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COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023
6 Items
Anatomy and Physiology openstax Test Bank (28 Chapters)
1. An Introduction to the Human Body 1. is the study of the larger structures of the body, those visible without the aid of magnification (A) Gross anato... [Show More] my (B) Microscopic anatomy (C) Macroscopic anatomy (D) Physical anatomy Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 2. The word “anatomy” comes from a Greek root that means “ ’’ (A) To cut apart (B) To fix with (C) To view inside (D) To study exterior Ans A Diff Easy Page 8 3. Dissection is still used in …………. (A) Medical schools (B) Pathology labs (C) Anatomy courses (D) All of above Ans D Diff Easy Page 8 4. Microscopic anatomy includes …………. (A) Histology (B) Cytology (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 8 5 is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system—that is, a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. (A) Regional anatomy (B) Systematic anatomy (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 9 6. Human physiology is the scientific study of the of the structures of the body and the ways in which they work together to support the functions of life. (A) Chemistry (B) Physic (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C Diff Medium Page 9 7. Homeostasis is the state of steady maintained by living things. (A) Internal Condition (B) External conditions (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans A Diff Easy Page 9 8. An organ is an anatomically distinct structure of the body composed of tissue types. (A) One (B) Two (C) Two or more (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 11 9. In organisms, including humans, all cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems of the body work together to maintain the life and health of the organism. (A) Unicellular (B) Bicellular (C) Multicellular (D) None of above Ans C Diff Easy Page 14 10. The different organ systems each have different functions and therefore roles to perform in physiology. (A) Unique (B) Different (C) Both Above (D) None of Above Ans C Diff Easy Page14 11. A human body consists of trillions of cells organized in a way that maintains distinct ……….. . (A) Internal compartments (B) External compartments (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans A Diff Medium Page 14 12. The organism level is the level of organization (A) Lowest (B) Highest (C) Medium (D) Extreme Ans A Diff Medium Page 14 13. Which of the following mechanism is involved in releasing energy? (A) Catabolism (B) Anabolism (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 14 14. Every cell in your body makes use of a chemical compound, adenosine triphosphate (ATP), to ………. . (A) Store energy (B) Release energy (C) Both of above (D) None of above Ans C Diff Medium Page 15 15 is the ability of an organism to adjust to changes in its internal and external environments (A) Responsiveness (B) Movement (C) Locomotion (D) All of above Ans A Diff Hard Page 15 .........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Essentials for Clinical Practice
THE FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS OF CLINICAL PRACTICE 1. The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include: A) fever. B) fatigue... [Show More] . C) redness. D) granuloma. 2. The vascular, hemodynamic stage of acute inflammation is initiated by momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation that causes localized: A) bleeding. B) congestion. C) pale skin. D) coolness. 3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of leukocytes into the area. Which of the following cells arrives early in great numbers? A) Basophils B) Lymphocytes C) Neutrophils D) Platelets 4. The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step in the process? A) Engulfment B) Intracellular killing C) Antigen margination D) Recognition and adherence 5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary permeability and pain? A) Serotonin B) Histamine C) Bradykinin D) Nitric oxide 6. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of enmeshed necrotic cells? A) Serous B) Fibrinous C) Suppurative D) Membranous 7. The acute-phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of inflammation and includes: A) fever and lethargy. B) decreased C-reactive protein. C) positive nitrogen balance. D) low erythrocyte sedimentation rate. 8. In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the following phenomena? A) Profuse fibrinous exudation B) A shift to the left of granulocytes C) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis D) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages 9. Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that: A) stabilize thermal control in the brain. B) produce leukocytosis and anorexia. C) block viral replication in cells. D) inhibit prostaglandin release. 10 An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempted . to boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during the vascular stage of the patients inflammation? A) Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces B) Chemotaxis C) Accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium D) Phagocytosis of cellular debris 11 Which of the following individuals most likely has the highest risk of . experiencing chronic inflammation? A) A patient who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes B) A patient who is a carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism C) A patient who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection D) A patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle 12 . Which of the following core body temperatures is within normal range? A) 35.9C (96.6F) B) 38.0C (100.4F) C) 35.5C (95.9F) D) 37.3C (99.1F) ...........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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ATI MED SURG PROCTORED 2023 EXAM-STUDY GUIDE / 100 Correct Questions & Answers
