ectopic pregnancy. 42. A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a sudden fever of 101° F and abdominal pain. Upon examination, the nurse notices that she has rigid, boardlike lower abdominal musculature. When the nurse tries to perform a vaginal examination, the patient has severe pain when the uterus and cervix are moved. The nurse knows that these signs and symptoms are suggestive of: A) endometriosis. B) uterine fibroids. C) ectopic pregnancy. D) pelvic inflammatory disease. 43. During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware of any problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be: A) syphilitic chancre. B) herpes simplex virus type 2 (herpes genitalis). C) human papillomavirus (HPV), or genital warts. D) pediculosis pubis (crab lice). 44. During an examination, the nurse would expect the cervical os of a woman who has never had children to appear: A) stellate. B) small and round. C) as a horizontal irregular slit. D) everted. 45. A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer. A) uterine B) cervical C) ovarian D) endometrial 46. During an internal examination, the nurse notices that the cervix bulges outside the introitus when the patient is asked to strain. The nurse will document this as: A) uterine prolapse, graded first degree. B) uterine prolapse, graded second degree. C) uterine prolapse, graded third degree. D) a normal finding. 47. A 35-year-old woman is at the clinic for a gynecologic examination. During the examination, she asks the nurse, "How often do I need to have this Pap test done?" Which reply by the nurse is correct? A)"It depends. Do you smoke?" B)"This will need to be done annually until you are 65." C)"If you have 2 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you can wait 5 years between tests." D)"After age 30, if you have 3 consecutive normal Pap tests, then you may be screened every 2 to 3 years." 48. The nurse is palpating an ovarian mass during an internal examination of a 63-year-old woman. Which findings of the mass's characteristics would suggest the presence of an ovarian cyst? Select all that apply. A) Heavy and solid B) Mobile and fluctuant C)Mobile and solid D) Fixed E) Smooth and round F) Poorly defined MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 2 / 2 points A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone, which has fallen to the bottom, and there are a number of items in the bag in addition to the phone. Which of the following components of somatosensory conduction is most likely to provide the detailed sensory information that will help her distinguish her phone from other items? Question options: The primary dorsal root ganglion neuron, the dorsal column neuron, and the thalamic neuron A slow-conducting pathway that projects into the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus The opposite anterolateral pathway that travels to the reticular activating system A bilateral, multisynaptic, slow-conducting tract Question 2 2 / 2 points A 29-year-old female has been admitted to the emergency department following a suicide attempt by overdose of acetaminophen. What changes in the patient's liver and diagnostic results would the care team most likely anticipate? Question options: Centrilobular necrosis evidenced by increased ALT and AST levels Allergic inflammation accompanied by an increase in serum IgE and basophils Cholestatic reaction with increased bilirubin count Rapid onset of hepatitis and increased GGT, ALT, and bilirubin levels Question 3 2 / 2 points A nurse practitioner and social worker are facilitating a family meeting for the children and wife of a 79-year-old man who has been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease. What goal of treatment will the clinicians most likely prioritize in their interactions with the family? Question options: Modest reversal of brain plaque formation and improved symptomatology through cholinesterase inhibitors Surgical treatment of the ischemic changes that underlie the manifestations of the man's disease The use of medications such as donepezil and rivastigmine to slow the progression of the disease Cognitive and behavioral therapy to counteract the agitation, depression, and suspiciousness associated with Alzheimer disease. Question 4 2 / 2 points A 40-year-old woman has been found to have a deficiency in estrogen. Which of the following physiological phenomena is most likely to remain unaffected? Question options: Parathyroid hormone antagonism and the rate of bone resorption The regulation of uterine endothelial development The maintenance of normal skin and blood vessel structure The synthesis and release of adrenal glucocorticoids Question 5 2 / 2 points Following the identification of low levels of T3 and T4 coupled with the presence of a goiter, a 28-year-old female has been diagnosed with Hashimoto thyroiditis. In light of this diagnosis, which of the following assessment results would constitute an unexpected finding? Question options: The presence of myxedema in the woman's face and extremities Recent weight gain despite a loss of appetite and chronic fatigue Coarse, dry skin and hair with decreased sweat production Increased white cell count and audible crackles on chest auscultation Question 6 2 / 2 points Laparoscopic knee surgery on a 22-year-old basketball player has necessitated entry into the synovial cavity. The surgeon performing the procedure would be aware of which of the following relevant characteristics of synovial tissue? Question options: Synovial tissue has a slow rate of healing compared to muscle tissue. Damage to synovial tissue is known to be excruciatingly painful. The synovial membrane lacks direct blood supply, precluding bleeding into the joint. Few pain receptors are located in the synovial membrane. Question 7 2 / 2 points Having heard positive reports of the benefits of HT from her sister-in-law and friends, a 49-year-old woman has presented to her nurse practitioner asking to start HT. Her uterus is intact and previous bone scans have indicated low bone density. The patient also has a family history of heart disease. She characterizes her symptoms of menopause as “noticeable, but not debilitating by any means.” Based on the most current research, what is her nurse practitioner's best course of action? Question options: Begin estrogen-progesterone HT (EPT) to prevent future menopausal symptoms and coronary heart disease (CHD) Forgo HT in light of her preexisting low bone density and consequent risk of osteoporosis Forgo HT but consider alternative therapies and reevaluate if her symptoms significantly affect her quality of life Begin low-dose HT but perform regular breast cancer screening and heart health checks Question 8 2 / 2 points A 13-year-old female is undergoing rapid development of her breasts after experiencing menarche several months ago. Which of the following hormones are NOT active in the development of her breasts? Question options: Prolactin Oxytocin Estrogen Follicle-stimulating hormone Progesterone Question 9 2 / 2 points An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of GH. Which of the following teaching points about the patient's future health risks is most accurate? Question options: “It's not unusual for unusually high GH levels to cause damage to your hypothalamus.” “GH excess inhibits your pancreas from producing enough insulin.” “The high levels of GH that circulate in your body can result in damage to your liver.” “When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there's a real risk that you'll develop some sight deficiencies. Question 10 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis? Question options: The adrenal cortex is responsible for the production of epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are part of the sympathetic nervous system. The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones. Redundant, secondary production of adrenal cortical hormones can compensate for the loss of the adrenal glands. Normal sexual function is dependent on adequate adrenal cortical function. Question 11 2 / 2 points A 41-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having a loose body of cartilage in her left knee. What data would be most likely to lead clinicians to this conclusion? Question options: A visible hematoma is present on the anterior portion of the knee. The woman experiences intermittent, painful locking of her joint. Computed tomography indicates a complete tear of her knee ligament. An X-ray shows that her femoral head and tibia are no longer articulated. Question 12 2 / 2 points Following exposure to poison oak while camping, a 20-year-old male is experiencing pruritus as a consequence of his immune response to irritants in the plant. What physiologic