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COMPLETE STRAIGHTERLINE.COM MICROBIOLOGY BIO 250 COURSE EXAMS 1,2,3,4,5,6, MIDTERM-GRADED A+ 2022
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM 1 Unit 3 Tools of the Laboratory (Graded A+)2022
BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 3: Tools of the Laboratory Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 5:21 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, October... [Show More] 13, 2021, 5:48 AM Time taken 26 mins 36 secs Grade 90.00 out of 90.00 (100%) Feedback You’re off to a good start. A course grade of 70% is required to request a transcript. Y reattempt for a higher grade you can retake this assessment. Study hard for each exam, Remember that 10 hours of tutoring are provided to you through your StraighterLine m Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text In what way would life be different if the element carbon was absent? Select one: a. There would be no organic compounds. b. There would be no inorganic compounds. c. Life would not exist in any shape or form. d. The concept of pH would not exist. Question 2 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text The three cell types discussed, eukaryotes, archaea, and bacteria, all derived from ______. Select one: a. the last universal common ancestor b. photosynthetic bacteria c. archaea d. cells with a true nucleus Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which type of microscope shows cells against a white background? Select one: a. Bright-field b. Confocal c. Phase-contrast d. Fluorescence e. Electron Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Hydrogen and oxygen atoms c. Nitrogen and phosphorus d. Fatty acids e. Carbon atoms Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Disease-causing microorganisms are called ______. Select one: a. decomposers b. bacteria c. pathogens d. eukaryotes e. fermenters Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed ______. Select one: a. complex b. reducing c. enriched d. synthetic Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is the ______. Select one: a. prostaglandins b. waxes c. phospholipids d. steroids e. triglycerides Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text When assigning a scientific name to an organism, Select one:a. the species name is capitalized. b. the species name is placed first. c. the species name can be abbreviated. d. both genus and species names are capitalized. e. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. Select one: a. streaked b. poured c. incubated d. spread Question 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? Select one: a. Axenic b. Mixed c. Pured. Both axenic and mixed are correct. e. Both axenic and pure are correct. Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The purine ______ always hydrogen bonds with the pyrimidine ______ in double-stranded DNA. Select one: a. guanine; cytosine b. cytosine; guanine c. adenine; guanine d. thymine; guanine Question 12 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The first cells appeared about ___ billion years ago. Select one: a. 5 b. 4.5 c. 3.5 d. 2 e. 1Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Studies of the immune response to an infection caused by microorganisms would be performed by a(n) ______. Select one: a. hypersensitivity specialist b. epidemiologist c. immunologist d. geomicrobiologist Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text All cells contain Select one: a. ribosomes for protein synthesis. b. cell walls made of cellulose. c. uracil in their DNA. d. organelles for compartmentalization. e. mitochondria to generate ATP. Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text The alpha (α) helix is a type of _____ protein structure. Select one: a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A reducing medium is used to culture ______ organisms. Select one: a. fastidious b. aerobic c. anaerobic d. pathogenic Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? Select one: a. Fluorescence b. Differential interference contrast c. Scanning electron d. Transmission electron e. Phase-contrast Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). Select one: a. Family, order, class b. Family, genus, species c. Genus, species, family d. Class, phylum, order e. Kingdom, domain, phylum Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text ATP differs from the nucleotides found in DNA in theSelect one: a. sugar portion of the molecule. b. use of phosphate instead of sulfate in the backbone. c. use of phosphorus in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule. d. use of adenosine instead of adenine. e. use of uracil in the nitrogenous base portion of the molecule. Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A scientist who studies the influence of microbes in the formation of caves is called a(n) ______. Select one: a. geomicrobiologist b. astrobiologist c. epidemiologist d. immunologist [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM 2 Unit 6 Introduction to the Viruses (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 6: Introduction to the Viruses Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 5:55 AM State Finished Completed on Wed... [Show More] nesday, October 13, 2021, 6:30 AM Time taken 34 mins 31 secs Grade 90.00 out of 90.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and Nacetylmuramic acid (NAM) chains cross-linked by short peptide fragments is ______. Select one: a. mycolic acid b. lipopolysaccharide c. peptidoglycan d. lysozyme e. teichoic acid Question 2 Correct4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryotic glycocalyx? Select one: a. Protection b. Adherence c. Movement d. Reception of chemical signals Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell? Select one: a. Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA b. Decreased growth rate c. Alterations in chromosomes d. Changes in cell surface molecules e. Capacity to divide indefinitely Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Protozoan endoplasm contains ______. Select one: a. ectoplasm b. mitochondria c. flagella d. oral grooves e. cilia Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Cilia are exhibited by certain ______. Select one: a. protozoa b. algae c. fungi d. bacteria e. viruses Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text You are attempting to identify the type of helminth that has been isolated from a patient stool sample. The most important consideration to make this distinction is to Select one: a. look at the gross anatomy to determine if the body is segmented or not. b. ask the patient about recent food and water consumption. c. examine the sample to see if microscopic eggs are present. d. determine if the cells are eukaryotic or bacterial by looking for nuclei. Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during ______. Select one: a. replication b. assembly c. adsorption d. release e. penetration Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? Select one: a. Live lab animals b. Embryonated bird eggs c. Primary cell cultures d. Continuous cell cultures e. All of the choices will support viral cultivation. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from a single site is ______. Select one: a. amphitrichous b. atrichous c. lophotrichous d. monotrichous e. peritrichous Question 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text A treatment for bacterial infections from the early 20th century has made a comeback; the use of bacterial viruses to eliminate bacterial infections. Which explanation most accurately describes the reason for the return of this treatment? Select one: a. A wide variety of bacteria cause a large percentage of human infections, producing much sickness and death. b. Viruses can infect bacteria, transferring pathogenic genes; the viral genes can then be suppressed, causing the bacteria to not replicate viruses. c. The attachment structures on the virus and the receptors on the host cells make for exquisite specificity of viruses for particular bacterial species. d. Antibiotic resistance in bacteria is on the increase, so using a different kind of therapy offers an alternative to traditional drugs. Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Plasmids Select one: a. are found in all bacteria. b. are essential for survival. c. cannot be passed between organisms. d. are located in microcompartments. e. often carry genes controlling pathogenicity. Question 12Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text You are observing an organism under the microscope, and it is clearly multicellular with no cell walls. Your prediction is that this organism is a(n) ______. Select one: a. bacterium b. fungus c. alga d. protozoan e. helminth Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell envelope component of ______. Select one: a. gram-negative bacteria b. gram-positive bacteria c. acid-fast bacteria d. mycoplasmas e. protoplasts Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired cilia by endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a(n) _____ ancestor. Select one: a. protozoan, algal b. archaeal, cyanobacterial c. spiral, cyanobacterial d. helminth, algal Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text You have found a mutant of Streptococcus pneumoniae that has lost the ability to produce a capsule. If you inject this strain into a population of healthy mice, what prediction can you make about the consequences? Select one: a. The mice will remain healthy. b. The mice will die of pneumonia. c. The mice will get a severe case of pneumonia and recover. d. The infection will respond to antiviral medication. Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Satellite viruses are Select one: a. also called viroids. b. dependent on other viruses for replication. c. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. d. significant pathogens of plants. Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Mycobacterium and Nocardia are different from most gram-positive bacteria in that their cell walls Select one: a. contain more peptidoglycan. b. contain unique, waxy lipids. c. are easily decolorized during staining. d. contain a layer of lipopolysaccharide. Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Viruses ______. Select one: a. cannot be seen in a light microscope b. are prokaryotic c. contain 70S ribosomes d. undergo binary fission Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Mycobacterium and Nocardia are distinguished from other bacteria by the ______ stain. Select one: a. acid-fast b. methylene blue c. endospore d. Gram e. basic Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The core of every virus particle always contains ______. Select one: a. DNAb. capsomeres c. enzymes d. DNA and RNA e. either DNA or RNA [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM 3 Unit 9 Microbial Genetics (Graded A+)2022
Page path BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 9: Microbial Genetics Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 6:34 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, O... [Show More] ctober 13, 2021, 6:57 AM Time taken 23 mins 52 secs Grade 90.00 out of 90.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Many lakes in the United States are suffering from periodic algae blooms, which can be thought of as an infection of the lake. Although the algae are naturally-occurring in the lake, when adjacent farm fields are over-fertilized with diammonium phosphate, the run-off deposits these nutrients in the lake, allowing the algae to grow without limit. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the overgrowth of algae? Select one: a. The algae are heterotrophs. b. The nitrogen in the fertilizer is in the ammonium form, the preferred nitrogen source of most microbes. c. The phosphorus in the fertilizer is in the phosphate form, the preferred phosphorus source of most microbes.d. The carbon source for these algae is not limiting in lakes. e. Lakes have sufficient micronutrients for algae to grow. Question 2 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text E. coli bacteria normally live in the human gut and produce vitamin K that the body uses. This is best termed a ______ relationship. Select one: a. parasitic b. saprobic c. antagonistic d. mutualistic Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text As described in "A Note About Bacterial Reproduction -- and the "Culture Bias,"" the organism Epulopiscium does not divide by binary fission. Rather, each cell increases in size and divides to produce multiple daughter cells that are held within the original cell well. After lysis, those daughters are released to repeat the process. Assuming Epulopiscium could be grown in pure culture in the laboratory in broth and on solid media (it currently cannot), which method would be best for measuring the increase in biomass during growth? Select one:a. Turbidity readings from a spectrophotometer; the increase in biomass will directly vary with the turbidity of the culture. b. The viable plate count; each colony derives from a single cell and the number of colonies equals the number of cells. c. Direct microscopic count; the experimenter can directly count the number of cells and extrapolate to the biomass. d. Chemostat growth; it will prevent the culture from entering the death phase. Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A loopful of bacteria containing 1000 bacterial cells is inoculated into a nutrient broth and incubated. After a negligible lag phase, the culture goes into exponential growth for two hours. The generation time for the bacterium is fifteen minutes. Which equation is the correct one to determine the number of cells present after two hours of log phase growth? Select one: a. 1000 X 28 b. 1000 X 16 c. 1000 X 22 d. 1000 X 2 X 2 X 15 Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting in ______ conditions. Select one:a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. mesotonic Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Microorganisms require large quantities of ______ for use in cell structure and metabolism. Select one: a. electrolytes b. macronutrients c. water d. growth factors e. trace elements Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane via a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called ______. Select one: a. facilitated diffusion b. diffusionc. active transport d. osmosis e. endocytosis Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Each of the following are electron carriers except ______. Select one: a. NAD b. FAD c. NADP d. FADP Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called ______. Select one: a. glycolysis b. amphibolism c. phosphorylation d. amination e. gluconeogenesisQuestion 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, this exemplifies a _______ metabolic pathway. Select one: a. linear b. bidirectional c. convergent d. cyclic e. divergent Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Important components of coenzymes are _______. Select one: a. vitamins b. metallic ions c. active sites d. substrates e. ribozymes Question 12 Correct4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Mixed acid fermentation Select one: a. produces butyric acid. b. occurs in all bacteria. c. produces several different acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. d. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. e. also produces ethanol. Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Fermentation ______. Select one: a. requires an organic electron acceptor b. requires oxygen c. only occurs in aerobic organisms d. is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production e. is the same as anaerobic respiration Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is false regarding amphibolic pathways? Select one: a. Metabolic pathways are amphibolic, that is, catabolism and anabolism are intertwined in order to conserve energy in the cell. b. Glucose is broken down in glycolysis; however, not all of the intermediates in the pathway are utilized as an energy source. Many leave the pathway to serve as precursors for complex molecules. c. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used as a precursor for amino acid, lipid, and carbohydrate synthesis. d. All organisms use metabolic pathways to synthesize the 20 amino acids necessary for protein synthesis using precursors from catabolic processes. e. Glucose is broken down during glycolysis to pyruvate; however, when glucose is in short supply, pyruvate is used as a precursor in the process of gluconeogenesis. Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have Select one: a. histone proteins. b. chromosomes in a nucleus. c. several to many chromosomes. d. elongated, not circular, chromosomes. e. All of the choices are correct.Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______. Select one: a. protein b. nucleotide c. amino acid d. purine Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Repressible operons require that ______ binds to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator. Select one: a. the product b. a cofactor c. a coenzyme d. the substrate e. the reactant Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result? Select one: a. The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth. b. The chemical being tested is mutagenic. c. The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium. d. The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to give for treatment of disease. Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text What type of mutation alters the base but not the amino acid being coded for? Select one: a. Silent b. Back c. Point d. Nonsense e. Missense Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text The field of genomics refers to Select one: a. the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA. b. the study of an organism's plasmids. c. the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes. d. the study of chromosomal DNA. [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 MIDTERM EXAM (Graded A+)2022
BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 9: Microbial Genetics Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 7:33 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, October 13, ... [Show More] 2021, 8:29 AM Time taken 55 mins 36 secs Grade 160.00 out of 160.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A reducing medium contains Select one: a. sugars that can be fermented. b. extra oxygen. c. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors. d. substances that remove oxygen. e. inhibiting agents. Question 2 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of ______. Select one: a. archaea b. bacteria c. prokaryotes d. eukaryotes e. viruses Question 3 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not true about enzymes? Select one: a. Enzymes are found in all cells. b. Enzymes are catalysts. c. Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. d. Enzymes can be denaturated by heat and other agents. e. Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates. Question 4 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text You have a tube of nutrient broth, in which E. coli is growing. Upon analyzing the broth chemistry, you find: oxygen content has dropped a bit, but carbon dioxide has gone up a lot formic, acetic, and lactic acids are present What kind of metabolism has most likely occurred? Select one: a. Fermentation b. Aerobic respiration c. Anaerobic respiration d. Photosynthesis Question 5 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a(n) _____ carrier that binds to the substance and causes a conformational change to allow its movement across the membrane. Select one: a. protein b. lipid c. porind. enzyme Question 6 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last Universal Common Ancestor would show Archaea Select one: a. as the original cells from which the others derived. b. branching off the Domain Eukarya. c. branching off the Domain Bacteria. Question 7 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is Select one: a. adsorption to the host cells. b. injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. c. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. d. assembly of nucleocapsids. e. replication of viral nucleic acid. Question 8 Correct4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Split genes Select one: a. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes. b. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. c. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. d. are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. Question 9 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A saprobe differs from a parasite in that Select one: a. a saprobe derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals. b. a saprobe has a pseudohyphae morphology, but a parasite has true hyphae. c. a saprobe has the ability to undergo meiosis to produce sexual spores, but a parasite can only perform mitosis to produce asexual spores. d. a saprobe is a fungus, but a parasite is a protozoan. Question 10 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is ______. Select one: a. amphitrichous b. atrichous c. lophotrichous d. monotrichous e. peritrichous Question 11 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ______. Select one: a. GCA b. CGT c. ACG d. CGU e. UGC Question 12 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and the endospore stain have in common? Select one: a. They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. b. They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. c. The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. d. They use a negative stain technique. e. They are differential stains. Question 13 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ______. Select one: a. inorganic compounds b. minerals c. water d. organic compounds e. salts Question 14 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering? Select one: a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Parasites d. Fungi e. Yeasts Question 15 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A pure culture contains Select one: a. only one identified species of microorganism. b. only bacteria. c. microbes from a single source. d. a variety of species from the same genus. Question 16 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called ______. Select one: a. flagella b. cilia c. fimbriae d. periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) e. sex pili Question 17 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that Select one: a. microbes are found on dust particles. b. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. c. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. d. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. e. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills. Question 18 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text Which of the following metabolic system descriptions is mismatched? Select one: a. Cyclic - the starting molecule is regenerated to initiate another turn b. Convergent - a linear pathway branches into two or more alternative processes c. Linear - the product of enzyme A becomes the substrate for enzyme B d. Divergent - one or more branches deviate from a linear path Question 19 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following pairs of career descriptions and work tasks is not correctly matched? Select one: a. Industrial microbiologist -- manipulate bacterial strains to be less pathogenic b. Agricultural microbiologist -- identify bacterial causes of crop disease c. Public health microbiologist -- track the incidence of AIDS in a population d. Medical microbiologist -- identify the cause of a bladder infection at a hospital lab Question 20 