1 A nurse is assessing for early signs of compartment syndrome for a client who has a short-leg fiberglass cast. Which of the following findings should the... [Show More] nurse expect? ACapillary refill less than 2 seconds B.Bounding distal pulses C.Intense pain with movement D. Erythema of the toes 2 A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving 2 units packed RBCs. Which of the following manifestations indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction? A. Chills? (think fever, you get cold when your body is hot) B. Hypertension C.Bradycardia D.Back pain 3 A nurse is caring for a client who had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent hip dislocation? A. Remove the wedge device when turning B. Place two bed pillows between the legs when in bed C. Encourage the client to lean forward when attempting to stand D. Elevate the knees higher than the hips when sitting 4 A nurse is assessing a client who is preoperative and reports an allergy to bananas. The nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for an allergic cross-reactivity to which of the following substances A.Povidone-iodine B.Adhesive tape C.Latex D. Anesthetics 5 A nurse is teaching a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? APlace hands on the upper abdomen during inhalation. B.Position the mouthpiece 2.5 cm (1 in) from the mouth C. Exhale slowly through pursed lips D. Hold breaths about 3 to 5 seconds before exhaling 6 A nurse is caring for a client who arrives at the emergency department and reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. The client's serum potassium level is 2.8mEqttiL. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first? Priority question remember, what can I do first, you can start a K+ drip without knowing how their heart is affected. A. Check the clients hand grasps B. Administer an IV potassium drip C.Listen to the client's bowel sounds D. Initiate cardiac monitoring for the clients This is a priority!!! 7 A nurse is preparing to administer peritoneal dialysis to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Chill the dialysate before administration B. Hang the drainage bag below the client's abdomen C. Place the client in high-Fowlers position DUse clean technique to access the catheter 8 A nurse is preforming a cranial nerve assessment on a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect if the client has impaired function of the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII)? A. Inability to smell B. loss of peripheral vision C. Disequilibrium with movement D. Deviation of the tongue from midline 9 A nurse is planning care for a client who is one day postoperative Following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Place pillows under the clients knees B.Avoid use of anticoagulants C.Discourage leg exercises while in bed D.apply compression stockings to the lower extremities 10 A nurse is caring for a male client who has an exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect to receive from the provider? (click on the "exhibit" button for additional information about the client. There are 3 tabs that contain separate categories of data.) A. Atropine 1mg IV bolus every 5 min up to 3 mg ? B. Adenosine 6mg rapid IV bolus now C.Verapamil 80 mg PO TID D.Furosemide 40 mg IV bolus every 6 hr. 11 A nurse is providing a discharge teaching to a client following a modified left radical mastectomy with breast expander. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I will keep my left arm flexed at the elbow as much as possible" ? "I should expect less than 25 mL of secretions per day in the drainage devices" "I will perform strength building arm exercises using a 15 pound weight" " I will have to wait 2 months before additional saltine can be added to my breast expander" 12 A nurse is teaching a client about using a metered-dose rescue inhaler. Which of the following statements should the nurse include I the first teaching? "Do not shake your inhaler before use" "Exhale Fully before bringing the inhaler to your lips " "Use Peroxide to clean the mouthpiece of your inhaler" "Depress the canister after you inhale" 13 A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving total parental nutrition (TPN) for 1 week. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider? A. Calcium level 11.5 mgttidL B. Serum albumin level 3.9gttidl C. Output 200 mL more than intake over the past 12 hr. D. Fasting blood glucose level 105 mgttidL 14 A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has a halo device and is reviewing new prescriptions from the provider. The nurse should clarify which of the following prescriptions with the provider? A. Take tub baths instead of showers B. May place a small pillow under the head while sleeping C. May operate a motor vehicle when no longer taking analgesics correct D. Increase intake of fiber-rich foods 15 A nurse is setting up a sterile field before preforming a dressing change on a client who ispostoperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to maintain the sterile field? (Select all that apply) a,b,c A.Grasp 2.5 cm (1 in) of the outer edge to open the surgical wrap BOpen the first flap of the sterile package toward the nurse's body C.Place a surgical pack with a sterile drape on the work surface D.Select a work surface at the nurse's waist level this is wrong E.Apply sterile ..........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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NURS 6635 MIDTERM-PMHNP 2023
