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COMPLETE FULL COURSE: STRAIGHTERLINE A&P I BIO 201 QUIZZES 1 - 16 WITH MIDTERM 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
18 Items
Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 1 Quiz Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology(A+)
Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Anatomy is Select one: a. the study of function. b. a branch of physiology. ... [Show More] c. the study of structure. d. the study of living organisms. e. the study of homeostasis. Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A tissue is a Select one: a. structure contained within a cell. b. lower level of organization than a cell. c. group of organs that performs specific functions. d. group of cells with similar structure and function. e. structure that contains a group of organs. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the movement of Select one: a. electrons in a magnetic field. b. carbons in a magnetic field. c. protons in a magnetic field. d. cells in a magnetic field. Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together? Select one: a. regional b. developmental c. systemic d. histology e. surface anatomy Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe study of the body's organization by areas is Select one: a. systemic anatomy. b. regional anatomy. c. molecular biology. d. microbiology. e. surface anatomy. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The delivery of a radioactive compound to the body to study the metabolism of tissues is called Select one: a. MRI. b. PET. c. DSA. d. DSR. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text An organelle is Select one: a. a small structure within a cell. b. a structure composed of several tissue types.c. the basic structural unit of all living organisms. d. a group of organs with a common set of functions. e. a group of cells with similar structure and function. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A cell is Select one: a. a small structure within a molecule. b. a structure composed of several tissue types. c. the basic structural unit of living organisms. d. a group of organs with a common set of functions. e. a group of atoms with similar structure and function. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text An organ is Select one: a. a small structure within a cell. b. a structure composed of several tissue types. c. the basic structural unit of all living organisms. d. a group of molecules with a common set of functions. e. a group of cells with similar structure and function. Question 10 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A major limitation of radiographs is that they Select one: a. can only visualize bone. b. give only a flat, two-dimensional image of the body. c. are old technology that do not give good results. d. have very few applications. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The thumb is ___ to the fifth digit (little finger). Select one: a. distal b. lateral c. medial d. proximal e. superficial Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text Which of the following describes the position of the nose? Select one: a. inferior to the chin b. superior to the forehead c. posterior to the ears d. lateral to the eyes e. superior to the mouth Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The antebrachial region is the Select one: a. area in front of the elbow. b. chest area. c. lower back. d. bottom of foot. e. forearm. Question 14 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThis is a sagittal section through the abdominopelvic cavity. What serous membrane does "C" represent? Select one: a. visceral peritoneum (covers organs) CORRECT b. mesentery c. parietal peritoneum (lines cavity) d. retroperitoneal organs Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text While Stacy is in the process of passing over the bar during a pole vault, her hips are considered to be Select one: a. anterior to her shoulders. b. posterior to her shoulders. c. inferior to her shoulders. d. superior to her shoulders. e. cephalic to her shoulders. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is most consistent with homeostasis? Select one: a. As blood pressure falls, blood flow to cardiac (heart) muscle decreases. b. As the mean blood pressure gradually increases in aging people, the blood vessel walls become thinner. c. Men working in a hot environment drink large quantities of water, and their urine volume increases. d. As body temperature decreases, blood vessels in the periphery dilate. e. Elevated blood glucose levels cause insulin secretion (insulin causes cells to take up glucose) to increase. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe integumentary system Select one: a. regulates body temperature. b. breaks down food into small particles for absorption. c. controls intellectual functions. d. produces body movements. e. coordinates and integrates body function. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The cervical region is the Select one: a. calf. b. armpit. c. hollow behind the knee. d. neck. e. thigh. Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The lumbar region is the Select one: a. area in front of the elbow. b. chest area.c. lower back. d. bottom of foot. e. forearm. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The shoulder is _____ to the elbow. Select one: a. lateral b. dorsal c. distal d. ventral e. proximal [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 2 Quiz Chemistry for Anatomy and Physiology Students (A+)
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 2: Chemistry for Anatomy and Physiology Students Started on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 4:35 AM State Finished Completed on ... [Show More] Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 5:05 AM Time taken 29 mins 47 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Intermolecular forces are weak electrostatic attractions that exist between Select one: a. two molecules b. a proton and an electron c. two protons Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text A cation is Select one: a. a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds. b. a positively charged ion. c. a negatively charged ion. d. a molecule that conducts electricity when placed in solution. e. an alteration in the three-dimensional structure of a protein. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Subatomic particles located around the nucleus of an atom are Select one: a. protons. b. electrons. c. neutrons. d. neutrinos. e. photons. Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12 is called Select one:a. Dalton's number. b. Socrates's number. c. Avogadro's number. d. Pasteur's number. e. Le Chatelier's number. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In the reversible reaction, CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3- , a decrease in respiration rate will increase the concentration of CO2 in the blood. What will this do to the amount of H+ in the blood? Select one: a. H+ will increase. b. H+ will decrease. c. H+ will be unchanged. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text An atom of chlorine has 17 protons and 18 neutrons. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Chlorine atoms have 18 electrons. b. Chlorine has a mass number of 35.c. Chlorine has an atomic number of 18. d. Chlorine has 35 electrons. e. Chlorine has an atomic number of 35. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions? Select one: a. temperature b. concentration of reactants c. presence of catalysts d. presence of enzymes e. All of these factors will influence the rate of chemical reactions. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In a reversible reaction, when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of reactant formation, the reaction is Select one: a. stopped. b. at equilibrium. c. in danger of exploding. d. a net decomposition reaction.e. a net synthesis reaction. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A substance composed of two or more different types of atoms is a(n) Select one: a. compound. b. element. c. ion. d. molecule. e. compound and a molecule. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The presence of water in our bodies allows us to Select one: a. cool the body with sweat. b. maintain a fairly constant body temperature. c. provide an environment for chemical reactions. d. keep tissues moist and reduce friction. e. All of these choices are correct. Question 11 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Starch is the Select one: a. storage carbohydrate in animals. b. storage carbohydrate in plants. c. nondigestible plant polysaccharide. d. major nutrient for most body cells. e. sugar found in RNA. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Eicosanoids Select one: a. are structural proteins. b. are fat-soluble vitamins. c. are components of the plasma membrane. d. comprise the genetic material. e. play a role in the response of tissues to injuries. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Cellulose is the Select one: a. storage carbohydrate in animals. b. storage carbohydrate in plants. c. nondigestible plant polysaccharide. d. major nutrient for most body cells. e. sugar found in RNA. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following lists includes only monosaccharides that are isomers of one another? Select one: a. glycogen, glucose, sucrose b. starch, glycogen, cellulose c. glucose, fructose, galactose d. ribose, glycogen, glucose e. deoxyribose, glycogen, starch Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult male. What kind of atom is found at "C"? Select one: a. hydrogen bond b. water molecule c. oxygen atomd. hydrogen atom e. polar covalent bond Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following organic groups does an enzyme belong to? Select one: a. carbohydrate b. protein c. lipid d. nucleic acid e. vitamin Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The mass of a chemical equal to its molecular weight in grams, containing 6.023 x 1023 molecules is a(n) Select one: a. mole b. molarity c. ion d. atomic mass unitQuestion 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Polysaccharides Select one: a. are formed when sucrose and glucose combine. b. are the smallest carbohydrates. c. contain carbon, hydrogen, and phosphate atoms. d. contain long chains of monosaccharides. e. are not found in plants. Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The pH value Select one: a. increases with acidity. b. is measured on a scale from 0 to 10. c. is determined by the concentration of hydrogen ions. d. reflects the sodium content of body fluids. e. decreases with alkalinity. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Phospholipids are important components of the plasma membrane. What does "E" represent on the diagram? Select one: a. phosphorus b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. polar (hydrophilic) region e. nonpolar (hydrophobic) region [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 3 Quiz Cell Biology (100% CORRECT ANSWERS)
