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ILE Exam Prep 2023 with Complete Solutions
The PT brings in their 4 year old high end digital signal processing hearing instrument because its not working at all. It is out of warranty. All of the s... [Show More] ource of the problem has not been found and the hearing instrument is still not working. At this point the hearing instrument specialist has no choice but to _______ A. recommend that they purchase a new set B. send it to an all-make repair facility C. send it to the manufacture for repair and refurbishment D. recommend medical referral - ANSWER-C. send it to the manufacture for repair and refurbishment When a hearing instrument is returned from repair, the hearing instrument specialist should _____ A. preform an electro acoustical analysis to verify that its performance is at specifications B. call the family and have them just pick it up- you don't need to see the PT C. return it to the PT and have them complete APHAB D. preform ear measurements on the hearing instrument before the PT arrives to pick it up. - ANSWER-A. preform an electro acoustical analysis to verify that its performance is at specifications A new PT makes an appointment for a repair of their older BTE. There is an accumulation of wax and debris in the tubing. Once the tubing is changed, feedback is eliminated and a sound check indicates that the aid is working nicely. The new PT reports that they need the performance adjusted, they're just not hearing too well. The hearing aid specialist. A. connected the hearing instrument to the manufacture's software and makes adjustments until the PT reports improvement. B. Has them make a return appointment for an evaluation for new hearing aids C. preforms a hearing test, reprograms the instrument, and preforms real-ear verification. D. Tells them that they will not work on hearing aids that are 5 years old - ANSWER-C. preforms a hearing test, reprograms the instrument, and preforms real-ear verification. common complaints about the quality of the PT own voice are that its echo-y or tinny. These can often be addressed by ____ and ___, respectively A. increasing the low frequency gain, increasing the high frequency gain B. decreasing the low frequency gain, increasing the high frequency gain C. increasing the low frequency gain, decreasing the high frequency gain D. decreasing the low frequency gain, decreasing the high frequency gain. - ANSWER-D. decreasing the low frequency gain, decreasing the high frequency gain. Feedback can be from ____ A. a bad battery B. a plugged earmold C. an internal source ( internal feedback) or an external source ( external feedback) D. and internal source ( split earmold tubing) or an external source ( internal feedback) - ANSWER-C. an internal source ( internal feedback) or an external source ( external feedback) If the reciever and or the mircophone is completely plugged with wax or debris, the hearing aid specalist should _____ A. send it back for repair B. clear out these components and check if the hearing instrument is working C. replace both components in the office D. recommend a medical referral - ANSWER-B. clear out these components and check if the hearing instrument is working ALDs can be categorized according to ____ A. those that connect to the hearing instruments and those that connent to cochlear implants B. the type of alerting device that they activate C. whether they are powered by bluetooth or a 2.4 GHz source D. those that help connect the person with hearing loss to other people and those that accommodate an activity of daily living - ANSWER-D. those that help connect the person with hearing loss to other people and those that accommodate an activity of daily living A gateway device has a unique manufacture specific name but they all ___ A. connect hearing instruments to a bluetooth enabled devices and convert the hearing instruments into a wireless headset for binaural hearing B. provide captions C. require a connection directly into the hearing instruments D. derive their power from the hearing aid batteries - ANSWER-A. connect hearing instruments to a bluetooth enabled devices and convert the hearing instruments into a wireless headset for binaural hearing Direct audio input ____ A. requires a direct connection between a device and the hearing instruments using a special cable. B. Can be used to connect the wearer binaurally to pre-bluetooth technology C. is a simple and older way to input a signal directly into hearing instruments D. all of the above - ANSWER-D. all of the above Looping is a technology that works _____ A. wirelessly through the telecoil B. through a gateway device C. is available for use on all hearing instruments D. works with 2.4 GHz signals - ANSWER-A. wirelessly through the telecoil counseling involves not only providing a supportive resource for people with hearing loss, it also entails _____ A. post-fitting care B. education C. presenting rehabilitation options D. all of the above - ANSWER-D. all of the above regularly scheduled follow-up care is important because the hearing aid specialist may be the first healthcare professional to recognize that a medical referral is indicated. A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True _____ and ____ must be combined with speech to optimize audibility and intelligibility A. sign language, signed English B. lipreading, sign language C. visual ques, good communication practices D. captions, speechreading - ANSWER-C. visual ques, good communication practices One aspect of councilibng may be to educated family/friends that the acoustic enviroment can be improved in simple ways to benefit a person who wears hearing instruments. An example of this is ___ A. when walking away from the person who wears hearing aids just speak louder B. Always to try to have important conversations in a highly reverberant room C. speech is easier to hearing and understand when the room has few smooth, reflective surfaces ( drapes and carpets work well) D. in the car seat the person with the hearing loss next to the window - ANSWER-C. speech is easier to hearing and understand when the room has few smooth, reflective surfaces ( drapes and carpets work well) When the hearing aid specialist validates the fitting, they ____ A. demonstrate that the PT hearing issues have been resolved B. proved evidence of a desired outcome from the wearers perspective C. have outcomes measures that show that better situational hearing has been achieved D. All of the above - ANSWER-D. All of the above PT challenges with communication must be fully explored so that they hearing aid specalist can educate amplification candidates about ___ A. gateway devices that will wirelessly connect the wearer with a cell phone, Ipod, tablet, computer or any other bluetooth enabled device B. alerting devices C. telecoils D. all of the above - ANSWER-D. all of the above Another aspect of counseling involves introducing the PT to aural rehabilitation to ____ A. enhance their listening skills through improvements in auditory memory and processing speed B. avoid asking "what or HUH" C. enjoy group social events on a monthly basis D. re-train their brain to eventually do without hearing aids - ANSWER-A. enhance their listening skills through improvements in auditory memory and processing speed FOr the hearing aid specialist to adequately validate the fitting they must first define what the PT desired outcome is for the fitting and then select the appropriate tool to measure it. A. True B. False - ANSWER-True Self-assessment methods of validation are also referred to as____ A. objective verification methods B. questionnaires C. subjective methods D. objective Methods. - ANSWER-C. subjective methods Audiometric methods of hearing instrument fitting validation are sometimes referred to as ____ A. objective/subjective methods B. Soundfield audiometry C. Subjective methods D. Objective methods - ANSWER-D. Objective methods The main difference between speech mapping and real ear insertion response verification procedures is _____ A. Speech mapping is real ear aided response using a calibrated sweep signal B. Speech mapping uses a calibrated speech stimulus and REIG uses a sweep frequency stimulus or broad-band noise C. speech mapping is preformed using a family member's voice as a stimulus and REIG measures insertion loss of the hearing aid D. speech mapping is performed in the soundbooth - ANSWER-B. Speech mapping uses a calibrated speech stimulus and REIG uses a sweep frequency stimulus or broad-band noise Speech mapping verifies that the hearing aids provide audibility and listening comfort for using a functionally relevant and important test stimulus A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True A wearer's ______ is calculated from the ______measurements and compared to the prescriptive targets used for "first fit" programming. A. REUR; REAR and REIG B. insertion loss ; REIG and REUR C. REIG;REUR and REAR D. insertion response; real ear gain - ANSWER-C. REIG;REUR and REAR REUR is measurement of open ear canal resonance. A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True Fitting accuracy is defined as measured values being _____ A. similar to prescriptive targets B. no more than 3 to 8 dB above the prescriptive targets C. no more than 3 to 7 dB below the prescriptive targets D. within 5 to 8 dB of the prescriptive targets - ANSWER-D. within 5 to 8 dB of the prescriptive targets The PT hearing instruments just came back from repair. At the delivery of the repair the hearing aid specialist should _____ A. perform real ear verification to compare the results to the most recent data before the repair B. tell the wearer they will have to accommodate to the hearing instruments different sound C. modify the earmold to meet prescriptive targets since the hearing instruments programming computer is not working D. tell the PT to start saving for new instruments - ANSWER-A. perform real ear verification to compare the results to the most recent data before the repair A new binaural fitting has just been completed. The wearer complains that the hearing instruments sound much too tinny. The hearing aid specialist adjusts the frequency response of the hearing aids and solicits the wearer's impression to find complete listening satisfaction. The speech mapping is repeated but fitting targets are now way off. The hearing aid specialist ________. A. returns that settings to where they were when they met all targets and tells the wearer that they'll just have to get used to it B. ignores all of the real ear data and addresses that cosmetic appeal of the instruments C. documents the printed speech mapping results and the wearer's chart notes that the real ear data reflect the PT preferred settings D. ignores the prescriptive targets and preforms soundfield testing - ANSWER-C. documents the printed speech mapping results and the wearer's chart notes that the real ear data reflect the PT preferred settings Soundfield functional gain measurements can be used as a fitting verification measurement A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True The three most commonly employed self-assessment questionnaire's are the ___ A. APHAB, HHI, and the COSI B. case history, credit history and the SRT C. LTASS, SII, and AII D. All of the above - ANSWER-A. APHAB, HHI, and the COSI The handicap imposed by hearing loss can be measured using the _____. insight about pre-fitting self-awareness about the hearing loss can be revealed by the _____ A. a case history; family's participation in all discussion B. audiogram; SII C. HII; COSI and APHAB D. COSI;APHAB - ANSWER-C. HII; COSI and APHAB Since objective validation measures are preformed in a controlled environment, they _______ A. Provide more information than self-reporting methods B. don't reflect everyday listening challenges C. the data can be transferred to electronic medical records D. None of the above - ANSWER-B. don't reflect everyday listening challenges Objective ways of measuring post-fitting improvements with understanding speech in noise and with hearing soft sounds are _____ A. using self-assessment questionnaires B. by presenting speech and noise through the same earphones and measuring aided thresholds using a supra-aural headset C. using the APHAB and HII D. by using the QuickSIN and comparing unaided to aided sound field thresholds - ANSWER-D. by using the QuickSIN and comparing unaided to aided sound field thresholds LTASS is an acronym that stands for ______ A. Long term abbreviated speech signal B. Long term average sinusoidal signal C. Length of time of the average speech signal D. Long term average speech spectrum - ANSWER-D. Long term average speech spectrum The SII represents the percent of the speech signal that is audible to the listener. A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True BTE's and RIC's can be fit using either generic domes or custom earmolds A. True B. False - ANSWER-A. True [Show Less]
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ILE Study Questions and Answers 2023 with Complete Solutions
When the right A/C threshold is 10 dB and the left A/C threshold is 80 dB what will occur once 3 5dB increases of masking have been presented to the right ... [Show More] ear? A) Overmasking B) Undermasking C) Central masking D) Effective masking - ANSWER-B Spondees are used for determining _____________? A) MCL B) UCL C) SRT D) WRS - ANSWER-C A 31 yr old female patient/client has a bilateral conductive hearing loss. She reports that her mother had a stapedectomy when she was about her same age. What is the most likely cause of the conductive component of our patient's/client's hearing loss? A) Otosclerosis B) Otitis media C) Ototoxicity D) Disarticulation - ANSWER-A Which of the following is an octave? A) 500- 750 Hz B) 250- 500 Hz C) 2K- 8K Hz D) 750- 2K Hz - ANSWER-B When headphones are used when should speech audiometry be masked? A) When there is a 40 dB difference between the best B/C threshold and presentation level B) When there is a 15 dB or more air-bone gaps for the better ear C) When there is a 10 dB or more air-bone gaps for the better ear D) You never need to mask for speech audiometry - ANSWER-A Which infection control process refers to the killing of 100% of germs? A) Sterilization B) Cleaning C) Disinfecting D) None of the above - ANSWER-A When a patient/client reports difficulty hearing words like sip/tip/ship, but can hear words like door/floor/more. Where would the hearing healthcare provider expect there to be a hearing loss on the audiogram? A) Hearing loss in the high frequencies B) Hearing loss in the mid frequencies C) Hearing loss in the low frequencies D) Degree of hearing loss cannot be determined from speech results - ANSWER-A Which of the following is the preferred order for audiometric testing? A) MCL before WRS B) Bone conduction before air conduction C) Speech UCL before SRT D) 500 Hz before 1K Hz - ANSWER-A Which frequencies are usually affected when a noise induced hearing loss is suspected? A) 250- 750 Hz B) 1500- 3000 Hz C) 3000- 6000 Hz D) 750- 1500 Hz - ANSWER-C Which of the following statements is most true about the use of gloves? A) Latex gloves should be used for ear impressioning B) Gloves can be saved to be used during a different appointment with the same patient/client C) Gloves are considered one-time use and should be disposed of after each use D) Gloves can be cleaned and reused if properly sanitized in cold soak bath - ANSWER-C When the bone conduction threshold is 15 dB or better than the air conduction threshold what action should occur? A) Mask all bone conduction thresholds B) Apply appropriate masking to NTE to obtained masked bone conduction threshold C) Apply appropriate masking to NTE to obtained masked air conduction threshold D) Immediate medical referral for air-bone gaps - ANSWER-B Why is it important to determine if there is a PTA/SRT discrepancy? A) To determine dynamic range B) To determine level for MCL which effects the level for WRS testing C) To determine if malingering or misunderstanding of directions is occurring during pure tones D) To determine needs for masking pure tones - ANSWER-C When establishing UCL/LDL/TD it is important that _______________________________. A) The face is observed for any discomfort (grimace, eyebrows, raise, etc) B) They indicate when the sound is slightly loud C) They indicate when the sound is unbearable D) They indicate when the sound is comfortable - ANSWER-A Using the audiogram, what type of hearing loss is indicated for the left ear? (Audiogram shows mild to severe sloping SNHL AD and a flat mild CDHL AS) A) Normal hearing B) Mixed hearing loss C) Conductive hearing loss D) Sensorineural hearing loss - ANSWER-C When masking for air-conduction the initial masking level is how many dB greater than