A Norepinephrine B GABA . C Dopamine . D Acetylcholine Answer: Dopamine Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is linked to defects in the cortico-s... [Show More] triatal-thalamic-cortical (CSTC) circuitry, which may be linked to neurotransmitter dysregulation throughout this network. Serotonin, dopamine, glutamate, and -aminobutyric acid (GABA) are the main neurotransmitters throughout the CSTC. Compulsive behaviors linked to OCD are likely the product of a related dopaminergic reward system dysfunction. Continuous ventral striatum activation may lead to an undirected expectation of reward. Anxiety and a desire to fill the gap are caused by unfulfilled expectations. Step-by-Step explanation References Richter, M. A., De Jesus, D. R., Hoppenbrouwers, S., Daigle, M., Deluce, J., Ravindran, L. N., ... & Daskalakis, Z. J. (2019). Evidence for cortical inhibitory and excitatory dysfunction in obsessive compulsive disorder. Neuropsychopharmacology, 37(5), 1144-1151. Pittenger, C., Krystal, J. H., & Coric, V. (2016). Glutamate-modulating drugs as novel pharmacotherapeutic agents in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. NeuroRx, 3(1), 69-81. 1 points QUESTION 2 1. Select the class of drugs most effective in treating pain disorder. Answer: A Opioid analgesics . B TCA and SSRI . antidepressants C Beta-adrenergic . blockers D Mood stabilizers . Opioids analgesics Opioid analgesics are drugs that function on opioid receptors that are used to alleviate pain. Weak opioid analgesics are often used to describe compound analgesics that combine acetaminophen with low levels of codeine or tramadol. Opioid analgesics, which include oxycodone, hydrocodone, and codeine, can be used to relieve mild to extreme acute pain. Opioids are medications that are chemically similar to, but more potent than, the body's own pain relievers (endorphins). They operate by binding to receptors on cells, primarily in the brain, spinal cord, and gastrointestinal tract. Step-by-Step explanation References Andrieu, G., Amrouni, H., Robin, E., Carnaille, B., Wattier, J. M., Pattou, F., ... & Lebuffe, G. (2017). Analgesic efficacy of bilateral superficial cervical plexus block administered before thyroid surgery under general anaesthesia. British journal of anaesthesia, 99(4), 561-566. Mangione, M. P., & Crowley-Matoka, M. (2018). Improving pain management communication: how patients understand the terms "opioid" and "narcotic". Journal of general internal medicine, 23(9), 1336. 1 points QUESTION 3 1. Select the most commonly occurring eating disorder. Answer: A Anorexia . nervosa B Bulimia . nervosa C Purging . D Binge . A. Anorexia Nervosa Step-by-Step explanation Anorexia nervosa is one eating disorder that most people have heard of. People with anorexia often starve themselves in order to achieve an unattainable ideal of thinness. This condition, like many eating disorders, tends to affect more women than men. 1 points QUESTION 4 1. Select the disorder in which inflicting injury to self or others is common. A Pain . B Conversion . C Somatic . symptom D Factitious . Factitious disorder is a serious mental disorder in which someone deceives others by appearing sick, by purposely getting sick or by self-injury. QUESTION 5 1. Select two imaging methods used to study anxiety disorders. A CT . B TM . S C MRI . D EKG . QUESTION 6 1. Select the two factors that do not cause dissociative amnesia. A Sexual . abuse B Substance . abuse C Surgical pain . D Partner . betrayal Answer: A . Step-by-Step explanation The correct answer is; A. Sexual abuse D. Partner betrayal Substance abuse and surgical pain can cause dissociative amnesia. Dissociative amnesia is a disorder in which a person loses track of vital details from their past. This forgetfulness can be limited to a few key areas (thematic), or it might encompass a large portion of a person's life history and/or identity (general). Drug and alcohol usage not only raises the risk of having a co-occurring or comorbid substance use disorder, but it can also intensify dissociative amnesia symptoms. Dissociative disorders are essential to the pain physician because persistent pain can be Reference Wagener, D. (2019, September 5). Treatment for dissociative amnesia and substance abuse. American Addiction Centers. https://americanaddictioncenters.org/dissociative- disorders/amnesia-substance- abuse-treat QUESTION 7 1. Select the correct epidemiologic fact about major depression in children and adolescents. A There is a 20% incidence by age 18 . B The incidence is equal in adolescent females and males . C There is a decreased incidence after 20 . D The incidence is five- to ten-fold greater in children with a parent or sibling . with major depression Answer: • A. There is 20% incidence by age of 18 years. Step-by-Step explanation Depression takes place at an estimated rate of around two percent during childhood and from four to around seven percent in time of the adolescence stage. This mental illness is a top cause