LEVEL 3 - RNSG 2213 EXAM 1 - 3 BUNDLE $40.45 Add To Cart
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Level 3 - RNSG 2213 - Review for Exam 1 (Ch. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 17, & 24) - Questions, Answers and Rationales Which outcome, focused on recovery, wo... [Show More] uld be expected in the plan of care for a patient living in the community with serious and persistent mental illness? Within 3 months, the patient will: a. deny suicidal ideation. b. report a sense of well-being. c. take medications as prescribed. d. attend clinic appointments on time. Recovery emphasizes managing symptoms, reducing psychosocial disability, and improving role performance. The goal of recovery is to empower the individual with mental illness to achieve a sense of meaning and satisfaction in life and to function at the highest possible level of wellness. The incorrect options focus on the classic medical model rather than recovery. A patient is hospitalized for depression and suicidal ideation after their spouse asks for a divorce. Select the nurse's most caring comment. a. "Let's discuss some means of coping other than suicide when you have these feelings." b. "I understand why you're so depressed. When I got divorced, I was devastated too." c. "You should forget about your marriage and move on with your life." d. "How did you get so depressed that hospitalization was necessary?" The nurse's communication should evidence caring and a commitment to work with the patient. This commitment lets the patient know the nurse will help. Probing and advice are not helpful or therapeutic interventions. In the shift-change report, an off-going nurse criticizes a patient who wears heavy makeup. Which comment by the nurse who receives the report best demonstrates advocacy? a. “This is a psychiatric hospital. Craziness is what we are all about.” b. “Let’s all show acceptance of this patient by wearing lots of makeup too.” c. “Your comments are inconsiderate and inappropriate. Keep the report objective.” d. “Our patients need our help to learn behaviors that will help them get along in society.” Accepting patients' needs for self-expression and seeking to teach skills that will contribute to their well-being demonstrate respect and are important parts of advocacy. The on-coming nurse needs to take action to ensure that others are not prejudiced against the patient. Humor can be appropriate within the privacy of a shift report but not at the expense of respect for patients. Judging the off-going nurse in a critical way will create conflict. Nurses must show compassion for each other. A nurse assesses a newly admitted patient with depression. Which statement is an example of "attending"? a. "We all have stress in life. Being in a psychiatric hospital isn't the end of the world." b. "Tell me why you felt you had to be hospitalized to receive treatment for your depression." c. "You will feel better after we get some antidepressant medication started for you." d. "I'd like to sit with you a while so you may feel more comfortable talking with me." Attending is a technique that demonstrates the nurse's commitment to the relationship and reduces feelings of isolation. This technique shows respect for the patient and demonstrates caring. Generalizations, probing, and false reassurances are nontherapeutic. A patient shows the nurse an article from the Internet about a health problem. Which characteristic of the web site's address most alerts the nurse that the site may have biased and prejudiced information? a. Address ends in ".org." b. Address ends in ".com." c. Address ends in ".gov." d. Address ends in ".net." Financial influences on a site are a clue that the information may be biased. ".com" at the end of the address indicates that the site is a commercial one. ".gov" indicates that the site is maintained by a government entity. ".org" indicates that the site is nonproprietary; the site may or may not have reliable information, but it does not profit from its activities. ".net" can have multiple meanings. A nurse says, "When I was in school I learned to call upset patients by name to get their attention, but I read a descriptive research study that says that this approach doesn't work. I'm going stop calling patients by name." Which statement is the best appraisal of this nurse's comment? a. One descriptive research study rarely provides enough evidence to change practice. b. Staff nurses apply new research findings only with the help from clinical nurse specialists. c. New research findings should be incorporated into clinical algorithms before using them in practice. d. The nurse misinterpreted the results of the study. Classic tenets of practice do not change. Descriptive research findings provide evidence for practice but must be viewed in relation to other studies before practice changes. One study is not enough. Descriptive studies are low on the hierarchy of evidence. Clinical algorithms use flow charts to manage problems and do not specify one response to a clinical problem. Classic tenets of practice should change as research findings provide evidence for change. Two nursing students discuss career plans after graduation. One student wants to enter psychiatric nursing. The other student asks, "Why would you want to be a psychiatric nurse? All they do is talk. You'll lose your skills." Select the best response by the student interested in psychiatric nursing. a. "Psychiatric nurses practice in safer environments than other specialties. Nurse-to-patient ratios must be better because of the nature of patients' problems." b. "Psychiatric nurses use complex communication skills, as well as critical thinking, to solve multidimensional problems. I'm challenged by those situations." c. "I think I'll be good in the mental health field. I do not like clinical rotations in school, so I don't want to continue them after I graduate." d. "Psychiatric nurses don't have to deal with as much pain and suffering as medical surgical nurses. That appeals to me." The practice of psychiatric nursing requires a different set of skills than medical surgical nursing, although substantial overlap does exist. Psychiatric nurses must be able to help patients with medical and mental health problems, reflecting the holistic perspective these nurses must have. Nurse-patient ratios and workloads in psychiatric settings have increased, similar to other specialties. Psychiatric nursing involves clinical practice, not simply documentation. Psychosocial pain is real and can cause as much suffering as physical pain. Which research evidence would most influence a group of nurses to change their practice? a. Expert committee report of recommendations for practice b. Systematic review of randomized controlled trials c. Nonexperimental descriptive study d. Critical pathway Research findings are graded using a hierarchy of evidence. A systematic review of randomized controlled trials is Level A and provides the strongest evidence for changing practice. Expert committee recommendations and descriptive studies lend less powerful and influential evidence. A critical pathway is not evidence; it incorporates research findings after they have been analyzed. A bill introduced in Congress would reduce funding for the care of people with mental illnesses. A group of nurses write letters to their elected representatives in opposition to the legislation. Which role have the nurses fulfilled? a. Advocacy b. Attending c. Recovery d. Evidence-based practice An advocate defends or asserts another's cause, particularly when the other person lacks the ability to do that for him- or herself. Examples of individual advocacy include helping patients understand their rights or make decisions. On a community scale, advocacy includes political activity, public speaking, and publication in the interest of improving the individuals with mental illness; the letter-writing campaign advocates for that cause on behalf of patients who are unable to articulate their own needs. An informal group of patients discuss their perceptions of nursing care. Which comment best indicates a patient's perception that his or her nurse is caring? a. "My nurse always asks me which type of juice I want to help me swallow my medication." b. "My nurse explained my treatment plan to me and asked for my ideas about how to make it better." c. "My nurse told me that if I take all the medicines the doctor prescribes I will get discharged soon." d. "My nurse spends time listening to me talk about my problems. That helps me feel like I'm not alone." Caring