Bundle
EMT Final Exam JBL:EMT-B Final Exam Prep Test Bank - All JB Learning Quizzes:JB Learning Final Exam:JB Learning: EMT Final Exam: Latest Updated A Score Solutions :100% Verified Questions & Answers
6 Items
JB LEARNING EMT FINAL EXAM; Questions & Answers ; Latest Updated A+ score Solution
When assessing a conscious patient who overdosed on a drug, you should FIRST determine: A) the patient's weight in kg. B) the type of medication ingested... [Show More] . C) when the medication was ingested. D) if there is a history of prior overdose. (Ans- B While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a 4-year-old child who is breathing at a rate of 54 breaths/min. What should you do? A) Apply high-flow oxygen B) Tag the child as immediate C) Assess for distal pulses D) Ventilate with a bag-mask device (Ans- B A prolapsed umbilical cord is dangerous because the: A) cord might pull the placenta from the uterine wall during delivery. B) mother may die of hypoxia due to compromised placental blood flow. C) cord may be wrapped around the baby's neck, causing strangulation. D) baby's head may compress the cord, cutting off its supply of oxygen. (Ans- D Your assessment of the newborn reveals that she has a patent airway, is breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 130 beats/min. Her face and trunk are pink, but her hands and feet are cyanotic. You have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. You should: A) massage the lower part of the mother's uterus until the placenta delivers. B) give the newborn high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport. C) reassess the newborn every 5 minutes and transport after the placenta delivers. D) keep the newborn warm, give oxygen to the mother if needed, and transport. (Ans- D A patient overdosed on several drugs and is unresponsive with shallow breathing and facial cyanosis. As you continue your assessment, the patient suddenly vomits. You should: A) suction his oropharynx at once. B) turn the patient onto his side. C) insert an oropharyngeal airway. D) begin assisting his ventilations. (Ans- B A known diabetic female is found unresponsive. Her respirations are rapid and shallow; her skin is cool, clammy, and pale; and her pulse is rapid and weak. Which of the following would BEST explain the likely cause of her condition? A) Insulin overdose B) Excessive eating C) High blood sugar D) Failure to take insulin (Ans- A A 29-year-old pregnant female complains of a severe headache, blurred vision, and swelling of her hands and feet. Which of the following additional assessment findings would the EMT MOST likely encounter? A) Hypertension B) Hyperglycemia C) Abdominal pain D) Vaginal bleeding (Ans- A In which position would you expect a patient with severe dyspnea to be found? A) Prone B) Supine C) Fowler's D) Lateral recumbent (Ans- C You are caring for a man with terminal cancer when his caretaker presents you with a Physician Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) form. The purpose of this form is to: A) advise medical providers that resuscitation is not to be attempted. B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders. C) enable the caretaker to make healthcare decisions on the patient's behalf. D) limit the treatment provided to the patient to basic life support care. (Ans- B A 69-year-old man complains of dyspnea that began two days ago and has gotten worse. Which of the following assessments would give you the MOST information regarding the possible cause of his dyspnea? A) Lung sounds B) Mental status C) Oxygen saturation D) Pulse rate and quality (Ans- A A 73-year-old male presents with confusion; cool, pale, clammy skin; absent radial pulses; and a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg. The patient's wife tells you that he has had abdominal pain for a week and began vomiting a coffee-ground substance yesterday. His past medical history includes hypertension and gastric ulcer disease. Your MOST immediate concern should be that: A) his blood glucose level is probably too high. B) he is bleeding from his gastrointestinal tract. C) he is in shock and requires prompt transport. D) his condition requires surgery within 2 hours. (Ans- C Which of the following is an abnormal finding? A) Heart rate of 80 beats/min in a 3-month-old infant B) Rapid, irregular breathing in a newly born infant C) Systolic BP of 100 mm Hg in a 10-year-old child D) Respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min in a 2-year-old child (Ans- A Unresponsiveness, shallow breathing, and constricted pupils are indicative of which type of drug overdose? A) Narcotic B) Marijuana C) Barbiturate D) Amphetamine (Ans- A Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause flushed skin? A) Blood loss B) Hypothermia C) Exposure to heat D) Low blood pressure (Ans- C A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. His blood pressure is 106/58 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. Treatment for this patient should include: A) elevation of the affected part and ice packs. B) splinting and lowering of the affected part. C) ice packs to the wound and splinting. D) proximal arterial constricting band and splinting. (Ans- B Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings? A) Distraction B) Subluxation C) Axial loading D) Hyperextension (Ans- A Assessment of an injured man reveals that he opens his eyes when the EMT speaks to him and pulls his arm away when the EMT palpates it. He knows his name, but cannot remember what happened and does not know what day it is. He should be assigned a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12 (Ans- C You are performing abdominal thrusts on a 19-year-old male with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After lowering him to the ground and placing him in a supine position, you should: A) open his airway and look inside his mouth. B) begin CPR, starting with chest compressions. C) continue abdominal thrusts until ALS responders arrive. D) assess for a carotid pulse for up to 10 seconds. (Ans- B Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population MOST often is the result of: A) myocardial infarction. B) respiratory failure. C) a cardiac dysrhythmia. D) accidental electrocution. (Ans- C A 31-year-old man presents with uncontrolled twitching of his left arm that began shortly after he experienced an odd taste in his mouth. He denies loss of consciousness and states that this has happened to him before. What should you suspect? A) Absence seizure B) Generalized seizure C) Simple partial seizure D) Complex partial seizure Feedback : Seizures are classified as being generalized or partial. Generalized seizures are further classified as being tonic-clonic (formerly called grand mal) or absence (formerly called petit mal) seizures. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures result from abnormal electrical discharges from large areas of the brain, usually involving both hemispheres. They are characterized by unconsciousness and generalized severe twitching of the body's muscles; they last several minutes or longer. Absence seizures are characterized by a brief lapse of consciousness in which the patient seems to stare and does not respond to anyone. Absence seizures do not involve any changes in motor activity. Partial (focal) seizures begin in one part of the brain and are classified as simple and complex. In a simple partial seizure, no change occurs in the patient's level of consciousness. Patients may report numbness, weakness, or dizziness. The senses may also be involved; the patient may report visual changes and unusual smells or tastes. A simple partial seizure may also cause twitching of the extremity muscles that spreads slowly from one part of the body to another. In a complex partial seizure, the patient has an altered mental status and does not interact normally with his or her environment. This type of seizure results from abnormal discharges from the temporal lobe of the brain. Other signs may include lip smacking, eye blinking, and isolated convulsions or jerking of the body or one part of the body, such as the arm. The patient may experience unpleasant smells and visual hallucinations, exhibit uncontrollable fear, or exhibit repetitive physical behavior such as constant sitting or standing. (Ans- C Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of a fractured spinal vertebra? A) Lack of pain at the site of the injury B) Palpable pain at the site of the injury C) Decreased movement on one side of the body D) Decreased grip strength in the upper extremities (Ans- B When treating a patient with chest pain, pressure, or discomfort, you should FIRST: A) administer supplemental oxygen. B) place the patient in a position of comfort. C) request an ALS ambulance response to the scene. D) assess the blood pressure and give nitroglycerin. (Ans- B Upon assessing a newborn, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 80 beats/min. What should you do? A) Initiate positive-pressure ventilations B) Provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing C) Assess the newborn's skin condition and color D) Start chest compressions and contact medical control (Ans- A [Show Less]
- Exam
- $9.45
- 0
- 263
EMT Final Exam JBL: Questions & Answers; Latest Updated: A+ Guide Solution
According to the USDOT, minimum staffing for BLS ambulance includes: (Ans - At least one EMT in the patient compartment. The driver does not need to be an... [Show More] EMT Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct? (Ans - Heatstroke occurs when the body is exposed to more heat than it can eliminate and normal mechanisms such as sweating are overwhelmed. The temp can rise to appoint where tissues are destroyed. It can develop during prolonged vigorous physical activity or in closed, poorly ventilated, hot and humid space. High humidity impairs heat elimination via sweating. Patients will have hot, dry, flushed skin, become agitated, and LOC will decrease If a vehicle strikes a tree at 60 mph, the unrestrained driver would likely experience the MOST severe injuries during the: (Ans - Motor-vehicle crashes typically consist of three separate collisions. Understanding the events that occur during each collision will help you remain alert for certain types of injury patterns. During the first collision, the vehicle strikes another object. Damage to the car is perhaps the most dramatic part of the collision, but it does not directly affect patient care. It does, however, provide information about the severity of the collision; thus, it has an indirect effect on patient care. During the second collision, the