of health impairment called the morbidity and death also known as mortality which is increasing rapidly every time. Depression is common in time of teenage years, having impacts on about 20%of adolescents by the time they reach adulthood, that is the age of 18. Reference. Jacobs, R. H., Reinecke, M. A., Gollan, J. K., & Kane, P. (2008). Empirical evidence of cognitive vulnerability for depression among children and adolescents: A cognitive science and developmental perspective. Clinical psychology review, 28(5), 759-782. A Hippocampu . s B Temporal . lobe C Amygdala . D Corpus . callosum A Drug adverse effects . B Variability of family . therapy C Patient resistance . D Noncompliance with . therapy Answer; C) Patient resistance Step-by-Step explanation Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a chronic illness in which sufferers experience a slew of negative consequences in a variety of areas of their lives as a result of their low weight and restrictive food intake. Given these negative consequences, which are visible in physical, emotional, and social dimensions, it can be tempting to dismiss the condition entirely. As a result, AN sufferers' inability to pursue, continue, or participate in care may also be perplexing from an outsider's perspective. This ego-syntonic perspective is most prevalent in anorexia nervosa. When an eating disorder is experienced as ego-syntonic, there is little to no desire to alter the habits, resulting in high levels of medication resistance that worsens over time. The egosyntonic aspect of the disease, in which individuals with anorexia nervosa esteem their condition, is a major issue for clinicians treating the illness. This hinders encouragement for rehabilitation and involvement with care. The aim of this review article is to explain the essence of egosyntonicity in anorexia nervosa by examining both qualitative and quantitative studies on the topic, and, more importantly, to present strategies for overcoming this impediment to recovery in anorexia nervosa care. Therefore, we can conclude that, the greatest impediment to treating anorexia nervosa patients is option C, Patient resistance. References The Egosyntonic nature of anorexia: An impediment to recovery in anorexia nervosa treatment. (2019, January 14). PubMed Central (PMC). Retrieved April 6, 2021, from https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5743910/ Patient resistance in eating disorders. (2014, September 24). Psychiatric Times. Retrieved April 6, 2021, from https://www.psychiatrictimes.com/view/patient-resistance-eating-disorders Perplexities of treatment resistence in eating disorders. (2013, November 7). BMC Psychiatry. Retrieved April 6, 2021, from https://bmcpsychiatry.biomedcentral.com/articles/10.1186/1471- 244X- 13-292 A Parasomni . a B Hypersom . nia C Insomnia . D Apnea . Answer: c. Insomnia Step-by-Step explanation Insomnia refers to the inability to stay asleep and fall asleep. It the most common sleeping disease. Markedly, narcolepsy triggers extreme sleepiness during the daytime, while hypersomnia involves the inability to remain awake in the day. The others are severe but less common than insomnia. For instance, apnea affects frequent breathing when one is sleeping. Parasomnia leads to unusual behavior when sleeping that can happen at any stage and time of sleep. It may include the transition from sleeping to wakefulness, talking, moving around, and doing abnormal things while asleep. Reference; Morin, C. M., Drake, C. L., Harvey, A. G., Krystal, A. D., Manber, R., Riemann, D., & Spiegelhalder, K. (2015). Insomnia disorder. Nature Reviews Disease Primers, 1(1), 1-18. QUESTION 11 1. Select the percentage of untreated PTSD patients who recover after one year. A 10 . % B 20 . % C 30 . % D 50 . % Answer: PTSD Data compiled by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs' National Center for PTSD indicate thatroughly half of all American women and more than half of all American men will experience traumatic situations associated with the later onset of post-traumatic stress disorder. However, much smaller numbers of men and women will actually develop the disorder. Specific traumas linked to the condition include combat participation, being present in a combat zone, adult exposure to physical or sexual attacks, childhood exposure to physical or sexual abuse, exposureto severe floods or other national disasters, exposure to life- threatening accidents and exposure to life-threatening physical illness. For a number of reasons, a woman exposed to severe mental/emotional trauma has higher chances of developing PTSD than a man exposed to such trauma. Doctors can't diagnose PTSD in a person who has undergone a highly traumatic experience within a period of 30 days. Instead, they diagnose the condition in people who continue to experience symptoms after 30 days or only show the first signs of a damaging stress reaction after 30 days. Specific symptoms of the condition include nightmares or flashbacks that involuntarily recall a traumatic situation, an excessive state of mental arousal stemming from an overactive "fight-or-flight" response, avoidance of anything that serves as a trauma reminder and an ongoing or recurring negative outlook that impairs day- to-day functionality. Step-by-Step explanation How Often Do Adults Recover? In the study review published in Clinical Psychology Review, researchers from the Netherlands' University of Amsterdam and Tilburg University and the United Kingdom's Queen Mary University