evidences empathic understanding, as well as competency. It helps change pain and suffering into a shared experience, creating a human connection that alleviates feelings of isolation. The remaining options give examples of statements that demonstrate advocacy or giving advice. A patient who immigrated to the United States from Honduras was diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient took an antipsychotic medication for 3 weeks but showed no improvement. Which resource should the treatment team consult for information on more effective medications for this patient? a. Clinical algorithm b. Clinical pathway c. Clinical practice guideline d. International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) A clinical algorithm is a guideline that describes diagnostic and/or treatment approaches drawn from large databases of information. These guidelines help the treatment team make decisions cognizant of an individual patient's needs, such as ethnic origin, age, or gender. A clinical pathway is a map of interventions and treatments related to a specific disorder. Clinical practice guidelines summarize best practices about specific health problems. The ICD classifies diseases. Which historical nursing leader helped focus practice to recognize the importance of science in psychiatric nursing? a. Abraham Maslow b. Hildegard Peplau c. Kris Martinsen d. Harriet Bailey Although all these leaders included science as an important component of practice, Hildegard Peplau most influenced its development in psychiatric nursing. Maslow was not a nurse, but his theories influence how nurses prioritize problems and care. Bailey wrote a textbook in the 1930s on psychiatric nursing interventions. Kris Martinsen emphasized the importance of caring in nursing practice. A nurse consistently strives to demonstrate caring behaviors during interactions with patients. Which reaction by a patient indicates this nurse is effective? A patient reports feeling: a. distrustful l of others. b. connected with others. c. uneasy about the future. d. discouraged with efforts to improve. A patient is likely to respond to caring with a sense of connectedness with others. The absence of caring can make patients feel distrustful, disconnected, uneasy, and discouraged. An experienced nurse says to a new graduate, “When you’ve practiced as long as I have, you’ll instantly know how to take care of psychotic patients.” What is the new graduate’s best analysis of this comment? Select all that apply. a. The experienced nurse may have lost sight of patients’ individuality, which may compromise the integrity of practice. b. New research findings must be continually integrated into a nurse’s practice to provide the most effective care. c. Experience provides mental health nurses with the tools and skills needed for effective professional practice. d. Experienced psychiatric nurses have learned the best ways to care for psychotic patients through trial and error. e. Effective psychiatric nurses should be continually guided by an intuitive sense of patients’ needs. Evidence-based practice involves using research findings to provide the most effective nursing care. Evidence is continually emerging; therefore, nurses cannot rely solely on experience. The effective nurse also maintains respect for each patient as an individual. Overgeneralization compromises that perspective. Intuition and trial and error are unsystematic approaches to care. Which patient statements identify qualities of nursing practice with high therapeutic value? (Select all that apply.) “The nurse: a. talks in language I can understand.” b. helps me keep track of my medications.” c. is willing to go to social activities with me.” d. lets me do whatever I choose without interfering.” e. looks at me as a whole person with different needs.” Each correct answer demonstrates caring is an example of appropriate nursing foci: communicating at a level understandable to the patient, using holistic principles to guide care, and providing medication supervision. The incorrect options suggest a laissez-faire attitude on the part of the nurse, when the nurse should instead provide thoughtful feedback and help patients test alternative solutions or violate boundaries. A nurse explains multiaxial diagnoses to a psychiatric technician. Which information is accurate? a. It is a template for treatment planning. b. Nursing and medical diagnoses are included. c. Assessments of several aspects of functioning are included. d. It incorporates the framework of a specific biopsychosocial theory. The use of five axes requires an assessment beyond the diagnosis of a mental disorder and includes relevant medical conditions, psychosocial and environmental problems, and global assessment of functioning. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (fourth edition, text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) is not a template for treatment planning and does not use a specific biopsychosocial theory. Nursing diagnoses are not included in multiaxial diagnoses. Which documentation of diagnosis would a nurse expect for a person with mental illness? a. I Rheumatoid arthritis II 100 III Posttraumatic stress disorder IV Arrested for shoplifting 2 months earlier V None b. I Mental retardation II Histrionic personality disorder III 75 IV Hypertension V Home destroyed by tornado last year c. I Schizophrenia, paranoid II Death of spouse last year III 40 IV None V Alcohol abuse d. I Generalized anxiety disorder II Avoidant personality disorder III Fibromyalgia IV Declared bankruptcy 6 months ago V 60 The option beginning with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder places a clinical disorder on Axis I, a personality disorder on Axis II, a medical problem on Axis III, a psychosocial problem on Axis IV, and global assessment of functioning (GAF) on Axis V. The other options misplace and incorrectly order the clinical data. A patient is admitted to the psychiatric hospital for assessment and evaluation. Which assessment finding best indicates that the patient has a mental illness? The patient: a. describes coping and relaxation strategies used when feeling anxious. b. describes mood as consistently sad, discouraged, and hopeless. c. can perform tasks attempted within the limits of own abilities. d. reports occasional problems with insomnia. A patient who reports having a consistently negative mood is describing a mood alteration. The incorrect options describe mentally healthy behaviors and common problems that do not indicate mental illness. The goal for a patient is to increase resiliency. Which outcome should a nurse add to the plan of care? Within 3 days, the patient will: a. describe feelings associated with loss and stress. b. meet own needs without considering the rights of others. c. identify healthy coping behaviors in response to stressful events. d. allow others to assume responsibility for major areas of own life. The patient's ability to identify healthy coping behaviors indicates adaptive, healthy behavior and demonstrates an increased ability to recover from severe stress. Describing feelings associated with loss and stress does not move the patient toward adaptation. The remaining options are maladaptive behaviors. A nurse at a behavioral health clinic sees an unfamiliar psychiatric diagnosis on a patient’s insurance form. Which resource should the nurse consult to discern the criteria used to establish this diagnosis? a. DSM-IV-TR b. Nursing Diagnosis Manual c. A psychiatric nursing textbook d. A behavioral health reference manual The DSM-IV-TR gives the criteria used to diagnose each mental disorder. The Nursing Diagnosis Manual focuses on nursing diagnoses. A psychiatric nursing textbook or behavioral health reference manual may not contain diagnostic criteria. A nurse must assess several new patients at a community mental health center. Conclusions concerning current functioning should be made on the basis of: a. the degree of conformity of the individual to society's norms. b. the degree to which an individual is logical and rational. c. a continuum from mentally healthy to unhealthy. d. the rate of intellectual and emotional growth. Because mental health and mental illness are relative concepts, assessment of functioning is made by using a continuum. Mental health is not based on conformity; some mentally healthy individuals do not conform to society's norms. Most individuals occasionally display illogical or irrational thinking. The rate of intellectual and emotional growth is not the most useful criterion to assess mental