the NTE threshold? A) 10 dB B) 20 dB C) 40 dB D) 0 dB - ANSWER-A Ambient room noise can have what effect during un-occluded bone conduction testing? A) All frequencies will present poorer B) Low frequencies will present better C) High frequencies will present poorer D) Low frequencies will present poorer - ANSWER-D When there is a 15-20 dB difference between an octave what should occur A) Continue testing octaves B) Test the inter-octave C) Apply masking for air conduction D) Apply masking for bone conduction - ANSWER-B When masking for puretones which type of masking noise is most effective? A) Speech noise B) Narrowband noise C) White noise D) Pink noise - ANSWER-B At 2K Hz the best bone conduction threshold is a 30 dB HL. The air conduction threshold for the right ear is at 45 dB HL and for the left ear at 50 dB HL. The hearing healthcare provider wants to find the left masked bone conduction threshold. How should the transducers be set for masking? A) A/C: right and left; B/C: left mastoid B) A/C: right; B/C: left mastoid C) A/C: right and left; B/C: right mastoid D) A/C: left; B/C: right mastoid - ANSWER-B A patient/client has a moderate hearing loss. Which type of hearing loss would the speech discrimination still be good to excellent with this degree of hearing loss? A) Central hearing loss B) Conductive hearing loss C) Normal hearing D) Sensorineural hearing loss - ANSWER-B What should occur next when 1K Hz threshold shifts 10 dB when being retested? A) Record new threshold and complete testing B) Re-instruct and test remaining thresholds C) Record both threshold levels D) Re-instruct and retest all thresholds - ANSWER-D A patient/client obtains a 76% on a word recognition testing. How many words did they miss if a 25 word list was used? A) 5 B) 7 C) 6 D) 4 - ANSWER-C What is the biological check? A) Daily listening check of audiometer's transducers and attenuator B) Annual calibration of audiometer C) Blood pressure and pulse rate of patient/client D) Listening to patient's/client's hearing instrument - ANSWER-A At 1K Hz the best bone conduction threshold is at 30 dB HL. The A/C threshold for the right ear is at 40 dB HL and 45 dB Hl for the left ear. The left masked bone conduction threshold needs to be obtained. How much initial masking noise should be presented? A) 40 dB+ 10 dB for audibility+ 10 dB OE B) 45 dB + 10 dB for audibility C) 45 dB + 10 dB for audibility + 10 dB OE D) 40 dB + 10 dB for audibility - ANSWER-A Using the audiogram, the right ear degree of hearing loss can be described as _____________________. (Audiogram shows: Mild to severe slopping SNHL AD; Mild to moderate flat CDHL AS) A) Mild to moderate B) Mild to severe C) Mild to profound D) Hearing loss degree cannot be determined - ANSWER-B There is a discrepancy of 15 dB when a reliability check is obtained for pure tones. Which frequency is used for this check? A) 3000 Hz B) 1000 Hz C) 4000 Hz D) 500 Hz - ANSWER-B A patient/client has a Type B tympanogram with normal ear canal volume. Which types of hearing loss would a hearing healthcare provider expect to see on the audiogram? A) Conductive hearing loss; sensorineural hearing loss B) Mixed hearing loss; conductive hearing loss C) Mixed hearing loss; sensiorneural hearing loss D) Normal hearing loss; mixed hearing loss - ANSWER-B Which of the following complaints warrants an immediate referral to a physician, preferably one who specializes in diseases of the ear? A) Use of blood thinners B) History of cerumen impaction C) Tinnitus after recent noise exposure D) Sudden hearing loss - ANSWER-D Which of the following would indicate an SRT/PTA discrepancy? A) SRT: 10; PTA: 15 B) SRT: 40; PTA: 42 C) SRT: 15; PTA: 13 D) SRT: 35; PTA: 60 - ANSWER-D The most important finding of the SRT is to __________________________. A) Determine the softest level 50% of the words are repeated back B) Determine if there is a discrepancy with the PTA C) Obtain the percent of words repeated back correctly D) Determine MCL - ANSWER-B If a patient/client has a disarticulated ossicular chain what type of tympanogram type would they most likely have? A) Type A B) Type As C) Type Ad D) Type B - ANSWER-C Which speech test utilizes phonetically balanced words? A) MCL B) SRT C) WRS D) SAT - ANSWER-C Narrow band noise is used for ____________________________? A) Air conduction masking B) Bone conduction masking C) Speech masking D) Pure tone masking - ANSWER-D Where will masked bone conduction thresholds fall in a conductive hearing loss? A) Within 15 dB of A/C thresholds B) 15 dB better than A/C thresholds C) 250-500 Hz will be within normal hearing limits D) Within normal hearing limits - ANSWER-D A patient/client has a perforation of their TM for the right ear. Tympanometry indicates a Type B tympanogram. What should the hearing healthcare provider expect for the ear canal volume? A) Normal ear canal volume B) Abnormally small ear canal volume C) Abnormally large ear canal volume D) Ear canal volume cannot be obtained from a tympanogram - ANSWER-C The patient/client should be familiarized with the test words before which speech test? A) UCL B) SRT C) WRS D) MCL - ANSWER-B What is the interaural attenuation for bone conduction? A) 10 dB B) 5 dB C) -5 dB D) 0 dB - ANSWER-D Which frequencies are affected when an audiogram has been described as having a "cookie bit"? A) 250-750 Hz B) 2000-4000 Hz C) 4000-8000 Hz D) 750-2000 Hz - ANSWER-D A patient/client reports that they had a sudden hearing loss in their right ear 5 years ago. They have no medical concerns. What is the best course of action? A) Conduct complete hearing test and refer to ENT for further evaluation of asymmetric hearing loss B) Conduct complete hearing test and refer to ENT for further evaluation of symmetric hearing loss C) Conduct complete hearing test and fit ear that does not have sudden hearing loss D) Refer to ENT for further evaluation of symmetric hearing los - ANSWER-A What audiometric configuration is often seen when a patient/client has otosclerosis? A) Air-bone gaps except at 1000 Hz B) Air-bone gaps except at 750 Hz C) Air-bone gaps except at 2000 Hz D) Air-bone gaps except at 4000 Hz - ANSWER-C A patient/client with hearing loss experiences a rapid increase in loudness perception from their threshold. What is this phenomenon called? A) Recruitment B) Hyperacusis C) Hypoacusis D) Retrapment - ANSWER-A Inherited conditions can cause what type of hearing loss? A) Feigned hearing loss B) Congenital hearing loss C) Central Hearing loss D) Sensorineural hearing loss - ANSWER-B Which of the following is NOT a classic symptom of Meniere's? A) Tinnitus B) Aural Fullness C) Vertigo D) Increased hearing ability - ANSWER-D A patient/client has a PTA of 65 dB for both the right and left ears. Their SRT for the right ear is 15 dB and 10 dB for the left ear. What does this include? A) Need to mask WRS tests B) SRT/PTA discrepancy C) Need to mask A/C thresholds D) Central hearing loss - ANSWER-B Using the audiogram, what type of hearing loss is indicated for the right ear? (Audiogram: Mild sloping to severe SNHL AD; Mild to moderate flat CDHL AS) A) Conductive hearing loss B) Mixed hearing loss C) Normal hearing D) Sensorineural hearing loss - ANSWER-D Which quadrant of the head is it not acceptable to brace in if no other bracing were to occur? A) Superior-anterior B) Superior-posterior C) Posterior-inferior D) Anterior-inferior - ANSWER-C Bone conduction must be tested except when test results indicate ___________________________. A) Senorineural HL bilaterally [Show Less]
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ILE PREP FINAL EXAM GRADED A+