passenger collides with the interior of the vehicle. Just like the obvious damage to the exterior of the car, the injuries that result are often dramatic and usually apparent during your primary assessment. During the third collision, the occupant's internal organs collide with the solid structures of the body. Although the injuries that occur during the third collision may not be as obvious as those that occur during the second collision, they are often the most life-threatening. A 22-year-old man had a strong acid chemical splashed into both of his eyes. He is conscious and alert, is experiencing intense pain, and states that he is wearing contact lenses. Treatment should include: (Ans - As a general rule, contact lenses should be left in place. Chemical eye burns are an exception to this rule. If left in place, the chemical could get behind the contact lens and continue to cause injury. Therefore, you should remove the contact lenses and immediately irrigate the eyes with sterile saline or water. If needed, continue to irrigate the eyes throughout transport. A 22-year-old male has a shard of glass impaled in his cheek. You look inside his mouth and see minor bleeding. The patient is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. You should: (Ans - It remains true that you should remove an impaled object if it compromises the airway or impedes your ability to manage the airway. However, neither is the case with this patient because he has an adequate airway. He is conscious and alert and has only minor bleeding in his mouth. The safest approach, and most practical given the situation, would be to carefully stabilize the shard of glass in place; consider wrapping the exposed glass with gauze to protect yourself from getting cut. Since the patient is conscious and alert and has only minor oral bleeding, it would not be unreasonable to hand him the suction catheter and allow him to use it as needed. Be sure to instruct the patient to use the suction and not to swallow any blood. Keep in mind that if you attempt to remove the shard of glass, you risk cutting yourself and causing further injury to the patient. When an error occurs while using the AED, it is MOST often the result of: (Ans - AEDs are highly sensitive and specific in recognizing shockable rhythms (eg, V-Fib, pulseless V-Tach); this means that they are highly reliable. It would be extremely rare for the AED to recommend a shock when one is not indicated or fail to recommend a shock when one is indicated. When an error does occur, it is usually the operator's fault. The most common error is not having a charged battery. To avoid this problem, many AEDs are equipped with an alarm that warns the operator if the battery is not fully charged. Some of the older AEDs, however, are not equipped with this feature. Therefore, it is important to check the AED daily, exercise the battery as often as the manufacturer recommends, and always have a spare, fully charged battery on hand. Prior to your arrival, a woman experiencing an asthma attack took two puffs from her prescribed inhaler without relief. After administering supplemental oxygen, you should: (Ans - Before assisting a patient with any medication other than oxygen, the EMT must ensure that the medication is prescribed to the patient and then obtain authorization from medical control. In this case, the physician probably will allow you to help the patient take one more puff from her inhaler. Generally, up to three puffs from an inhaler are delivered in the field. It is important for you to ask the patient how many puffs were taken from the inhaler before you arrived. The EMT must correct any airway and/or breathing problems as quickly as possible. After doing so, a secondary assessment can be performed. Upon discovering an open chest wound, you should: (Ans - Upon discovering an open chest wound (ie, sucking chest wound), you must take immediate action to prevent air from entering the wound. This is most effectively accomplished by applying an occlusive dressing or similar material to the wound. A porous (non-occlusive) trauma dressing will not prevent air from entering the wound. Tape three sides of the occlusive dressing and closely monitor the patient. If worsened respiratory distress and signs of shock are noted, a tension pneumothorax is probably developing, and you must release pressure from the pleural space by lifting up the unsecured portion of the occlusive dressing. Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis? (Ans - Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis (diabetic coma) is characterized by a dangerously high blood glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); Kussmaul's respirations, which are deep and rapid; and breath with a fruity or acetone odor. Insulin shock results from a low blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is characterized by a rapid onset; altered mental status; and cool, clammy skin. You are assessing an elderly man with respiratory distress. He is coughing up bloody sputum and has an oxygen saturation of 85%. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear coarse crackles in all lung fields. This patient MOST likely has: [Show Less]
- Exam
- $9.45
- 0
- 237
EMT-B Final Exam Prep Test Bank - All JB Learning Quizzes: Questions & Answers: 100% Verified.
