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HESI A2 V2 Grammar, Vocab, Reading, & Math / questions AND ANSWERES GRADED A {LATEST VERSIONS}
HESI A2 V2 Grammar, Vocab, Reading, & Math / questions AND ANSWERES GRADED A {LATEST VERSIONS}
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HESI A2 FILES :HESI Exam: Reading Comprehension, Chemistry, Grammar, Biology
HESI EXAM: READING COMPREHENSION, CHEMISTRY, GRAMMAR, BIOLOGY, VOCABULARY & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, CRITICAL THINKING AND ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY. Read... [Show More] ing Comprehension Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion. Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects. 1. The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following? a) Drug-induced stimulation of the amygdala. b) A stroke that resulted in severe tissue damage in the limbic system c) Encephalitis as a result of head trauma d) Activation of a strategically implanted electrode in a patient’s amygdala. 2. Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage? a) Electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme aggressive acts. b) Scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. c) Typically, temperamental rhesus monkeys with amygdala damage are completely imperturbable. d) Subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. 3. What is the main idea of the passage? a) The human brain is as complex as it is mysterious. b) Patients with damaged amygdalas are less aggressive than individuals with healthy ones. c) Electrode stimulation is a valuable tool for researchers who study the human brain. d) Scientists have learned a lot about how the amygdala affects human emotion. The Bicycle V2 Today, bicycles are so common that it’s hard to believe they haven’t always been around. But two hundred years ago, bicycles didn’t even exist, and the first bicycle, invented in Germany in 1818, was nothing like our bicycles today. It was made of wood and didn’t even have pedals. Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, dramatically improved upon the original bicycle design. Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot – operated cranks like pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn’t look much like a modern bicycle, though, because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel. In 1861, the French Michaux brothers took 4. The main idea of this passage is best explained in which sentence? a) Sentence (1): Today, bicycles are so common that it’s hard to believe they haven’t always been around. b) Sentence (13): It wasn’t until 1874 that the first truly modern bicycle appeared on the scene. c) Sentence (4): Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. d) Sentence (18): Today they are built, used, and enjoyed all over the world. 5. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage? a) Bicycles are better b) A ride through the history of bicycles c) Cycle your way to fitness d) The popularity of bicycles 6. Sentence (8); It didn’t look much like a modern bicycle, through because its back wheel was substantially larger than its front wheel, “follows which pattern? a) Fact, fact b) Fact, opinion c) Opinion, fact d) Opinion, opinion 7. Macmillan added iron rims to the tires of his bicycle to…. a) Add weight to the bicycle b) Makes the tires last longer c) Makes the ride less bumpy d) Makes the ride less tiring Missing answer Jazz Jazz has been called "the art of expression set to music", and "America's great contribution to music". It has functioned as popular art and enjoyed periods of widespread public response, in the "jazz age" of the 1920s, in the "swing era" of the late 1930s and in the peak popularity of modern jazz in the late 1950s. The standard legend about Jazz is that it originated around the end of the 19th century in New Orleans and moved up the Mississippi River to Memphis, St. Louis, and finally to Chicago. It welded together the elements of Ragtime, marching band music, and the Blues. However, the influences of what led to those early sounds goes back to tribal African drumbeats and European musical structures. Buddy Bolden, a New Orleans barber and cornet player, is generally considered to have been the first real Jazz musician, around 1891. What made Jazz significantly different from the other earlier forms of music was the use of improvisation. Jazz displayed a break from traditional music where a composer wrote an entire piece of music on paper, leaving the musicians to break their backs playing exactly what was written on the score. In a Jazz piece, however, the song is simply a starting point, or sort of skeletal guide for the Jazz musicians to improvise around. Many of the early Jazz musicians were bad sight readers and some couldn't even read music at all. These early musicians couldn't make money very much and were stuck working menial jobs to make a living. The second wave of New Orleans Jazz musicians included such memorable players as Joe Oliver, Kid Ory, and Jelly Roll Morton. These men formed small bands and took the music of earlier musicians, improved its complexity, and gained greater success. This music is known as "hot Jazz" due to the enormously fast speeds and rhythmic drive. A young cornet player by the name of Louis Armstrong was discovered by Joe Oliver in New Orleans. He soon grew up to become one of the greatest and most successful musicians of all time, and later one of the biggest stars in the world. The impact of Armstrong and other talented early Jazz musicians changed the way we look at music. 8. Definition of confluence. a) Melding b) Influence c) Intersection d) Coming together 9. Where and when did jazz originate? Southern US. 20th century 1. How does the author regard Jazz? a) A real aficionado b) Unable to determine c) Doesn’t like it much d) Enjoys it occasionally 10. Derivation of the word “Jazz” West coast slang Electoral College The Electoral College has nothing to do with college and contains no students. The Electoral College consists of votes that each state acquires based on the number of representatives it has in Congress. Each state has two electoral votes because each state has two senators. The remaining electoral votes are determined by the number of Congressmen, the number of which is based on the population of the state established by the Census taken each decade. During the presidential election, most states cast all their electoral votes for the candidate who wins the popular vote in that state. It's all very confusing, but the founding fathers know what they were doing. By having and using the Electoral College candidates' campaign in every state, but just because they win the popular vote across the country doesn't mean they will always win the election. Case in point, in election 2000, Al Gore won the popular vote across the country, but George W. Bush won more electoral votes. Therefore, he became our 43rd president. [Show Less]
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HESI A2 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE| RATED A+
HESI A2 BIOLOGY QUESTIONS & ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE| RATED A+ 1. Which movement requires carrier protein but noo direct cellular energy? Facilitated tr... [Show More] ansport 2. Which term denotes the movement of glucose molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentreation? Active transport 3. Plasmolysis is a term describing? Cellular shrinkage, which occurs when cells are immersed in hypertonic solurion 4. The movement of substances from lesser concentration to higher concentration is called? Active transport 5. Which particular structure is present in both eucaryotic and prokaryotic cells? Cell membrane 6. Plant cells differ from animal cells in? The plant cells have a cell wall and animal cells do not 7. Which cell type is characterized by the lack of true nucleus and the absence of membrane-bound organelle? Prokaryotic cell 8. Which organelle is associated with hydrolytic enzymes and is sometimes reffered to as a "suicide bag" Lysosomes 9. Pinocytosis is the process of? Enclosing a liquid substance in a membrane and secreting it into the cell 10. The plasma membrane of the eurokaryotic cell determines selectively which substances can enter and leave the cell. Such a membrane is said to be ? Selectively permeable 11. What primarily determines the shape of cells that lack cell walls? Microtubule and microfilaments 12. Which pair of organelles is responsible foe energy supply to eurokaryotic cells? Chloroplast and mitochondria 13. Whit which organelle is the synthesis of ATP associated? Mitochondrion 14. The plasma membrane is soluble to? Lipids 15. The process whereby muscle cell produce lactic acid is called? Fermentation 16. During aerobic respiration, which one of the following substances is released? 36ATP 17. Noncyclic-photophosphorylation takes place inside the? Thylakoids 18. The dark reaction of photosynthes [Show Less]