Which of the following statements is most true about the use of gloves? a. Gloves are considered one-time use and should be disposed of after each use. ... [Show More] b. Gloves can be reused as long as they were not contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids. c. Gloves can be cleaned and reused if properly sanitized. d. Gloves can be saved to be used during a different appointment with the same patient. - ANSWER-A Which of the following complaints warrants an immediate referral to a physician, preferably one who specializes in diseases of the ear? a. History of noise exposure b. Occasional bilateral tinnitus c. Chronic dizziness d. History of taking ototoxic medications - ANSWER-c You perform tympanometry on your patient/client and obtain a Type B tympanogram with a normal ea canal volume. What type of hearing loss would you expect them to have? Circle the two best choices. a. Normal hearing sensitivity b. Conductive hearing loss c. Sensorineural hearing loss d. Mixed hearing loss - ANSWER-b & d Your client is a 50 yr old male. He has a mild to moderate SNHL Au. He has excellent speech discriminat Au. What would be the biggest influence for him purchasing hearing aids? a. opinion of colleagues b. encouragement of spouse c. self-motivation d. degree of tinnitus - ANSWER-c Flaring out the end of tubing results in what frequency change? a. increases 2000-5000 Hz b. increases 1000-3000 Hz c. decreases 2000-5000 Hz d. decreases 1000-3000 Hz - ANSWER-a When obtaining audiometric thresholds 1000 Hz is tested twice because a. Test/retest reliability needs to be established b. It is the most important speech frequency c. It is the hardest tone to hear d. Both A and B - ANSWER-a Which of the following is not an advantage for using acrylic earmolds? a. extremely durable b. easily modified in the office c. better seal for profound hearing loss d. more easily inserted - ANSWER-c When taking an ear impression why might your patient cough? a. It's a normal response to cough when nervous b. It's a normal response to cough when Arnold's Reflex is elicited c. It's a normal response to cough when the Stapedial Reflex is elicited d. Stop, use universal precautions and wear a mask, as the client may be contagious - ANSWER-b Which process refers to the process in which germs are killed 100%? a. Cleaning b. Disinfecting c. Sterilization d. None of the above - ANSWER-c Which tool should be utilized when verifying otoblock placement in the ear canal? a. otolight b. otoscope c. visual inspection d. tip of syringe - ANSWER-b Which of the following dynamic ranges would indicate recruitment? a. 25dB b. 45dB c. 65dB d. 85dB - ANSWER-a Recruitment is most common in a.Conductive hearing losses b. Central auditory processing disorders c. Sensorineural hearing losses d. Mixed hearing losses - ANSWER-c A 54-year-old male patient/client with normal hearing through 1KHz followed by a precipitous drop in thresholds would do best with a. Non-occluding earmolds b. Skeleton earmolds with select-a-vent c. ITC instruments d. A compression circuit - ANSWER-a Impacted cerumen a. Will not interfere with impression taking b. Should be surgically removed c. Will have little effect on audiometric tests d. Should be removed prior to audiometric evaluation - ANSWER-d Your patient/client has a very soft, flaccid outer ear. Due to the shape of the pinna it is recommended h have a skeleton ear mold made. What earmold material would work best for his ear texture, AND what anatomical sections of the outer ear must be included in the ear impression in order for the skeleton m to be a success? a. Acrylic material; antitragus, concha bowl, triangular fossa b. Silicone material; concha bowl, antitragus, helix c. Acrylic material; antitragus, concha bowl, antihelix d. Silicone material; antitragus, triangular fossa, antihelix - ANSWER-c Your patient/client is concerned that when their hearing aids are off during the night they will not hear alarm clock in the morning. What are two assistive devices that could help them? a. Alarm clock with bed shaker b. Alarm clock with high frequency alarm signal c. Sound signaler that activates bedside lamp to flash d. Telephone wake-up call - ANSWER-A & C You are performing a first fit with a BTE and custom earmold with SAV venting. Although you have run your feedback manager they are still getting a lot of feedback. You do not want to them to lose any mo gain in the high frequencies. What should you do? A. Make a new earmold as it must be a poor fit issue B. Tell them that their hearing aid is just going to feedback C. Use vent plugs to reduce the vent size until feedback is reduced D. Fill their vent with glue so that they do not get feedback - ANSWER-C What type of earmold should you use when fitting a CROS hearing device? A. full shell b. half shell c. free field c. full shell with SAV venting - ANSWER-c Endolymph can be found in which part of the cochlea? a. scala vestibuli b. scala media c. scala tympani d. all chambers of the cochlea - ANSWER-b Which size of venting would be most appropriate for a patient client with thresholds from 250-1K Hz between 0 to 25 dB HL? a. IROS b. Small c. Medium d. Pressure Vent - ANSWER-a Which of the following causes of feedback might you need to send the HA in for repair? a. Tubing is cracked or split b. Earhook is split c. Vent is too large d. Microphone is loose within the BTE case - ANSWER-d Your client reports difficulty hearing words like sip/tip/ship but can hear words like door/floor/more easier. What type of hearing loss would this indicate? a. hearing loss in the low frequencies b. hearing loss in the mid frequencies c. hearing loss in the high frequencies d. hearing loss cannot be determined from this - ANSWER-c Narrow band noise is a. Actually a variation of brown noise b. Produced by selective warble pulses c. Considered more effective for pure tone masking d. Considered more effective for speech masking - ANSWER-c While speech discrimination in a moderate conductive hearing loss is generally excellent, discriminatio a moderate sensorineural loss can best be described as a. Excellent b. Good c. Fair to good d. Poor - ANSWER-c Your patient/client has been referred to you by his ENT physician to obtain amplification. He recently experienced a sudden sensorineural hearing loss in his right ear and has 8% WRS in that ear. His left ear has a mild to moderate sensorineural hearing loss from 1-8K Hz, with normal hearing in the low frequencies and has 84% WRS. What type of hearing aid would you recommend for him based on his hearing loss? a. A high power BTE for the right ear with a full shell earmold; no hearing aid for the left ear b. A high power BTE for the right ear with a full shell earmold; an open fit BTE for the left ear c. A CROS open fit hearing d. A BiCROS open fit hearing aid - ANSWER-d TYMPANOGRAM - ANSWER-SEE BOOK Inter-octaves should be tested when there is a A. 5-10 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves B. 15-20 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves C. 20-25 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves D. 25-30 dB HL difference between adjoining octaves - ANSWER-B The purpose of word recognition testing is A. to evaluate a patient's/client's ability to recognize mono-syllabic words from a phonetically balanced list B. to evaluate a patient's/client's ability to recognize mono-syllabic words at a soft presentation level C. to evaluate a patient's/client's most comfortable listening level using spondee words D. to evaluate a patient's/client's ability to recognize mono-syllabic words from a phonetically balanced list at UCL - ANSWER-A In bone conduction testing, ambient room noise will cause a. High frequency thresholds to appear poorer b. Mid frequency thresholds to appear poorer c. Low frequency thresholds to appear poorer d. All frequency thresholds to appear poorer - ANSWER-c What is responsible for an individual's sense of motion? a. Semicircular canals b. Basilar membrane c. Apical end of the cochlea d. Oval window - ANSWER-a Your patient/client reports that when they put their telephone up to their hearing aid they get feedbac and can't hear well on the phone. What feature setting would help to alleviate the feedback and help them to hear on a standard telephone? a. Feedback cancellation manager b. Acoustic Phone c. Telecoil d. Telecoil/Mic - ANSWER-c When conducting which speech test should your patient/client be familiarized with the words? a. SRT b. WRS c. PB-Max d. MCL - ANSWER-a What level is used to run a frequency response curve for an AGC hearing aid? a. 55dBHL b. 60dBHL c. 55 dB SPL d. 60 dB SPL - ANSWER-d Your patient/client is having some difficulty removing their ITE from their ear. What tip might you provi them to help them to remove it so that discomfort does not result? a. Slightly twist the hearing aid backward and then remove from ear b. Slightly twist the hearing aid forward and then remove from ear c. Slightly pull the bottom portion out before the top portion and then remove from the ear d. Slightly pull the top portion out before the bottom portion and then remove from ear - ANSWER-b Which test would evaluate the harmonic distortion of a hearing aid? a. SPLITS b. OSPL 90 c. THD