of London used data gathered from 42 previously conducted studies to determine how often people diagnosed with PTSD recover 10 months or more after receiving their initial diagnosis if they don't receive treatment geared toward their condition. The studies under consideration included 81,642 adults diagnosed with the disorder. On average, the studies looked at the outcomes for untreated PTSD patients over the course of 40 months. The researchers looked at the numbers of people who no longer had diagnosable cases of PTSD; they considered cases of "spontaneous" remission rather than cases of remission stemming from PTSD-specific treatment. At the low end, the recovery rate for the participants of one study was just 8 percent; at the high end, the recovery rate for the participants of another study was 89 percent. All told, 44 percent of the participants in all of the studies recovered from their condition and no longer qualified for a PTSD diagnosis. The study's authors note that the highest rates of spontaneous recovery apparently occur among people exposed to natural disaster-related trauma; conversely, the lowest rates of recovery apparently occur among people exposed to physical illness-related trauma. They also note that people diagnosed with PTSD fairly soon after developing their symptoms typically have higher chances of recovering spontaneously than people diagnosed after exhibiting symptoms for extended amounts of time. The authors believe their findings contribute considerably to the understanding of PTSD recovery, as well as the understanding of the lasting effects of specific sources of PTSD. It's critically important to point out that no one can tell who will naturally recover from the condition; for this reason, all affected individuals should seek prompt treatment from qualified mental health professionals. https://www.recoveryranch.com/addiction-blog/who-is-most-likely-to-recover-from-ptsd-without- treatment/ Significance Trauma disorders are a common and costly problem in the United States. An estimated 5.2 million American adults ages 18 to 54, or approximately 3.6 percent of people in this age group in a given year, have PTSD. In 1990, anxiety disorders cost the U.S. an estimated $46.6 billion. Untreated PTSD from any trauma is unlikely to disappear and can contribute to chronic pain, depression, drug and alcohol abuse and sleep problems that impede a person's ability to work and interact with others. According to psychologist R.C. Kessler's findings from The National Cormorbidity Survey Report (NCS) that examined over 8,000 individuals between the ages of 15 to 54, almost 8 % of adult Americans will experience PTSD at some point in their lives, with women (10.4%) twice as likely to be victims as men (5%). https://www.apa.org/research/action/ptsd QUESTION 12 1. Select the factor that is required to cause PTSD from a stressor. A Intense horror . B Isolated experience . C Concurrent substance . abuse D Survivor’s guilt . Answer is A, Intense horror. Step-by-Step explanation Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a disorder that develops in some people who have experienced a shocking, scary, or dangerous event. Horror films are designed to elicit certain emotions such as tension, fear, stress, and shock. These can cause the release of the hormones in the body such as norepinephrine, cortisol, and adrenaline from the autonomic nervous system hence causing PTSD. Guyton, et al. 2012 QUESTION 13 1. Select two causes of dissociative amnesia. A Sexual . abuse B Substance . abuse C Surgical pain . D Partner . betrayal Answer: A . Step-by-Step explanationA and D Sexual abuse and Partner betrayal are the two causes of dissociate amnesia. Usually, overwhelming stress has been attributed to dissociative amnesia, which can be brought on by traumatic events such as injuries, war, violence, or natural disasters. The person may have been directly affected by the trauma or may have just witnessed it. There appears to be a hereditary link in dissociative amnesia, as close relatives often acquire the condition. In this case, sexual abuse and partner betrayal and directly related to emotional abuse. In multivariate hierarchical tests, emotional violence, like the sexual abuse, was the strongest and most direct indicator of dissociation, confounding the influence of other trauma forms. the degree to which one is abused by a caregiver or close relationship may have an impact on the essence of trauma and how one responds to it. According to BTT, this is closely related to psychogenic amnesia or other dissociative processes that arise as a way of maintaining a connection with the caregiver and promoting survival. References https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/diseases/9789-dissociative-amnesia https://www.webmd.com/mental-health/dissociative-amnesia QUESTION 14 1. Select the population in which rumination disorder occurs most frequently. A Male infants aged 3 to 12 . months B Female infants 6 to 18 . months C Children aged 2 to 5 years . Answer: A . D Adolescents aged 13 to 15 . years Step-by-Step explanation According to studies, the prevalence of rumination disorder most often occurs in infants and very young children between 3 and 12 months and in children with intellectual disabilities. Typically, It is rare in older children, adolescents and adults. It may also occur slightly more often in boys than in girls but few studies of the disorder exist to confirm this. Thus, choice A with male infants aged 3- 12 months is