Medsurg-Hesi Test Bank Complete Questions and Answers with Rationales 100% Verified Newly Updated 2024
Medsurg-Hesi Test Bank Complete Questions
and Ans... [Show More] wers with Rationales 100% Verified
Newly Updated 2024
An ER nurse is completing an assessment on a patient that is alert but struggles to
answer questions. When she attempts to talk, she slurs her speech and appears very
frightened. What additional clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find if
nacy's sysmptoms have been caused by a brain attack (stroke)?
A. A carotid bruit
B. A hypotensive blood pressure
C. hyperreflexic deep tendon relexes.
D. Decreased bowel sounds
A) A carotid bruit.
Rationale: the carotid artery (artery to the brain) is narrowed in clients with a brain
attack. A bruit is an abnormal sound heard on auscultation resulting from
interference with normal blood flow. Usually the blood pressure is hypertensive.
Initially flaccid paralysis occurs, resulting in hyporefkexic deep tendon reflexes.
Bowel sounds are not indicative of a brain attack.
Which clinical manifestation further supports an assessment of a left-sided brain
attack?
A) Visual field deficit on the left side.
B) Spatial-perceptual deficits.
C) Paresthesia of the left side.
D) Global aphasia.
D) Global aphasia.
D) Global aphasia.
Rationale: Global aphasia refers to difficulty speaking, listening, and
understanding, as well as difficulty reading and writing. Symptoms vary from
person to person. Aphasia may occur secondary to any brain injury involving the
left hemisphere. Visual field deficits, spatial-perceptual deficits, and paresthsia of
the left side usually occur with right-sided brain attack.
When preparing a patient for a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan
STAT, what nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Determine if the client has any allergies to iodine
B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT
scan.
C) Premedicate the client to decrease pain prior to having the procedure.
D) Provide an explanation of relaxation exercises prior to the procedure.
B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT
scan.
Rationale: Because head motion will distort the images, Nancy will have to remain
still throughout the procedure. Allergies to iodine is important if contrast dye is
being used for the CT scan. Premedicating the client to decrease pain prior to the
procedure is unnecessary because CT scanning is a noninvasive and painless
procedure. Providing an explanation of relaxation exercises prior to the procedure
is a worthwhile intervention to decrease anxiety but is not of highest priority.
A neurologist prescribes a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head STAT
for a patient. Which data warrants immediate intervention by the nurse concerning
this diagnostic test?
A) Elevated blood pressure.
B) Allergy to shell fish.
C) Right hip replacement.
D) History of atrial fibrillation.
C) Right hip replacement.
The magnetic field generated by the MRI is so strong that metal-containing items
are strongly attracted to the magnet. Because the hip joint is made of metal, a lead
shield must be used during the procedure. Elevated blood pressure, an allergy to
shell fish, and a history of atrial fibrillation would not affect the MRI.
A client's daughter is sitting by her mother's bedside who was recently transferred
to the Intermediate Care Unit. She states "I don't understand what a brain attack is.
The healthcare provider told me my mother is in serious condition and they are
going to run several tests. I just don't know what is going on. What happened to my
mother?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "I am sorry, but according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accounting
Act (HIPAA), I cannot give you any information."
B) "Your mother has had a stroke, and the blood supply to the brain has been
blocked."
C) "How do you feel about what the healthcare provider said?"
D) "I will call the healthcare provider so he/she can talk to you about your mother's
serious condition."
B) "Your mother has had a stroke, and the blood supply to the brain has been
blocked."
Rationale: The nurse can discuss what a diagnosis means. Nancy is unable to make
decisions, so the next of kin, her daughter, Gail, needs sufficient information to
make informed decisions. The nurse has the knowledge, and the responsibility, to
explain Nancy's condition to Gail. The nurse should give facts first, and then
address her feelings after the information is provided.
What is the normal range for cardiac output?
The normal range for cardiac output to ensure cerebral blood flow and oxygen
delivery is 4 to 8 L/min.
A client was admitted with the diagnosis of a brain attack. Their symptoms began
24 hours before being admitted. Why would this client not be a candidate for for
thrombolytic therapy?
Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in clients with symptom onset longer than
3 hours prior to admission. This client had symptoms for 24 hours before being
brought to the medical center
What are plate guards?
Plate guards prevent food from being pushed off the plate. Using plate guards and
other assistive devices will encourage independence in a client with a self-care
deficit.
Which condition is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for a brain attack?
A) High cholesterol levels.
B) Obesity.
C) History of atrial fibrillation.
D) Advanced age.
D) Advanced age.
Rationale: People over age 55 are a high-risk group for a brain attack because the
incidence of stroke more than doubles in each successive decade of life. Nonmodifiable means the client cannot do anything to change the risk factor. All the
other options are modifiable risk factors.
A client is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia as the result of a brain attack.
Which nursing intervention would the nurse implement to address this condition?
A) Turn Nancy every two hours and perform active range of motion exercises.
B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the
table.
C) Speak slowly and clearly to assist Nancy in forming sounds to words.
D) Request that the dietary department thicken all liquids on Nancy's meal and
snack trays.
B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the
table.
Rationale: Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of the visual field on the same side as
the paralyzed side. This results in the client neglecting that side of the body, so it is
beneficial to place objects on that side. Nancy had a left-hemisphere brain attack so
her right side is the weak side. Speaking slowly and clearly would address the
client's verbal deficits due to aphasia. Requesting all liquids to be thickened would
address dysphagia. Turning the client every 2 hours and performing active range of
motion exercises would address the client's risk for immobility due to paralysis.
A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with
ambulation from the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report
being dizzy and begin to fall. The PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed
and notifies the primary nurse. Which written documentation should the nurse put
in the client's record?
A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait
belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.
C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time
because of dizziness.
D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied
by the PT, variance report completed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait
belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.
Rationale: This documentation provides the factual data of the events that
occurred. A)The nurse is making an assumption that the dizziness was caused by
orthostatic hypotension. C) Not all the pertinent facts are included in this
documentation.
D) A variance report should never be documented in the client's record.
A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial
blood gases (ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate,
24 mEq/L; and O2 saturation, 96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is
indicated?
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider.
D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed.
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by CO2 retention and impaired chest
expansion secondary to anesthesia. The nurse takes steps to promote CO2
elimination, including maintaining a patent airway and expanding the lungs
through breathing techniques. O2 is not indicated because Po2 and oxygen
saturation are within the normal range. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated
because the bicarbonate level is in the normal range; promoting excretion of
respiratory acids is the priority in respiratory acidosis. Post anesthesia, the client
will need interventions as described in A above or may progress to a state of
somnolence and unresponsiveness.
The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high
risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should
the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake.
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily
intake of soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm.
Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of plant
stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat (D) intake should
be limited to 7% of total daily calories.
A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which
statement by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the
splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength.
A) Prevention of deformities.
Rationale: Splints may be used at night by clients with rheumatoid arthritis to
prevent deformities (A) caused by muscle spasms and contractures. Splints are not
used for (B). (C) is usually treated with medications, particularly those classified as
non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). For (D), a prescribed exercise
program is indicated.
A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month
before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which
additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's
complaints? [Show Less]