d. AGC - ANSWER-c Increasing the vent size of a custom hearing aid reduces the a. occlusion effect b. feedback c. compression d. receiver bore size - ANSWER-a A pure conductive hearing loss will show a. All bone conduction thresholds within normal limits b. All air conduction thresholds are better than bone conduction thresholds c. Some bone conduction thresholds within normal limits d. Both A and B - ANSWER-a Your patient/client's SRT is at 5 dB for the right ear and 10 dB for the left ear. The PTA for the right ear i at 60 and also at 60 for the left ear. WRS presentation levels were 60 dB for both the right and left ears with appropriate masking and they obtained 100%. What is a possible reason for this discrepancy between SRT and PTA? a. the SRT words are too easy b. they are giving suprathreshold responses to pure tone stimuli c. the WRS words are too easyd. they have a central hearing loss - ANSWER-b When establishing UCL/LDL for a patient/client it is important that they let you know when the level is a. comfortable, but slightly loud b. loud, but okay c. loud d. uncomfortably loud - ANSWER-d Your patient/client would like to know approximately how many days their 312 batteries (130 mah) wil last. They are wearing their hearing aids about 16 hours a day. You based their battery drain on the HA spec sheet ( .75 ma). a. 12.3 days b. 10.8 days c. 7.2 days d. 4.6 days - ANSWER-b Why do we look for a PTA/SRT discrepancy? a. To make sure they are repeating words at threshold levels b. To verify pure tone thresholds and check for malingering or possible misunderstanding of instructions during pure tones c. To determine appropriate level for WRS testing d. None of the above - ANSWER-b What is the test box measure that evaluates the telecoil function? [Show Less]
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ILE-Hearing Aid Dealers and Fitters Board Exam Chapter 22 Solved
Reconditioned - ANSWER-Shall mean that the condition of the hearing aid is the same as a used hearing aid. Audiologist - ANSWER-Shall mean any individua... [Show More] l holding a valid non-temporary license as an audiologist issued by the North Carolina Board of Examiners for Speech and Language Pathologist and Audiologists. The definitions cited in this Section shall serve as an interpretation for terms appearing in? - ANSWER-Chapter 93 D of the General Statutes of North Carolina Advertising - ANSWER-Means a written or oral communication that is published, disseminated, circulated, or placed before the public for the purpose of attracting public attention to a product, business, or service. Apprentice - ANSWER-Means an individual who holds a valid Board-issued apprentice registration certificate to fit and sell hearing aids under the supervision of a Registered Sponsor. Audiometer - ANSWER-Means an electronic device used for air conduction testing, bone conduction testing, and obtaining speech audiometry results, that contains a masking circuit, at least one VU meter, and capability of sound field output. Direct Supervision - ANSWER-Means the Registered Sponsor shall be present in the office suite and immediately available to furnish assistance and direction to the Apprentice. It does not mean that the Registered Sponsor must be present in the room with the Apprentice when the Apprentice is fitting and selling hearing aids or completing associated contracts or other paperwork. Duly made application - ANSWER-Means a completed application received in the office of the Board, including all required documents, photographs, fees, and supplemental information requested in the application. General supervison - ANSWER-Means the Apprentice is under the Registered Sponsor's overall direction and control, but the Registered Sponsor's presence is not required when the Apprentice is fitting and selling hearing aids or completing associated contracts or other paperwork. Under general supervision, the training of the Apprentice, including instruction, consultation and on site inspection and evaluation of the Apprentice's work, and the maintenance of the necessary equipment and supplies are the continuing responsibility of the Registered Sponsor. One full year of apprenticeship - ANSWER-Means that an apprentice satisfies each of the following requirements within 24 consecutive months from the date of issuance of the initial apprentice registration certificate: A. Works under the supervision of a Registered Sponsor for a minimum of 27 clock hours per week for a period of 50 weeks; B. Holds a valid apprentice registration certificate for a period of 365 calendar days. Personal supervision - ANSWER-Means the Apprentice is under the Registered Sponsor's specific direction and control for training and instruction, and the Registered Sponsor, or a North Carolina licensed Hearing Aid Specialist approved by the Registered Sponsor shall be in attendance in the room with the Apprentice during: a. the evaluation or measurement of the powers or range of human hearing by means of an audiometer or other means. b. the consequent selection or adaptation or sale or rental or hearing aids intended to compensate for hearing loss. c. the making of an impression of the ear d. the completion of any associated contracts and other paperwork. Registered Applicant - ANSWER-Means any individual, including an apprentice, approved and registered to sit for the next scheduled licensing exam. Registered Sponsor - ANSWER-Means any person with a permanent license as an audiologist under Article 22 of Chapter 90 of the G.S. who is registered in accordance with G.S. 93D-3 (c)(16) or a licensee of the Board who has been approved as a sponsor of an apprentice. Application for registration as an apprentice - ANSWER-$100 Renewal of apprentice registration - ANSWER-$150 Application for registration of a Registered Sponsor not otherwise licensed by the Board. - ANSWER-$150 Application for license - ANSWER-$250 Exam fee - ANSWER-$300 Issuance of certificate of license after successfully passing exam - ANSWER-$25 To reissue a suspended license more than 90 days after but not more than 2 years after license suspended - ANSWER-$200 Annual license renewal Late fee less than 60 days Late fee more than 60 days - ANSWER-$250 $25 plus license fee $50 plus license fee For approval of continuing education program provider - ANSWER-$40 Verifying and recording attendance at continuing education program (per person, per program) - ANSWER-$15 For continuing education make up class provided by the Board (per person, per day) - ANSWER-$50 For voluntary apprentice training workshop (per person, per day) - ANSWER-$50 For license examination preparation course provided by the Board (per person, per day) - ANSWER-$50 Processing fee for a check on which payment has been refused by the payor bank because of insufficient funds or because the drawer did not have an account at that bank. - ANSWER-$25 Application Refunds - ANSWER-Shall not be refunded for any reason Submission of digital image - ANSWER-a. The Board shall accept a digital image of a signed affidavit or other document required as part of an application as the original when submitted electronically in conjunction with the electronic application. Incomplete applications - ANSWER-b. If an applicant submits an incomplete application, the application shall be classified as "abandoned" by the applicant if after 14 days of the electronic transmission of the application to the Board, the application is not a duly made application as defined in 21 NCAC 22A. The Board shall not apply any fee paid or document submitted for the abandoned application to any other application. It is the responsibility of the applicant and the sponsor, if any, to ensure that all supplemental documents requested in the application are submitted within 14 days if all documents are not electronically submitted with the application. This rule shall not extend application deadline set forth in any other rule of this chapter. Exam registration deadline - ANSWER-c. The exam registration deadline shall be 45 days prior to the exam date. An applicant may be denied admission to the exam if an application is submitted after the registration deadline, based on proximity to examination date, availability of space in the examination, and the applicant's sponsor's past history of compliance with the Board rules. An applicant denied admission to an examination due to late registration shall be registered