health or mental illness. A 40-year-old adult living with parents states, "I'm happy but I don't socialize much. My work is routine. When new things come up, my boss explains them a few times to make sure I understand. At home, my parents make decisions for me, and I go along with them." A nurse should identify interventions to improve this patient's: a. self-concept. b. overall happiness. c. appraisal of reality. d. control over behavior. The patient feels the need for multiple explanations of new tasks at work and, despite being 40 years of age, allows both parents to make all decisions. These behaviors indicate a poorly developed self-concept. A patient tells a nurse, "I have psychiatric problems and am in and out of hospitals all the time. Not one of my friends or relatives has these problems." Select the nurse's best response. a. "Comparing yourself with others has no real advantages." b. "Why do you blame yourself for having a psychiatric illness?" c. "Mental illness affects 50% of the adult population in any given year." d. "It sounds like you are concerned that others don't experience the same challenges as you." Mental illness affects many people at various times in their lives. No class, culture, or creed is immune to the challenges of mental illness. The correct response also demonstrates the use of reflection, a therapeutic communication technique. It is not true that mental illness affects 50% of the population in any given year. Asking patients if they blame themselves is an example of probing. A critical care nurse asks a psychiatric nurse about the difference between a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis and a nursing diagnosis. Select the psychiatric nurse's best response. a. "No functional difference exists between the two diagnoses. Both serve to identify a human deviance." b. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis disregards culture, whereas the nursing diagnosis includes cultural variables." c. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis profiles present distress or disability, whereas a nursing diagnosis considers past and present responses to actual mental health problems." d. "The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis influences the medical treatment; the nursing diagnosis offers a framework to identify interventions for problems a patient has or may experience." The medical diagnosis is concerned with the patient's disease state, causes, and cures, whereas the nursing diagnosis focuses on the patient's response to stress and possible caring interventions. Both the DSM-IV-TR and a nursing diagnosis consider culture. The DSM-IV-TR is multiaxial. Nursing diagnoses also consider potential problems. A nurse finds a new patient uncommunicative about recent life events. The nurse suspects marital and economic problems. The social worker's assessment is not available. The most effective action the nurse can take is to: a. ask the patient who shares a room with him or her. b. consult Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR in the medical record. c. focus questions on the topics of marital and economic issues. d. delay discussion of these topics until the social worker's assessment is available. The physician's admission note identifies psychosocial and environmental problems on Axis IV pertinent to the patient's situation, providing another source of information for the nurse. Asking the patient who shares a room with him or her violates patient privacy rights. Persistent questioning may cause the patient to withdraw. Delaying the discussion until the social worker's assessment is available is not an effective solution. A newly admitted patient is profoundly depressed, mute, and motionless. The patient has refused to bathe and eat for a week. Which score would be expected on the patient's global assessment of functioning? a. 100 b. 80 c. 50 d. 10 The patient is unable to maintain personal hygiene, oral intake, or verbal communication. The patient is dangerous to self because of the potential for starvation. A GAF score of 100 indicates high-level functioning. A score of 80 or 50 suggests higher functional abilities than the patient presently displays. The spouse of a patient with schizophrenia says, "I don't understand why childhood experiences have anything to do with this disabling illness." Select the nurse's response that will best help the spouse understand this condition. a. "Psychological stress is actually at the root of most mental disorders." b. "We now know that all mental illnesses are the result of genetic factors." c. "It must be frustrating for you that your spouse is sick so much of the time." d. "Although this disorder more likely has a biological rather than psychological origin, the support and involvement of caregivers is very important." Many of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have been found to have strong biological influences. Helping the spouse understand the importance of his or her role as a caregiver is also important. Empathy is important but does not increase the spouse's level of knowledge about the cause of the patient's condition. Not all mental illnesses are the result of genetic factors. Psychologic stress is not at the root of most mental disorders. Which belief by a nurse supports the highest degree of patient advocacy during a multidisciplinary patient care planning session? a. All mental illnesses are culturally determined. b. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders. c. Symptoms of mental disorders are constant from culture to culture. d. Some symptoms of mental disorders reflect a person's cultural patterns. A nurse who understands that a patient’s symptoms are influenced by culture will be able to advocate for the patient to a greater degree than a nurse who believes that culture is of little relevance. All mental illnesses are not culturally determined. Schizophrenia and bipolar disorder are cross-cultural disorders, but this understanding has little relevance to patient advocacy. Symptoms of mental disorders change from culture to culture. A patient's history shows intense and unstable relationships with others. The patient initially idealizes an individual and then devalues the person when the patient's needs are not met. Which aspect of mental health is a problem? a. Effectiveness in work b. Communication skills c. Productive activities d. Fulfilling relationships The information provided centers on relationships with others, which are described as intense and unstable. The relationships of mentally healthy individuals are stable, satisfying, and socially integrated. Data are not present to describe work effectiveness, communication skills, or activities. In the majority culture of the United States, which individual is at greatest risk to be incorrectly labeled mentally ill? a. Person who is usually pessimistic but strives to meet personal goals b. Wealthy person who gives $20 bills to needy individuals in the community c. Person with an optimistic viewpoint about life and getting his or her own needs met d. Person who attends a charismatic church and describes hearing God's voice Hearing voices is generally associated with mental illness; however, in charismatic religious groups, hearing the voice of God or a prophet is a desirable event. In this situation, cultural norms vary, making it more difficult to make an accurate DSM-IV-TR diagnosis. The individuals described in the other options are less likely to be labeled as mentally ill. A psychiatric nurse addresses Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR as the focus of care but also considers the presence of other long-term, nonmedical disorders that may affect treatment. To which axis should the nurse refer for this information? a. II b. III c. IV d. V Axis II refers to personality disorders and mental retardation. Together, Axis I and Axis II constitute the classification of abnormal behavior diagnosed in the individual. Axis III indicates any relevant general medical conditions. Axis IV reports psychosocial and environmental problems that may affect the diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Axis V is the GAF score. A mentally ill person's current global assessment of functioning (GAF) score is 10. Select the nurse's highest priority related to this patient's care. [Show Less]