process best accounts for his complaint? Question options: His body is communicating a low-level pain response as a protective measure. Free nerve endings are initiating an itch-specific signal to the somatosensory cortex. Local irritation of Langerhans cells is sending signals by way of myelinated type C nerve fibers. Ruffini corpuscles are transmitting the message of pruritis to the cerebral cortex. Question 13 2 / 2 points Which of the following phenomena constitutes a component of axonal transport? Question options: Anterograde and retrograde axonal transport allow for the communication of nerve impulses between a neuron and the central nervous system (CNS). Materials can be transported to the nerve terminal by either fast or slow components. The unidirectional nature of the axonal transport system protects the CNS against potential pathogens. Axonal transport facilitates the movement of electrical impulses but precludes the transport of molecular materials. Question 14 2 / 2 points A patient with a new diagnosis of an endocrine disorder is unclear about how the body can control the levels of different hormones over time. Which of the following statements most accurately underlies the dominant regulation process of hormone levels in the body? Question options: A positive feedback cycle ensures that stable levels of hormones exist in the body over time. With input from various sensors, hormone production and release are adjusted based on existing hormone levels. The hypothalamus ensures that hormone levels correspond accurately to the diurnal cycle. The pituitary gland is genetically programmed to stimulate and inhibit hormone production and/or release based on needs at different points in the life cycle. Question 15 2 / 2 points As part of the intake protocol at an eating disorders clinic, an interview precedes a physical examination. Which of the following questions would a clinician be justified in excluding from an intake interview for a 16-year-old female referred by her pediatrician for the treatment of anorexia nervosa? Question options: “Do you remember when your last menstrual period was? “Have you noticed any new hair growth on your body in the last several months?” “Have you had any episodes of shortness of breath in the recent past?” “Can you tell me about some of the habits that you have related to food in your daily routine?” Question 16 2 / 2 points Which of the following patients on a hospital medical unit is most clearly demonstrating the signs and symptoms of liver failure? Question options: A 44-year-old man with low hemoglobin levels, low platelet levels, and spider angiomas A 50-year-old woman with blood pressure of 189/103, jaundice, and multiple thromboses A 68-year-old female patient with sudden onset of confusion, a history of alcohol abuse, and low levels of serum AST and ALT A 55-year-old man with ascites, fever, and recent onset of atrial fibrillation Question 17 2 / 2 points A 43-year-old male patient has presented to the emergency department with vomiting that he claims is of sudden onset. The patient also states that the emesis has often contained frank blood in the hours prior to admission. Which of the following potential contributing factors would the care team first suspect? Question options: Overuse of aspirin Alcohol consumption Staphylococcal enterotoxins Effects of Helicobacter pylori Question 18 2 / 2 points A female toddler has been diagnosed with toeing-in (metatarsus adductus). What teaching should the nurse practitioner provide to the parents of the child about her diagnosis? Question options: “She will likely walk later than most children, but it will resolve itself with time.” “We'll likely need to start putting the first of a series of casts on her legs quite soon.” “The best time to perform the surgery that's needed will be at age three or four.” “While there's no effective treatment for her toeing-in, most children learn to accommodate the problem and walk independently.” Question 19 2 / 2 points A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a BMI of 33.2. Which of the following health problems is the patient at a significantly increased risk for compared with individuals with a BMI below 25? Question options: Cardiac arrhythmias Osteoarthritis Multiple sclerosis Atelectasis Gallbladder disease Insulin resistance Question 20 2 / 2 points A 51-year-old woman has been experiencing signs and symptoms of perimenopause and has sought help from her nurse practitioner. Doctors have confirmed a deficiency in estrogen levels as a contributing factor. Which of the following phenomena could potentially underlie the woman's health problem? Question options: Sufficient synthesis of estrogen but inadequate vesicle-mediated release Inadequate synthesis in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of her ovarian cells Insufficient estrogen production within the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the relevant cells A lack of prohormone precursors needed for estrogen synthesis and release Question 21 2 / 2 points Long, stretchy cervical mucus that exhibits ferning on a microscope slide is characteristic of which of the following? Question options: High LH levels Low estrogen levels High progesterone levels Low human chorionic gonadotropin levels Question 22 2 / 2 points A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her? Question options: Lamivudine Peginterferon and ribavirin Interferon-alfa-2b Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs Question 23 2 / 2 points A 74-year-old female has been diagnosed with osteoporosis after her bone density scan indicated osteopenia. Which of the following factors would her care team be most likely to rule out as contributors to her health problem? Question options: The woman is African American and was exposed to asbestos in her work. She has been a heavy drinker for her whole adult life and has diabetes mellitus. The patient takes corticosteroids for treatment of her long-standing osteoarthritis. The woman has an estrogen deficiency and has never undergone hormone therapy. Question 24 2 / 2 points A male newborn infant has been diagnosed with spina bifida occulta. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes has most likely contributed to the infant's health problem? Question options: The vertebral arches around his neural tube have failed to completely close. The infant's spinal cord and meninges protrude through his skin. The child's central and peripheral nervous systems have insufficiently differentiated during embryonic development. The infant's soma and viscera are underdeveloped. Question 25 2 / 2 points Chronic anxiety and stress contribute to ulcers. Which of the following effects of the sympathetic nervous system is most responsible for this effect? Question options: Inhibition of the actions of Brunner glands Overstimulation of the oxyntic glands Suppression of cholecystokinin Inflammation of the parotid glands Question 26 2 / 2 points A 43-year-old male who is 5 feet 10 inches tall and weighs 216 pounds has been informed by his nurse practitioner that his body mass index (BMI) is 31. Which of the following clinical conclusions based on these data would his nurse be most justified in rejecting? Question options: Further investigation of his nutritional status is needed to supplement the BMI value. The patient faces an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidemia. He is classified as being obese, likely as the result of the interplay of genetic and lifestyle factors. The patient is borderline obese but is not yet at the point of significantly increased risks to health. Question 27 2 / 2 points Which of the following pathophysiologic phenomena would be most indicative of ankylosing spondylitis? Question options: Loss of motion in the spinal column and eventual kyphosis A progressive loss of range of motion in knee and hip joints A facial “butterfly rash” and multiorgan involvement Decreased bone density in long bones Question 28 2 / 2 points A 32-year-old man is complaining of burning, itching, photophobia, and severe pain in his right eye after swimming in the ocean. To determine that the eye condition is corneal rather than a conjunctival disease, which of the following would be the distinguishing symptom? Question options: Burning Itching Photophobia Severe pain Question 29 2 / 2 points Following a progressive onset of fatigue, aching, and joint stiffness over the last 2 years, a 69-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which of the following teaching points should his primary care nurse practitioner include during the office visit in which this diagnosis is communicated to the patient? Question options: “The symptoms you've been experiencing are the result of damage inside your joints, but I'll start you on medications that will reverse this damage.” “It's important that you maximize your level of activity, since decreasing your mobility will worsen the disease.” “The best treatment plan is to try all other available treatments before resorting to using medications.” “Steroids and anti-inflammatory drugs that I'll prescribe will likely bring some relief of your symptoms.” Question 30 2 / 2 points A 17-year-old male experienced third-degree, full-thickness burns to his lower limbs after a fire at his workplace 2 days ago. Which of the following complications should his care team NOT foresee and regularly assess for? Question options: Systemic infection Increased cardiac output Respiratory dysfunction Hypermetabolic response Constipation and Bowel obstruction Question 31 2 / 2 points A three-year-old girl has been diagnosed with amblyopia. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to underlie her health problem? Question options: The child may have a congenital deficit of rods and/or cones The girl may have chronic bacterial conjunctivitis She may have been born with infantile cataracts The child may have a neural pathway disorder Question 32 2 / 2 points The unique clinical presentation of a three-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?” “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?” “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?” “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?” Question 33 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the role of hormones in the body? Question options: Some chemical substances can function as either hormones or neurotransmitters. Hormones directly initiate many of the processes that contribute to homeostasis. Control of body processes is ensured by the fact that a single hormone can only exert one effect on one specific system or tissue. Each hormone that exists in the body is produced by only one specific endocrine gland. Question 34 2 / 2 points A 48-year-old male has a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following processes underlies the deficits that accompany the degeneration of myelin in his peripheral nervous system (PNS)? Question options: The destruction of myelin causes fewer Schwann cells to be produced in the patient's PNS. The axonal transport system is compromised by the lack of myelin surrounding nerve cells. Nerve cells lack insulation and impulse conduction is compromised by the destruction of myelin. A deficit of myelin predisposes the patient to infection by potential pathogens. Question 35 2 / 2 points A newborn male has been diagnosed with hypospadias following his postpartum assessment by a nurse practitioner. Which of the following diagnostics and treatment options is the nurse practitioner most likely to rule out first? Question options: Chromosomal studies Circumcision Surgical repair Testosterone supplementation Question 36 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of normal spermatogenesis? Question options: Testosterone chemically lyses each primary spermatocyte into two secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes each. Sertoli cells differentiate into spermatids, each of which can contribute half of the chromosomes necessary for reproduction. Spermatogonia adjacent to the tubular wall undergo meiotic division and provide a continuous source of new germinal cells. Each primary spermatocyte undergoes two nuclear divisions, yielding four cells with 23 chromosomes each. Question 37 2 / 2 points A 30-year-old woman has sought care because of her recurrent photophobia, tearing, and eye irritation. During assessment, her care provider asks about any history of cold sores or genital herpes. What is the rationale for the care provider's line of questioning? Question options: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) conjunctivitis indicates a need for antiviral rather than antibacterial treatment. HSV infection of the cornea is a common cause of corneal ulceration and blindness. Chronic viral infection of the eyes can result in HSV autoinoculation of the mouth and labia. A history of HSV with eye irritation is suggestive of glaucoma. Question 38 2 / 2 points A patient in the intensive care unit who has a brain tumor has experienced a sharp decline. The care team suspects that water and protein have crossed the blood–brain barrier and been transferred from the vascular space into the patient's interstitial space. Which of the following diagnoses best captures this pathophysiology? Question options: Focal hypoxia Cytotoxic edema Hydrocephalus Vasogenic edema Question 39 2 / 2 points Which of the following hormones are derivatives of cholesterol? Question options: Epinephrine and norepinephrine Insulin and glucagon Aldosterone and testosterone Eicosanoids and retinoids Question 40 2 / 2 points When a 4-year-old boy stands erect with his medial malleoli touching, the distance between his knees is two inches. What is the child's most likely diagnosis and treatment? Question options: Genu varum, which can be treated by bracing Flatfoot, which will require orthopedic shoes Genu valgum, necessitating a series of surgeries Femoral torsion, which will spontaneously resolve before puberty Question 41 2 / 2 points A 71-year-old man has visited his nurse practitioner for a check-up, during which the nurse practitioner has initiated a discussion about the patient's sexual function. Which of the following phenomena would the nurse practitioner most likely consider a pathological rather than an age-related change? Question options: The presence of relative or absolute hypogonadism A decrease in the size and firmness of the patient's testes Cessation of FSH production A decrease in the force of the man's ejaculation Question 42 2 / 2 points A 39-year-old male patient has been recently diagnosed with primary hypogonadism. Which of the following lab results would be most indicative of this diagnosis? Question options: Normal levels of free testosterone; low levels of total testosterone Low free testosterone, LH, and FSH levels Low levels of GnRH Low testosterone levels; normal levels of LH and FSH Question 43 2 / 2 points Following a visit to her campus medical clinic motivated by persistent abdominal pain and dyspareunia, a 20-year-old female college student has been referred for a diagnostic workup to rule out pelvic inflammatory disease. Her elevated white cell and C-reactive protein levels lead her care provider to suspect pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What follow-up question is most likely to help with the differential diagnosis? Question options: “Are you using tampons during your period, or do you normally use pads?” “What does your daily hygiene routine usually consist of?” “How many sexual partners have you had?” “Have you ever had a therapeutic abortion in the past?” Question 44 2 / 2 points Which of the following situations would be considered pathologic in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old female? Question options: The woman's ovaries are not producing new ova. The woman's ovaries do not synthesize or secrete luteinizing hormone (LH). The epithelium covering the woman's ovaries is broken during the time of ovulation. The woman's ovaries are not producing progesterone. Question 45 2 / 2 points Which of the following individuals, who have recently presented to a hospital emergency department, is displaying an injury that involves his or her fibrocartilage? Question options: A seven-year-old girl whose ear has been lacerated during a dog attack A 24-year-old male who has had his trachea crushed in a workplace accident A 15-year-old boy who has suffered a knee injury during a football game A 78-year-old man who has fallen and is suspected of having a “slipped disc” in his back [Show Less]