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HESI A2 MATH WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION
HESI A2 MATH WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION HESI V2 MATH 1. A nurse is reviewing the daily intake and output (I&O) of a patient consuming a clear d... [Show More] iet. The drainage bag denotes a total of 1,500 mL for the past 24 hours. The total intake is: 3 6oz cups of coffee 1 16-oz serving of clear soup 2 pints of water consumed throughout the day How much is the deficit in milliliters? 480 mL 2. A nurse works in the military hospital from 1300 to 2000. How many hours does this nurse work? A. 8 hours B. 11 hours C. 7 hours D. 12 hours 3. What temperature in Celsius is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit? (Enter numeric value only) 37 Celsius 4. A newborn weights 3,459 grams. There are 453.59 grams per pound. What is the infant's weight in pounds and ounces? A. 7lbs 10oz. B. 10lbs 7oz. C. 13lbs 3 oz. D. 3 lbs 13 oz. 5. What kind of number system is commonly used in the United States? A. Tertiary B. Decimal C. Napoleonic D. Binary 6. A women received a bottle of perfume as a present. The bottle contains 3/4 oz of perfume. How many milliliters is this? (Enter numeric value only.) 22.5 mL 7. The metric system of measurement was developed in France during Napoleon's reign. It is based on what multiplication factor? A. The length of Napoleon’s forearm B. 2 C.10 D. Atomic weight of helium 8. How many meters are in 2 kilometers? (Enter numeric value only.) 2000 meters 1meter = 1000 kilometers 2x1000= 2000 9. How many kilograms are in 2000 grams? (Enter numeric value only.) 2 kilograms Kg g mg (move 3 times to the right or left) (L) to (s) ex: 2000=2 or 2=2000 10. To convert pounds to kilograms, what factor is used? 2.2 1 pound = 2.2 kilogram 10. A teacher's aide is preparing a snack for the class. In order to prepare the powdered drink, the aide must convert the directions to metric. The directions say, "Dilute contents of package in 3 quarts of water." The aide has a measuring device marked in liters. How many liters of water should be used? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.) Version 1 - HESI Convert 5 3/4 to a decimal. Round to the nearest tenth. 4 x 5+ 4 4 ¿ 23 5.75 round ¿ the nearest tenth5.8 4 5.75 5.7 6 5.8 A warehouse worker ships 9 boxes each day. Every box must contain 3 shipping labels. How many shipping labels does the worker need each day? 9 x 3 = 27 7 3 27 24 2.5:150 ::20:x= 2.5 = 20 =20 x 150=3000 ÷ 2.5=1200 150 x X=3000 X=1000 X=1500 X=1200 What is 80% of 55? .80 x 55 = 44 45 44 40 39 3.44 divided by 0.6= 3.44 ÷ 0.6=5.73 11.41 5.73 2.33 0.57 Solve if x=11. x+44/2x = 11 + 44 ÷ 2(11 )→ 11+44 ÷22 →11 +2=13 33 2.5 13 55/22 4 7/8 divided by 1 1/6= 8 x 4 +7 ÷ 6 x 1+1 → 39 ÷ 7 → 39 x 6 → 39 x 3 = 117 →117 ÷ 28=4 5 8 6 4& 6/8 4& 7/8 5& 8/14 4 & 5/28 8 6 8 7 4 7 28 28 Add. 6 3/4 + 8 1/6= 4 x 6 +3 + 4 6 x 8+1 → 27 + 49 → 27 x 6 + 49 x 4 → 162 + 196 → 358 →358 ÷ 24=14 22 →reduce 14 11 6 4 6 14 & 11/12 4 x 6 6 x 4 24 24 24 24 12 12& 3/24 35/6 14& 2/5 Solve for x. x/250=3/500 = x = 3 =3 x 250=750 ÷ 500=1.5 1.5 25.5 1500 2.5 250 500 A dice is rolled. What is the probability of getting 5? 1 = x =1 x 100=100 ÷ 6=16.6 % 6 100 50% 20% 16.6% 83.3% Convert to metric: 7 gram = x mg = (large – move decimal 3x to the right) Km small − movethe decimal 3 x ¿ ¿ →m→mm→mcm ( small )𝗏 g→L→m ¿ 0.007mg 7,000 mg 0.0007mg 700mg 7 g = 7.0 move 3x to the left 7,000mg Sally eats 3/5 of her lunch. John eats 75%. Who ate more? Sally - 3 ÷ 5=0.6𝖠Joℎn −.75 John Sally 1 + 3 → 1 x 2 + 3 → 2 3 5 Add 1/4 + 3/8. = 4 8 4/12 1/3 4 x 2 8 8 + 8 = 8 5/8 [Show Less]
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HESI A2 V2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRAMMAR, VOCABULARY, READING COMPREHENSION, MATH, A&P, BIOLOGY
HESI A2 V2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRAMMAR, VOCABULARY, READING COMPREHENSION, MATH, A&P, BIOLOGY AND CHEMISTRY GRAMMAR 1. My father and I looked at he... [Show More] r/hers. 2. I am looking forward to my birthday party next week. a. Going b. Go c. Have d. Having 3. Coffee experts feel that the coffee blend is a dark blend. a. More greater b. Great c. Best d. More greatest 4. The nurse made a error with the medication, so the doctor made notes about it in the patients file. a. About it b. A c. With d. Made 5. Finishing isn’t as important as answering correctly. a. Quick b. As quick c. So quickist d. Quickly 6. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. A lot of people enjoy baseball movies. b. The patient said he took alot of pills yesterday. c. Alotts of time drivers go too fast. 7. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect? a. Everyone enjoys ripping the wrapping paper off their holiday gifts. b. The racer ran swiftly down the track. c. The red fox jumped quickly over the sleeping dog. d. She lit scented candles so the air will smell sweetly. 8. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. It is important to too spell correctly. b. I have two go to the gym. c. We have too kinds of desserts. d. It is too heavy for me to lift. 9. Which word is not used correctly in the sentence? They’re going to the mall to pick up there uniforms for their coach. a. Their b. Going c. They’re d. There 10. After throwing their sleeping bags into the backseat of their car, they more than 400 miles to reach their destination. a. Driving b. Having driven c. Drove d. Had drove 11. Place the four words in alphabetical order. a. Assemble, assembled, assembling, assembly b. Assembly, assemble, assembled, assembling c. Assemble, assembly, assembling, assembled d. Assemble, assembly, assembled, assembling 12. The shopper was angry when he realized he it cheaper at the other store. a. Get b. Could have got c. Could have gotten d. Might have get 13. Which sentence is not grammatically correct? a. Because he did not examine the patient, the healthcare provider prescribed her with the wrong medication. b. The nurse decided to bathe the client, than trim his nails. c. The dietician, through negligence, made a mistake with the diet plan. d. Since the child was feeling ill, the nurse sent him home. 14. What is a salutation in this address? a. 1600 Pennsylvania Ave. b. 20003 (Area code) c. Ryan d. Mr. 15. I the package on the table. a. Layed b. Drop c. Laid d. Lay 16. Which sentence uses fast as an adverb? a. The cars on the overpass moved fast. b. The clock on the wall is 10 minutes fast. c. The batter could not hit the fast pitch d. The fast cars drove over the bridge 17. Most children must learn for the importance of good manners. a. Themself b. Theirself c. Theirselves d. Themselves 18. Be careful not to the bottle while you carry it to the table. a. Brak b. Break c. Brick d. Brake 19. She went to the party her dislike for the host. a. Despite of b. Even though c. Although d. In spite of 20. Which word is not grammatically correctly? During the time he lived in New York, he worked as a writer, an editor, and a library. a. An b. Library c. As d. During 21. A sentence must always begin with a capital letter, but many people forget this rule. a. Must always b. Simple c. Forget d. Capital 22. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. He did bad on the test. b. He felt bad about the broken window. c. He felt badly about being late. d. When the patient feels badly, give him an aspirin. 23. During the fight, I was hit on the . a. Head b. On head c. A head d. The head 24. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. The results suggests the patient has a bacterial infection. b. Harmony are agreeable features of classical music. c. The student were excited to have passed the test. d. The bottle of tablets has an expired expiration date. 25. My sister gave the chocolate bar to my friend and . a. Myself b. Me c. Us d. We 26. Which of the sentences below are incomplete sentences? a. We sat out the next dance. b. While the band played. c. The band played a nice slow song. d. Everyone enjoyed the dance. 27. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. It was me who lost. b. It was I who won c. The winner was him d. The runner was her. 28. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. She went to the room at the appointed time. b. I want ice cream to. c. The nurse gave me to shots. d. The patient was to cold. 29. The men and women of the graduating class their caps in the air. a. Thorough b. Through c. Threw d. Throwing 30. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. My parent’s advice me of all my major transactions. b. Elle advised me to go to the dance. c. We advice all new freshmen to take a public speaking class. d. I need some good advise on how to breakup with my girlfriend. 31. Use the verb correctly. a. A pitchfork and a halter was left on the concrete floor. b. There are a pig, sheep, and horse in the red trailer. c. Here is the cages for the 2 rabbits and 2 chickens. d. Sherri and her cousin were at the County fair this year. 32. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. Him and I are the best drivers during the day time. b. Him and me drove 6 hours to our hometown. c. Me and him took put the dirty laundry in the trunk. d. He and I took turns driving every hour after dark. [Show Less]
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HESI A2 (READING,GRAMMAR,MATH,BIOLOGY & ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2022.2023)
HESI A2 (READING,GRAMMAR,MAT H,BIOLOGY & ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2022.2023) HESI A2 READING TOPTARGET ACADEMICS toptargetaca... [Show More] [email protected] HESI A2 (READING,GRAMMAR,MATH,BIOLOGY & ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 2022.2023) HESI A2 READING Food away from home (FAFH) has been associated with poor diet quality in many studies. It is difficult, however, to measure the effect of FAFH on diet quality since many unobserved factors, such as food preferences and time constraints, influence not just our choice of where to eat, but also the nutritional quality of what we eat. Using data from 1994-96 and 2003-04, this study applies fixed-effects estimation to control for such unobservable influences and finds that, for the average adult, FAFH increases daily caloric intake and reduces diet quality. The effects vary depending on which meals are consumed away from home. On average, breakfast away from home decreases the number of servings of whole grains and dairy consumed per 1,000 calories and increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (So FAAS) in a day. Dinner away from home reduces the number of servings of vegetables consumed per 1,000 calories for the average adult. Breakfast and lunch away from home increase calories from saturated fat and So FAAS on average more among dieters than among non- dieters. Some of the overall negative dietary effects decreased between 1994-96 and 2003- 04, including those on whole grain, sodium, and vegetable consumption. Which meal(s) eaten away from home have worse results for dieters than for non-dieters? A. The article doesn’t state which meal is the worse for non-dieters B. Dinner eaten away from home is worse because people consume fewer whole grains and vegetables. C. Breakfast eaten away from home is worse because it increases the percent of calories from saturated and solid fat, alcohol, and added sugar (So FAAS) in a day. D. Breakfast and lunch eaten away from home are worse because they increase the percent of calories from saturated fats. Why is it difficult to measure the effect of food away from home on diet quality? A. People eat out too much, so it is not possible to collect accurate data. B. Researchers are unable to assess the nutritional quality of people’s diets. C. Peoples’ food preferences are too complex and may even be unmeasurable. D. Too many unknown variables affect the data. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? A. Eating breakfast away from home can result in an increase in fatty protein consumption. B. Eating food away from home is connected to bad food choices. C. In general, people who eat breakfast away from home consume more calories. D. Eating dinner away from home results in less vegetable consumption. What is the meaning of the word “associated” in the first paragraph? A. Specialized B. Predated C. Connected D. Obfuscated A nanometer is a billionth of a meter. A DNA molecule is 2 nanometers in diameter. Protein molecules are about 10 nanometers in diameter. A human hair is 100,000 nanometers in diameter. But what is a nanometer and how does it relate to technology? Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers, a scale at which unique properties of materials emerge that can be used to develop novel technologies and products. At the nanoscale, the physical, chemical, and biological properties of materials differ from the properties of matter either at smaller scales, such as atoms, or at larger scales that we use in everyday life such as millimeters or inches. Nanotechnology involves imaging, measuring, modeling, and manipulating matter only a few nanometers in size. Gold nanoparticles are made of the same material as in jewelry. But when light interacts with particles of gold, different colors are reflected. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. Metals such as copper become extremely rigid at the nanoscale, rather than bendable as in copper wires seen in everyday use. What is the major difference between matter at the nanoscale and matter at larger scales such as millimeters or inches? A. At the nanoscale, metals are bendable, and at larger scales they are rigid. B. Matter has different and special characteristics at the nanoscale. C. At the nanoscale, matter has the same properties as matter at the atomic level. D. There is no difference. Which claim from the passage best describes the benefits of nanotechnology? A. Scientists can develop novel technologies and products. B. Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding and control of matter at dimensions of roughly 1 to 100 nanometers. C. The different colors can be used in simple medical tests to indicate infection or disease. D. Unique properties of materials emerge. What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this essay? A. To explain how to utilize the nanoscale B. To review the conversion between the nanoscale and nanotechnology C. To advocate for the usage of more nanotechnology D. To describe nanotechnology and what it is Researchers have developed a recording device that essentially melts into place, snugly fitting to the brain's surface. This new technology allows for closer interaction between machines and living tissue, paving the way for more advanced implantable devices. Currently, the simplest devices for recording from the brain are needle-like electrodes that can penetrate into brain tissue. More state-of-the-art devices, called micro-electrode arrays, consist of dozens of semi-flexible wire electrodes. These are usually fixed to rigid silicon grids that don't conform to the brain's shape. An ideal recording device would conform to complex curved surfaces while placing minimal stress on the tissue. The scientists chose silk as their base material because it is flexible and durable enough to withstand manipulation. The team reported that they were able to create ultrathin flexible implants that hug the brain like shrink wrap, collapsing into its grooves and stretching over its rounded surfaces. The silk base dissolves once it makes contact with the brain, allowing the array to end up tightly hugging the brain. They found that the ultrathin arrays they created can record brain activity more faithfully than thicker implants embedded with similar electronics. Which sentence best summarizes the benefits of the new silk technology? A. The new technology allows for closer interaction between machines and living tissue, paving the way for more advanced implantable devices. B. These implants have the potential to maximize the contact between electrodes and brain tissue, while minimizing damage to the brain. C. They could provide a platform for a range of devices with applications in epilepsy, spinal cord injuries, and other neurological disorders. D. The arrays could potentially read the complex signals in the brain that direct movement, and then route those signals to healthy muscles or prosthetic devices. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the silk brain recording device? A. Durability B. Flexibility C. Different rates of dissolution D. Needle – like electrodes Neurologists and biological psychologists have witnessed a sharp increase in the knowledge and understanding of particular structures of the brain over the past two decades. As technology becomes ever more advanced, scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. One noteworthy discovery is the role of the amygdala in human fear and aggression. The amygdala, a small, almond-shaped conglomerate, is just one part of the limbic system. Located at the very center of the brain, the limbic system is the core of our 'emotional brain;' each individual structure in the limbic system is somehow connected to an aspect of human emotion. Scientists have found that electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme and aggressive acts. Patients or experimental subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. In other words, this aggression is wholly attributable to electrode stimulation. On the other hand, patients with trauma or damage to this structure exhibit a complete absence of aggression. Researchers find that no amount of poking, prodding or harassment will evoke even remotely aggressive responses from these subjects. The author suggests that persistent passivity and imperturbability may be a direct result of which of the following? A. Drug-induced stimulation of the amygdala. B. A stroke that resulted in severe tissue damage in the limbic system C. Encephalitis as a result of head trauma D. Activation of a strategically implanted electrode in a patient’s amygdala. Which statement is not listed as a detail within the passage? A. Electrode stimulation of the amygdala can elicit extreme aggressive acts. B. Scientists are able to isolate the functions of even small regions of the human brain. C. Typically, temperamental rhesus monkeys with amygdala damage are completely imperturbable. D. Subjects who experience this utter rage and fearlessness have no rational foundation for their reaction. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The human brain is as complex as it is mysterious. B. Patients with damaged amygdalas are less aggressive than individuals with healthy ones. C. Electrode stimulation is a valuable tool for researchers who study the human brain. D. Scientists have learned a lot about how the amygdala affects human emotion. The ability to see at a distance, in good light, does not diminish as a result of aging to the extent that other visual acuities do. Myopia, or nearsightedness, is more common to younger eyes, while presbyopia, or farsightedness, more commonly afflicts people as they age. The word presbyopia comes from Greek presbys, "old man," and opia, "eye," and names a condition in which, because the lens of the eye hardens slightly and loses elasticity as a person ages, one cannot as easily focus sharply on nearby objects. This condition leads to the familiar habit of lifting up one's glasses and bringing an object or reading material close to the face so that the eyes can more easily focus on it. The function of the lens is to accommodate different focal points so that sensory data can be correctly directed to the retina for interpretation into images by the brain. Corrective lenses, particularly bifocals or progressive lenses, adjust for the focal point aberration. In essence, they do the work that the eye can no longer do for itself. In the context of the passage, “accommodate” means to A. Arrange lodging for B. Contain C. Make allowances for D. Excuse The author of the passage would probably agree with which of the following statements relating corrective lenses and aging eyes? A. A dancer with a broken bone needs a cast to protect it. B. A hiker reinforces a fraying backpack strap with duct tape. C. A traveler gets a passport before going abroad. D. An athlete stretches before a game to avoid a potential injury. What was the author’s primary purpose for writing this essay? A. To define what presbyopia is B. To describe how eyes age and the function of corrective lens C. To compare and contrast nearsightedness with farsightedness D. To review the anatomy of the human eye Alfalfa thrives on land which contains lime, and gives poor results when this ingredient is deficient. The explanation is simple: there is a community of interest between the very low microscopic animal life, known as bacteria, and plant life, generally. In every ounce of soil there are millions of these living germs which have their allotted work to do, and they thrive best in soils containing lime. If one digs up a root of alfalfa (it need not be an old plant, the youngest plant will show the same peculiarity), and care is taken in exposing the root (perhaps the best method is the washing away of the surrounding earth by water), some small nodules attached to the fine, hair-like roots are easily distinguished with the naked eye. These nodules are the home of a teeming, microscopic, industrious population, who perform their allotted work with the silent, persistent energy so often displayed in nature. Which of the following is an accurate paraphrasing of the underlined phrase? A. Many people are intrigued by the relationship between bacteria and plant life. B. Bacteria and alfalfa plants have a symbiotic relationship. C. Bacteria in alfalfa is worth studying. D. The gardening community is very invested in the bacteria found in alfalfa. In the context in which it appears, “naked” most nearly means which of the following? A. Nude B. Opaque C. Unaided D. Reflective Which of the following can NOT be inferred from the passage? A. A 1 month – old alfalfa plant will have more bacteria than a 5 month – old plant. B. A soil without lime will not grow bacteria. C. Bacteria located inside the root nodules. D. A 3 month – old alfalfa plant will have more bacteria than a one – year old plant. The author of the passage suggests which of the following about bacteria? A. Baacteria feeds on lime. B. Bacteria is visible to the human eye. C. Bacteria is compact by nature. D. Bacteria is a plant, not an animal. The Bicycle V2 Today, bicycles are so common that it’s hard to believe they haven’t always been around. But two hundred years ago, bicycles didn’t even exist, and the first bicycle, invented in Germany in 1818, was nothing like our bicycles today. It was made of wood and didn’t even have pedals. Since then, however, numerous innovations and improvements in design have made the bicycle one of the most popular means of recreation and transportation around the world. In 1839, Kirkpatrick Macmillan, a Scottish blacksmith, dramatically improved upon the original bicycle design. Macmillan’s machine had tires with iron rims to keep them from getting worn down. He also used foot – operated cranks like pedals, so his bicycle could be ridden at a quick pace. It didn’t look much [Show Less]
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HESI A2 EXAM TEST BANK NURSING ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAM.