Level 3 - RNSG 2213 - Review for Exam 2 (Ch. 4, 10, 11, 12, 13, 15, 16, & 23) - Questions, Answers and Rationales A patient asks a nurse, "What are neuro... [Show More] transmitters? My doctor says mine are out of balance." The best reply would be: a. "You must feel relieved to know that your problem has a physical basis." b. "Neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells." c. "It is a high-level concept to explain. You should ask the doctor to tell you more." d. "Neurotransmitters are substances we eat daily that influence memory and mood." Stating that neurotransmitters are chemicals that pass messages between brain cells gives the most accurate information. Neurotransmitters are messengers in the central nervous system. They are released from the axon terminal, diffuse across the synapse, and attach to specialized receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. The incorrect responses do not answer the patient's question, are demeaning, and provide untrue and misleading information. The parent of an adolescent with schizophrenia asks a nurse, "My child's doctor ordered a positron-emission tomography (PET) scan. What is that?" Select the nurse's best reply. a. "PET uses a magnetic field and gamma waves to identify problems areas in the brain. Does your teenager have any metal implants?" b. "It's a special type of x-ray image that shows structures of the brain and whether a brain injury has ever occurred." c. "PET is a scan that passes an electrical current through the brain and shows brain wave activity. PET can help diagnose seizures." d. "PET is a special scan that shows blood flow and activity in the brain." The parent is seeking information about PET scans. It is important to use terms the parent can understand. The correct option is the only reply that provides factual information relevant to PET scans. The incorrect responses describe magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomographic (CT) scans, and electroencephalography (EEG). A patient has dementia. The health care provider wants to make a differential diagnosis between Alzheimer disease and multiple infarctions. Which diagnostic procedure should a nurse expect to prepare the patient for first? a. Computed tomography (CT) scan b. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) d. Single-photon-emission computed tomography (SPECT) scan A CT scan shows the presence or absence of structural changes, including cortical atrophy, ventricular enlargement, and areas of infarction—information that will be helpful to the health care provider. The other tests focus on brain activity and are more expensive; they may be ordered later. A patient has delusions and hallucinations. Before beginning treatment with a psychotropic medication, the health care provider wants to rule out the presence of a brain tumor. For which test will a nurse need to prepare the patient? a. Cerebral arteriogram b. Computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Positron emission tomography (PET) or single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) d. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) A CT scan and an MRI visualize neoplasms and other structural abnormalities. A PET scan, SPECT scan, and fMRI, which give information about brain function, are not indicated. An arteriogram would not be appropriate. The nurse wants to assess for disturbances in circadian rhythms in a patient admitted for depression. Which question best implements this assessment? a. "Do you ever see or hear things that others do not?" b. "Do you have problems with short-term memory?" c. "What are your worst and best times of day?" d. "How would you describe your thinking?" Mood changes throughout the day are related to circadian rhythms. Questions about sleep pattern would also be relevant to circadian rhythms. The question about seeing or hearing things is relevant to the assessment for illusions and hallucinations. The question about thinking is relevant to the assessment of thought processes. The other question is relevant to assessment of memory. A nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of gamma- aminobutyric acid (GABA). Which finding would be expected? a. Reduced anxiety b. Improved memory c. More organized thinking d. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety, thus any potentiation of GABA action should result in anxiety reduction. Memory enhancement is associated with acetylcholine and substance P. Thought disorganization is associated with dopamine. GABA is not associated with sensory perceptual alterations. On the basis of current knowledge of neurotransmitter effects, a nurse anticipates that the treatment plan for a patient with memory difficulties may include medications designed to: a. inhibit GABA production. b. increase dopamine sensitivity. c. decrease dopamine at receptor sites. d. prevent destruction of acetylcholine. Increased acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Preventing the destruction of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase results in higher levels of acetylcholine with the potential for improved memory. GABA is known to affect anxiety level rather than memory. Increased dopamine causes symptoms associated with schizophrenia or mania rather than improves memory. Decreasing dopamine at receptor sites is associated with Parkinson disease rather than improving memory. A patient has disorganized thinking associated with schizophrenia. Neuroimaging would most likely show dysfunction in which part of the brain? a. Brainstem b. Cerebellum c. Temporal lobe d. Prefrontal cortex The prefrontal cortex is responsible for intellectual functioning. The temporal lobe is responsible for the sensation of hearing. The cerebellum regulates skeletal muscle coordination and equilibrium. The brainstem regulates internal organs. A nurse should assess a patient taking a medication with anticholinergic properties for inhibited function of the: a. parasympathetic nervous system b. sympathetic nervous system c. reticular activating system d. medulla oblongata Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter found in high concentration in the parasympathetic nervous system. When acetylcholine action is inhibited by anticholinergic drugs, parasympathetic symptoms such as blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention appear. The functions of the sympathetic nervous system, the reticular activating system, and the medulla oblongata are not affected by anticholinergic medications. The therapeutic action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) blocks neurotransmitter reuptake, causing: a. increased concentration of neurotransmitters in the synaptic gap b. decreased concentration of neurotransmitters in serum c. destruction of receptor sites d. limbic system stimulation If the reuptake of a substance is inhibited, then it accumulates in the synaptic gap and its concentration increases, permitting the ease of the transmission of impulses across the synaptic gap. Normal transmission of impulses across synaptic gaps is consistent with a normal rather than a depressed mood. The other options are not associated with blocking neurotransmitter reuptake. A patient taking medication for mental illness develops restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in motion. A nurse can correctly analyze that these symptoms are related to which drug action? a. Anticholinergic effects b. Dopamine-blocking effects c. Endocrine-stimulating effects d. Ability to stimulate spinal nerves Medications that block dopamine often produce disturbances of movement such as akathisia because dopamine affects neurons involved in both the thought processes and movement regulation. Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. Akathisia is not caused by endocrine stimulation or spinal nerve stimulation. A patient has anxiety, increased heart rate, and fear. The nurse would suspect the presence of a high concentration of which neurotransmitter? a. GABA b. Histamine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter associated with sympathetic nervous system stimulation, preparing the individual for "fight or flight" response. GABA is a mediator of anxiety level. A high concentration of histamine is associated with an inflammatory response. A high concentration of acetylcholine is associated with parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. A patient has symptoms of acute anxiety related to the death of a parent in an automobile accident 2 hours earlier. The nurse should prepare to teach the patient about a medication from which group? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Atypical antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Benzodiazepines Benzodiazepines provide anxiety relief. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to treat symptoms of depression. Anticonvulsants are used to treat bipolar disorder or seizures. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat psychosis. A patient is hospitalized for major depression. Of the medications listed, a nurse can expect to provide the patient with teaching about: a. chlordiazepoxide (Librium) b. fluoxetine (Prozac) c. clozapine (Clozaril) d. tacrine (Cognex) Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), an antidepressant that blocks the reuptake of serotonin with few anticholinergic and sedating side effects; clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication; chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is an anxiolytic drug; and tacrine (Cognex) is used to treat Alzheimer disease. A patient hospitalized with a mood disorder has aggression, agitation, talkativeness, and irritability. A nurse begins the care plan based on the expectation that the health care provider is most likely to prescribe a medication classified as a(n): a. anticholinergic b. mood stabilizer c. psychostimulant d. antidepressant The symptoms describe a manic attack. Mania is effectively treated by the antimanic drug lithium and selected anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine. No drugs from the other classifications listed are effective in the treatment of mania. A drug causes muscarinic-receptor blockade. A nurse will assess the patient for: a. dry mouth b. gynecomastia c. pseudoparkinsonism d. orthostatic hypotension Muscarinic-receptor blockade includes atropine-like side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Gynecomastia is associated with decreased prolactin levels. Movement defects are associated with dopamine blockade. Orthostatic hypotension is associated with alpha1-receptor antagonism. A patient begins therapy with a phenothiazine medication. What teaching should a nurse provide related to the drug's strong dopaminergic effect? a. Chew sugarless gum. b. Increase dietary fiber. c. Arise slowly from bed. d. Report muscle stiffness. Phenothiazines block dopamine receptors in both the limbic system and basal ganglia. Dystonia is likely to occur early in the course of treatment and is often heralded by sensations of muscle stiffness. Early intervention with an antiparkinsonian medication can increase the patient's comfort and prevent dystonic reactions. A nurse can anticipate anticholinergic side effects will be likely when a patient is taking: a. lithium (Lithobid) b. buspirone (BuSpar) c. risperidone (Risperdal) d. fluphenazine (Prolixin) Fluphenazine, a first-generation antipsychotic medication, exerts muscarinic blockade, resulting in dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Lithium therapy is more often associated with fluid balance problems, including polydipsia, polyuria, and edema. Risperidone therapy is more often associated with movement disorders, orthostatic hypotension, and sedation. Buspirone is associated with anxiety reduction without major side effects. Priority teaching for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) should include which instruction? a. Report sore throat and fever immediately. b. Avoid foods high in polyunsaturated fat. c. Use water-based lotions for rashes. d. Avoid unprotected sex. Clozapine therapy may produce agranulocytosis; therefore signs of infection should be immediately reported to the health care provider. In addition, the patient should have white blood cell levels measured weekly. The other options are not relevant to clozapine administration. A nurse cares for patients taking various medications, including buspirone (BuSpar), haloperidol (Haldol), trazodone (Desyrel), and phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse will order a special diet for the patient taking: a. buspirone b. haloperidol c. trazodone d. phenelzine Patients taking phenelzine, an MAOI, must be on a tyramine-free diet to prevent hypertensive crisis. A nurse caring for a patient taking a serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) will develop outcome criteria related to: a. mood improvement b. logical thought processes c. reduced levels of motor activity d. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms SSRIs affect mood, relieving depression in many patients. SSRIs do not act to reduce thought disorders. SSRIs reduce depression but have little effect on motor hyperactivity. SSRIs do not produce extrapyramidal symptoms. A patient's spouse, who is a chemist, asks a nurse how serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) lift depression. The nurse should explain that SSRIs: a. destroy increased amounts of neurotransmitters. b. make more serotonin available at the synaptic gap. c. increase production of acetylcholine and dopamine. d. block muscarinic and alpha1- norepinephrine receptors. Depression is thought to be related to the lowered availability of the neurotransmitter serotonin. SSRIs act by blocking the reuptake of serotonin, leaving a higher concentration available at the synaptic cleft. They actually prevent the destruction of serotonin, have no effect on acetylcholine and dopamine production, and do not block muscarinic or alpha1-norepinephrine receptors. A patient has taken many conventional antipsychotic drugs over years. The health care provider, who is concerned about early signs of tardive dyskinesia, prescribes risperidone (Risperdal). A nurse planning care for this patient understands that atypical antipsychotics: a. are less costly. b. have higher potency. c. are more readily available. d. produce fewer motor side effects Atypical antipsychotic drugs often exert their action on the limbic system rather than the basal ganglia. The limbic system is not involved in motor disturbances. Atypical antipsychotic medications are not more readily available. They are not considered to be of higher potency; rather, they have different modes of action. Atypical antipsychotic drugs tend to be more expensive. The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a 33 white blood cell count of 3000 mm and a granulocyte count of 1500 mm. The nurse should: a. report the laboratory results to the health care provider. b. give the next dose as prescribed. c. administer aspirin and force fluids. d. repeat the laboratory tests. These laboratory values indicate the possibility of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of clozapine therapy. These results must be immediately reported to the health care provider. The drug should be withheld because the health care provider will discontinue it. The health care provider may repeat the laboratory test, but, in the meantime, the drug should be withheld. Giving aspirin and forcing fluids are measures that are less important than stopping the administration of the drug. A nurse administering psychotropic medications should be prepared to intervene when giving a drug that blocks the attachment of norepinephrine to alpha1 receptors because the patient may experience: a. increased psychotic symptoms b. severe appetite disturbance c. orthostatic hypotension d. hypertensive crisis Sympathetic-mediated vasoconstriction is essential for maintaining normal blood pressure in the upright position. Blockage of alpha1 receptors leads to vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension may cause fainting and falls. Patients should be taught ways of minimizing this phenomenon. A nurse prepares to administer an antipsychotic medication to a patient with schizophrenia. Additional monitoring of the medication’s effects and side effects will be most important if the patient is also diagnosed with which health problem? Select all that apply. a. Parkinson disease b. Graves disease c. Osteoarthritis d. Epilepsy e. Diabetes Antipsychotic medications may produce weight gain, which complicates the care of a patient with diabetes or lowers the seizure threshold or both, which complicates the care of a patient with epilepsy. Parkinson disease involves changes in transmission of dopamine and acetylcholine; therefore these drugs also complicate the care of a patient with the disorder. Osteoarthritis and Graves disease should have no synergistic effect with this medication. The spouse of a patient with schizophrenia asks, “Which neurotransmitters are more active when a person has schizophrenia?” The nurse should state, “The current thinking is that the thought disturbances are related to increased activity of: (Select all that apply.) a. GABA.” b. substance P.” c. histamine.” d. dopamine.” e. norepinephrine.” Dopamine plays a role in the integration of