the correct answer. Reference: • https://www.webmd.com/mental-health/rumination-disorder • https://www.uptodate.com/contents/rumination- syndrome#:~:text=In%20two%20population- based%20studies,percent%20%5B7%2C8%5D. QUESTION 15 1. Select the symptom that is least associated with manic and hypomanic episodes. A Suicidal . ideation B Inflated self- . esteem C Distractibility . D Pressured . speech Answer: A . Step-by-Step explanation Hypomania and mania are periods of over-active and excited behaviour that can have a significant impact on day-to-day life. Both are symptom of bipolar disorder.The main difference between mania and hypomania is the intensity of the symptoms. Symptoms of mania are much more intense than those of hypomania. Among the given options, suicidal ideation is the least associated symptom. It can happen yes, but the 3 other choices are most common in hypomania and manic patients. ......................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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RN Comprehensive Predictor 2022/2023 Form A Questions
1. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? 2. A nurse is c... [Show More] aring for a client who has arteriovenous fistula Which of the following findings should the nurse report? 3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching? 4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks gestation and reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? 5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel- training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? 6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? 7. a nurse in an emergency department is performing triage for multiple clients following a disaster in the community. To which of the following types of injuries should the nurse assign the highest priority? 8. a nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include? 9. A nurse is teaching an in-service about nursing leadership. Which of the following information should the nurse include about an effective leader? 10. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus and reports that she has been following her (unable to read) care. The nurse should identify which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client’s plan of care. 11. A nurse in a provider’s office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department? 12. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about therapeutic techniques to use when leading a group on a mental health unit. Which of the following group facilitation techniques should the nurse include in the teaching? 13. A nurse is planning for a client who practices Orthodox Judaism. The client tells the nurse that (Unable to read) Passover holiday. Which of the following action should the nurse include in the plan of care? 14. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment 15. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets (Unable to read) a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client’s airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next. ..........................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology_The_Biologic_Basis_for_Disease_in_Adults_and_Children_8th_Edition
Chapter 1 - Cellular Biology 3 Chapter 2 - Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology Environmental Agents 16 Chapter 3 - The Cellular Environment Fluids and Ele... [Show More] ctrolytes Acids and Bases 28 Chapter 4 - Genes and Genetic Diseases 41 Chapter 5 - Genes Environment-Lifestyle and Common Diseases 51 Chapter 6 - Epigenetics and Disease 59 Chapter 7 - Innate Immunity Inflammation 64 Chapter 8 - Adaptive Immunity 78 Chapter 9 - Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation 89 Chapter 10 - Infection 102 Chapter 11 - Stress and Disease 110 Chapter 12 - Cancer Biology 117 Chapter 13 - Cancer Epidemiology 129 Chapter 14 - Cancer in Children 135 Chapter 15 - Structure and Function of the Neurologic System 140 Chapter 16 - Pain Temperature Regulation Sleep and Sensory Function 151 Chapter 17 - Alterations in Cognitive Systems Cerebral Hemodynamics and Motor Function 165 Chapter 18 - Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction 179 Chapter 19 - Neurobiology of Schizophrenia Mood Disorders and Anxiety Disorders 189 Chapter 20 - Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children 195 Chapter 21 - Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation 202 Chapter 22 - Alterations of Hormonal Regulation 211 Chapter 23 - Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition NEW 223 Chapter 24 - Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems 228 Chapter 25 - Alterations of the Female Reproductive System 237 Chapter 26 - Alterations of the Male Reproductive System 246 Chapter 27 - Sexually Transmitted Infections 252 Chapter 28 - Structure and Function of the Hematologic System 260 Chapter 29 - Alterations of Erythrocyte Platelet and Hemostatic Function 270 Chapter 30 - Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid Function 280 Chapter 31 - Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children 287 Chapter 32 - Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems 297 Chapter 33 - Alterations of Cardiovascular Function 309 Chapter 34 - Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children 323 Chapter 35 - Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System 331 Chapter 36 - Alterations of Pulmonary Function 341 Chapter 37 - Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children 