MHarketpElace Sto BuyIandASell2your Study Material Health Information Systems Test Bank Complete Test Preparation G.com -eThetMtarikentplagce B Su... [Show More] y antd aSell ryotur eStuddy Material CONGRATULATIONS! By deciding to take the Health Education Systems (HESI A2) Exam, you have taken the first step toward a great future! Of course, there is no point in taking this important examination unless you intend to do your very best in order to earn the highest grade you possibly can. That means getting yourself organized and discovering the best approaches, methods and strategies to master the material. Yes, that will require real effort and dedication on your part but if you are willing to focus your energy and devote the study time necessary, before you know it you will be opening that letter of acceptance to the school of your dreams. We know that taking on a new endeavour can be a little scary, and it is easy to feel unsure of where to begin. That’s where we come in. This study guide is designed to help you improve your test-taking skills, show you a few tricks of the trade and increase both your competency and confidence. The Health Education Systems A2 Exam The HESI A2 exam is composed of modules and not all schools use all of the modules. It is therefore very important that you find out what modules your school will use! That way you won’t waste valuable study time learning something that isn’t on your exam! The HESI A2 Modules are: Math, Vocabulary, Reading Comprehension, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Basic Scientific principals and Anatomy and Physiology. You don`t have to worry because these sections are included in the Practice Test Questions. However, to maximize your study time, it is very important to check which modules your university offers before studying everything under the sun! While we seek to make our guide as comprehensive as possible, it is important to note that lik all entrance exams, the HESI A2 Exam might be adjusted at some future point. New material might be added, or content that is no longer relevant or applicable might be removed. It is always a good idea to give the materials you receive when you register to take the HESI a careful review. Practnuircsylaeb.com T- TheeMarsketptlaceQto Buuy aned Sesll yoturiSotudynMasterial Set 1 Section I – Reading Comprehension Questions: 45 Time: 45 Minutes Section II – Mathematics Questions: 50 Time: 60 Minutes Section III – Part 1 - English Grammar (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section III - Part II – Vocabulary Questions: 50 Time: 50 Minutes Section IV – Part I – Science (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes Section IV – Part II – Anatomy & Physiology (optional) Questions: 50 Time: 50 minutes The practice test portion presents questions that are representative of the type of question yo should expect to find on the HESI. For the best results, take this Practice Test as if it were the real exam. Set aside time when you will not be disturbed, and a location that is quiet and free of distractions. Read the instructions carefully, read each question carefully, and answer to the best of your ability. Use the bubble answer sheets provided. When you have completed the Practice Test, check your answer against the Answer Key and read the explanation provided. NOTE: The Science, Anatomy and Physiology and English sections are optional. Check with your school for exam details. Answer Sheet – Section 1 - Reading Comprehension nunrsuyrlsaybla.cbo.cmom- T-hTehMe aMrkaerktpeltapclaecteo tBouByuaynadnSdeSlleylloyuor uSrtuSdtuydMy aMteartiearlial Answer Sheet – Section II - Math Answer Sheet – Section III Part I - English Grammar nunrsuyrlsaybla.cbo.cmom- T-hTehMe aMrkaerktpeltapclaecteo tBouByuaynadnSdeSlleylloyuor uSrtuSdtuydMy aMteartiearlial Answer Sheet – Section III Part II – Vocabulary Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Biology and Chemistry nunrsuyrlsaybla.cbo.cmom- T-hTehMe aMrkaerktpeltapclaecteo tBouByuaynadnSdeSlleylloyuor uSrtuSdtuydMy aMteartiearlial Answer Sheet – Section IV Part I – Anatomy and Physiology SECTION I - READING COMPREHENSION. Directions: The following questions are based on a number of reading passages. Each passage is followed by a series of questions. Read each passage carefully, and then answer the questions based on it. You may reread the passage as often as you wish. When you have finished answering the questions based on one passage, go right on to the next passage. Choose the best answer based on the information given and implied. Questions 1 – 4 refer to the following passage. Passage 1 - Infectious Disease An infectious disease is a clinically evident illness resulting from the presence of pathogenic agents, such as viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multi-cellular parasites, and unusual protein known as prions. Infectious pathologies are also called communicable diseases or transmissib diseases, due to their potential of transmission from one person or species to another by a replicating agent (as opposed to a toxin). Transmission of an infectious disease can occur in many different ways. Physical contact, liquids, food, body fluids, contaminated objects, and airborne inhalation can all transmit infectin agents. nursylab.com - The Marketplace to Buy and Sell your Study Material Transmissible diseases that occur through contact with an ill person, or objects touched by them, are especially infective, and are sometimes referred to as contagious diseases. Communicable diseases that require a more specialized route of infection, such as through blood or needle transmission, or sexual transmission, are usually not regarded as contagious. The term infectivity describes the ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host, while the infectiousness of a disease indicates the comparative ease with which the disease is transmitted. An infection however, is not synonymous with an infectious disease, as an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms. 1 1. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this passage? a. Sickness from a toxin can be easily transmitted from one person to another. b. Sickness from an infectious disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another. c. Few sicknesses are transmitted from one person to another. d. Infectious diseases are easily treated. 2. What are two other names for infections’ pathologies? a. Communicable diseases or transmissible diseases b. Communicable diseases or terminal diseases c. Transmissible diseases or preventable diseases d. Communicative diseases or unstable diseases 3. What does infectivity describe? a. The inability of an organism to multiply in the host b. The inability of an organism to reproduce c. The ability of an organism to enter, survive and multiply in the host d. The ability of an organism to reproduce in the host 4. How do we know an infection is not synonymous with an infectious disease? a. Because an infectious disease destroys infections with enough time. b. Because an infection may not cause important clinical symptoms or impair host function. c. We do not. The two are synonymous. d. Because an infection is too fatal to be an infectious disease. Questions 5 – 8 refer to the following passage. Passage 2 - Viruses A virus (from the Latin virus meaning toxin or poison) is a small infectious agent that can replicate only inside the living cells of other organisms. Most viruses are too small to be seen directly with a microscope. Viruses infect all types of organisms, from animals and plants to bacteria and single-celled organisms. Unlike prions and viroids, viruses consist of two or three parts: all viruses have genes made from either DNA or RNA, all nhurasyvlaeb.coam p- Trhoe tMeariknetpclaoceatot Btuhyaantd pSerlloyotuer cSttusdy tMhaetersiael genes, and some have an envelope of fat that surrounds them when they are outside a cell. (Viroids do not have a protei coat and prions contain no RNA or DNA.) Viruses vary from simple to very complex structures Most viruses are about one hundred times smaller than an average bacterium. The origins of viruses in the evolutionary history of life are unclear: some may have evolved from plasmids— pieces of DNA that can move between cells—while others may have evolved from bacteria. Viruses spread in many ways; plant viruses are often transmitted from plant to plant by insect that feed on sap, such as aphids, while animal viruses can be carried by blood-sucking insects These disease-bearing organisms are known as vectors. Influenza viruses are spread by coughing and sneezing. HIV is one of several viruses transmitted through sexual contact and b exposure to infected blood. Viruses can infect only a limited range of host cells called the “hos range”. This can be broad as when a virus is capable of infecting many species or narrow. 