for the next scheduled exam, if otherwise eligible. Apprentice eligibility for license - ANSWER-d. No later than 14 days after an apprentice has held a valid apprentice registration for 365 days, the apprentice shall make application to take the next scheduled licensing exam. All apprentices shall re-apply for a license by examination within the time prescribed in paragraph (c) of this Rule each time they take and fail to pass the licensing exam. Apprentice failure to pass the qualifying exam - ANSWER-e. No later than 20 days after the date printed on the Official Notice of Examination Results, a registered apprentice who failed to pass the qualifying examination shall make application to renew the apprentice certificate or the sponsor shall submit written notice to the Board that the apprenticeship is being terminated by the current expiration date of the certificate. Late application - ANSWER-f. The Board shall deny a late duly made application, except as set forth in Paragraph (c) of this rule. Computing time - ANSWER-In computing the time stated in the rules of this Chapter, the day of the act or event shall not be included. The last day of the period shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday or a legal holiday. Petitions- The person desiring to adopt, amend or repeal of a rule by the Board shall submit a petition to the Board containing this information: - ANSWER-1. Name of the Board 2. A draft of the proposed rule 3. Reasons for the adoption, amendment or repeal 4. Data supporting the proposed rule 5. The effect of the proposed rule on existing rules 6. Effects of the proposed rule on persons licensed under Chapter 93D of the G.S. of NC 7. Names (including addresses if known) of those most likely to be affected by the rule; and 8. Names and address(es) of the petitioner(s) Comments - ANSWER-In accordance with G.S. 150B-12 and 150 B-16 the record of hearing will be open for comments for 30 consecutive days prior to the date of the public rule making hearing, Any interested person may present written or oral comments relevant to the action proposed at the public rule making hearing or may deliver written comments to the Board office no later than 10:00am on the day of the hearing. Any person planning to make oral comments is encouraged to submit a written copy of the presentation at or before the time of the public hearing. Control of the hearing - ANSWER-The presiding officer at the hearing shall have complete control of the proceedings including the allotment of time for oral presentations. Request for declaratory ruling - ANSWER-Any person affected by a statue administered by the Board of by a rule promulgated by the Board may request a declaratory ruling as to the validity of a rule or as to the applicability of a statue or rule to a given state of facts. What must the declaratory ruling request include. - ANSWER-All requests for declaratory rulings shall be in writing and shall contain the following information; 1. Name(s) and address(es) of petitioner(s). 2. Statue and/or rule to which the petition relates; and 3. Concise statement of facts and explanation of the manner in which the petitioner is injured, or thinks he may be injured, by the stature or rule as applied to him. Refusal to issue declaratory ruling- The Board may decline to issue a declaratory ruling if any of the following circumstances exist. - ANSWER-1. A declaratory ruling would be futile because circumstances have so changed since the promulgation of the rule that the rule no longer serves its original purpose. 2. A similar factual situation has been the basis of a contested case. 3.The factual situation at issue was specifically considered upon the adoption of the rule being questioned, as evidence by the rule making record. 4. The subject matter of the requested declaratory ruling is involved in a lawsuit pending in a court of this state or federal court; 5. Failure to comply with the requirements contained in Rule .0501 of this section. Time and place of examinations - ANSWER-The Board shall publicize the time and place of each qualifying examination given pursuant to G.S. 93D-8 on the Board's website at least 90 days in advance of the examination. Supplemental Information - ANSWER-The Board may require supplemental information be sent for an applicant. Such information can be, letters of recommendation, affidavits, photographs, official transcripts, and personal appearance before the board. What parts of the Exam may a new apprentice register for? - ANSWER-A, B and C How many days must an apprentice work prior to taking part D - ANSWER-365 days Can the Board waive the application for license fee and the exam fee for an applicants registration to take part D of the exam only if? - ANSWER-The applicant took and passed A , B and C prior to completing 365 days of apprenticeship. New application - ANSWER-Each time a new registration is requested the fee must be paid for any parts of the licensing exam. Proration - ANSWER-The Board shall not prorate the application for license fee or the exam registration fee for retesting an applicant who failed any part of the licensing exam. PASSING THE EXAM - ANSWER-4 parts A.- Knowledge of hearing testing via simulator B. Practical knowledge and ability to make an ear impression C. Applicants knowledge of relevant laws and regulations governing HAS D. Applicants knowledge of (audiometry) (anatomy and physiology pertaining to the dispensing of HA's) (hearing aids) (hearing technology) (scope of practice of HAS.) Annual review of contents and outcome of exam - ANSWER-To determine the minimum performance criteria required for passing the exam Requirements for passing exam - ANSWER-Each registered applicant shall be informed in writing of the requirements for passing the exam prior to the application. Must pass all parts of the exam to obtain a license. Exam results expiration - ANSWER-After one year of apprenticeship the applicants exam results shall expire 31 months after issuance of apprentice certificate. Exemptions from apprenticeship or takes exam more than 31 months after issuance the exam results will expire ? - ANSWER-19 months. Communication of Exam Results to applicant - ANSWER-Written notification of exam results will be mailed to to the mailing address provided by the applicant,. Communication of Exam results to sponsor - ANSWER-Exam results shall be mailed to the sponsor at the registered sponsors mailing address on file with the Board at the same time results are mailed to the applicant. Deadline for mailing Exam Results - ANSWER-30 days after the exam Written notification title - ANSWER-"Official Notice of Examination Results" with the date of the notice printed below the title. Review of Examination - ANSWER-Each applicant who does not pass the qualifying exam shall be granted the opportunity to review the failed portion of the exam that is in the custody and control of the Board in the presence of a representative of the Board upon written request from the applicant. How is written request for review of the exam performed? - ANSWER-By completing the electronic form available on the Board website. Shall include applicants name, Exam ID number, contact phone number,e-mail address, and dates available for the review. Deadline to request a review of the exam results - ANSWER-20 days after the date printed on the Official Notice of Examination Results. Where is the review of exam performed - ANSWER-Exam reviews are at the Board's office by appointment. Reinstatement of Expired License - ANSWER-If more than 60 days but less than 5 years the applicant may satisfy the Board's requirements for annual continuing education as a condition for license renewal by taking and passing the Board's qualifying exam. Reinstatement of Expired license 5 years or greater - ANSWER-Evidence of satisfactory completion of the Board's annual continuing education requirement shall consist of the applicant taking and passing the Board's qualifying exam. Reinstatement of license 5 years or greater but continuously licensed in another state or jurisdiction for the 5 years prior to seeking NC reinstatment - ANSWER-Shall be required to take and pass only the portion of the Board's qualifying examination that addresses regulatory issues. Reciprocity - ANSWER-The Board is not compelled to issue any license pursuant to G.S. 93D-6, the Board shall not issue a license by reciprocity. Continuing Education - ANSWER-CE Program= presentation where attendance is monitored and the participants are required to be present at one or more designated physical locations. May be televised or conducted via the internet , attendance must be monitored by the CE Program provider. CEU accrual period - ANSWER-Calendar year Jan 1 thru Dec 31st immediately preceding the March license renewal deadline. CEU reporting deadline - ANSWER-10th day of January which immediately follows the accrual period. CEU Verification Report - ANSWER-Electronic form available on the Board website for recording CEU credits to satisfy license renewal requirements. CEU units - ANSWER-one tenth of CEU = one hour of Board approved instruction. Then hours of CEU =1.00 CEU credit. Board approved CEU credits are reported in two decimal points. ex 2 hours = .020 CEU. Educational objective - ANSWER-A statement of the working knowledge or understanding of presented content that a participant should attain upon completion of each session. Hour - ANSWER-Full clock hour (60 minutes) of instruction and learning, excluding any time allowed for other activity such as meals, breaks, business or committee meetings. Program application - ANSWER-Board's official application for the purpose of program review for Board-Approved CEU credit (avail on Board's website) Presentation Format - ANSWER-The teaching method used to impart information to the participants ex: lecture, panel discussion,demo, practicum or debate. Report of Program Attendance - ANSWER-Official attendance verification form entitled (Continuing Education Report of Program Attendance, Self Study - ANSWER-Independently completed internet-based activities or events provided by the Board, or approved IIHIS, ASHA or AAA for at least one hour of credit that includes and internet-presented examination pertaining to the content of the self-study session. Self study may be a. live on line presentation b. pre-recorded, downloaded presentations c.text-based, downloaded readings. Session - ANSWER-instructional or learning event with at least two primary educational objectives pertaining to a single Board topic, content, category, and a specific amount of time allotted for accomplishing the specified objective. Topic Content Categories - ANSWER-a system to separate Board-approved sessions by content. Category 1 is for amplification and hearing rehabilitation issues. Category 2 is for hearing loss, regulations and consumer-related issues. Category 0 is assigned to unapproved sessions in a program when other sessions in the program are approved. Annual CEU requirements - ANSWER-10 hours CEU (1.00 CEU credit) of Board approved continuing education annually, including 5 hours (.50 CEU credit) classified as Category 1 Can CEU be carried over to the next year? - ANSWER-No it cannot be carried over from one CEU accrual period to the next even if the CEU credit earned exceeds the license renewal requirements. Can you claim multiple CEU when the content is the same even at different sessions? - ANSWER-No you can claim only one CEU credit during the accrual period. Self-Study CEU - ANSWER-If you complete the same self-study course during any two consecutive CEU accrual periods shall be granted CEU credit only once. Does passing the licensing exam during a CEU accrual period satisfy the CEU requirements for the corresponding license renewal? - ANSWER-Yes Content Categories Category 1 - ANSWER-Category 1- amplification and hearing rehabilitation issues comprised of 1. hearing aid technology; instrument circuitry and acoustic performance data. 2. Earmold or shell coupling systems: design, selection, modifications and ear impresssions; [Show Less]
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ILE Hearing Aid Dispenser Practice Test Questions and Answers 100% Correct
What BEST describes the effect on the patient if you continue to lower a hearing instrument's kneepoint and increase the compression ratio? Choose ALL tha... [Show More] t apply. A. a lot of gain for soft sounds B. very few speech cues in a crowded party C. little or no gain for moderately loud sounds D. too much amplification in a crowded party - ANSWER-A,B, & C What frequencies would be MOST affected by a head cold? - ANSWER-Low frequencies. 250,500 What is found on the bottom of the ear canal? - ANSWER-The Vagus Nerve(Xth Cranial) What test would best predict the signal-to-noise ratio necessary for a hearing impaired person to understand speech normally in noise? - ANSWER-QuickSIN. What would be the BEST way to prevent an intermittency in the hearing instrument from showing up in the delivery process? A. 2 cc couplet N.A.L. target matching B. real ear testing C. biological check of the instrument D. A.N.S.I. test of the instruments - ANSWER-C. biological check of the instrument When both stapedius muscles contract even though only one ear is stimulated is called: - ANSWER-Consensual Reflex. When considering different digital hearing instruments, open platform technology is generally considered: A. more complicated to program B. software driven C. hardware based D. less flexible for programming - ANSWER-B. software driven When discussing benefits of multi-channel digital hearing instruments which of the following does NOT apply? A. Increased capacity for aid to change with hearing changes B. Increased hearing benefit in noise C. Exact fit to the patient's hearing loss D. More "natural" sound reproduction - ANSWER-C. Exact fit to patient's hearing loss. When IA is exceeed, and one cochlea is better than the other ____ - ANSWER-Cross-Over is possible. When patient/client concerns should be addressed - ANSWER-Immediately. When troubleshooting a hearing instrument, you discover the electrical signal cannot be converted into acoustical energy. Which component is MOST likely defective? A. microphone B. amplifier C. receiver D. power source - ANSWER-C. receiver Where signal processing occurs - ANSWER-Amplifier Which condition of the human ear has NO effect on real ear-probe tube measurements? A. length of canal B. stiffness of T.M. C. physical shape D. diameter of canal - ANSWER-B. Stiffness of T.M. Which of the following procedures would MOST likely be associated with fitting problems? A. Stapedectomy B. Fistula repair C. Myringotomy D. Mastoidectomy - ANSWER-D. Mastoidectomy. Why do we mask? - ANSWER-To ensure the the ear being tested is the ONLY ear participating in or contributing to the threshold measurements. Word Recognition intensity should be presented at: - ANSWER-MCL or 30 to 40 dB above speech reception threshold (SRT). Two main objectives of Aural Rehabilitation - ANSWER-1. Educate the patient/client about the social and emotional aspects of hearing loss and devise a communication strategy that can be implemented. 2. Maximize the use of the hearing instruments within the context of the patient's/client's lifestyle and communication needs. Two key functions of hearing loops - ANSWER-1. Allow electromagnetic signal from conventional telephones, and some cell phones, to be transmitted to the hearing instrument. 2. Can be installed into any space, allowing the sound to be transmitted directly to the hearing instruments when a microphone is used by the speaker. Speech discrimination testing requires: - ANSWER-an evenly monitored presentation. The primary function of the middle ear is to match the impedance of the outer ear to the inner ear by: - ANSWER-Increasing the pressure at the stapes footplate. Articulation index scale can be used for: - ANSWER-Estimating unaided and aided word recognition based on pure tone audiometry. If patient has a prolapsed canal. How BEST should the hearing health professional proceed with the hearing evaluation? - ANSWER-Proceed with insert headphones. Smaller ID (inside diameter) tubing will: - ANSWER-Move peak to lower frequencies. A disadvantage of WDRC and DSP processing is patient complaints of hearing noises where there are no sounds. Which of the following is used to correct this problem? A. input compression B. output compression C. multiple microphones D. expansion - ANSWER-D. expansion The articulation index puts the greatest value to speech intelligibility at which frequency? A. 800 Hz B. 1500 Hz C. 2000 Hz D. 4000 Hz - ANSWER-C. 2000 Hz The typical difference between real ear insertion gain and 2 cc coupler response is: A. REIG has more gain above 3000 Hz B. REIG is less due to insertion loss C. REIG will have less high frequency