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 3: Cell Biology Started on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 5:20 AM State Finished Completed on Tuesday, September 7, ... [Show More] 2021, 5:44 AM Time taken 23 mins 57 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is Select one: a. 100μm b. 0.1μm c. 10μm d. 0.01μm e. 1.0μm Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What structure does "C" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? Select one: a. membrane channel protein b. phospholipid bilayer c. internal membrane surface d. peripheral protein e. integral protein Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat structure does "B" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? Select one: a. membrane channel protein b. phospholipid bilayer c. internal membrane surface d. peripheral protein e. integral protein Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat structure does "E" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? Select one: a. membrane channel protein b. phospholipid bilayer c. internal membrane surface d. peripheral protein e. receptor protein Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat structure does "A" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane? Select one: a. membrane channel protein b. phospholipid bilayer c. internal membrane surface d. peripheral protein e. integral protein Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT true of a transmission electron microscope (TEM)? Select one: a. The limit of resolution is about 0.1nm. b. Electrons are passed through the specimen. c. Gives the clearest three-dimensional images.d. The specimen must be fixed in plastic. e. The electron beam is focused with electromagnets. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a characteristic function of a cell? Select one: a. reproduction and inheritance b. metabolism and energy use c. movement d. synthesis e. communication Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "B"?Select one: a. directs cellular activities, contains DNA b. contains digestive enzymes c. outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances d. major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available e. site of protein synthesis Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion? Select one:a. increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point b. decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule c. increase the concentration of the competitive molecules d. increased ATP synthesis e. None of these choices is correct. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In ______________, carrier molecules move a substance against (up) the concentration gradient. Select one: a. simple diffusion b. exocytosis c. facilitated diffusion d. active transport e. endocytosis Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______; and lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through the ______ ______. Select one:a. membrane channels; membrane channels b. membrane channels; lipid bilayer c. lipid bilayer; membrane channels d. lipid bilayer; lipid bilayer e. None of these choices is correct. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubules have extensions that increase their surface area called Select one: a. cilia. b. hairs. c. ruguae. d. microvilli. e. flagella. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textRed blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "C" relative to the RBC? Select one: a. hypotonic solution b. hypertonic solution c. isotonic solution d. hemolyzed e. crenated Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The structural RNA of ribosomes is a Select one: a. pre-mRNA. b. proenzyme. c. gene. d. ribosomal RNA (rRNA). e. codon.Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "C" represent? Select one: a. chromatid b. proteins c. chromosome d. centromeree. chromatin Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text DNA replication occurs during Select one: a. the G1 phase of interphase. b. telophase. c. the S phase of interphase. d. anaphase. e. metaphase. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In DNA replication, Select one: a. the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand. b. new nucleotides are added at the 5' end of the growing DNA strand. c. DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together. d. only introns are replicated. e. the two existing strands are not used as templates. Question 18 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In which part of the cell cycle do chromosomes align along the equator? Select one: a. interphase b. prophase c. metaphase d. anaphase e. telophase Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Messenger RNA Select one: a. is synthesized when a portion of a DNA molecule is transcribed. b. directs the synthesis of DNA. c. determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA. d. directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm. e. is not involved in the synthesis of proteins. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT posttranslational processing? Select one: a. adding polysaccharide side chains to proteins b. joining 2 or more amino acid chains c. conversion of a pro-protein to a functional protein d. removal of introns from pre-mRNA e. conversion of a pro-enzyme to a functional enzyme [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 4 Quiz Genetics (ALL ANSWERS ARE 100% CORRECT) GUARANTEED A+
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 4: Genetics Started on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 6:04 AM State Finished Completed on Tuesday, September 7, 2021... [Show More] , 6:25 AM Time taken 20 mins 35 secs Grade 33.25 out of 35.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The presence of a cellular clock, presence of "death genes" and damage to DNA or mitochondria are all theories of _____. Select one: a. aging b. death c. differentiation d. cleavage Question 2 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance? Select one: a. minor thalassemia b. major thalassemia c. beta thalassemia CORRECT d. polymorphism e. ABO blood groups Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What term describes the inheritance of a trait which in the heterozygote has an intermediate expression between either allele? Select one: a. Incomplete penetrance b. Incomplete dominance c. Complete dominance d. Codominance Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text When more than one gene pair is involved in an inheritance pattern, it is called Select one: a. structural gene. b. autosome. c. genotype. d. polygenic. e. y-linked. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The actual genetic constitution of an individual is its Select one: a. structural gene. b. autosome. c. genotype. d. polygenic. e. y-linked. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A non-albino female who is a carrier for the albino allele (Aa), mates with an albino (aa) male. What is the probability that their children will be albino? Select one: a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text If an albino (aa) mates with a person homozygous for normal pigment (AA), Select one: a. half of the offspring are normal. b. half of the offspring are albinos. c. all offspring are homozygous normal. d. all offspring are albinos. e. All the offspring are normal but carriers. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Chromosomes that are NOT associated with sex determination are known as Select one: a. structural genes. b. autosomes. c. genotypes. d. polygenic. e. y-linked. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The genotype WW is best described as Select one: a. homozygous recessive. b. homozygous dominant. c. heterozygous dominant. d. heterozygous recessive. e. homorecessive. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A person's height, intelligence, eye color, and skin color are examples of Select one: a. incomplete dominance. b. complete dominance. c. complete recessiveness. d. codominance. e. polygenic traits. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Genes that are passed from male to male are called Select one: a. structural genes. b. autosomes. c. genotypes. d. polygenic. e. y-linked. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A different form of an allele at a particular locus that can have no effect to major effects on the phenotype is a(n) Select one: a. allelic variant. b. mutated allele. c. polymorphism. d. All of the choices are correct. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What genetic disorder is caused by having three chromosomes 21? Select one: a. albinism b. sickle-cell disease c. hemophilia d. Down syndrome e. achondroplasia Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following chromosome anomalies can be found in either sex? Select one: a. Turner's Syndrome (XO) b. Klinefelter's Syndrome (XXY) c. Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) d. Barker's Syndrome e. They all can be found in either sex. Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A mistake during segregation of chromosomes is called Select one: a. deletion. b. duplication. c. nondisjunction. d. point mutation. e. aneuploidy Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A mutation involving a single nucleotide is a _____ mutation. Select one: a. deletion b. duplication c. nondisjunction d. point e. aneuploidy Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What genetic disorder is the failure to produce clotting factors? Select one: a. albinism b. sickle-cell disease c. hemophilia d. Down syndrome e. achondroplasia Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What genetic disorder is the inability to produce normal hemoglobin? Select one: a. albinism b. sickle-cell disease c. hemophilia d. Down syndrome e. achondroplasia Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Down Syndrome is an example of an aneuploidy called Select one: a. monosomy 21. b. trisomy 21. c. monosomy 23. d. trisomy 17. e. disomy 21. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What genetic disorder is a type of dwarfism characterized by shortening of the upper and lower limbs? Select one: a. albinism b. sickle-cell disease c. hemophilia d. Down syndrome e. achondroplasia [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 5 Quiz Tissues (all answers are 100% CORRECT) GUARANTEED A+