2 5. What can we infer from the first paragraph in this selection? a. A virus is the same as bacterium b. A person with excellent vision can see a virus with the naked eye c. A virus cannot be seen with the naked eye d. Not all viruses are dangerous 6. What types of organisms do viruses infect? a. Only plants and humans b. Only animals and humans c. Only disease-prone humans d. All types of organisms 7. How many parts do prions and viroids consist of? a. Two b. Three c. Either less than two or more than three d. Less than two 8. What is one common virus spread by coughing and sneezing? a. AIDS b. Influenza c. Herpes d. Tuberculosis Questions 9 – 11 refer to the following passage. Passage 3 – Clouds The first stage of a thunderstorm is the cumulus stage, or developing stage. In this stage, masses of moisture are lifted upwards into the atmosphere. The trigger for this lift can be insulation heating the ground producing thermals, areas where two winds converge, forcing air upwards, or where winds blonuwrsylaobv.ceomr - tTeherrMaariknetpolafceitno cBuryeaandsSienllgyouer lSetuvdyaMtiaotenria.l Moisture in the air rapidly cools into liquid drops of water, which appears as cumulus clouds. As the water vapor condenses into liquid, latent heat is released which warms the air, causing to become less dense than the surrounding dry air. The warm air rises in an updraft through th process of convection (hence the term convective precipitation). This creates a low-pressure zone beneath the forming thunderstorm. In a typical thunderstorm, approximately 5×108 kg of water vapor is lifted, and the amount of energy released when this condenses is about equal t the energy used by a city of 100,000 in a month. 3 9. The cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is the a. The last stage of the storm b. The middle stage of the storm formation c. The beginning of the thunderstorm d. The period after the thunderstorm has ended 10. One of the ways the air is warmed is a. Air moving downwards, which will creates a high-pressure zone b. Air cooling and becoming less dense, causing it to rise c. Moisture moving downward toward the earth d. Heat created by water vapor condensing into liquid 11. Identify the correct sequence of events a. Warm air rises, water droplets condense, creating more heat, and the air rises further. b. Warm air rises and cools, water droplets condense, causing low pressure. c. Warm air rises and collects water vapor, the water vapor condenses as the air rises, which creates heat, and causes the air to rise further. d. None of the above. Questions 12 – 14 refer to the following passage. Passage 4 – US Weather Service The United States National Weather Service classifies thunderstorms as severe when they reach a predetermined level. Usually, this means the storm is strong enough to inflict wind or hail damage. In most of the United States, a storm is considered severe if winds reach over 5 knots (58 mph or 93 km/h), hail is ¾ inch (2 cm) diameter or larger, or if meteorologists repor funnel clouds or tornadoes. In the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service, the hail threshold for a severe thunderstorm is 1 inch (2.5 cm) in diameter. Though a funnel cloud or tornado indicates the presence of a severe thunderstorm, the various meteorological agencies would issue a tornado warning rather than a severe thunderstorm warning in this case. Meteorologists in Canada define a severe thunderstorm as either having tornadoes, wind gust of 90 km/h or greater, hail 2 centimeters in diameter or greater, rainfall more than 50 millimeters in 1 hour, or 75 millimeters in 3 hours. Severe thunderstorms can dneurvsyelalbo.cpomf-rTohemMaarknetpylacteytpo Beuyoanfd tShelul ynoudr eStrusdytMoartemria.l 3 12. What is the purpose of this passage? a. Explaining when a thunderstorm turns into a tornado b. Explaining who issues storm warnings, and when these warnings should be issued c. Explaining when meteorologists consider a thunderstorm severe d. None of the above 13. It is possible to infer from this passage that a. Different areas and countries have different criteria for determining a severe storm b. Thunderstorms can include lightning and tornadoes, as well as violent winds and large hail c. If someone spots both a thunderstorm and a tornado, meteorological agencies will immediately issue a severe storm warning d. Canada has a much different alert system for severe storms, with criteria that are far less 14. What would the Central Region of the United States National Weather Service do if hail was 2.7 cm in diameter? a. Not issue a severe thunderstorm warning. b. Issue a tornado warning. c. Issue a severe thunderstorm warning. d. Sleet must also accompany the hail before th [Show Less]
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HESI A2 READING V1_V2 QUIZ & ANSWERS COMPLETE 2021/2022 LATEST UPDATE
HESI A2 READING V1_V2 QUIZ & ANSWERS COMPLETE 2021/2022 LATEST UPDATE HESI A2 READING V1_V2 ... [Show More] Hesi A2 Reading Food Food and drink are necessary and desirable, but their abuse can cause serious physical and metal problem. Many physicians believe that overeating is one of the country's main health problems, since it places a great strain on the heart, can lead to diabetes, and often shortens the individual's life span. To fill an emotional void. People often turn to food when they are bored or lonely. Another area of concern is alcohol consumption. The results of alcohol abuse are widely publicized. The social drinker who becomes alcoholic, the drunken driver's contribution to highway death, spousal and child abuse, are all concomitant problems associated with alcohol abuse. 1. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph, the term “concomitant” means? *Accompanying 2. The information presented in this article is? *Unbiased in its approach 3. The author’s motive for writing the paragraph seems to have been to? *Urge self-control 4. What is implied by this paragraph? -We should eat and drink in reasonable quantities. 5. The author seems? *Favor moderation 6. The information presented in this article is -Against drinking alcohol 7. The author seems to -Oppose drinking alcohol Eating Consumption of food is a universal necessity. Different cultures have developed different methods to accomplish the task. It is interesting to discover these differences and learn new ways to do things. European cultures developed cutlery (knives, forks, and spoons) to enable people to efficiently eat their food. Correct use of this tool’s changes with the times-what was polite in 1800 may not be considered proper manners today. China developed the chopstick as an efficient tool for eating. Mastery of the use of chopsticks can be difficult for the person not raised in the culture. The attempts of a novice to use chopsticks can be very amusing to the watcher, but frustrating for the hungry diner. Space travel has created new challenges for consuming food. Squeeze bottles and other unique packaging have enabled space travelers to get their needed nutrition. Chopsticks and forks do not work well in space. 1. What conclusion can be drawn about the article? A. The author think chopstick are funny B. The best way to eat food is with cutlery C. The author explains differences in eating processes. (CORRECT) D. Space flight is fun and exciting. 2. What statement can be implied from the content of article? A. Eating in space can be time-consuming. B. Diversity is interesting to learn about C. The author thinks cutlery is the best tool to use to consume food. (correct) D. The author enjoys trying new food. 3. What is the best definition of efficient as used in the third paragraph? -productive without waste 4. What conclusion can be drawn about the article? -The author explain differences in eating processes. 5. What statement can be implied from the content of article. -Diversity is interesting to learn about 6. What statement from the article draws the conclusion? -it is interesting to discover new ways to do something 7. What statement from this article is correct? -china developed chop sticks for eating utensils Exams Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recall information, you must be able to realize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective test provide opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subjective area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays. When your review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are less to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of question you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing complete sentence down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly. When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, spending more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what they are asked. Pay attention to words such as define, illustrate, explain, list, compare, and contrast. Each work requires a different type of response. Write a brief outline of your answer on scrap paper or the back of the test. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not write more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes important points addressed in each question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer. Then use your outline to develop the main point and subtopics. Add substance to your answer by including as many facts as possible to support your answer. Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly. 1. When taking a subjective examination, you will find questions like. A. True & False C. Matching B. Multiple Choice D. Definitions. (CORRECT) 2. Compared to objective exams, essay test contains A. no good answers C. fewer questions (correct B. more questions D. harder questions 3. From the article the reader can conclude that a test containing true-false question is called. A. subjective C. objective (CORRECT) B. rejective D. Detective 4. Compared to objective exams, subjective tests contain A. more questions. C. harder questions B. fewer questions (correct) D. no good answers 5. In answering subjective questions, the student should, A. Include more than is asked B. Keep it brief and specific C. Write out the words-true or false D. Capitalize the matching letters 6. When taking an exam, you should divide your time A. Into three or four short segments B. To allow more time for the difficult questions C. Equally between all questions D. So that you have time to check and change answers 7. In the above passage, the word "subjective" refers to test questions that: A. Allow you to choose an answer B. Are matching C. Are true or false D. Require you to write your own answer The Game of Bridge The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge playing. For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can become proficient. Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the for players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows: spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However, during play all the suits of cards are considered equals, and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being high to the two cards being low. The highest number of tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a total of four. After the lead player lays down his/her card, the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick and picks up all four cards. If a player cannot follow suit, he/she plays any card, but to make the game more interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit which means that if a player plays a card from the trump suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump suit are played, the highest card within the trump suit wins the trick. Obviously, the team with the most tricks wins the hand. Questions & Answers 1. The author wants the reader to feel A. As though the game of Bridge is too hard for novices to learn. B. frustrated and confused about playing bridge C. confident and excited about learning the game of bridge (correct) D. Overwhelmed by all the rules for the games of Bridge. 2. Throughout this passage the word suit means A. A set of clothing to be worn together B. Any of the four sets into which a deck of cards is divided. (CORRECT) C to be convenient or right for D. To request or appeal persistently 3. In the passage, a trick is described as A. A special look given to your partner across the table B. A book that gives strategies on how to win a Bridge. C. A collection of one card played by each of four players. (CORRECT) D. A specific card the dealer gives to the person to her right. 4. The passage explicitly states A. That the highest card within the "trump" suit always wins the trick. (CORRECT) B. The Ace card is always the lowest card. C. That there is a pile of leftover" cards that is placed in the middle of the game table. D. that if a player cannot follow suit, she loses her turn to the next player. 5. The passage implies that A. playing bridge requires concentration. (CORRECT) B. Bridge is an extremely easy game to play C. Bridge is only for older people D. Bridge is only for women The Golden Gate Bridge Linking San Francisco to Marin County in California, the Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. The bridge crosses over a narrow strait which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Prior to the bridge, people traveled by ferry boat across the strait. Although most people thought a bridge was necessary to expedite travel, some residents of the bay area felt the risk of building the bridge was too great. Joseph Strauss believed that nothing was impossible, and dreams would never come to fruition if risks weren't taken. So, he decided to gather the best and brightest builders, architects, and workers to embark on the challenge of building a bridge across the Golden Gate Strait. With safety nets in place, the construction began in 1937. Building the anchorages first, the builders then move on to the towers on each end, and then to the three-foot thick cables to support the suspension bridge. Lastly, workers labored to complete the roadway which became the most dangerous and treacherous part of the entire task. The builders had to keep the bridge balance, so it wouldn't fall into the bay. Today, over sixty-five years later, the bridge remains a life-line for the people of the San Francisco Bay Area. 1. The authors reason for writing this piece seems to be to A. Inform the reader (correct) B. Teach the reader C. persuade the reader D. entertain the reader 2. What body of water does The Golden Gate Bridge cross? A. San Francisco Bay B. Pacific Ocean C. Marin Strait D. Golden Gate Strait (Correct) 3. Why was the roadway so dangerous [Show Less]
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HESI A2 Reading Passages Versions 1 & 2 (with ANSWERS)
HESI A2 Reading Passages Versions 1 & 2 (with ANSWERS) NOTICE: I ONLY CREATED THIS FILE AS MY OWN STUDY GUIDE AND DO NOT INTEND TO MAKE COPIES, SHARE O... [Show More] R POST THEM ONLINE WITHOUT PERMISSION FROM THE RIGHTFUL/COPYRIGHT OWNER. DETAILS BELOW ARE COLLECTED FROM PUBLIC DOMAIN/SOCIAL MEDIA ONLINE POSTS/QUIZLETS/SHARED DOCUMENTS FROM RANDOM SITES AND NO RESOURCES/REFERENCES INCLUDED. I DON’T OWN THE FOLLOWING AND WILL NEVER USE ANY COPYRIGHTED WORK/MATERIAL FOR PROFIT WITHOUT PERMISSION. IF YOU ARE PLANNING TO SHARE/MAKE COPIES, PLEASE DO THE FOLLOWING FIRST: ● Find out the copyright owner. Some owners use third party companies. ● Make an official request to use the following documents from the copyright owner (or the third party if applicable). ● If a request for use is approved, please use the documents according to the terms/conditions agreed with the copyright owner. 1 HESI A2 Reading Version 1 FOOD Food and drink are necessary and desirable, but their abuse can cause serious physical and mental problems. Many physicians believe that overeating is one of the country's main health problems, since it places a great strain on the heart, can lead to diabetes, and often shortens the individual's life span. To fill an emotional void. People often turn to food when they are bored or lonely. Another area of concern is alcohol consumption. The results of alcohol abuse are widely publicized. The social drinker who becomes alcoholic, the drunken driver's contribution to highway death, spousal and child abuse, are all concomitant problems associated with alcohol abuse. 1. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph, the term “concomitant” means? *Accompanying (CORRECT) 2. The author’s motive for writing the paragraph seems to have been to? *Urge self-control (CORRECT) 3. What is implied by this paragraph? *We should eat and drink in reasonable quantities. (CORRECT) 4. The author seems? *Favor moderation (CORRECT) 5. The information presented in this article is *Against drinking alcohol (CORRECT) 6. The author seems to *Oppose drinking alcohol (CORRECT) EATING Consumption of food is a universal necessity. Different cultures have developed different methods to accomplish the task. It is interesting to discover these differences and learn new ways to do things. European cultures developed cutlery (knives, forks, and spoons) to enable people to efficiently eat their food. Correct use of this tool’s changes with the times-what was polite in 1800 may not be considered proper manners today. China developed the chopstick as an efficient tool for eating. Mastery of the use of chopsticks can be difficult for the person not raised in the culture. The attempts of a novice to use chopsticks can be very amusing to the watcher, but frustrating for the hungry diner. Space travel has created new challenges for consuming food. Squeeze bottles and other unique packaging have enabled space travelers to get their needed nutrition. Chopsticks and forks do not work well in space. 1. What conclusion can be drawn about the article? A. The author think chopstick are funny B. The best way to eat food is with cutlery C. The author explains differences in eating processes. (CORRECT) D. Space flight is fun and exciting. 