response with C.I.C.'s D. REIG has less gain at 500 Hz - ANSWER-B. REIG is less due to insertion loss The function of an acoustic coupler is: A. noise reduction B. retention and sealing C. reducing insertion loss D. acoustic transparency - ANSWER-B. Retention and sealing. A patient comes in for his follow-up visit wearing automatic multi-memory digital hearing instruments and is not very happy because the patient is confused by too many options. The next step should be to: Choose ALL that apply A. disable user controlled options B. change his instrument to a analog programmable hearing instrument C. give patient another instruction booklet D. re-counsel patient on the use of his hearing instrument - ANSWER-A & D Check which statements are true: A patient with "Sensory" hearing loss refers to: A. a mild-moderate sensori-neural hearing loss (SNHL) is caused by mostly outer hair cell (OHC) damage B. a mild to severe HL is caused mostly by damage to the cochlea and middle ear ossicles C. "Neural" refers more to SNHL caused by inner hair cell (IHC) damage. D. In most cases, OHC damage usually occurs before IHC damage. E. Most inner hair cell damage is caused by noise exposure - ANSWER-A, C, & D A patient complains that their voice " their own voice has a barrel-like or echo quality". The most common cause is: A. Too much high frequency gain B. Too much low frequency gain C. The patient is not wearing their hearing aids long enough for their brain to acclimate to the new amplification settings D. Too much mid-frequency gain E. None of the above - ANSWER-Too much low frequency gain As a HIS, the primary objective for hearing instrument fitting is to: A. Amplify to the patient's prescriptive audibility levels B. Ensure that the patient has all necessary training on daily use of their hearing aids and accessories. C. When amplifying more than 3 dB, ensure that a real ear test is performed and the patient is informed of their new amplification expectations D. Ensure that conversational speech is amplified into the patient's/client's dynamic range. - ANSWER-Ensure that conversational speech is amplified into the patient's/client's dynamic range. Which selection best describes the pathologies for an acoustic neuroma. (check all that apply) A. unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, decreased word understanding, vertigo, headaches, and facial numbness B. tinnitus, vertigo, headaches, and facial numbness, and nephropathy C. bilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, inconsistent word recognition scores when compared to pure tone scores, vertigo, "light headedness" D. profound hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, headaches, and facial numbness - ANSWER-A. unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, decreased word understanding, vertigo, headaches, and facial numbness The average resonant frequency of the ear canal plus the concha is: A. 1000 Hz B. 2700Hz C. 3000 to 6000 Hz D 4000 Hz - ANSWER-B. 2700Hz [Show Less]
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IHS ILE Study Guide 2023 with Complete Solutions
What two actions MUST a hearing healthcare professional perform before testing an existing patients hearing - ANSWER-Clean hands in view of patient and cle... [Show More] an or replace speculum from otoscope How does osteoma present - ANSWER-Bony growth in external auditory canal What should a hearing healthcare professional do prior to administering a speech reception threshold test - ANSWER-Familiarize patient with the word list A 36- year old female restaurant worker with history of hearing loss reports she is unable to hear as well as she did 2 years ago testing reveals moderate conductive loss what is a likely cause of the patients change in hearing - ANSWER-Otosclerosis What portion of the ear contains sebaceous glands - ANSWER-Outer portion of external auditory canal Which factor will affect patients acceptance in hearing instruments? - ANSWER-Cosmetic preferences Why should otoblock be placed beyond second bend of ear canal - ANSWER-Results in complete impression of the canal What validation method can be effectively performed in a sound field environment - ANSWER-NU-6 A hearing health care professional is counseling a patient about expectations of amplification what information should the hearing healthcare professional include in this therapy - ANSWER-Outside factors that can hinder hearing A patient has been using an ITC hearing instrument for approx 16 mos the patient has a new job that requires use of telephone with a headset - ANSWER-Add an amplifier to existing phone A patient complains that the hearing instrument works intermittently After initial inspection the hearing healthcare professional squeezes and taps on the case What is the suspected problem - ANSWER-An amplifier problem Germicidal wipes are an example of - ANSWER-Disinfectant 4 modes of transmission - ANSWER-Contact, Indirect contact, Droplet, Vehicle, Airborne, vectorborne Contact - ANSWER-Directly infected by the host Indirect contact - ANSWER-Touching something contaminated by an infected person. Surfaces or objects Droplet - ANSWER-transmission via airborne droplets Vehicle - ANSWER-Transmitted by contaminated substances such as water, food, blood or bodily substance Airborne - ANSWER-Droplet or neucli or dust transmission Vectorborne - ANSWER-Animals or insects carries pathogen Characteristics of tympanic membrane - ANSWER-Pinkish- gray in color oval shaped Audiometric zero - ANSWER-The average softest intensity that someone with normal hearing can detect Tympanometry - ANSWER-Measures middle ear function and compliance is also known as imittence audiometry Acoustic Reflex - ANSWER-Middle ear muscle reflex, tympanometer is used to measure activity of stapedius muscle TPP - ANSWER-Tympanometric peak pressure- 0.6-144cc ECV - ANSWER-Ear canal volume +200 to 400 mH2o or dapa The most common cause of sudden loss of of hearing at 4000Hz is - ANSWER-Acoustic trauma What condition would not be a concern in establishing pure tone air conduction threshold - ANSWER-Otosclerosis A large dip at 6000Hz in ONE ear only with a positive tone decay is an indicative of - ANSWER-A possible retrocochlear tumor A patient who has worn hearing aids for a long time reports his ears are stopped up he recently had a cold, What will give the MOST information about this patients complaint - ANSWER-Impedance audiometery What programmable adjustment would be BEST to control loud sharp sounds - ANSWER-Increase the compression ratio During otoscopic inspection what is NOT a consideration for earmold selection - ANSWER-Compliance of tympanum A patient comes in complaining that his ITC aids were working fine until he had them cleaned now they are week and feeding back What is most likely the cause of the problem - ANSWER-Receiver tubing pushed in A patient who has had a radical mastoidectomy has been referred to your office for a new earmold Physician is urging caution due to short canal What would be true about this patient - ANSWER-Multiple otoblocks may be needed, Careful placement of otoblock is needed DSP is - ANSWER-digital signal processing What is the test to determine the effectiveness of directional microphones - ANSWER-QuickSIN Cochlea can only clarify and purify up to - ANSWER-90dB Vagus nerve - ANSWER-is the 10th cranial nerve it lies at the bottom of the ear canal and when irritated can cause Arnolds Reflux Cochlear Dead spot signs - ANSWER-High frequencies are greater than 65dB HL and pure tones sound like crackles Stria Vascularis - ANSWER-Produces endolymph fluid Organ of corti is located - ANSWER-On the basilar membrane Inner hair cell characteristics - ANSWER-Are afferent approx 3,000 in each ear and damage results in severe hearing loss with poor word recognition scores Outer Hair cell characteristics - ANSWER-Are efferent approx 12-15,000 in each ear and damage will results in up to a 50dB hearing loss they are also embeded in the tectorial membrane A space occupying lesion (tumor) arising from auditory nerve is called - ANSWER-Acoustic neuroma and vestibular schwannaoma Sensorineural Hearing loss - ANSWER-Damage to sensory structures, PURELY inner ear, Noise induced loss, presbycusis and most congenital hearing loss falls into this category. Air conduction thresholds and Bone conduction thresholds are close if not equal [Show Less]
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