MN 551 Midterm Exam (5 Versions) / MN551 Midterm Exam/ MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct... [Show More] Answers| MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (5 Versions)/ MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam/ MN 551 Midterm Exam / MN551 Midterm Exam/: Kaplan University |Latest-2023, 100% Correct Answers| MN551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN 551 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University MN 551 Week 5 Midterm Exam / MN551 Week 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1.1. A student nurse practitioner asks her preceptor about the origins of different tissues, and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the following statements by the preceptor best describes the process of cell differentiation? (Points : 3) “Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.” “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.” “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.” “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells, peaking after conception, and ceasing near the time of birth.” Question 2.2. A 77-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of stomach cancer has been found to have metastases in his liver. The patient and his family are surprised at this turn of events, stating that they don't see how he could have developed cancer in his liver. Which of the following facts would underlie the reply that the care team provides? (Points : 3) The parenchymal tissue of the liver is particularly susceptible to secondary malignancies. The portal circulatory system brings venous blood from the gastrointestinal tract into the liver. Hepatic stromal tissue shares characteristics with cancerous cells, including lack of anchorage dependence. The proximity of the liver to the stomach allows for direct spread of cancerous cells due to a lack of contact inhibition. Question 3.3. The NP is teaching a group of older adults about the value of including foods containing antioxidants in their diet. Which of the following statements best captures the rationale underlying the NPs advice?(Points : 3) Antioxidants inhibit the actions of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Antioxidants prevent the formation of superoxide dismutase. Antioxidants react nonspecifically with molecules. Antioxidants prevent the occurrence of cell dysplasia. Question 4.4. The nurse practitioner is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis, and he notes that the patient's sclerae are jaundiced. The nurse practitioner recalls that jaundice is caused by excess accumulation of bilirubin, a pigment that can accumulate in which part of the cell? (Points : 3) Nucleus Cytoplasm Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Question 5.5. Which of the following patients of a primary care nurse practitioner would not require extra screening for cancer? (Points : 3) A 51-year-old woman whose grandmother died of breast cancer A 48-year-old man who takes immunosuppressant drugs following a kidney transplant A 50-year-old male who is obese and has a low-fiber, high-fat diet A 38-year-old female with Down syndrome and congenital scoliosis Question 6.6. A new older female patient at a long-term care facility has a diagnosis of type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF-1). As part of the intake assessment protocol for the facility, the clinical educator is teaching the care staff about the diagnosis. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of neurofibromatosis? (Points : 3) “The neurofibroma lesions are unsightly for the patient, but they are not painful. “Her diagnosis puts her at higher risk of developing a malignant neoplasm.” “She is living with an example of an autosomal recessive disorder.” “The patient is likely to be photosensitive as a result of the disease.” Question 7.7. A child possesses a trait that is the result of the interaction of two different genes, neither of which could have produced the trait independently. Which of the following explanations best captures the genetic explanation for this? (Points : 3) The trait is an expression of multiple alleles. Epistasis has dictated the phenotypic outcome. The phenomenon is an example of polygenic inheritance. The outcome is the result of the interaction between collaborative genes. Question 8.8. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of cell injury due to impaired calcium homeostasis? (Points : 3) Normal intracellular calcium ion levels are higher than extracellular levels. Ischemia and certain toxins cause a decrease in cytosolic calcium. Injured cells tend to accumulate calcium. Low calcium levels cause an activation of damaging enzymes. Question 9.9. A group of researchers has identified that the prevalence of two particular genetic disorders share a statistical correlation. Which of the following statements best conveys the genetic rationale for this situation? (Points : 3) There is likely a cause-and-effect relationship between the two genes responsible. The chromosomes containing each gene are likely closely situated. The genes causing each disorder are likely in the same section of the same chromosome. The disorders likely share the same locus. Question 10.10. A male patient of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The patient and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the patient's following statements indicates the patient has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem? (Points : 3) “I know there's no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.” “My children who don't have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.” “I know that new genetic mutations won't occur between generations.” “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.” Question 11.11. As part of an orientation to a genetic counseling practice, a group of medical students is differentiating between autosomal recessive disorders and autosomal dominant disorders. Which of the following statements is true of autosomal recessive disorders? (Points : 3) They can manifest when present in one or both gene pairs. There is a one in two chance of an affected child in each pregnancy with an affected mother. They tend to have a more uniform symptomatology than autosomal dominant disorders. The associated disorders are usually attributable to abnormalities in structural proteins. Question 12.12. The nurse practitioner working in occupational health has been asked to speak to a group of factory workers about the importance of wearing gloves when working with strong chemicals such as turpentine and paint thinner. Which of the following characteristics of cell membranes underlies the nurse's teaching? (Points : 3) Cell membranes are impermeable to all but lipid-soluble substances. Cell membranes have lipids that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Cell membranes contain receptors for hormones and biologically active substances. Transmembrane proteins can pass through the cell membrane into the intracellular environment. Question 13.13. The NP is providing care for a 21-year-old female patient with gas gangrene of a compound fracture in her arm. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse most reasonably expect to find when caring for a patient with a diagnosis of gas gangrene? (Points : 3) Inflammation of the affected tissue A positive culture for Staphylococcus Spreading edema Impaired alveolar gas exchange Question 14.14. A community health nurse practitioner is teaching a group of female high school students about the importance of regular Papanicolaou (Pap) smears. The nurse recognizes that which of the following items underlies the rationale for this teaching? (Points : 3) The active substitution of normal cells in the cervix correlates to cancer risk. Undifferentiated stem cells are an early indicator of cervical cancer. Cancer of the uterine cervix develops incrementally at a cellular level. Dysplasia in the connective tissue of the cervix is a strong precursor to cancer. Question 15.15. Which target of both chemotherapy and radiation treatment accounts for adverse as well as therapeutic effects? (Points : 3) Cell-surface receptors Circulating hormone levels Blood vessels Rapidly proliferating cells Question 16.16. A patient who has a diagnosis of lung cancer is scheduled to begin radiation treatment. The NP providing pretreatment education is explaining some of the potential unwanted effects of the treatment. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate? (Points : 3) “Some patients experience longer-term irritation of skin adjacent to the treatment site.” “Sometimes you might find that your blood takes longer to clot than normal.” “The changes that you might see are normally irreversible.” “The unwanted effects will be limited to the exposed portions of your skin.” Question 17.17. The family of a 68-year-old man who is in the end stages of small cell lung cancer is distraught at his visible body wasting that has worsened in recent weeks. Which of the following phenomena best accounts for the patient's anorexia and cachexia? (Points : 3) Inadequate cellular metabolism of glucose results from tumor factors High fat losses coupled with preservation of muscle mass exaggerate the appearance of wasting Products of the tumor itself as well as a hypermetabolic state cause cachexia Inadequate food intake due to symptoms and treatment results in loss of both muscle and fat Question 18.18. The nurse practitioner is seeing a client who has an acute exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The NP recognizes the fact that the disease involves the inflammation and irritation of the intestinal lining. Which of the following types of tissue is most likely involved in the patient's pathology? (Points : 3) Simple columnar epithelium Glandular epithelium Simple cuboidal epthelium Stratified epithelium Question 19.19. Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly? (Points : 3) A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver A woman who has herpes simplex and recently recovered from endocarditis A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy Question 20.20. A nurse practitioner employed in the emergency department admits a patient who has experienced severe frostbite to his hands and toes after becoming lost on a ski trail. The NP recognizes that which of the following phenomena has caused the tissue damage? (Points : 3) Decreased blood viscosity has resulted in interstitial bleeding. Reactive vasodilation has compromised perfusion. Autonomic nervous stimulation has resulted in injury. Decreased blood flow has induced hypoxia. Question 21.21. A nurse practitioner employed in a hospitalist notices that a patient is experiencing muscle atrophy following 2 weeks in traction after a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following factors has most likely contributed to the atrophy of the patient's muscle cells? (Points : 3) High levels of insulin and IGF-1 in the patient's blood during immobilization Denervation of the affected muscles during the time of traction A reduction of skeletal muscle use secondary to the traction treatment Reduced oxygen consumption and cellular function that ensures muscle cell survival Question 22.22. An infant who is four days postpartum has been diagnosed with a single-gene disorder. The parents of the child have a number of questions about the etiology of the health problem, which the physician is attempting to address in detail. Which of the following teaching points most accurately captures an aspect of single-gene congenital disorders? (Points : 3) Affected genes are present on autosomal chromosomes rather than sex chromosomes. The majority of single-gene disorders manifest near the time of puberty. A particular defect can be caused by mutations at one of several different loci. Single-gene disorders are associated with existing rather than new mutations. Question 23.23. A researcher is involved in the production of insulin through recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements could the researcher best provide as a rationale for her work? (Points : 3) The gene fragment responsible for insulin production can be isolated and reproduced. Particular bacteria are capable of insulin production. It is possible to reproduce the chromosome responsible for insulin production. Recombination of DNA base pairs can result in a gene that will produce insulin. Question 24.24. A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional's lowest priority? (Points : 3) A test of the child's visual acuity A musculoskeletal assessment Tests of kidney function Cardiovascular assessment Question 25.25. Following a biopsy, a 54-year-old man has been diagnosed as having a benign neoplastic tumor. Which of the following characteristics most likely applies to his tumor? (Points : 3) The tumor is poorly approximated and has the potential to break loose. The tumor may secrete hormones or cytokines. The well-differentiated neoplastic cells are clustered together in a single mass. It has a rapid rate of growth and can induce ischemia. 1. A 40-year-old woman who experiences severe seasonal allergies has been referred by her family physician to an allergist for weekly allergy injections. The woman is confused as to why repeated exposure to substances that set off her allergies would ultimately benefit her. Which of the following phenomena best captures the rationale for allergy desensitization therapy? (Points : 3) Repeated exposure to offending allergens binds the basophils and mast cells that mediate the allergic response. Exposure to allergens in large, regular quantities overwhelms the IgE antibodies that mediate the allergic response. Repeated exposure stimulates adrenal production of epinephrine, mitigating the allergic response. Injections of allergens simulate production of IgG, which blocks antigens from combining with IgE. Question 2.2. A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms? (Points : 3) The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy's neutrophils. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genomes of others. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes. Question 3.3. A 66-year-old female patient has presented to the emergency department because of several months of intermittently bloody stools that has recently become worse. The woman has since been diagnosed with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to overuse of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that she takes for her arthritis. The health care team would realize that which of the following situations is most likely?(Points : 3) The woman has depleted blood volume due to her ongoing blood loss. She will have iron-deficiency anemia due to depletion of iron stores. The patient will be at risk for cardiovascular collapse or shock. She will have delayed reticulocyte release. Question 4.4. Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit from transplantation of thymic tissue or major histocompatibility complex (MHC)-compatible bone marrow? (Points : 3) A 12-year-old girl with a history of epilepsy and low IgG levels secondary to phenytoin use A 7-year-old boy whose blood work indicates decreased IgA and IgG with increased IgM A 6-year-old boy whose pre-B cells are incapable of translation to normal B cells A 9-year-old girl who has a diagnosis of IgA deficiency Question 5.5. A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail four days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to the touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in response to the infection? (Points : 3) Proliferation of immature neutrophils High circulatory levels of myeloblasts Increased segmented neutrophil production Phagocytosis by myelocytes Question 6.6. Sputum samples from a patient with pneumonia contain an infective agent that has a peptidoglycan cell wall, expresses endotoxins, replicates readily in broth and on agar, grows in clusters, has pili, and does not stain when exposed to crystal violet. This pneumonia is most likely: (Points : 3) Chlamydial Viral Mycoplasmal Bacterial Question 7.7. A child has been diagnosed with thalassemia. Which of the following other health problems is the child at risk for? (Points : 3) Hypocoagulation Iron and ferritin deficiencies Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly Neutropenia Question 8.8. A nurse practitioner is providing prenatal care and education for a first-time expectant mother, 22 weeks' gestation, who has a diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. Which of the following statements by the expectant mother demonstrates an adequate understanding of vertical disease transmission and congenital infections? (Points : 3) “Gonorrhea and chlamydia pose the greatest risks of transmission from mother to child.” “I know that my baby will need observation for HIV signs and symptoms in the weeks following my delivery.” “My baby could become infected either across the placenta or during the birth itself.” “Prophylactic immunization will reduce my baby's chance of being born with an illness.” Question 9.9. As part of his diagnostic workup, a 77-year-old man's nurse practitioner has ordered blood work that includes ferritin levels. The man is very interested in the details of his health care and is unfamiliar with ferritin and its role. He asks his nurse practitioner to explain the significance of it and the rationale for testing it. Which of the following explanations by the nurse practitioner is most accurate?