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 5: Tissues Started on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 7:55 AM State Finished Completed on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 8:18 AM T... [Show More] ime taken 23 mins 7 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue? Select one: a. transport b. support c. storage d. contraction e. insulation Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in Select one: a. a nerve. b. the brain. c. a ligament. d. a skull bone. e. a lymph node. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What is the girdle of glycoproteins just below the tight junction between epithelial cells? Select one: a. hemidesmosomes b. adhesion belt c. intercalated disks d. gap junction e. desmosomes Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What type of connective tissue is found between the vertebrae? Select one: a. hyaline cartilage b. fibrocartilage c. elastic cartilage d. dense irregular elastic tissue e. dense regular collagenous tissue Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What is the microscopic study of tissues? Select one: a. anatomy b. physiology c. pathology d. histology e. embryology Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What is a small protein channel that allows the passage of ions and small molecules between cells? Select one: a. hemidesmosomes b. adhesion belt c. tight junction d. gap junction e. desmosomes Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is correctly matched? Select one: a. neurons - supportive cells of the nervous system b. axons - conduct action potentials away from the cell body c. neuroglia - the conducting cell of the nervous system d. dendrite - rapidly dividing cell e. axon - carry action potentials toward the cell body Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What type of connective tissue is found in tendons and ligaments? Select one: a. hyaline cartilage b. fibrocartilage c. elastic cartilage d. dense irregular elastic tissue e. dense regular collagenous tissue Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be described as Select one: a. striated voluntary. b. striated involuntary. c. nonstriated voluntary. d. nonstriated involuntary. e. smooth voluntary. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an adhesive molecule found in the ground substance of connective tissue? Select one: a. fibronectin b. chondronectin c. chondroitin sulfate d. osteonectin Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with _____ tissue. Select one: a. epithelial b. connective c. muscular d. nervous e. All four types of tissue are correct. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What type of muscle is found in the wall of the heart? Select one: a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text All cells attached to the basement membrane but not all cells reach free surfaces is a description of Select one: a. mesoderm. b. neuroglia. c. membrane. d. dendrite. e. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text What is a malignant neoplasm derived from epithelial tissue? Select one: a. metastasis b. malignant c. sarcoma d. benign e. carcinoma Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Connective tissue in tendons is Select one: a. dense regular collagenous tissue. b. dense regular elastic tissue. c. dense irregular collagenous tissue. d. dense irregular elastic tissue. e. reticular tissue. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What type of cells contain large amounts of lipids? Select one:a. mast cells b. adipocytes c. osteoclast d. stem cells e. macrophages Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following matrix molecules tends to trap large quantities of water? Select one: a. collagen b. proteoglycan c. elastin d. hyaluronic acid e. reticular fibers Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What is a collection of similar cells and surrounding substances? Select one: a. organ b. tissuec. organ system d. extracellular matrix e. intracellular matrix Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text This is a picture of a skin wound. What does "A" represent? Select one: a. dermis b. subcutaneous fat c. epidermis d. blood vessel e. blood clot Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What type of connective tissue is found in the walls of large arteries? Select one: a. hyaline cartilage b. fibrocartilage c. elastic cartilage d. dense irregular elastic tissue e. dense regular collagenous tissue [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 6 Quiz Integumentary System ( ALL ANSWERS ARE 100% CORRECT) ASSURED A+
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 6: Integumentary System Started on Tuesday, September 7, 2021, 12:15 PM State Finished Completed on Tuesday, Sept... [Show More] ember 7, 2021, 12:48 PM Time taken 33 mins 2 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe figure illustrates keratinization in the epidermis. What layer of the epidermis is "A"?Select one: a. stratum spinosum b. stratum corneum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum e. stratum granulosum Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. In males, the hairs of the beard are vellus hairs.b. Both vellus and terminal hairs are pigmented. c. The majority of hair on the chest is vellus hair. d. At puberty, much of the vellus hair is replaced with terminal hair. e. Hair in the axillary region is vellus hair after puberty. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What does structure "B" represent on the diagram?Select one: a. hair follicle b. arrector pili c. epidermis and dermis d. hypodermis e. sebaceous gland Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Cedric slipped and cut his finger. The cut bled, but did not penetrate to the hypodermis. The deepest layer penetrated was the Select one: a. stratum spinosum. b. stratum granulosum.c. stratum basale. d. stratum corneum. e. papillary layer of the dermis. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The epidermal layer that is present in the nail bed and the nail matrix is the Select one: a. stratum corneum. b. stratum lucidum. c. stratum basale. d. stratum spinosum. e. stratum lunula. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text If you accidentally cut your arm and see connective tissue and fat, which layer(s) was/were cut? Select one: a. stratum corneum b. stratum basale c. dermis d. hypodermise. all of these layers Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What protein is found in the nails, hair, and epidermis? Select one: a. melanin b. keratin c. carotene d. elastin e. collagen Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When the skin develops a reddish color due to a temporary increase in blood flow, the condition is called: Select one: a. erythema b. cyanosis c. jaundice d. albinism Question 9 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The length of hair is determined by the Select one: a. size of the hair bulb. b. angle of the hair root. c. rate of hair growth. d. length of the resting stage. e. age of the person. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements regarding melanin is true? Select one: a. During pregnancy melanin production is increased. b. Both melanocytes and keratinocytes produce melanin. c. In Addison's disease, less melanin is produced. d. Men produce more melanin than women. e. Melanin is a white pigment. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The vesicles that contain melanin are called ______. Select one: a. melanosomes b. melanocytes c. keratinocytes d. Golgi apparatus Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements concerning vitamin D is false? Select one: a. Vitamin D begins its synthesis in the skin when the skin is exposed to ultraviolet light. b. Vitamin D causes the kidney to excrete calcium. c. Vitamin D is necessary for the uptake of calcium from the intestine. d. Vitamin D is necessary for the formation of bones and teeth. e. Vitamin D is important for calcium homeostasis. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text By reducing body temperature during hot weather, skin helps to maintain Select one: a. body temperature homeostasis. b. body structure. c. blood volume. d. brain activity. e. blood pH. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What type of burn appears white or black with no immediate pain? Select one: a. first-degree b. second-degree c. third-degree d. fourth-degree e. partial-thickness Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Squamous cell carcinoma is the second most common type of skin cancer that affects the _____ layer of the skin.Select one: a. reticular layer of dermis b. stratum spinosum c. stratum granulosum d. stratum basale e. stratum corneum Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A burn classified as partial thickness could be _____. Select one: a. first or second degree b. second or third degree c. epidermal or dermal d. thin or deep Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a complication of a major burn? Select one: a. fever b. electrolyte imbalance c. hypermetabolic stated. weight loss e. decreased protein demand Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT associated with impetigo? Select one: a. Bacterial infection b. Skin blisters with pus c. Herpes Simplex II d. Affects children e. Yellowish crust Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which type of skin cancer is the most deadly? Select one: a. basal cell carcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. melanoma d. Kaposi's sarcoma e. psoriasisQuestion 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The effects of aging on the skin include all of the following except: Select one: a. thinner epidermis b. reduction in collagen and elastin c. loss of fat from the subcutaneous tissue d. increases in sebaceous gland activity [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 7 Quiz Bones and Skeletal System (100% CORRECT) GUARANTEED A+