thoughts and emotions, and excess dopamine is implicated in the thought disturbances of schizophrenia. Increased activity of norepinephrine also occurs. Substance P is most related to the pain experience. Histamine decrease is associated with depression. Increased GABA is associated with anxiety reduction. An individual is experiencing problems associated with memory. Which cerebral structures are most likely to be involved in this deficit? Select all that apply. a. Prefrontal cortex b. Occipital lobe c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe e. Basal ganglia The prefrontal cortex, parietal, and temporal lobes of the cerebrum play a key role in the storage and processing of memories. The occipital lobe is predominantly involved with vision. The basal ganglia influence the integration of physical movement, as well as some thoughts and emotions. Which scenario best demonstrates an example of eustress? An individual: a. loses a beloved family pet. b. prepares to take a 1 week vacation to a tropical island with a group of close friends. c. receives a bank notice there were insufficient funds in their account for a recent rent payment. d. receives notification that their current employer is experiencing financial problems and some workers will be terminated. Eustress is beneficial stress; it motivates people to develop skills they need to solve problems and meet personal goals. Positive life experiences produce eustress. Going on a tropical vacation is an exciting, relaxing experience and an example of eustress. Losing the family pet, worrying about employment security, and having financial problems are examples of distress, a negative experience that drains energy and can lead to significant emotional problems. A patient with liver failure has been on the transplant waiting list for 8 months. The patient says to the nurse, "Why is it taking so long to have the surgery? Maybe I'm meant to die for all the bad things I've done." The nurse should document the patient's comment in which section of the assessment? a. Physical b. Spiritual c. Financial d. Psychological Stress can be evident in a person's spirituality. This patient's comment indicates questioning of one's place in the universe and consequences for wrongdoing, both of which are elements of spirituality. Stress can be related to psychologic, physical, or psychosocial well-being, but spirituality is the best answer. A person with a fear of heights drives across a high bridge. Which structure will stimulate a response from the autonomic nervous system? a. Thalamus b. Parietal lobe c. Hypothalamus d. Pituitary gland The individual will find this experience stressful. The hypothalamus functions as the command-and-control center when receiving stressful signals. The hypothalamus responds to signals of stress by engaging the autonomic nervous system. The parietal lobe is responsible for the interpretation of other sensations. The thalamus processes messages associated with pain and wakefulness. The pituitary gland may be involved in other aspects of the person's response but would not stimulate the autonomic nervous system. A person with a fear of heights drives across a high bridge. Which division of the autonomic nervous system is stimulated in response to this experience? a. Limbic system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system The autonomic nervous system is made up of the sympathetic (fight or flight response) and parasympathetic (relaxation response) nervous systems. In times of stress the [Show Less]
Level 3 - RNSG 2213 - Review for Exam 3 (Ch. 19, 10, 21, 22, 12, 26, 27, 28) - Questions, Answers and Rationales An alcohol-dependent patient was hospita... [Show More] lized at 0200 today. When would the nurse expect withdrawal symptoms to peak? a. Between 0800 and 1000 today (6 to 8 hours after drinking stopped) b. Between 0200 tomorrow and hospital day 2 (24 to 48 hours after drinking stopped) c. About 0200 on hospital day 3 (72 hours after drinking stopped) d. About 0200 on hospital day 4 (96 hours after drinking stopped) Alcohol withdrawal usually begins 6 to 8 hours after cessation or significant reduction of alcohol intake. It peaks between 24 and 48 hours, then resolves or progresses to delirium. A woman in the last trimester of pregnancy drinks 8 to 12 ounces of alcohol daily. The nurse plans for the delivery of an infant who is: a. jaundiced b. dependent on alcohol c. healthy but underweight d. microcephalic and cognitively impaired Fetal alcohol syndrome is the result of alcohol's inhibiting fetal development in the first trimester. The fetus of a woman who drinks that much alcohol will probably have this disorder. Alcohol use during pregnancy is not likely to produce the findings listed in the distracters. A patient was admitted last night with a hip fracture sustained in a fall while intoxicated. The patient points to the Buck traction and screams, "Somebody tied me up with ropes." The patient is experiencing: a. illusion b. delusion c. hallucinations d. hypnagogic phenomenon The patient is misinterpreting a sensory perception when seeing a noose instead of traction. Illusions are common in early withdrawal from alcohol. A delusion is a fixed, false belief. Hallucinations are sensory perceptions occurring in the absence of a stimulus. Hypnagogic phenomena are sensory disturbances that occur between waking and sleeping. A patient was admitted 48 hours ago for injuries sustained while intoxicated. The patient is shaky, irritable, anxious, and diaphoretic. The pulse rate is 130 beats per minute. The patient shouts, "Bugs are crawling on my bed. I've got to get out of here." What is the most accurate assessment of the situation? The patient: a. is attempting to obtain attention by manipulating staff. b. may have sustained a head injury before admission. c. has symptoms of alcohol withdrawal delirium. d. is having a recurrence of an acute psychosis. Symptoms of agitation, elevated pulse, and perceptual distortions point to alcohol withdrawal delirium, a medical emergency. The findings are inconsistent with manipulative attempts, head injury, or functional psychosis. A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained in a fall while intoxicated believes bugs are crawling on the bed. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. What is the priority nursing diagnosis? a. Ineffective airway clearance b. Ineffective coping c. Ineffective denial d. Risk for injury The clouded sensorium, sensory perceptual distortions, and poor judgment increase the risk for injury. Safety is the nurse's priority. The scenario does not provide data to support the other diagnoses A patient admitted yesterday for injuries sustained while intoxicated believes the window blinds are snakes trying to get into the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which medication can the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe? a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, such as phenelzine (Nardil) b. Phenothiazine, such as thioridazine (Mellaril) c. Benzodiazepine, such as lorazepam (Ativan) d. Narcotic analgesic, such as morphine Sedation allows for the safe withdrawal from alcohol. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice in most regions because of their high therapeutic safety index and anticonvulsant properties. A hospitalized patient, injured in a fall while intoxicated, believes spiders are spinning entrapping webs in the room. The patient is anxious, agitated, and diaphoretic. Which nursing intervention has priority? a. Check the patient every 15 minutes. b. Rigorously encourage fluid intake. c. Provide one-on-one supervision. d. Keep the room dimly lit. One-on-one supervision is necessary to promote physical safety until sedation reduces the patient's feelings of terror. Checks every 15 minutes would not be sufficient to provide for safety. A dimly lit room promotes illusions. Oral fluids are important, but safety is a higher priority. An alcohol-dependent individual says, "Drinking helps me cope with being a single parent." Which response by the nurse would help the individual conceptualize the drinking more objectively? a. "Sooner or later, alcohol will kill you. Then what will happen to your children?" b. "I hear a lot of defensiveness in your voice. Do you really believe this?" c. "If you were coping so well, why were you hospitalized again?" d. "Tell me what happened the last time you drank." The individual is rationalizing. The correct response will help the patient see alcohol as a cause of the problems, not the solution. This approach