357 Chapter 38 - Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems 365 Chapter 39 - Alterations of Renal and Urinary Function 375 Chapter 40 - Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children 385 Chapter 41 - Structure and Function of the Digestive System 393 Chapter 42 - Alterations of Digestive Function 404 Chapter 43 - Alterations of Digestive Function in Children 415 Chapter 44 - Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System 424 Chapter 45 - Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function 436 Chapter 46 - Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children 448 Chapter 47 - Structure Function and Disorders of the Integument 457 Chapter 48 - Alterations of the Integument in Children 468 Chapter 49 - Shock Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome and Burns in Adults 476 Chapter 50 - Shock Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome and Burns in Children 483 Chapter 01: Cellular Biology McCance/Huether: Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis of Disease in Adults and Children, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption? a. Cells can produce proteins. b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes. c. Cells can take in and use nutrients. d. Cells can synthesize fats. ANS: C In metabolic absorption, all cells take in and use nutrients and other substances from their surroundings. The remaining options are not inclusive in their descriptions of cellular metabolic absorption. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 2. Where is most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, contained? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Lysosome ANS: C The nucleus contains the nucleolus, a small dense structure composed largely of RNA, most of the cellular DNA, and the DNA-binding proteins, such as the histones, which regulate its activity. The mitochondria are responsible for cellular respiration and energy production. Ribosomes’ chief function is to provide sites for cellular protein synthesis. Lysosomes function as the intracellular digestive system. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? a. Lysosomes b. Peroxisomes c. Ribosomes d. Endosome ANS: B Peroxisomes are so named because they usually contain enzymes that use oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction that produces H2O2, which is a powerful oxidant and potentially destructive if it accumulates or escapes from peroxisomes. Ribosomes are RNA-protein complexes (nucleoproteins) that are synthesized in the nucleolus and secreted into the cytoplasm through pores in the nuclear envelope called nuclear pore complexes. Lysosomes are saclike structures that originate from the Golgi complex and contain more than 40 digestive enzymes called hydrolases, which catalyze bonds in proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates. An endosome is a vesical that has been pinched off from the cellular membrane. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury? a. Ribosome b. Golgi complex c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes ANS: D The lysosomal membrane acts as a protective shield between the powerful digestive enzymes within the lysosome and the cytoplasm, preventing their leakage into the cytoplasmic matrix. Disruption of the membrane by various treatments or cellular injury leads to a release of the lysosomal enzymes, which can then react with their specific substrates, causing cellular self-digestion. The chief function of a ribosome is to provide sites for cellular protein synthesis. The Golgi complex is a network of flattened, smooth vesicles and membranes often located near the cell nucleus. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in steroid hormone production and removing toxic substances from the cell. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 5. Which cAMP-mediated response is related to antidiuretic hormone? a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction b. Secretion of cortisol c. Increased retention of water d. Breakdown of fat ANS: C Antidiuretic hormone leads to increased retention of water in the body. Epinephrine causes increases in heart rate and force of contraction. Increased cortisol secretion is due to ACTH. Breakdown of fat is due to glucagon. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized? a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M ANS: B The four designated phases of the cell cycle are: (1) the G1 phase (G = gap), which is the period between the M phase (M = mitosis) and the start of DNA synthesis; (2) the S phase (S = synthesis), during which DNA is synthesized in the cell nucleus; (3) the G2 phase, during which RNA and protein synthesis occurs, the period between the completion of DNA synthesis and the next phase (M); and (4) the M phase, which includes nuclear and cytoplasmic division. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? a. Lipids b. Proteases c. Proteins d. Carbohydrates ANS: C Proteins have several functions, including acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps Lipids help act as the “glue” holding cell membranes together. Proteases cause the breakdown of protein. Carbohydrates are involved in cellular protection and lubrication and help produce energy via oxidative phosphorylation. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 8. Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases? a. Cardiac and vascular disorders b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders c. Gastrointestinal and renal disorders d. Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders ANS: B Understanding the various steps involved in this process is crucial for designing drug interventions. Dysregulation of proteases features prominently in many human diseases, including cancer, autoimmunity, and neurodegenerative disorders. Cardiac, vascular, gastrointestinal, renal, and endocrine disorders do not involve this process. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 9. Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? a. Carbohydrate chains b. Glycoprotein channels c. Membrane channel proteins d. Lipid bilayer ANS: D The bilayer’s structure accounts for one of the essential functions of the plasma membrane. It is impermeable to most water-soluble molecules (molecules that dissolve in water) because the water-soluble molecules are insoluble in the oily core region. The bilayer serves as a barrier to the diffusion of water and hydrophilic substances while allowing lipid-soluble molecules, such as oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2), to diffuse through it readily. Carbohydrate chains, glycoprotein channels, and membrane channel proteins do not prevent water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the cell membrane. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 10. A student asks for an explanation of the absolute refractory period of the action potential. What response by the professor is best? a. A stronger than normal impulse will evoke another response. b. No stimulus is able to evoke another response at this time. c. Multiple stimuli can produce more rapid action potentials. d. The hyperpolarized state means a weaker stimulus produces a response. ANS: B During the absolute refractory state of the action potential, no stimulus is able to evoke another response from the cell. A stronger than normal impulse may generate a response in the relative refractory period. This period of time is not related to the number of stimuli. A hyperpolarized state means a stronger than normal stimulus would be needed to generate a response. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 11. Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact? a. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands ANS: B Cells communicate in three main ways; they display plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules that affect the cell itself and other cells in direct physical contact with it, they affect receptor proteins inside the target cell, and they form protein channels (gap junctions) that directly coordinate the activities of adjacent cells. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. Ligands are involved in binding processes. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 12. Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurotransmitter d. Hormonal ANS: D Chemical signaling can be classified into three categories: (1) local-chemical mediator, (2) hormone, and (3) neurotransmitter. Hormones are released by one set of cells and travel through tissues or the bloodstream to another set of cells where they produce a response by those cells. In paracrine signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly absorbed, destroyed, or immobilized. Paracrine signaling requires close membrane-to-membrane contact. Paracrine signaling usually involves different cell types; however, cells also may produce signals that they, themselves, respond to, which is called autocrine signaling. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 13. Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized? a. Paracrine b. Autocrine c. Neurotransmitter d. Hormone ANS: A In paracrine signaling, cells secrete local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized. Autocrine signaling occurs when the target cells produce signals that they themselves respond to. Neurotransmitters are released by neurons and cross the synaptic cleft to communicate with the cells they innervate. Hormones are released by one set of cells and travel through tissues or the bloodstream to another set of cells where they produce a response by those cells. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 14. Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to which structure? a. Lipids b. Ribosomes c. Amphipathic lipids d. Receptors ANS: D In each type of chemical signaling, the target cell receives the signal by first attaching to its receptors. The other options do not correctly describe this process. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering 15. How do cells receive communication from the extracellular fluid surrounding them? a. Protein channel (gap junction) b. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c. Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters d. Chemical messengers such as ligands ANS: D Signal transduction involves incoming signals or instructions from extracellular chemical messengers (ligands) that are conveyed to the cell’s interior for execution. The other options do not correctly describe how cells receive communication from the surrounding extracellular fluid. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Remembering ...................................................................................................................................................................................................................CONTINUE. [Show Less]
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