(Points : 3) “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.” “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.” “Ferritin is a protein-iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.” “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to the red blood cells that need it.” Question 10.10. A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care nurse practitioner by her mother due to the girl's persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl's history and examination would lead the nurse practitioner to rule out infectious mononucleosis? (Points : 3) The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally. Question 11.11. A 30-year-old man has spent 5 hours on a cross-country flight seated next to a passenger who has been sneezing and coughing, and the man has been inhaling viral particles periodically. Which of the following situations would most likely result in the stimulation of the man's T lymphocytes and adaptive immune system? (Points : 3) Presentation of a foreign antigen by a familiar immunoglobulin Recognition of a foreign MHC molecule Recognition of a foreign peptide bound to a self MHC molecule Cytokine stimulation of a T lymphocyte with macrophage or dendritic cell mediation Question 12.12. A 22-year-old female who adheres to a vegan diet has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following components of her diagnostic blood work would be most likely to necessitate further investigation? (Points : 3) Decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit Microcytic, hypochromic red cells Decreased erythropoietin levels Question 13.13. A couple who are expecting their first child have been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple have approached their nurse practitioner with this request and are seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting them. How can the nurse practitioner best respond to the couple's inquiry? (Points : 3) “Stem cells can help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.” “Stem cells can be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.” “Stem cells can be used as a source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.” “Stem cells can help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.” Question 14.14. A 23-year-old man has received a recent diagnosis of appendicitis following 24 hours of acute abdominal pain. The nurse practitioner providing care for the man is explaining that while it is unpleasant, the inflammation of his appendix is playing a role in his body's fight against the underlying infectious process. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse practitioner eliminate from his teaching for the patient? (Points : 3) “Inflammation can help to remove the body tissue cells that have been damaged by infection.” “Inflammation will start your body on the path to growing new, healthy tissue at the site of infection. “Inflammation helps your body to produce the right antibodies to fight the infection.” “Inflammation ultimately aids in eliminating the initial cause of the cell injury in your appendix.” Question 15.15. A 60-year-old woman is suspected of having non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Which of the following aspects of her condition would help to rule out Hodgkin lymphoma? (Points : 3) Her neoplasm originates in secondary lymphoid structures. The lymph nodes involved are located in a large number of locations in the lymphatic system. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells has been confirmed. The woman complains of recent debilitating fatigue. Question 16.16. Which of the following statements most accurately conveys an aspect of lymphatic system activity? (Points : 3) B and T lymphocyte development begins in the bone marrow and ends in the peripheral lymphoid structures. B cells and macrophages are released from the bone marrow in their completed state. Stem cells in the lymph nodes initiate and regulate the process of white cell synthesis. Leukocytes bypass vascular circulation and are distributed instead by the lymphatic system. Question 17.17. A nurse practitioner is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the damage that Mycobacterium tuberculosis could do to lung tissue. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the nurse practitioner's explanation? (Points : 3) Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis. Macrophages are unable to digest the bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens. Question 18.18. A 2-year-old girl has had repeated ear and upper respiratory tract infections since she was born. A pediatrician has determined a diagnosis of transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy. What is the physiological origin of the child's recurrent infections? (Points : 3) Antibody production by plasma cells is compromised because of impaired communication between B and T cells. The child had a congenital absence of immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies and her body is only slowly beginning to produce them independently. The child was born with immunoglobulin A (IgA) and immunoglobulin (IgM) antibodies, suggesting intrauterine infection. The child lacks the antigen presenting cells integral to normal B-cell antibody production. Question 19.19. Following a course of measles, a 5-year-old girl developed scattered bruising over numerous body surfaces and was diagnosed with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). As part of her diagnostic workup, blood work was performed. Which of the following results is most likely to be considered unexpected by the health care team? (Points : 3) Increased thrombopoietin levels Decreased platelet count Normal vitamin K levels Normal leukocyte levels Question 20.20. A 60-year-old male patient with an acute viral infection is receiving interferon therapy. The nurse practitioner is teaching the family of the patient about the diverse actions of the treatment and the ways that it differs from other anti-infective therapies. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse practitioner exclude? (Points : 3) “Interferon can help your father's unaffected cells adjacent to his infected cells produce antiviral proteins that limit the spread of the infection.” “Interferon can help limit the replication of the virus that's affecting your father.” “Interferon helps your father's body recognize infected cells more effectively.” “Interferon can bolster your father's immune system by stimulating natural killer cells that attack viruses.” Question 21.21. A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has: (Points : 3) A mild parasitic infection A severe bacterial infection A mild viral infection A severe fungal infection Question 22.22. A nurse practitioner student is familiarizing herself with the overnight admissions to an acute medical unit of a university hospital. Which of the following patients would the student recognize as being least likely to have a diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome in his or her medical history? (Points : 3) A 66-year-old obese male with left-sided hemiplegia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident A 90-year-old female resident of a long-term care facility who has been experiencing transient ischemic attacks A 30-year-old female with a diagnosis of left leg DVT and a pulmonary embolism A 21-year-old male with a diagnosis of cellulitis and suspected endocarditis secondary to intravenous drug use Question 23.23. The blood work of a 44-year-old male patient with a diagnosis of liver disease secondary to alcohol abuse indicates low levels of albumin. Which of the following phenomena would a clinician be most justified in anticipating? (Points : 3) Impaired immune function Acid-base imbalances Impaired thermoregulation Fluid imbalances Question 24.24. A nurse practitioner is teaching her colleagues about the role of cytokines in a variety of pathologies. Which of the following teaching points best captures an aspect of the functions and nature of cytokines? (Points : 3) “A particular cytokine can have varied effects on different systems, a fact that limits their therapeutic use.” “Cytokine production is constant over time, but effects are noted when serum levels cross a particular threshold.” “Most cytokines are produced by granular leukocytes, and different cells are capable of producing the same cytokine.” “Cytokine actions are self-limiting in that activation of one precludes activation of other cytokines with similar actions.” Question 25.25. Which of the following phenomena would be least likely to result in activation of the complement system? (Points : 3) Recognition of an antibody bound to the surface of a microbe The binding of mannose residues on microbial glycoproteins Activation of Toll-like receptors (TLRs) on complement proteins Direct recognition of microbial proteins 1. The nurse practitioner for a cardiology practice is responsible for providing presurgical teaching for patients who are about to undergo a coronary artery bypass graft. Which of the following teaching points best conveys an aspect of the human circulatory system? (Points : 3) “Your blood pressure varies widely between arteries and veins, and between pulmonary and systemic circulation.” “Only around one quarter of your blood is in your heart at any given time.” “Blood pressure and blood volume roughly mimic one another at any given location in the circulatory system.” “Left-sided and right-sided pumping action at each beat of the heart must equal each other to ensure adequate blood distribution.” Question 2.2. A physical assessment of a 28-year-old female patient indicates that her blood pressure in