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of health care professionals who are... [Show More] responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients C. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting (Ans- A Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. AEMT B. Paramedic C. EMR D. EMT (Ans- D Online medical control requires __________. Select one: A. phone or radio contact with the medical director B. written protocols approved by medical control C. a physician's presence on the scene of the call D. the presence of an advanced-level provider (Ans- A Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. D. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. (Ans- D You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. scope of practice B. patient advocacy C. abuse of authority D. undue hardship (Ans- B Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the experiences of EMTs B. an EMS agency's fiscal resources C. EMS research D. the opinions of physicians (Ans- C The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. integrity B. patient advocacy C. time management D. patient empathy (Ans- C Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination B. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" D. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever (Ans- A National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. unify EMS providers under a single medical director B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States C. reduce expenses at the local and state levels D. facilitate a national EMS labor group (Ans- B The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. DCAP B. HIPAA C. APGAR D. CQI (Ans- B American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. trends in the EMS community B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. evidence-based research D. theories ready for field trial (Ans- C You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. law enforcement personnel b. your medical director c. the receiving nurse or doctor d. the state motor vehicle department (Ans- C What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. B. Deviate from established standards when necessary. C. Follow the agency's written protocols. D. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. (Ans- C Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. (Ans- B As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: Select one: A. medical director approval. B. an order from a paramedic. C. the transport time to the hospital. D. the patient's condition. (Ans- A The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. Select one: A. time management B. diplomacy C. self-confidence D. self-motivation (Ans- D The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. teamwork and diplomacy B. scene leadership C. communication D. self-confidence (Ans- C Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Automatic transport ventilators B. Automated external defibrillator C. Needle decompression D. Multilumen airways (Ans- B What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call (Ans- B The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. local protocols. B. the lead EMT's decision. C. regional trauma guidelines. D. EMS research. (Ans- D You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. B. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. C. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. (Ans- C Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption B. Developing a social network outside of EMS C. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind D. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls (Ans- B When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. (Ans- B While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Indirect contact B. Airborne transmission C. Direct contact D. Vector-borne transmission (Ans- A Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. B. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages. (Ans- B Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. B. are older than 35 years of age. C. have a weak immune system. D. received a hepatitis B vaccination. (Ans- A Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. touches another person without his or her consent. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. (Ans- C Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A concrete barricade B. Stacked empty barrels C. A large cluster of shrubs D. Behind a car door (Ans- A Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. (Ans- B The EMT's first priority is __________. Select one: A. treatment and transport B. rapid response C. personal safety D. empathy for all patients (Ans- C Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: Select one: A. quickly begin the triage process. B. put on high-visibility safety vests. C. assist with vehicle stabilization. D. report to the incident commander. (Ans- B Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. direct contact. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust. (Ans- C Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: A. when performing endotracheal intubation. B. while handling needles or other sharps. C. whenever you touch nonintact skin. D. during routine cleaning of the ambulance. (Ans- A Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. assessment by the EMT. B. fear of medical personnel. C. history of chronic disease. D. mental disorders. (Ans- A The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts. B. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. C. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. D. undergo an annual physical examination. (Ans- A Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. D. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. (Ans- C At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. B. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. C. proceed with normal extrication procedures. D. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. (Ans- B After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. B. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. C. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. D. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. (Ans- C The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. substandard or inappropriate patient care. B. punitive action and the loss of a job. C. low morale and frequently missed shifts. D. tension among coworkers and supervisors. (Ans- A General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery (Ans- B When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to: Select one: A. function above his or her scope of practice. B. contact medical control on every EMS call. C. exercise reasonable care and act prudently. D. consistently exceed the standard of care. (Ans- C You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. B. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. C. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. D. transport the patient without providing any treatment. (Ans- B Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Formal C. Expressed D. Implied (Ans- C Which of the following statements about the patient care report is correct? Select one: a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on the report. b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented. c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation. d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. (Ans- A You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should: Select one: A. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew. B. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased. C. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR. D. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no response. (Ans- B As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. the wishes of the general public. B. locally accepted protocols. C. the priorities of the medical director. D. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. (Ans- B Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? Select one: A. Preventing insurance fraud B. Protecting patient privacy C. Controlling insurance costs D. Ensuring access to insurance (Ans- B Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Insurance card C. Voter registration card D. Social Security card (Ans- A Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation D. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation (Ans- A To help protect patients, EMS agencies are required to have __________. Select one: A. public forums with their medical director B. a privacy officer to answer questions C. online access to patient records D. an anonymous reporting system (Ans- B Putrefaction is defined as: Select one: A. separation of the torso from the rest of the body. B. decomposition of the body's tissues. C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face. D. blood settling to the lowest point of the body. (Ans- B When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened (Ans- B You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. (Ans- B During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: Select one: A. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. B. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. C. violated the patient's privacy because you should have discussed the information only with the EMTs involved. D. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. (Ans- B You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient's family tells you that the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate. You should: Select one: A. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet. B. confirm the patient's identity and honor the DNR order. C. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork. D. transport with minimal care. (Ans- A In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The patient is competent and signs a release form B. A police officer requests a copy to place on file C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes (Ans- A The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. EMS supervisor. B. medical director. C. local health district. D. state EMS office. (Ans- B Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. B. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. (Ans- B In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? Select one: A. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change. B. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing. C. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends. D. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty. (Ans- A Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? Select one: A. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport. B. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated. C. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment. D. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member. (Ans- B Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Use codes to speed communication. B. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. C. Answer questions with "yes" or "no." D. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. (Ans- D Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response? Select one: A. Open-ended questions B. Yes or no questions C. Multiple questions asked at once D. Closed-ended questions (Ans- A You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: Select one: A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. B. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. C. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents. D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. (Ans- D At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. C. place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. (Ans- D Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs B. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks C. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance D. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers (Ans- C [Show Less]
- Exam
- $9.95
- 1
- 304
JB Learning Final Exam: Questions & Answers; Latest Updated A+ Score Solution
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: (Ans- your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. Signs of a pulmona... [Show More] ry blast injury include: (Ans- coughing up blood. Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: (Ans- hematemesis. The systemic veins function by: (Ans- returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. (Ans- All of these answers are correct. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? (Ans- Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: (Ans- superficial burn. A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): (Ans- contusion. Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: (Ans- pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. A laceration: (Ans- is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: (Ans- dermal layer. Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: (Ans- the nerve endings have been destroyed. What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? (Ans- Epidermis. When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: (Ans- remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: (Ans- legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's. The lower jawbone is called the: (Ans- mandible. The mastoid process is located approximately: (Ans- 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. The white portion of the eye is called the: (Ans- sclera. Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: (Ans- direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: (Ans- suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: (Ans- headrest is appropriately positioned. The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: (Ans- cavitation. When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: (Ans- remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, you should: (Ans- remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? (Ans- Deformed steering wheel A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is MOST likely causing his nosebleed today? (Ans- High blood pressure [Show Less]
- Exam
- $9.45
- 0
- 220
JB Learning: EMT Unit 2 Exam: Questions & Answers: Guaranteed A+ Score; Latest Updated
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: (Ans- heat A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measure... [Show More] ment represents: (Ans- ventricular contraction A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause? (Ans- Obstructive Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: (Ans- gallbladder If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: (Ans- minute volume is decreased Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when: (Ans- the cells function with adequate oxygen Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: (Ans- disease The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. (Ans- orbit The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. (Ans- diaphragm The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: (Ans- foramen magnum The central nervous system is composed of the: (Ans- brain and spinal cord The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: (Ans- carbon dioxide and water Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: (Ans- ureters What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? (Ans- The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure What is the function of the fallopian tubes? (Ans- To transport a mature egg to the uterus Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? (Ans- metabolic coordniation Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system? (Ans- Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? (Ans- skeletal system Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? (Ans- endocrine Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? (Ans- spleen A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: (Ans- apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist [Show Less]
- Exam
- $8.45
- 0
- 278
JB Learning: EMT Final Exam: 100% Verified Questions & Answers: Latest Updated: Guaranteed A+
A 4-year-old, 15-kg male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that she does not know when the ingestion occur... [Show More] red. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. The EMT should: (Ans - administer 15 g of activated charcoal. A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a ___________ tag during a mass-casualty incident (Ans - yellow An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: (Ans - requires CPR Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: (Ans - Provide emotional support to the mother Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as: (Ans - knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect. Both areas of the pons are sued to: (Ans - augment respiration during physical or emotional stress A transient ischemia attack (TIA) occurs when: (Ans - a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: (Ans - a loss of vascular tone Ketone production is the result of: (Ans - fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: (Ans - dermal layer A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: (Ans - avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: (Ans - 100 beats/min Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: (Ans - giving a verbal report to the clerk Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Ans - Fructose As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: (Ans - alveoli Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following EXCEPT: (Ans - pain exacerbated by breathing Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): (Ans - increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: (Ans - discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: (Ans - headache and sore throat Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: (Ans - gallbladder The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: (Ans - administering oxygen and transporting immediately A 22 year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: (Ans - provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. A 37 year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: (Ans - asthma A positive TB skin test indicates that: (Ans - you have been exposed to TB Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: (Ans - attempting to eliminate acids from the blood. A patient with a history of schizophrenia called EMS because he was experiencing abdominal pain. When law enforcement arrived, the patient became violent, necessitating the placement of handcuffs. When you assess the patient, he tells you that killing someone will make his abdominal pain go away. His vital signs are stable. How should you manage the situation? (Ans - Request a police officer to accompany you in the ambulance. A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: (Ans - falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. A 29 year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. HIs Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: (Ans - 13 A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? (Ans - Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: (Ans - another EMT If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: (Ans - gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. All of the following biological agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: (Ans - ricin A 23 year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretion in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? (Ans - Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilations. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $8.95
- 0
- 301
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$17.45
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
121
0
Seller Details
Beginner
Reviews received