2 2. What statement can be implied from the content of the article? A. Eating in space can be time-consuming. B. Diversity is interesting to learn about (CORRECT) C. The author thinks cutlery is the best tool to use to consume food. (correct) D. The author enjoys trying new food. 3. What is the best definition of efficient as used in the third paragraph? *Productive without waste (CORRECT) 4. What conclusion can be drawn about the article? *The author explains differences in eating processes. (CORRECT) 5. What statement can be implied from the content of the article. *Diversity is interesting to learn about (CORRECT) 6. What statement from the article draws the conclusion? *It is interesting to discover new ways to do something (CORRECT) 7. What statement from this article is correct? *China developed chopsticks for eating utensils (CORRECT) EXAMS Subjective exams measure your ability in several areas. Besides recall information, you must be able to realize content logically and intelligently express yourself in a clearly understood manner. Subjective tests provide opportunity for students to show their broad knowledge of a subjective area. Answers may be in the form of paragraphs or lengthy essays. When your review for an essay exam, concentrate on main ideas rather than details. Since essay tests are less to a few questions, they are likely to deal with more important ideas of a subject. Prepare a list of questions you think might be asked. Write an answer to each of your questions. Rather than writing a complete sentence down your thoughts in outline form. Doing so will help you organize the information so that you can express yourself clearly. When you take the test, read through all the questions before you start to write. Allot time for each question, spending more time for questions worth the most points. Read each question carefully to determine exactly what they are asked. Pay attention to words such as define, illustrate, explain, list, compare, and contrast. Each work requires a different type of response. Write a brief outline of your answer on scrap paper or the back of the test. Make sure you include all the important ideas that are within the limits of the question. In other words, do not write more than is asked for each answer. When you write your answer, keep it specific and as brief as possible. In the introductory sentence it is often helpful to make a general statement that includes important points addressed in each question. Such a topic sentence serves as a framework for your answer. Then use your outline to develop the main point and subtopics. Add substance to your answer by including as many facts as possible to support your answer. Check your paper before you submit it. Look for mistakes in grammar, spelling, sentence structure, and punctuation. Unless you are certain an answer is wrong, do not change it. Your answer is an educated guess and is usually your best chance of answering correctly. 3 1. When taking a subjective examination, you will find questions like. A. True & False C. Matching B. Multiple Choice D. Definitions. (CORRECT) 2. Compared to objective exams, essay test contains A. no good answers C. fewer questions (CORRECT) B. more questions D. harder questions 3. From the article the reader can conclude that a test containing a true-false question is called. A. subjective C. objective (CORRECT) B. rejective D. Detective 4. Compared to objective exams, subjective tests contain A. more questions. C. harder questions B. fewer questions(CORRECT) D. no good answers 5. In answering subjective questions, the student should A. Include more than is asked B. Keep it brief and specific (CORRECT) C. Write out the words-true or false D. Capitalize the matching letters 6. When taking an exam, you should divide your time A. Into three or four short segments B. To allow more time for the difficult questions (CORRECT) C. Equally between all questions D. So that you have time to check and change answers 7. In the above passage, the word "subjective" refers to test questions that: A. Allow you to choose an answer B. Are matching C. Are true or false D. Require you to write your own answer (CORRECT) THE GAME OF BRIDGE The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge playing. For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can become proficient. Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the four players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows: spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However, during play all the suits of cards are considered equals, and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being high to the two cards being low. The highest number of tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a total of four. After the lead player lays 4 down his/her card, the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick and picks up all four cards. If a player cannot follow suit, he/she plays any card, but to make the game more interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit which means that if a player plays a card from the trump suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump suit are played, the highest card within the trump suit wins the trick. Obviously, the team with the most tricks wins the hand. 1. The author wants the reader to feel A. As though the game of Bridge is too hard for novices to learn. B. Frustrated and confused about playing bridge C. Confident and excited about learning the game of bridge (CORRECT) D. Overwhelmed by all the rules for the games of Bridge. 2. Throughout this passage the word suit means A. A set of clothing to be worn together B. Any of the four sets into which a deck of cards is divided. (CORRECT) C to be convenient or right for D. To request or appeal persistently 3. In the passage, a trick is described as A. A special look given to your partner across the table B. A book that gives strategies on how to win a Bridge. C. A collection of one card played by each of four players. (CORRECT) D. A specific card the dealer gives to the person to her right. 4. The passage explicitly states A. That the highest card within the "trump" suit always wins the trick. (CORRECT) B. The Ace card is always the lowest card. C. That there is a pile of leftover" cards that is placed in the middle of the game t [Show Less]
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Hesi a2 v2 exam questions and answers all correct HESI A2 V2 Exam Questions with
HESI A2 V2 Exam Questions with Answers (All Correct) Grammar 1. My father and I looked at her/hers. 2. I am looking forward to my birthday party next we... [Show More] ek. a. Going b. Go c. Have d. Having 3. Coffee experts feel that the coffee blend is a dark blend. a. More greater b. Great c. Best d. More greatest 4. The nurse made a error with the medication, do the doctor made notes about it in the patients file. a. About it b. A c. With d. Made 5. Finishing isn’t as important as answering correctly. a. Quick b. As quick c. So quickist d. Quickly 6. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. A lot of people enjoy baseball movies. b. The patient said he took alot of pills yesterday. c. Alotts of time drivers go too fast. 7. Which sentence is grammatically incorrect? a. Everyone enjoys ripping the wrapping paper off their holiday gifts. b. The racer ran swiftly down the track. c. The red fox jumped quickly over the sleeping dog. d. She lit scented candles so the air will smell sweetly. 8. Which sentence is grammatically correct? a. It is important to too spell correctly. b. I have two go to the gym. c. We have too kinds of desserts. d. It is too heavy for me to lift. 9. Which word is not used correctly in the sentence? They’re going to the mall to pick up there uniforms for their coach. a. Their b. Going Page 2 of 30 2 c. They’re Page 3 of 30 3 d. There 10. After throwing their sleeping bags into the backseat of their car, they more than 400 miles to reach their destination. a. Driving b. Having driven c. Drove d. Had drove 11. Place the four words in alphabetical order. a. Assemble, assembled, assembling, assembly b. Assembly, assemble, assembled, assembling c. Assemble, assembly, assembling, assembled d. Assemble, assembly, assembled, assembling 12. The shopper was angry when he realized he it cheaper at the other store. a. Get b. Could have got c. Could have gotten d. Might have get 13. Which sentence is not grammatically correct? a. Because he did not examine the patient, the healthcare provider prescribed her with the wrong medication. b. The nurse decided to bathe the client, than trim his nails. c. The dietician, through negligence, made a mistake with the diet plan. d. Since the child was feeling ill, the nurse sent him home. 14. What is a salutation in this address? a. 1600 Pennsylvania Ave. b. 20003 (Area code) c. Ryan d. Mr. 15. I the package on the table a. Layed b. Drop c. Laid d. Lay 16. Which sentence uses fast as an adverb? a. The cars on the overpass moved fast. b. The clock on the wall is 10 minutes fast. c. The batter could not hit the fast pitch d. The fast cars drove over the bridge 17. Most children must learn for the importance of good manners. a. Themself b. Theirself c. Theirselves d. Themselves 18. Be careful not to the bottle while you carry it to the table. a. Brak b. Break [Show Less]
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