her legs is lower than that in her arms and that her brachial pulse is weaker in her left arm than in her right. In addition, her femoral pulses are weak bilaterally. Which of the following possibilities would her care provider be most likely to suspect? (Points : 3) Pheochromocytoma Essential hypertension Coarctation of the aorta An adrenocortical disorder Question 3.3. As part of the diagnostic workup for a male patient with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements, and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care? (Points : 3) Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing Question 4.4. An older adult female patient has presented with a new onset of shortness of breath, and the patient's nurse practitioner has ordered measurement of her BNP levels along with other diagnostic tests. What is the most accurate rationale for the nurse practitioner's choice of blood work? (Points : 3) BNP is released as a compensatory mechanism during heart failure and measuring it can help differentiate the patient's dyspnea from a respiratory pathology. BNP is an indirect indicator of the effectiveness of the RAA system in compensating for heart failure. BNP levels correlate with the patient's risk of developing cognitive deficits secondary to heart failure and consequent brain hypoxia. BNP becomes elevated in cases of cardiac asthma, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and acute pulmonary edema, and measurement can gauge the severity of pulmonary effects. Question 5.5. A patient in the intensive care unit has a blood pressure of 87/39 and has warm, flushed skin accompanying his sudden decline in level of consciousness. The patient also has arterial and venous dilation and a decrease in systemic vascular resistance. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 3) Hypovolemic shock Septic shock Neurogenic shock Obstructive shock Question 6.6. A number of patients have presented to the emergency department in the last 24 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following patients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)? (Points : 3) A 70-year-old woman who is complaining of shortness of breath and vague chest discomfort A 66-year-old man who has presented with fatigue, nausea and vomiting, and cool, moist skin A 43-year-old man who woke up with substernal pain that is radiating to his neck and jaw A 71-year-old man who has moist skin, fever, and chest pain that is excruciating when he moves but relieved when at rest Question 7.7. A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his nurse practitioner. The patient's nurse practitioner would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring? (Points : 3) The patient's juxtaglomerular cells are releasing aldosterone as a result of sympathetic stimulation. Epinephrine from his adrenal gland is initiating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Vasopressin is exerting an effect on his chemoreceptors and baroreceptors, resulting in vasoconstriction. The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in his lungs causes increases in blood pressure and sodium reabsorption. Question 8.8. A 66-year-old obese man with a diagnosis of ischemic heart disease has been diagnosed with heart failure that his care team has characterized as attributable to systolic dysfunction. Which of the following assessment findings is inconsistent with his diagnosis? (Points : 3) His resting blood pressure is normally in the range of 150/90 and an echocardiogram indicates his ejection fraction is 30%. His end-diastolic volume is higher than normal and his resting heart rate is regular and 82 beats per minute. He is presently volume overloaded following several days of intravenous fluid replacement. Ventricular dilation and wall tension are significantly lower than normal. Question 9.9. Which of the following assessment findings in a newly admitted 30-year-old male patient would be most likely to cause his nurse practitioner to suspect polyarteritis nodosa? (Points : 3) The man's blood work indicates polycythemia (elevated red cells levels) and leukocytosis (elevated white cells). The man's blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests. The man is acutely short of breath and his oxygen saturation is 87%. The man's temperature is 101.9°F and he is diaphoretic (heavily sweating). Question 10.10. A 6-year-old boy has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance after his mother discovered that his heart rate was “so fast I couldn't even count it.” The child was determined to be in atrial flutter and his mother is seeking an explanation from the health care team. Which of the following points should underlie an explanation to the mother? (Points : 3) The child is experiencing a reentry rhythm in his right atrium. The resolution of the problem is dependent on spontaneous recovery and is resistant to pacing interventions. The child is likely to have a normal ECG apart from the rapid heart rate. The boy's atria are experiencing abnormal sympathetic stimulation. Question 11.11. A patient has suffered damage to his pericardium following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following consequences should the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out? (Points : 3) Impaired physical restraint of the left ventricule Increased friction during the contraction/relaxation cycle Reduced protection from infectious organisms Impaired regulation of myocardial contraction Question 12.12. Which of the following situations related to the transition from fetal to perinatal circulation would be most likely to necessitate medical intervention? (Points : 3) Pressure in the pulmonary circulation and the right side of the infant's heart fall markedly. Alveolar oxygen tension increases, causing reversal of pulmonary vasoconstriction of the fetal arteries. Systemic vascular resistance and left ventricular pressure are both increasing. Pulmonary vascular resistance, related to muscle regression in the pulmonary arteries, rises over the course of the infant's first week. Question 13.13. A 70-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department complaining of pain in his calf that is exacerbated when he walks. His pedal and popliteal pulses are faintly palpable and his leg distal to the pain is noticeably reddened. What would his care provider's preliminary diagnosis and anticipated treatment most likely be? (Points : 3) Acute arterial occlusion that will be treated with angioplasty Raynaud disease that will require antiplatelet medications Atherosclerotic occlusive disease necessitating thrombolytic therapy Giant cell temporal arteritis that will be treated with corticosteroids Question 14.14. A patient is experiencing impaired circulation secondary to increased systemic arterial pressure. Which of the following statements is the most relevant phenomenon? (Points : 3) Increased preload due to vascular resistance High afterload because of backpressure against the left ventricle Impaired contractility due to aortic resistance Systolic impairment because of arterial stenosis Question 15.15. A nurse practitioner is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the nurse practitioner be most likely to rule out hypertension as a contributing factor? (Points : 3) A 61-year-old man who has a heart valve infection and recurrent fever An 81-year-old woman who has had an ischemic stroke and has consequent one-sided weakness A 44-year-old man awaiting a kidney transplant who requires hemodialysis three times per week A 66-year-old woman with poorly controlled angina and consequent limited activity tolerance Question 16.16. A formerly normotensive woman, pregnant for the first time, develops hypertension and headaches at 26 weeks' gestation. Her blood pressure is 154/110 mm Hg and she has proteinuria. What other labs should be ordered for her? (Points : 3) Plasma angiotensin I and II and renin Urinary sodium and potassium Platelet count, serum creatinine, and liver enzymes Urinary catecholamines and metabolites Question 17.17. A nurse practitioner is instructing a group of older adults about the risks associated with high cholesterol. Which of the following teaching points should the participants try to integrate into their lifestyle after the teaching session? (Points : 3) “Remember, the 'H' in HDL and the 'L' in LDL correspond to high danger and low danger to your health.” “Having high cholesterol increases your risk of developing diabetes and irregular heart rate.” “Smoking and being overweight increases your risk of primary hypercholesterolemia.” “Your family history of hypercholesterolemia is important, but there are things you can do to compensate for a high inherited risk.” Question 18.18. An autopsy is being performed