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 7: Bones and Skeletal System Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 5:04 AM State Finished Completed on Thursday... [Show More] , September 9, 2021, 5:34 AM Time taken 30 mins 14 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which type of bone is considered dense bone? Select one: a. spongy bone b. compact bone c. both spongy and compact Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a Select one: a. central canal. b. lamella. c. canaliculus. d. lacuna. e. osteocanal. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat does structure "A" represent on the bone diagram? Select one: a. cancellous bone b. diaphysis c. epiphyseal lines d. articular cartilage e. epiphysis Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The proportion of collagen to hydroxyapatite in bone determines the Select one: a. thickness of the bone. b. length of the bone. c. strength of the bone. d. ability of the bone to heal. e. growth rate of bone. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When blood calcium levels are lowSelect one: a. osteoclast activity increases. b. calcitonin secretion increases. c. calcium absorption is reduced. d. bones produce more bone tissue. e. osteoblast activity increases. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The connective tissue sheath of cartilage is called the Select one: a. matrix. b. chondrocyte. c. ligamentous cord. d. lacuna. e. perichondrium. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A connective tissue sheath around cartilage is the Select one: a. endosteum.b. perichondrium. c. periosteum. d. epiphyseal line. e. ligament. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text This is a diagram of calcium homeostasis. What process is represented by "E"?Select one: a. PTH promotes calcium release into blood by osteoclast. b. Calcium is removed from blood by osteoblasts. c. Vitamin D promotes calcium absorption. d. Calcium is lost in urine. e. PTH promotes calcium reabsorption from urine. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Osteoclasts have projections that cause bone reabsorption called Select one: a. canaliculi. b. lacunae. c. ruffled borders. d. lamellae. e. crossroads. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text How does the respiratory system contribute to osteoporosis? Select one: a. Lack of exposure to sunlight reduces vitamin D production and decreases calcium absorption.b. Immune cells resist infections and release chemicals that promote tissue repair. c. Excessive smoking lowers estrogen levels, which increases bone loss. d. Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted. e. Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the Select one: a. axial skeleton. b. appendicular skeleton. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Shannon, a boxer, is informed after a fight that she has a broken ethmoid bone, and that due to its location she may have difficulty with which of these special senses? Select one: a. equilibrium b. hearing c. vision d. smell Question 13 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function? Select one: a. maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth b. vomer - forms the hard palate c. inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals d. zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle e. temporal - is part of the orbit. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column? Select one: a. It supports the weight of the body. b. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord. c. It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves. d. It contains numerous foramens for the passageway of blood vessels. e. It protects the brain. Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The ligamentum nuchae Select one: a. protects the brain. b. is a part of the nose. c. moves the eye. d. supports the jaw. e. helps keep the head erect. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus? Select one: a. lordosis b. kyphosis c. scoliosis d. spina bifida e. herniated disk Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The humerus articulates with the ulna at the Select one: a. medial epicondyle. b. lateral epicondyle. c. capitulum. d. radial fossa. e. trochlea. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement Select one: a. results in a disjointed appearance. b. limits fine coordination of the hands. c. allows a wide range of movements. d. restricts the amount of weight the upper limb can support. e. results in a limited range of motion. Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the Select one: a. pelvic girdle. b. vertebral arches. c. vertebral bodies. d. vertebral foramen. e. intervertebral discs. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______ Select one: a. palatine bones. b. lacrimal bones. c. mandible. d. vomer bone. e. frontal bone. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 8 Quiz Joints (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) GUARANTEED A+
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 8: Joints Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 5:49 AM State Finished Completed on Thursday, September 9, 2021... [Show More] , 6:10 AM Time taken 21 mins 25 secs Grade 33.25 out of 35.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Ellipsoid joints Select one: a. are multiaxial joints. b. are found between adjacent vertebra. c. are actually modified ball and socket joints. d. allow free rotation. e. are modified pivot joints. Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A dislocated shoulder involves separation of the __________ from the scapula. Select one: a. radius b. clavicle c. humerus d. manubrium e. sternum Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following pairs of terms are opposites? Select one: a. plantar flexion - dorsiflexion b. abduction - extension c. inversion - retraction d. pronation - rotation e. elevation - protraction Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A biaxial joint has movement Select one: a. around one axis. b. around two axes at right angles to one another. c. about several axes. d. as long as there is articular cartilage present. e. that always rotates. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A joint that consists of two opposed flat surfaces of approximately equal size is a _____ joint. Select one: a. plane b. saddle c. hinge d. pivot e. ellipsoid Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "D" represent? Select one: a. costochondral joint b. sternum c. manubrium d. sternal symphyses e. sternocostal synchrondrosis Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Joints joined together by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage would be classified as ______ joints.Select one: a. cartilaginous b. fibrous c. synovial d. diarthrotic Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following movements is possible at the hip or coxal joint? Select one: a. rotation b. flexion c. adduction d. circumduction e. All of these are possible. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The type of movement between carpal bones is described as Select one: a. pivot. b. adduction. c. extension.d. flexion. e. gliding. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist indicates a disorder of the Select one: a. cruciate ligament. b. synovial membrane. c. articular cartilage. d. bursae. e. mucus membrane. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Moving the mandible to the side as when grinding the teeth is Select one: a. lateral flexion. b. lateral excursion. c. elevation. d. inversion. Question 12Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Hyaluronic acid Select one: a. contributes to the rigidity of a joint. b. is found in the synovial membrane. c. is responsible for the lubricating properties of synovial fluid. d. makes up most of the matrix of hyaline cartilage. e. makes surfaces rough. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Yolanda, a yoga instructor, tells her class to stretch the muscles of the side of the trunk by instructing them to perform ___. Select one: a. opposition. b. adduction. c. lateral flexion. d. extension. e. elevation. Question 14 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The figure illustrates a posterior view of the right knee joint. What does "B" represent? Select one: a. medial (tibial) collateral ligament (MCL) CORRECT b. posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) c. anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) d. lateral (fibular) collateral ligament (LCL) e. lateral meniscus Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe figure illustrates the joints and bones of the rib cage. What does "A" represent? Select one: a. costochondral joint b. sternum c. manubrium d. sternal symphyses e. sternocostal synchrondrosis Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements concerning the ankle joint is true? Select one: a. The calcaneus articulates with the tibia to form this joint. b. Most common injuries to this joint occur because of a forceful inversion of the foot. c. A capsule of hyaline cartilage surrounds the joint. d. The lateral collateral ligament helps to stabilize this joint.e. It is a pivot joint. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The opposite of extension is Select one: a. inversion. b. protraction. c. elevation. d. pronation. e. flexion. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements regarding the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint is correct? Select one: a. The joint is divided into lateral and medial cavities by an articular disc of cartilage. b. The joint has a cartilage capsule. c. The joint is a combination plane and ellipsoidal joint. d. The joint allows rotation. e. The joint is located between the maxilla and the mandible. Question 19 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Osteoarthritis is Select one: a. a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. b. an inflammation of any joint. c. a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. d. a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. e. the most common type of arthritis. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Osteoarthritis usually is caused by Select one: a. wear and tear of the joint. b. increased uric acid in the blood. c. an autoimmune disorder. d. a bacterial infection in the joint. e. bursitis. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Cumulative Midterm Exam (100% CORRECT) GUARANTEED A+