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag questionQuestion text The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules is the ______. Select one: a. prostaglandins b. waxes c. phospholipids d. steroids e. triglycerides Question 21 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a ______. Select one: a. streptobacillus b. Staphylobacillus c. streptococcus d. staphylococcus e. palisade Question 22 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______. Select one:a. viroids b. phages c. prions d. oncogenic viruses e. spikes Question 23 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Eukaryotic flagella differ from bacterial flagella because only eukaryotic flagella Select one: a. are used for cell motility. b. facilitate chemotaxis. c. facilitate phototaxis. d. are long, whip-like structures. e. contain microtubules. Question 24 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Which statement is correct regarding microbial growth on food at refrigeration temperatures? Select one: a. There is no growth of microbes in food in the refrigerator; the cold temperature kills or inactivates microbial cells.b. The absence of light in the refrigerator greatly reduces the growth of most microbial pathogens. c. Most food does not have enough oxygen content for microorganisms to thrive. d. The growth of microbes in food depends on their optimal growth temperature; some grow slowly and others faster. Question 25 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) ______. Select one: a. aerobe b. obligate aerobe c. facultative anaerobe d. microaerophile e. obligate anaerobe Question 26 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text The type of microscopy in which you would observe brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is ______. Select one: a. confocal b. dark-fieldc. phase-contrast d. fluorescence e. electron Question 27 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produces against the virus. Select one: a. glycoproteins b. antibodies c. complement proteins d. antigens Question 28 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not? Select one: a. This is a silent mutation. b. The original amino acid isoleucine was changed to leucine, but they are the same variation of amino acid so no change to the protein.c. The mutation was fixed, and even though the codon is now ACC the correct amino acid is put into place for the normal protein. d. This is not a mutation that causes a big change, so there is no change to the protein being made. Question 29 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins ______. Select one: a. glycolysis b. the electron transport system c. the Krebs cycle d. fermentation e. oxidative phosphorylation Question 30 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, thread-like mass called ______. Select one: a. the nuclear envelope b. the nucleosome c. the nucleolusd. nucleoplasm e. chromatin Question 31 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Antiviral drugs are often difficult to develop, largely because Select one: a. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the drugs must enter the host cell and often cause toxic side effects in order to destroy the virus. b. viruses are much smaller than bacterial cells. c. viruses are more abundant in the body than bacterial cells. d. viruses are more pathogenic than bacterial cells. Question 32 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text In the experiments constructed by Pasteur to disprove spontaneous generation, swannecked flasks were used. Why was this shape of flask used in this experiment? Select one: a. The glass necks needed to be open to the air, yet constructed so that bacteria would settle in the lowest part of the neck. b. These flask shapes were the easiest and cheapest to produce. c. The shape of the glass neck allowed the bacteria into the flask and then into the media, but air could not enter.d. Because the glass necks were stretched out, the heat used to sterilize the medium inside of the flask could not kill the bacteria in the neck. Question 33 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text All bacterial cells have ______. Select one: a. a chromosome b. an S-layer c. the ability to produce endospores d. capsules e. flagella Question 34 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A type of cofactor would be ______. Select one: a. vitamins b. metallic ions c. active sites d. substrates e. ribozymes Question 35Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with ______. Select one: a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. high salt d. temperatures above 37° C e. high acidity Question 36 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction? Select one: a. AB → A + B b. A + B → AB c. AB + XY → AY + XB d. AB + XY ↔ AY + XB Question 37 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except ______. Select one: a. inoculation b. incubation c. infection d. isolation e. identification Question 38 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 → C12 H22O11 + H2O represents Select one: a. the formation of a peptide bond. b. a decomposition reaction. c. a denaturation reaction. d. the formation of a polysaccharide. e. a dehydration synthesis. Question 39 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00Flag question Question text The vesicle that originates from the Golgi apparatus and contains a variety of digestive enzymes is the ______. Select one: a. centrosome b. lysosome c. magnetosome d. inclusion e. ribosome Question 40 Correct 4.00 points out of 4.00 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? Select one: a. Transformation b. Conjugation c. Mitosis d. Transduction [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM EXAM 4 Unit 15 Diagnosing Infections (Graded A+)2022
BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 15: Diagnosing Infections Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 8:46 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, October ... [Show More] 13, 2021, 9:36 AM Time taken 49 mins 31 secs Grade 85.50 out of 90.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ______. Select one: a. syndromes b. malaise c. inflammation d. asymptomatic e. secondary infections Question 2 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? Select one: a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Nitric oxide c. Lactic acid d. Superoxide anion e. All of these are used. CORRECT ANSWER Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ________. Select one: a. specificity; memory b. complexity, versatility c. diversity; barriers d. surveillance; complexity Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? Select one: a. Penicillin G b. Vancomycin c. Tetracycline d. Erythromycin e. Isoniazid Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks. Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash, which has developed blisters over the last day or so. You had first worn them 2 to 3 days ago, and you did not launder them after buying them at the store. Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet, you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash. Which statement is true? Select one: a. The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin. b. The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation. c. The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity.d. The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days. Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Serological testing relies upon Select one: a. the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies. b. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies. c. a patient who is not immunocompromised. d. a very high viral or bacterial load in the patient. Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that Select one: a. the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms. b. the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies. c. the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve the gastrointestinal tract.d. the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection. Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Each of the following results in drug resistance, except Select one: a. a drug being pumped out of the cell. b. a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell. c. a drug binding site being altered. d. a drug being inactivated. e. a drug being blocked from entering the cell. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______. Select one: a. influenza A virus b. HIV c. herpes zoster virus d. respiratory syncytial virus e. hepatitis C virusQuestion 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Select one: a. Neutralization b. Opsonization c. Complement fixation d. Agglutination e. Anamnestic response Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification? Select one: a. Morphology b. Gram stain reaction c. Acid-fast reaction d. Antibody response e. Endospore production Question 12 Correct4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called Select one: a. antibodies. b. sensitized T cells. c. activated macrophages. d. plasma cells. e. bursa cells. Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the Select one: a. thermal death point (TDP). b. thermal death time (TDT). c. sporicidal time. d. death phase point. Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it Select one: a. is toxic to pathogens. b. creates a physical barrier against pathogens. c. destroys pathogens. d. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region. Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in Select one: a. serum sickness. b. delayed hypersensitivity. c. anaphylaxis. d. hemolytic disease of the newborn. Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause? Select one: a. Lactobacillus b. Treponema c. Haemophilus d. Escherichia e. Clostridium Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Select one: a. Neutralization b. Opsonization c. Complement fixation d. Agglutination e. Anamnestic response Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question textOnce a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes? Select one: a. Phagocytosis b. Adhesion c. Encapsulation d. Margination e. Exocytosis Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______. Select one: a. ethylene oxide b. iodophor c. glutaraldehyde d. formaldehyde e. chlorine dioxide Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process, called _____, will remain preserved and viable for years.Select one: a. desiccation b. flash freeze c. lyophilization d. pasteurization e. sterilization [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM 5 Unit 21 Infectious Diseases-Genitourinary System-A+
BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 15: Diagnosing Infections Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 8:46 AM State Finished Completed on Wednesday, October ... [Show More] 13, 2021, 9:36 AM Time taken 49 mins 31 secs Grade 85.50 out of 90.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ______. Select one: a. syndromes b. malaise c. inflammation d. asymptomatic e. secondary infections Question 2 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances? Select one: a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Nitric oxide c. Lactic acid d. Superoxide anion e. All of these are used. CORRECT ANSWER Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ________. Select one: a. specificity; memory b. complexity, versatility c. diversity; barriers d. surveillance; complexity Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? Select one: a. Penicillin G b. Vancomycin c. Tetracycline d. Erythromycin e. Isoniazid Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text You have dermatitis triggered by a particular material in your socks. Your feet are covered with a really itchy rash, which has developed blisters over the last day or so. You had first worn them 2 to 3 days ago, and you did not launder them after buying them at the store. Finding some antihistamine medication in your bathroom cabinet, you decide to take it to relieve the itching rash. Which statement is true? Select one: a. The rash will go away because the antihistamine neutralizes the histamine chemicals coming from mast cells in your skin. b. The antihistamine will make the rash worse because it reacts with chemicals release by the lymphocytes in your skin, exacerbating the situation. c. The anti-histamine will have no effect on the rash because histamine is not the chemical mediator in this hypersensitivity.d. The anti-histamine will have no effect because once a type I hypersensitivity kicks in, it will last for a few days. Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Serological testing relies upon Select one: a. the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies. b. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies. c. a patient who is not immunocompromised. d. a very high viral or bacterial load in the patient. Question 7 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that Select one: a. the first line defenses are anatomical barriers whereas the second line defenses are mechanisms. b. the first line defenses involve complement proteins whereas the second line defenses involve antibodies. c. the first line defenses involve the respiratory tract whereas the second line defenses involve the gastrointestinal tract.d. the first line defenses are mechanisms whereas the second line defenses are physical barriers to infection. Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Each of the following results in drug resistance, except Select one: a. a drug being pumped out of the cell. b. a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell. c. a drug binding site being altered. d. a drug being inactivated. e. a drug being blocked from entering the cell. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______. Select one: a. influenza A virus b. HIV c. herpes zoster virus d. respiratory syncytial virus e. hepatitis C virusQuestion 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? Select one: a. Neutralization b. Opsonization c. Complement fixation d. Agglutination e. Anamnestic response Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is not a phenotypic method of identification? Select one: a. Morphology b. Gram stain reaction c. Acid-fast reaction d. Antibody response e. Endospore production Question 12 Correct4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called Select one: a. antibodies. b. sensitized T cells. c. activated macrophages. d. plasma cells. e. bursa cells. Question 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the Select one: a. thermal death point (TDP). b. thermal death time (TDT). c. sporicidal time. d. death phase point. Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it Select one: a. is toxic to pathogens. b. creates a physical barrier against pathogens. c. destroys pathogens. d. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region. Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in Select one: a. serum sickness. b. delayed hypersensitivity. c. anaphylaxis. d. hemolytic disease of the newborn. Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from puberty to menopause? Select one: a. Lactobacillus b. Treponema c. Haemophilus d. Escherichia e. Clostridium Question 17 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? Select one: a. Neutralization b. Opsonization c. Complement fixation d. Agglutination e. Anamnestic response Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question textOnce a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells will attempt to destroy the microbes? Select one: a. Phagocytosis b. Adhesion c. Encapsulation d. Margination e. Exocytosis Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______. Select one: a. ethylene oxide b. iodophor c. glutaraldehyde d. formaldehyde e. chlorine dioxide Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process, called _____, will remain preserved and viable for years.Select one: a. desiccation b. flash freeze c. lyophilization d. pasteurization e. sterilization [Show Less]
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Straighterline.com Microbiology BIO 250 EXAM 6 Unit 24 Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA- A+
Page path BIO250_Saylor_V5 Unit 24: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA Started on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 10:37 AM State Finished Co... [Show More] mpleted on Wednesday, October 13, 2021, 11:02 AM Time taken 25 mins 18 secs Grade 85.50 out of 90.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Eutrophication Select one: a. is characterized by heavy surface algal blooms. b. restricts the O2 supply to water below the surface. c. occurs when there are excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems. d. causes massive die-off of fish and invertebrates. e. All of the choices are correct. Question 2 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Considering the human body as an ecosystem, which of the following statements is incorrect? Select one: a. Microbes act as producers, consumers, and decomposers within the human ecosystem. b. Energy for the human microbiome derives exclusively from the food we eat. c. The microbiota in the human gut is comprised of heterotrophs. d. The human ecosystem lacks an autotrophic niche. Question 3 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Plastic marine debris was collected from multiple sites in the ocean and examined with electron microscopy and next-generation sequencing. These techniques revealed microbial communities growing on the plastics. Which of the following statements is correct regarding these communities? Select one: a. At least one member of the community must synthesize an enzyme to degrade the hydrocarbon comprising the plastic. b. The community within the plastic must be very similar to