on a 44-year-old female who died unexpectedly of heart failure. Which of the following components of the pathologist's report is most suggestive of a possible history of poorly controlled blood pressure? (Points : 3) “Scarring of urethra suggestive of recurrent urinary tract infections is evident.” “Bilateral renal hypertrophy noted.” “Vessel wall changes suggestive of venous stasis are evident.” “Arterial sclerosis of subcortical brain regions noted.” Question 19.19. A nurse practitioner has ordered the measurement of a cardiac patient's electrolyte levels as part of the patient's morning blood work. Which of the following statements best captures the importance of potassium in the normal electrical function of the patient's heart? (Points : 3) Potassium catalyzes the metabolism of ATP, producing the gradient that results in electrical stimulation. Potassium is central to establishing and maintaining the resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle cells. The impermeability of cardiac cell membranes to potassium allows for action potentials achieved by the flow of sodium ions. The reciprocal movement of one potassium ion for one sodium ion across the cell membrane results in the production of an action potential. Question 20.20. In which of the following patient situations would a nurse practitioner be most justified in preliminarily ruling out pericarditis as a contributing pathology to the patient's health problems? (Points : 3) A 61-year-old man whose ECG was characterized by widespread T wave inversions on admission but whose T waves have recently normalized A 77-year-old with diminished S3 and S4 sounds, an irregular heart rate, and a history of atrial fibrillation A 56-year-old obese man who is complaining of chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration and is radiating to his neck and scapular ridge A 60-year-old woman whose admission blood work indicates elevated white cells, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein levels Question 21.21. During a routine physical examination of a 66-year-old woman, her nurse practitioner notes a pulsating abdominal mass and refers the woman for further treatment. The nurse practitioner is explaining the diagnosis to the patient, who is unfamiliar with aneurysms. Which of the following aspects of the pathophysiology of aneurysms would underlie the explanation the nurse provides? (Points : 3) Aneurysms are commonly a result of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. Hypertension is a frequent modifiable contributor to aneurysms. Individuals with an aneurysm are normally asymptomatic until the aneurysm ruptures. Aneurysms can normally be resolved with lifestyle and diet modifications. Question 22.22. A 66-year-old patient's echocardiogram reveals a hypertrophied left ventricle, normal chamber volume, and a normal ejection fraction from the heart. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? (Points : 3) Mitral valve regurgitation Aortic valve stenosis Mitral valve stenosis Aortic valve regurgitation Question 23.23. A nurse practitioner is teaching a student NP about the physiologic basis for damage to the circulatory and neurological systems that can accompany hypotension. Which of the following responses by the student would warrant correction by the nurse practitioner? (Points : 3) “As vessel wall thickness increases, tension decreases.” “Smaller blood vessels require more pressure to overcome wall tension.” “The smaller the vessel radius, the greater the pressure needed to keep it open.” “Tension and vessel thickness increase proportionately.” Question 24.24. An 81-year-old female patient of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the patient has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the patient's condition? (Points : 3) Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest. Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart. Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction. Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion. Question 25.25. A 22-year-old male is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. What immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man? (Points : 3) Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility Infusion of normal saline of Ringer lactate to maintain the vascular space Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion 1. Which of the following patients who presented to a walk-in medical clinic is most likely to be diagnosed with a rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold? (Points : 3) A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F A woman complaining of generalized aches who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways Question 2.2. A 44-year-old woman developed calf pain during a transatlantic flight followed by acute shortness of breath upon arrival at her destination. She was subsequently diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism (PE), which resolved with anticoagulant therapy. Which of these statements best characterizes the underlying problem of her PE? (Points : 3) She was short of breath because ventilation was occurring but perfusion was inadequate. The combination of normal perfusion but compromised ventilation caused hypoxia. She developed a transient anatomic shunt resulting in impaired oxygenation. Impaired gas diffusion across alveolar membranes resulted in dyspnea and hypoxia. Question 3.3. A premature infant on mechanical ventilation has developed bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and is showing signs and symptoms of hypoxemia, low lung compliance, and respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following is the most likely contributor to the infant's present health problem? (Points : 3) High inspired oxygen concentration and injury from positive-pressure ventilation Failure to administer corticosteroids to the infant in utero Insufficient surfactant production and insufficient surfactant therapy Insufficient supplemental oxygen therapy Question 4.4. Which of the following residents of a long-term care facility is most likely to be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? (Points : 3) A 79-year-old lifetime smoker who is complaining of shortness of breath and pain on deep inspiration An 81-year-old smoker who has increased exercise intolerance, a fever, and increased white blood cells An 81-year-old male who has a productive cough and recurrent respiratory infections An 88-year-old female who experiences acute shortness of breath and airway constriction when exposed to tobacco smoke Question 5.5. A 66-year-old male presents to the emergency department accompanied by his wife who claims that he has been acting confused. The man is complaining of a sudden onset of severe weakness and malaise and has a dry cough and diarrhea. His temperature is 102.8°F and his blood work indicates his sodium level is 126 mEq/L (normal is 135 to 145 mEq/L). What will be the assessing nurse practitioner's most likely suspicion? (Points : 3) Bronchopneumonia Mycoplasma pneumonia Legionnaire disease Pneumococcal pneumonia Question 6.6. A 51-year-old female patient who is 2 days postoperative on a surgical unit of a hospital is at risk for developing atelectasis as a result of being largely immobile. Which of the following teaching points by her nurse practitioner is most appropriate? (Points : 3) “Being in bed increases the risk of fluid accumulating between your lungs and their lining, so it's important for you to change positions often.” “You should breathe deeply and cough to help your lungs expand as much as possible while you're in bed.” “Make sure that you stay hydrated and walk as soon as possible to avoid our having to insert a chest tube.” “I'll prescribe bronchodilator medications that will help open up your airways and allow more oxygen in.” Question 7.7. Due to complications, a male postoperative patient has been unable to mobilize for several days following surgery and has developed atelectasis. Which of the following processes would his care team anticipate with relation to his health problem? (Points : 3) Vasodilation in the alveolar vessels in the affected region of his lung Increased workload for the left side of the patient's heart Increased blood flow to the area of atelectasis Redirection of blood flow away from the lung regions that are hypoxic Question 8.8. Which of the following clinical findings would be most closely associated with a patient who has interstitial lung disease rather than COPD? (Points : 3) Audible wheezing on expiration Diminished expiratory flow rates Increased respiratory rate with decreased tidal volume Normal compliance of alveolar tissue [Show Less]
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