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 8: Joints Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 7:03 AM State Finished Completed on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 7:55 AM ... [Show More] Time taken 52 mins 4 secs Grade 133.00 out of 140.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together? Select one: a. regional b. developmental c. systemic d. histology e. surface anatomy Question 2 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text The study of the structural features and functions of the cell is Select one: a. cytology. b. histology. c. molecular biology. d. microbiology. e. surface anatomy. Question 3 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The lumbar region is the Select one: a. area in front of the elbow. b. chest area. c. lower back. d. bottom of foot. e. forearm. Question 4 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text The antebrachial region is the Select one: a. area in front of the elbow. b. chest area. c. lower back. d. bottom of foot. e. forearm. Question 5 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Posterior means Select one: a. toward the middle or midline of the body. b. away from the surface. c. closer to the head. d. closer than another structure to the point of attachment to the trunk. e. toward the back of the body. CORRECT Question 6 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text Intermolecular forces are weak electrostatic attractions that exist between Select one: a. two molecules b. a proton and an electron c. two protons Question 7 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text A substance composed of two or more different types of atoms is a(n) Select one: a. compound. b. element. c. ion. d. molecule. e. compound and a molecule. CORRECT Question 8 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag questionQuestion text DNA Select one: a. must travel to ribosomes to function. b. contains the sugar deoxyribose. c. is a single-stranded molecule. d. is one of several amino acids. e. assembles amino acids to make proteins.. Question 9 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Eicosanoids Select one: a. are structural proteins. b. are fat-soluble vitamins. c. are components of the plasma membrane. d. comprise the genetic material. e. play a role in the response of tissues to injuries. Question 10 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Phospholipids Select one:a. contain subunits called amino acids. b. are water-soluble. c. are a type of steroid. d. are fat-soluble vitamins. e. are found in cell membranes. Question 11 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells? Select one: a. a magnifying glass b. scanning electron microscope c. transmission electron microscope d. binoculars e. light microscope Question 12 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Glycolipids would contain both lipids and Select one: a. carbohydrates. b. proteins.c. electrolytes. d. cholesterol. e. amino acids. Question 13 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Cytoplasm is found Select one: a. in the nucleus. b. outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane. c. in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum. d. on the cristae of the mitochondria. e. between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane. Question 14 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The structural RNA of ribosomes is a Select one: a. pre-mRNA. b. proenzyme. c. gene. d. ribosomal RNA (rRNA).e. codon. Question 15 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell during Select one: a. interphase. b. prophase. c. metaphase. d. anaphase. e. telophase. Question 16 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text What type of epithelial tissue is found in the mouth? Select one: a. simple cuboidal epithelium b. simple columnar epithelium c. stratified squamous epithelium d. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium e. transitional epithelium Question 17 Correct3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements concerning the process of tissue repair is false? Select one: a. In regeneration, destroyed cells are replaced by the same type of cells. b. In replacement, a new type of tissue develops that eventually results in scar production. c. Labile cells cannot be replaced by the process of regeneration. d. Stable cells do not actively replicate after growth but retain the ability to regenerate. e. Permanent cells have a limited ability to replicate. Question 18 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text A tissue has the following characteristics: free surface, single layer of cells, cells are narrow and tall, microvilli, many mitochondria, goblet cells. Which of the following is most consistent with those observations? (1) active transport (2) epithelium (3) simple epithelium (4) columnar epithelium (5) cuboidal epithelium (6) squamous epithelium (7) secretion by exocytosis (8) movement of mucous across its surface Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7b. 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 c. 1, 2, 3, 4, 8 d. 2, 3, 4, 8 e. 2, 3, 4, 7 Question 19 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Select one: a. endoderm - bone b. mesoderm - muscle c. ectoderm - skin d. neuroectoderm - nervous system e. neural crest cells - peripheral nervous system, skin pigment, tissues of the face Question 20 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The epidermal layer that is present in the nail bed and the nail matrix is the Select one: a. stratum corneum. b. stratum lucidum. c. stratum basale.d. stratum spinosum. e. stratum lunula. Question 21 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The diagram illustrates glands of the skin. What does "C" represent?Select one: a. apocrine sweat gland b. sebaceous gland c. eccrine sweat gland d. duct of eccrine sweat gland e. sweat pore f. hair follicle Question 22 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text An increase in body temperature causes Select one:a. sweating. b. arterioles in the dermis to constrict. c. arrector pili muscles to contract. d. an increase in keratinization of the skin. e. an increase in melanin production. Question 23 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The amount of body area involved with a burn is determined by the Select one: a. color of the skin. b. amount of pain. c. rule of nines. d. cause of the burn. e. ABCDE rule. Question 24 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text What is the area where marrow is located? Select one: a. periosteum b. Sharpey fibersc. growth plate d. medullary cavity e. endosteum Question 25 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The compression (weight-bearing) strength of bone matrix is due to the presence of Select one: a. elastin fibers. b. collagenase. c. hydroxyapatite crystals. d. collagen fibers. e. bone marrow. Question 26 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Chondroblasts produce Select one: a. ligaments. b. cartilage matrix. c. bone tissue. d. blood cells.e. synovial fluid. Question 27 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text A boy grew rapidly and reached a height of 6'2" by the time he was 13. He had normal body proportions and sexual development was only slightly retarded. Which of the following caused his condition? Select one: a. an adrenal tumor that secretes androgens b. hypersecretion of testosterone c. elevated vitamin D synthesis d. hypersecretion of growth hormone e. hyposecretion of growth hormone Question 28 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The coccyx is Select one: a. absent in humans. b. also called the coxa. c. located in the upper lumbar region. d. the most inferior portion of the vertebral column. e. the bottom of the spinal cord.Question 29 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text The common name for the phalanges is the Select one: a. zygomatic bone. b. finger bones. c. kneecap. d. breastbone. e. shinbone. Question 30 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus? Select one: a. lordosis b. kyphosis c. scoliosis d. spina bifida e. herniated disk Question 31 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text The glenoid cavity is where the Select one: a. clavicle articulates with the scapula. b. clavicle articulates with the sternum. c. humerus articulates with the clavicle. d. humerus articulates with the scapula. e. radius articulates with humerus. Question 32 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth? Select one: a. small ischial spines b. a small pelvic outlet c. an enlarged iliac crest d. a wide, circular pelvic inlet e. widely spaced ischial spines Question 33 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text The opposite of extension is Select one: a. inversion. b. protraction. c. elevation. d. pronation. e. flexion. Question 34 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text If you ask someone a question and they do not know the answer, which type of nonverbal expression are you likely to get from that person? Select one: a. elevation of the clavicles and scapulae b. hyperextension of the back c. pronation of the forearm d. flexion of the forearm e. lateral flexion of the trunk Question 35 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text Gout is