the community in the surrounding ocean waters. c. There are no bacteriophage that use these microbes as hosts, as viruses are rare in marine ecosystems. d. These communities are very likely to be pure cultures, as plastics have been synthesized precisely because they are resistant to microbial degradation.Question 4 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements regarding the infection of root hairs by Rhizobium species is incorrect? Select one: a. Attachment of Rhizobium cells to plant root hair cells induce curling of the root hair. b. The presence of Rhizobium triggers the formation of syncytial cells. c. Nodules begin to form in the roots as both plant and bacterial partners differentiate. d. This is a mutualistic relationship between plant and bacteria. Question 5 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Carbon dioxide (CO2) is Select one: a. removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. b. a source of carbon for autotrophs. c. returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation. d. used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells. e. All of the choices are correct. Question 6 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text Methane can be produced from agricultural or industrial products by ______. Select one: a. anaerobic respiration b. oxidation of nitrogen gas c. fermentation d. glycolysis Question 7 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Place the steps of the water purification process in order. Select one: a. Filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, aeration, release into a water reservoir b. Aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection, release into a water reservoir CORRECT c. Chemical disinfection, aeration, filtration and settling, release into a water reservoir d. Release into a water reservoir, aeration, filtration and settling, chemical disinfection Question 8 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag questionQuestion text Which of the following is not true of industrial microbiology? Select one: a. Primary metabolites are essential to a microbe's function. b. Secondary metabolites include amino acids. c. Growth environment is enhanced to increase metabolite synthesis. d. Select microbial strains are not controlled by feedback mechanisms. Question 9 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A device in which mass cultures are grown, reactions take place, and product develops is a(n) ______. Select one: a. sparger b. activator c. fermentor d. incubator Question 10 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text An organism used to make a variety of industrial enzymes by fermentation is ______. Select one: a. Penicilliumb. E. coli c. Salmonella d. Aspergillus Question 11 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Full induction of the lactose operon requires Select one: a. lactose present. b. lactose and glucose present. c. lactose present without glucose. d. lactose and arabinose present. Question 12 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Base pairs in DNA are held together by ______ bonds. Select one: a. peptide b. nonpolar covalent c. polar covalent d. hydrogen e. sulfhydrylQuestion 13 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? Select one: a. They are also called nonsense codons. b. They are the location where the bond between the final tRNA and the polypeptide is broken. c. They include AUG. d. They are UAA, UAG, and UGA. e. They do not have corresponding tRNA. Question 14 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is due to the fact that Select one: a. the DNA strands run antiparallel to each other and the DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand. b. one RNA primer attaches to the 5' end of the parent strand and the other primer to the 3' end. c. both RNA primers attach to the 3' end of the template strands, which are at opposite ends from each other.d. both daughter strands can't extend toward the replication fork because there would not be room for two DNA polymerase enzymes. Question 15 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential. Select one: a. Koch b. Ames c. mutation d. cancer e. Iowa Question 16 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR? Select one: a. The enzyme makes DNA that is more similar to human DNA. b. It is cheaper to obtain from live microorganisms than producing the enzyme in a lab. c. This thermohile's enzyme will synthesize DNA. d. DNA is replicated at a high temperature that denatures most proteins. Question 17Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Transgenic animals are referred to as _____ modified organisms. Select one: a. genetically b. naturally c. chemically d. physically Question 18 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are ______. Select one: a. palindromes b. reverse transcriptases c. restriction endonucleases d. ligases e. DNA polymerases Question 19 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50Flag question Question text One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome is because Select one: a. it became apparent that while the organism's genome is relatively stable, protein expression in an organism is constantly changing. b. once the genome had been sequenced, all protein expression was understood. c. it became apparent that protein expression is relatively uniform, whereas the genome is constantly changing. d. the expression of proteins is fixed in each organism so sequencing the genome is essential to understanding phenotypes. Question 20 Correct 4.50 points out of 4.50 Flag question Question text DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because Select one: a. nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge. b. nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge. c. phosphate groups have a net positive charge. d. phosphate groups have a net negative charge. [Show Less]
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