can also help the patient become receptive to the possibility of change. The incorrect responses directly confront and attack defenses against anxiety that the patient still needs. They reflect the nurse's frustration with the patient. A patient asks for information about Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). Which is the nurse's best response? a. "It is a self-help group with the goal of sobriety." b. "It is a form of group therapy led by a psychiatrist." c. "It is a group that learns about drinking from a group leader." d. "It is a network that advocates strong punishment for drunk drivers." AA is a peer support group for recovering alcoholics. The goal is to maintain sobriety. Neither professional nor peer leaders are appointed. Police bring a patient to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The patient is ataxic with slurred speech and mild confusion. The blood alcohol level is 400 mg/dl (0.4 mg %). Considering the relationship between behavior and blood alcohol level, which conclusion can the nurse draw? The patient: a. rarely drinks alcohol. b. has a high tolerance to alcohol. c. has been treated with disulfiram (Antabuse). d. has recently ingested both alcohol and sedative drugs. A nontolerant drinker would be in a coma with a blood alcohol level of 400 mg/dl (0.40 mg %). The fact that the patient is walking and talking shows a discrepancy between blood alcohol level and expected behavior. It strongly suggests that the patient's body has become tolerant to the drug. If disulfiram and alcohol are ingested together, then an entirely different clinical picture would result. The blood alcohol level gives no information about the ingestion of other drugs. A patient admitted to an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "I'm just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and several drinks during the evening." Which defense mechanism is evident? a. Rationalization b. Introjection c. Projection d. Denial Minimizing one's drinking is a form of denial of alcoholism. The patient's own description indicates that "social drinking" is not an accurate name for the behavior. Projection involves blaming another for one's faults or problems. Rationalization involves making excuses. Introjection involves taking a quality into one's own system. A new patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "I'm just a social drinker. I usually have a drink or two at brunch, a few cocktails in the afternoon, wine at dinner, and a few drinks in the evening." Which response by the nurse will help the patient view the drinking more honestly? a "I see," and use interested silence. b. "I think you may be drinking more than you report." c. "Being a social drinker involves having a drink or two once or twice a week." d. "You describe drinking steadily throughout the day and evening. Am I correct?" The answer summarizes and validates what the patient reported but is accepting rather than strongly confrontational. Defenses cannot be removed until healthier coping strategies are in place. Strong confrontation does not usually take place so early in treatment. During the third week of treatment, the spouse of a patient in an alcoholism rehabilitation program says, "After discharge, I'm sure everything will be just fine." Which remark by the nurse will be most helpful to the spouse? a. "It is good that you're supportive of your spouse's sobriety and want to help maintain it." b. "Although sobriety solves some problems, new ones may emerge as one adjusts to living without alcohol." c. "It will be important for you to structure life to avoid as much stress as possible. You will need to provide social protection." d. "Remember that alcoholism is a disease of self-destruction. You will need to observe your spouse's behavior carefully." During recovery, patients identify and use alternative coping mechanisms to reduce their reliance on alcohol. Physical adaptations must occur. Emotional responses, formerly dulled by alcohol, are now fully experienced and may cause considerable anxiety. These changes inevitably have an effect on the spouse and children, who should be given anticipatory guidance and accurate information. The treatment team plans care for a person diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and cannabis abuse. The person has recently used cannabis daily and is experiencing increased hallucinations and delusions. Which principle applies to care planning? a. Consider each diagnosis primary and provide simultaneous treatment. b. The person will benefit from treatment in a residential treatment facility. c. Withdraw the person from cannabis, and then treat the symptoms of schizophrenia. d. Treat the schizophrenia first, and then establish the goals for the treatment of substance abuse. Dual diagnoses clinical practice guidelines for both outpatient and inpatient settings suggest that the substance disorder and the psychiatric disorder should both be considered primary and receive simultaneous treatments. Residential treatment may or may not be effective. When working with a patient beginning treatment for alcohol dependence, what is the nurse's most therapeutic approach? a. Empathetic, supportive b. Strong, confrontational c. Skeptical, guarded d. Cool, distant Support and empathy assist the patient to feel safe enough to start looking at problems. Counseling during the early stage of treatment needs to be direct, open, and honest. The other approaches will increase patient anxiety and cause the patient to cling to defenses. A patient comes to an outpatient appointment obviously intoxicated. The nurse should: a. explore the patient's reasons for drinking today. b. arrange admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit. c. coordinate emergency admission to a detoxification unit. d. tell the patient, "We cannot see you today because you've been drinking." One cannot conduct meaningful therapy with an intoxicated patient. The patient should be taken home to recover and then make another appointment. When a person first begins drinking alcohol, two drinks produce relaxation and drowsiness. After 1 year, four drinks are needed to achieve the same relaxed, drowsy state. Why does this change occur? a. The alcohol is less potent. b. Tolerance develops. c. Antagonistic effects occur. d. Hypomagnesemia develops Tolerance refers to needing higher and higher doses of a drug to produce the desired effect. The potency of the alcohol is stable. Neither hypomagnesemia nor antagonistic effects would account for this change. Which statement most accurately describes substance dependence? a. It is a lack of control over use. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms occur when intake is reduced or stopped. b. It occurs when psychoactive drug use interferes with the work of competing neurotransmitters. c. Symptoms occur when two or more drugs that affect the central nervous system (CNS) have additive effects. d. It involves taking a combination of substances to weaken or inhibit the effect of another drug. Psychoactive substance dependence involves a lack of control over use, as well as tolerance and withdrawal symptoms when intake is reduced or stopped. A patient who was admitted for a heroin overdose received naloxone (Narcan), which improved the breathing pattern. Two hours later, the patient reports muscle aches, abdominal cramps, gooseflesh and says, "I feel terrible." Which analysis is correct? a. The patient is exhibiting a prodromal symptom of seizures. b. An idiosyncratic reaction to naloxone is occurring. c. Symptoms of opiate withdrawal are present. d. The patient is experiencing a relapse. The symptoms given in the question are consistent with narcotic withdrawal. Early symptoms of narcotic withdrawal are flulike in nature. Seizures are more commonly observed in alcohol withdrawal syndrome. In the emergency department, a patient's vital signs are: blood pressure (BP), 66/40 mm Hg; pulse (P), 140 beats per minute (bpm); and respirations (R), 8 breaths per minute and shallow. The patient overdosed on illegally obtained hydromorphone (Dilaudid). Select the priority outcome. a. Within 8 hours, vital signs will stabilize as evidenced by BP greater than 90/60 mm Hg, P less than 100 bpm, and respirations at or above 12 breaths per minute. b. The patient will be able to describe a plan for home care and achieve a drug-free state before being released from the emergency department. c. The patient will attend daily meetings of Narcotics Anonymous within 1 week of beginning treatment. d. The patient will identify two community resources for the treatment of substance abuse by discharge. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is an opiate drug. The correct answer is the only one that relates to the patient's physical condition. It is expected that vital signs will return to normal when the CNS depression is alleviated. The distracters are desired outcomes later in the plan of care. Select the nursing intervention necessary after administering naloxone (Narcan) to a patient with an opiate overdose. a. Monitor the airway and vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Insert a nasogastric tube and test gastric pH. c. Treat hyperpyrexia with cooling measures. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Narcotic antagonists such as naloxone quickly reverse CNS depression; however, because the narcotics have a longer span of action than antagonists, the patient may lapse into unconsciousness or require respiratory support again. The incorrect options are measures unrelated to naloxone use. A nurse worked at a hospital for several months, resigned, and then took a position at another hospital. In the new position, the nurse often volunteers to be the medication nurse. After several serious medication errors, an investigation reveals that the nurse was diverting patient narcotics for self-use. What early indicator of the nurse's drug use was evident? a. Accepting responsibility for medication errors. b. Seeking to be assigned as the medication nurse. c. Frequent complaints of physical pain. d. High sociability with peers. The nurse intent on diverting drugs for personal use often attempts to isolate him- or herself from peers and seeks access to medications. Usually, the person's appearance will deteriorate, and he or she will blame errors on others. A nurse with a history of narcotic dependence is found unconscious in the hospital locker room after overdosing. The nurse is transferred to the inpatient chemical dependence unit for care. Which attitudes or behaviors by nursing staff may be enabling? a. Conveying understanding that pressures associated with nursing practice underlie substance use. b. Pointing out that work problems are the result, but not the cause, of substance dependence. c. Conveying empathy when the nurse discusses fears of disciplinary action by the state board of nursing. d. Providing health teaching about stress management. Enabling denies the seriousness of the patient's problem or supports the patient as he or she shifts responsibility from self to circumstances. The incorrect options are therapeutic and appropriate. Which treatment approach is most appropriate for a patient with antisocial tendencies who has been treated several times for substance addiction but has relapsed? a. One-week detoxification program b. Long-term outpatient therapy c. Twelve-step self-help program d. Residential program Residential programs and therapeutic communities have goals of complete change in lifestyle, abstinence from drugs, elimination of criminal behaviors, development of employable skills, self-reliance, and honesty. Residential programs are more effective than outpatient programs for patients with antisocial tendencies. Which nursing diagnosis would likely apply to both patients with paranoid schizophrenia and patients with amphetamine-induced psychosis? a. Powerlessness b. Disturbed thought processes c. Ineffective thermoregulation d. Impaired oral mucous membrane Both types of patients commonly experience paranoid delusions; thus the nursing diagnosis of Disturbed thought processes is appropriate for both. The incorrect options are not specifically applicable to both. Which is an important nursing intervention when giving care to a patient withdrawing from a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant? a. Make physical contact by frequently touching the patient. b. Offer intellectual activities requiring concentration. c. Avoid manipulation by denying the patient's requests. d. Observe for depression and suicidal ideation. Rebound depression occurs with the withdrawal from CNS stimulants, probably related to neurotransmitter depletion. Touch may be misinterpreted if the patient is experiencing paranoid tendencies. Concentration is impaired during withdrawal. Denying requests is inappropriate; maintaining established limits will suffice. Which assessment findings best correlate to the withdrawal from central nervous system depressants? a. Dilated pupils, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, elation b. Labile mood, lack of coordination, fever, drowsiness c. Nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, anxiety, tremors d. Excessive eating, constipation, headache The symptoms of withdrawal from various CNS depressants are similar. Generalized seizures are possible. A patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for many years. When the patient does not smoke or tries to cut back, anxiety, craving, poor concentration, and headache result. What does this scenario describe? a. Substance abuse b. Substance intoxication c. Substance dependence d. Recreational use of a social drug Nicotine meets the criteria for a substance, the criterion for dependence (tolerance) is present, and withdrawal symptoms are noted with abstinence or a reduction of the dose. The scenario does not meet the criteria for substance abuse, intoxication, or recreational use of a social drug. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect in an individual who has just injected heroin? a. Anxiety, restlessness, paranoid delusions b. Heightened sexuality, insomnia, euphoria c. Muscle aching, dilated pupils, tachycardia d. Drowsiness, constricted pupils, slurred speech Heroin, an opiate, is a CNS depressant. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations are decreased, and attention is impaired. The incorrect options describe behaviors consistent with amphetamine use, symptoms of narcotic withdrawal, and cocaine use. A newly hospitalized patient has needle tracks on both arms. A friend states that the patient uses heroin daily but has not used in the past 24 hours. The nurse should assess the patient for: a. slurred speech, excessive drowsiness, and bradycardia b. paranoid delusions, tactile hallucinations, and panic c. runny nose, yawning, insomnia, and chills d. anxiety, agitation, and aggression Early signs and symptoms of narcotic withdrawal resemble symptoms of onset of a flulike illness, minus the temperature elevation. The incorrect options reflect signs of intoxication or CNS depressant overdose and CNS stimulant or hallucinogen use. A nurse is called to the home of a neighbor and finds an unconscious person still holding a medication bottle labeled pentobarbital sodium. What is the nurse's first action? a. Test reflexes b. Check pupils c. Initiate vomiting d. Establish a patent airway Pentobarbital sodium is a barbiturate. Maintaining a patent airway is the priority when the patient is unconscious. Assessing neurologic function by testing reflexes and checking pupils can wait. Vomiting should not be induced when a patient is unconscious because of the danger of aspiration. An adult in the emergency department states, "I feel restless. Everything I look at wavers. Sometimes I'm outside my body looking at myself. I hear colors. I think I'm losing my mind." Vital signs are slightly elevated. The nurse should suspect a(n): a. schizophrenic episode b. cocaine overdose c. phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication d. D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) ingestion The patient who has ingested LSD often experiences synesthesia (visions in sound), depersonalization, and concerns about going "crazy." Synesthesia is not common in schizophrenia. CNS stimulant overdose more commonly involves elevated vital signs and assaultive, grandiose behaviors. PCP use commonly causes bizarre or violent behavior, nystagmus, elevated vital signs, and repetitive jerking movements. In what significant ways is the therapeutic environment different for a patient who has ingested D-lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) than for a patient who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP)? a. For LSD ingestion, one person stays with the patient and provides verbal support. For PCP ingestion, a regimen of limited contact with staff members is maintained, and continual visual monitoring is provided. b. For PCP ingestion, the patient is placed on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation is maintained. [Show Less]
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