Select one: a. a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. b. an inflammation of any joint. c. a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. d. a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. e. the most common type of arthritis. Question 36 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Osteoarthritis is Select one: a. a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. b. an inflammation of any joint. c. a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. d. a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. e. the most common type of arthritis. Question 37 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text A __________ is a display of the chromosomes of a somatic cell during metaphase of mitosis. Select one: a. karyotype b. genome c. gamete d. locus Question 38 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text If an albino (aa) mates with a person homozygous for normal pigment (AA), Select one: a. half of the offspring are normal. b. half of the offspring are albinos. c. all offspring are homozygous normal. d. all offspring are albinos. e. All the offspring are normal but carriers. Question 39 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50Flag question Question text A mistake during segregation of chromosomes is called Select one: a. deletion. b. duplication. c. nondisjunction. d. point mutation. e. aneuploidy Question 40 Correct 3.50 points out of 3.50 Flag question Question text Which of the following chromosome anomalies can be found in either sex? Select one: a. Turner's Syndrome (XO) b. Klinefelter's Syndrome (XXY) c. Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) d. Barker's Syndrome e. They all can be found in either sex. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 9 Quiz Muscular System Histology and Physiology (100% CORRECT ANSWERS)
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 9: Muscular System Histology and Physiology Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 8:24 AM State Finished Comple... [Show More] ted on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 8:57 AM Time taken 33 mins 10 secs Grade 33.25 out of 35.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle? Select one: a. body movement b. maintenance of posture c. Dilating and constricting the pupil of the eye d. Carry out breathing movements e. production of heat Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which type of muscle tissue possesses striations? Select one: a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle e. both cardiac and smooth muscle Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which type of muscle tissue has spindle-shaped cells? Select one: a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle e. both cardiac and smooth muscle Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both Select one: a. are under involuntary control. b. are striated. c. are widely distributed in the body. d. have multiple nuclei. e. are under voluntary control. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch? Select one: a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle e. both cardiac and smooth muscle Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Identify the statement concerning skeletal muscle that is true. Select one: a. It comprises about 20% of the body's weight. b. It propels urine through the urinary tract. c. Its function is largely under involuntary control. d. It is a kind of connective tissue. e. It is responsible for locomotion. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle Select one: a. shortens its length. b. recoils to its original resting length. c. stretches beyond its normal length. d. responds to stimulation by the nervous system. e. excites itself. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Why does muscle activity affect the temperature of the body? Select one: a. The rate of chemical reactions increases in muscle fibers during contraction, so the rate of heat production also increases. b. Muscle contraction generates pyrogens which reset the body's internal thermostat to a higher temperature. c. Muscle activity directs more warm blood to the muscles away from the central core causing a cooling effect on your internal organs. d. Increased muscle activity causes a rise in adipose stores which increases the insulation value of the body. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text As muscle activity increases, the body temperature _____. Select one: a. decreases b. increase Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The capacity of a muscle cell to shorten forcefully is known as Select one: a. contractility. b. excitability. c. extensibility. d. elasticity. e. flexibility. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The electrical properties of cells are the result of Select one: a. ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane. b. receptor sites that are present on the plasma membrane. c. phosphorylation reactions within the cytoplasm. d. phospholipids in the cell membrane. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Troponin Select one: a. has two subunits. b. is part of the myosin myofilament. c. is a long, flexible protein. d. has a calcium-binding site. e. binds to ATP. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following events occurs during the lag phase of a muscle twitch? Select one: a. Muscle fibers shorten. b. Cross-bridges form, move, release, and reform many times. c. The action potential is propagated from presynaptic to postsynaptic membrane. d. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. e. All of these events occur in the lag phase. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT true of the latch state of smooth muscle contraction? Select one: a. Myosin phosphatase removes the phosphate group from myosin. b. It explains why smooth muscle can sustain tension for long periods of time. c. It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are attached to actin. d. It occurs when the phosphate is removed while the cross-bridges are not attached to actin. e. It allows contraction without a large energy expenditure. Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Arrange these structures as they participate in excitation-contraction. Select one: a. T tubules, sarcolemma, calcium ions, sarcoplasmic reticulum b. calcium ions, T tubules, sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum c. sarcolemma, T tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions d. sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions, T tubules, sarcolemma e. sarcolemma, sarcoplasmic reticulum, calcium ions, T tubules Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text When skeletal muscle is producing carbon dioxide and water while making ATP, which chemical processes could be active at this time? Select one: a. anaerobic respiration b. aerobic respiration c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration Question 17 Incorrect 0.0 points out of 1.75 1.0 I don’t know why it was marked wrong Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT true of muscular atrophy? Select one: a. It is irreversible. This should be the correct answer b. It can be caused by disuse. c. It can be caused by denervation. d. Transcutaneous stimulation can help prevent it.e. Muscle fibers are replaced by connective tissue. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Heather is watching a movie. What type of chemical pathway do her muscles depend upon at this time? Select one: a. anaerobic respiration b. aerobic respiration c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A lack of glycolytic enzymes within skeletal muscle cells would impair which type of ATPyielding process? Select one: a. anaerobic respiration b. aerobic respiration c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue? Select one: a. breaks down glycogen b. synthesizes ATP c. acts as a reservoir for oxygen d. produces action potentials e. stores glucose [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 10 Quiz Muscular System Gross Anatomy (100% CORRECT ANSWERS)ASSURED A+
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 10: Muscular System Gross Anatomy Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 11:29 AM State Finished Completed on Thursday, Sep... [Show More] tember 9, 2021, 11:56 AM Time taken 26 mins 5 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel muscle "C" on the diagram. Select one: a. orbicularis oculi b. temporalis c. trapezius d. sternocleidomastoid e. masseterQuestion 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is a part of the quadriceps femoris muscle group? Select one: a. pectineus b. sartorius c. vastus lateralis d. tensor fasciae latae e. iliotibial tract Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel muscle "C" on the diagram. Select one: a. linea alba b. serratus anterior c. rectus abdominis d. external oblique e. internal oblique Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The arm is attached to the thorax by the Select one: a. pectoralis major and teres major. b. supraspinatus and latissimus dorsi. c. pectoralis minor and pectoralis major. d. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major. e. biceps brachii and triceps brachii. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel muscle "D" on the diagram. Select one: a. orbicularis oculi b. temporalis c. trapezius d. sternocleidomastoid e. masseterQuestion 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The origin is Select one: a. a muscle working in opposition to another muscle. b. the end of the muscle where the action occurs. c. the muscle that does most of the movement. d. the stationary end of the muscle. e. a group of muscles that work together to cause movement. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat does "A" represent? Select one: a. coracobrachialis b. deltoid c. pectoralis major d. biceps brachii e. serratus anterior Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following muscles of the chest has its insertion on the humerus? Select one: a. pectoralis major b. pectoralis minor c. serratus anterior d. subclavius e. internal intercostals Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Of the following muscles of the leg, which one is on the anterior side of the leg? Select one: a. gastrocnemius b. soleus c. tibialis anterior d. tibialis posterior e. peroneus longus Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The flexion of the elbow represents a Select one: a. class I lever system. b. class II lever system. c. class III lever system. d. class IV lever system. e. nonlever system. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The rotator cuff muscles Select one: a. fix the scapula in place. b. attach the arm to the thorax. c. attach the clavicle to the humerus. d. hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. e. attach at the distal end of the humerus. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following muscles flexes the wrist? Select one: a. anconeus b. coracobrachialis c. flexor pollicis brevis d. extensor carpi radialis brevis e. flexor carpi radialis Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The digastric muscle is involved in Select one: a. stomach contractions. b. opening the mouth. c. facial expression. d. tummy tucks. e. swallowing. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which abdominal wall muscle inserts on the xiphoid process and the linea alba? Select one: a. rectus abdominis b. external abdominal oblique c. internal abdominal oblique d. transversus abdominis e. quadratus lumborum Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A muscle that extends both the wrist and the index finger is the Select one: a. extensor indicis. b. extensor carpi ulnaris. c. extensor pollicis longus. d. extensor carpi radialis longus. e. extensor digiti minimi. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The muscles of the anterior group of forearm muscles are primarily Select one: a. flexors. b. extensors. c. abductors. d. adductors. e. supinators. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used. Select one: a. pterygoid b. infrahyoid c. auricularis d. suprahyoid e. hyoglossus Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm to turn the palm upwards? Select one: a. supinator b. triceps brachii c. brachialis d. pronator quadratus e. brachioradialis Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which abdominal wall muscle inserts on the 10th to 12th ribs and rectus sheath? Select one: a. rectus abdominis b. external abdominal oblique c. internal abdominal oblique d. transversus abdominis e. quadratus lumborum Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The term "shin splints" is associated with Select one: a. injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis anterior. b. stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee. c. posterior compartment syndrome. d. injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis posterior. e. RICE. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 11 Quiz Functional Organization of Nervous Tissue-100% CORRECT ANSWERS
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 11: Functional Organization of Nervous Tissue Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 12:02 PM State Finished Com... [Show More] pleted on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 12:26 PM Time taken 23 mins 44 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When repolarization of a neuron is complete, the Select one: a. neuron dies. b. neuron regenerates. c. cell no longer has a potential difference across its membrane. d. original polarity of the neuron is restored. e. neuron is no longer excitable. Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A series of local potentials causes the membrane potential to move to -80 mV. Predict the result. Select one: a. threshold is reached b. depolarization occurs c. the neuron is hyperpolarized d. information of frequency is needed to predict the result e. the neuron releases neurotransmitter in response Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Voltage-gated sodium channels are sensitive to changes in the extracellular concentration of Select one: a. potassium ions. b. proteins. c. sodium ions. d. chloride ions. e. calcium ions. Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Chemical synapses are characterized by Select one: a. the release of neurotransmitter by the presynaptic terminal. b. connexons that connect the pre- and postsynaptic cells. c. the presence of receptors for neurotransmitters on the presynaptic terminal. d. the absence of gap junctions. e. receptors located only on the presynaptic terminal. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When two action potentials arrive simultaneously at two different presynaptic terminals that synapse with the same postsynaptic neuron, Select one: a. the direction of the action potential is reversed. b. temporal summation occurs. c. spatial summation occurs. d. hyperpolarization occurs. e. threshold is never reached. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following events is NOT a characteristic of an action potential? Select one: a. The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to sodium ions and depolarization results. b. As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative. c. At the peak of depolarization, sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels open. d. In repolarization, potassium ions flow out of the cell. e. Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text If the ECF around a nerve cell is replaced with an isotonic saline solution that contains potassium ions and other solutes at concentrations very close to the ECF concentrations of a normal cell, the result is Select one: a. no resting membrane potential. b. hyperpolarized membrane. c. depolarized membrane. d. a resting membrane potential close to its normal value. e. None of these choices is correct. Question 8 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textIdentify structure "A" on the neuron. Select one: a. Schwann cell b. Node of Ranvier c. neuron cell body (soma) d. dendrites e. axon Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The junction of a neuron with another cell is a/an Select one: a. synapse. b. ganglion. c. receptor. d. effector. Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Identify the type of synapse that includes a presynaptic cell, synaptic cleft, and postsynaptic cell.Select one: a. chemical b. electrical c. direct d. indirect e. neurotransmitter Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT true about astrocytes? Select one: a. They can wall off an injury site to prevent spread of inflammation. b. They can prevent toxic substances from entering brain tissue. c. They can release chemicals that promote formation of synapses. d. They can aid in the regeneration of injured neurons. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Protein synthesis in neurons occurs in Select one: a. axons. b. dendrites.c. cell bodies or soma. d. terminal boutons. e. node of Ranvier. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Gaps or interruptions in the myelin sheath are called Select one: a. internodes. b. tight junctions. c. neurofilaments. d. nodes of Ranvier. e. gap junctions. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified as a(n) Select one: a. motor neuron. b. sensory or afferent neuron. c. efferent neuron.d. association neuron. e. interneuron. Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Hydrocephaly is a condition whereby cerebrospinal fluid accumulates around the brain. What supportive cells continue CSF production despite it backing up in the subarachnoid space? Select one: a. astrocytes b. microglial cells c. oligodendrocytes d. macrophages e. ependymal cells Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The central nervous system includes the Select one: a. ganglia. b. spinal cord. c. spinal nerves. d. cranial nerves.e. sensory receptors. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in Select one: a. ganglia. b. Schwann cells. c. the motor division. d. the sensory division. e. nerves. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves and _____ pairs of spinal nerves. Select one: a. 10; 30 b. 31; 12 c. 12; 31 d. 30; 10 e. 12; 32 Question 19 Correct1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The enteric nervous system consists of plexuses within the walls of the Select one: a. brain. b. spinal cord. c. digestive tract. d. urinary bladder. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The autonomic nervous system Select one: a. stimulates skeletal muscle contractions. b. has two sets of neurons in a series. c. is involved in problem solving. d. is under voluntary control. e. does not include the central nervous system. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 12 Quiz Spinal Cord, Spindal Nerves, Brain and Cranial Nerves-A++
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 12: Spinal Cord, Spindal Nerves, Brain and Cranial Nerves Started on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 12:36 PM State Finished Co... [Show More] mpleted on Thursday, September 9, 2021, 1:16 PM Time taken 39 mins 53 secs Grade 31.50 out of 35.00 (90%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the nerve with the appropriate description. Tibial nerve Select one: a. innervates the iliopsoas, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris b. innervates muscles of the pelvic floor c. innervates the muscles that adduct the thigh d. innervates the anterior and lateral muscles of the leg e. branches to form the medial and lateral plantar nerves Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Branches of the ____ nerve are anesthetized before a doctor performs an episiotomy for childbirth. Select one: a. genitofemoral b. gluteal c. cutaneous femoral d. pudendal e. common fibular (peroneal) Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textWhat does "E" represent? Select one: a. central canal b. ventral root c. dorsal root ganglion d. spinal nerve e. dorsal root Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The epineurium Select one:a. surrounds nerve cell bodies. b. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. c. bundles axons into fascicles. d. bundles fascicles into nerves. e. bundles fascicles into axons. Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What does "A" represent? Select one: a. central canal b. ventral rootc. dorsal root ganglion d. spinal nerve e. dorsal root Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Reflex arcs Select one: a. are capable of receiving a stimulus and yielding a response. b. are the basic structural units of the nervous system. c. occur primarily in the cerebral cortex of the brain. d. involve inhibitory neurons. e. do not involve the spinal cord. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The reflex that prevents excessive tension in a muscle is the Select one: a. stretch reflex. b. withdrawal reflex. c. Golgi tendon reflex. d. reciprocal reflex.e. crossed extensor reflex. Question 8 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the term with the most appropriate description. Associated with withdrawal and stretch reflex Select one: a. stretch reflex b. golgi tendon reflex c. withdrawal reflex d. crossed extensor reflex e. reciprocal innervation CORRECT Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the disorder with its description. Neuralgia Select one: a. pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg b. stiffness in the neck and headache c. inflammation of a nerved. pain along a nerve tract e. loss of sensation Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the disorder with its description. Meningitis Select one: a. pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg b. stiffness in the neck and headache c. inflammation of a nerve d. pain along a nerve tract e. loss of sensation Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following activities would stimulate the reticular formation? Select one: a. a warm bath b. a clock radio coming on in the morning c. a long lecture in a darkened auditoriumd. eating a big meal e. getting a back rub Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated. What do you expect the patient to do? Select one: a. Flex his fingers. b. Talk to the surgeon. c. Smile. d. Feel pressure on his toes. e. Move his hand. Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Injury to the thalamus would Select one: a. cause us to stop breathing. b. affect body temperature regulation. c. affect pH regulation. d. prevent puberty. e. affect sensory projection to the cerebral cortex.Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text From which embryonic brain region does the medulla oblongata form? Select one: a. telencephalon b. diencephalon c. mesencephalon d. metencephalon e. myelencephalon Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Smooth, flowing movements are the result of fine motor coordination in the Select one: a. anterior vermis. b. cerebellar peduncles. c. lateral cerebellar hemispheres. d. flocculonodular lobe. e. arbor vitae. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The "thermostat" or nucleus that monitors blood temperature is located in the Select one: a. hypothalamus. b. midbrain. c. pons. d. thalamus. e. brainstem. Question 17 Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following cranial nerves is exclusively sensory? Select one: a. vestibulocochlear (VIII) CORRECT b. hypoglossal (XII) c. trochlear (IV) d. facial (VI) e. trigeminal (V) Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "B" represent? Select one: a. temporal lobe b. cerebellum c. frontal lobe d. occipital lobe e. parietal lobe Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus? Select one: a. initiates voluntary movements b. involved in psychosomatic illnesses c. control of balance d. unconscious swinging of the arms while walking e. perception of sensation Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system? Select one: a. hypothalamus b. midbrain c. pons d. thalamus e. brainstem [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 13 Quiz Integration of Nervous System Functions (100% CORRECT) A++
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 13: Integration of Nervous System Functions Started on Friday, September 10, 2021, 8:21 AM State Finished Completed on Frida... [Show More] y, September 10, 2021, 8:51 AM Time taken 30 mins 37 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A nurse is caring for a patient who exhibits the following symptoms: (1) inability to maintain balance while walking (2) normal intelligence (3) can initiate voluntary movements although they are somewhat uncoordinated. (4) decreased tone in the skeletal muscles The patient is probably suffering from a condition that affected the Select one: a. midbrain. b. cerebellum. c. basal ganglia. d. cerebral cortex. e. brainstem.Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Two tracts found within the extrapyramidal system are the Select one: a. rubrospinal and corticospinal. b. spinothalamic and tectospinal. c. vestibulospinal and rubrospinal. d. corticobulbar and vestibulospinal. e. corticospinal and corticobulbar. Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel area "C" on the cerebral cortex. Select one: a. visual cortex b. primary motor cortexc. primary somatic sensory cortex d. motor speech area (Broca area) e. sensory speech area (Wernicke area) Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Brain waves associated with information processing or problem solving are ____ waves. Select one: a. alpha b. beta c. delta d. theta e. kappa Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Damage to Wernicke area would result in Select one: a. facial paralysis. b. facial tics. c. aphasia. d. "seeing stars".e. apraxia. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The region of the limbic system that is involved in the feeling of satisfaction with sex and feeding behaviors is the ______. Select one: a. amygdala b. cingulate gyrus c. hippocampus d. thalamus Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel area "A" on the cerebral cortex. Select one: a. visual cortex b. primary motor cortexc. primary somatic sensory cortex d. motor speech area (Broca area) e. sensory speech area (Wernicke area) Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The right cerebral hemisphere Select one: a. receives sensory input from the left side of the body. b. is the dominant hemisphere for speech in most people. c. tends to be smaller than the left cerebral hemisphere. d. contains no association areas. e. is not connected to the left cerebral hemisphere. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? Select one: a. learning to play the harp. b. keeping time with music c. sleep-wake cycle d. coordination of skeletal muscles Question 10Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textLabel area "B" on the cerebral cortex. Select one: a. visual cortex b. primary motor cortex c. primary somatic sensory cortex d. motor speech area (Broca area) e. sensory speech area (Wernicke area) Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Vision is dependent upon Select one: a. chemoreceptors. b. photoreceptors. c. thermoreceptors. d. mechanoreceptors. e. nociceptors. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is a somatic sense?Select one: a. smell b. taste c. touch d. sound e. sight Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Mechanoreceptors respond to Select one: a. compression of receptors. b. irritation of nerve endings. c. light striking the receptors. d. binding of molecules to membrane receptors. e. a change in temperature. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is a visceral sensation? Select one: a. painb. touch c. temperature d. proprioception e. balance Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The pain a person experiences with acute appendicitis results from stimulating nerve endings called Select one: a. painreceptors. b. internoreceptors. c. visceroreceptors d. proprioceptors. e. appendoreceptors. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Receptors that in general do not produce an action potential, but can release neurotransmitters in response to a receptor potential are Select one: a. phasic receptors. b. primary receptors.c. secondary receptors. d. tonic receptors. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Upper motor neurons Select one: a. are found in the visual cortex. b. control skeletal muscles. c. are responsible for planning voluntary movements. d. are located in the prefrontal area. e. control smooth muscle. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Specialized muscle fibers associated with detection of muscle length are Select one: a. muscle spindles. b. Pacinian corpuscles. c. Ruffini end organs. d. Golgi tendon organs. e. Merkel disks.Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following pairs is mismatched? Select one: a. visceroreceptors - associated with organs b. adaptation - decreased sensitivity to continued stimulus c. projection - sensation is perceived at the site of the stimulus d. proprioceptors - information about body position e. cutaneous receptors - associated with the viscera Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textMatch the function with the appropriate structure. The diagram illustrates sensory nerve endings in the skin. What is the function of "E"? Select one: a. detects deep pressure, vibration, and proprioceptionb. responds to painful stimuli c. responds to light touch and superficial pressure d. detects touch, involved in 2-point discrimination e. detects continuous touch or pressure [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 14 Quiz The Special Senses (100% correct ANSWERS) GUARANTEED A+
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 14: The Special Senses Started on Friday, September 10, 2021, 9:02 AM State Finished Completed on Friday, September 10, 2021... [Show More] , 9:27 AM Time taken 24 mins 46 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Identify the type of hair cells of the spiral organ that are responsible for hearing. Select one: a. inner hair cells b. outer hair cells c. inner and outer hair cells Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text Which auditory ossicle is attached to the tympanic membrane? Select one: a. labyrinth b. incas c. malleus d. stapes e. oval window Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The most sensitive taste buds are found in _____ papillae. Select one: a. formate b. filiform c. fungiform d. vallate e. foliate Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What ion(s) cause(s) depolarization in olfactory neurons? Select one:a. Na+ b. Ca2+ c. K+ d. Both Na+ and K+ e. Both Na+ and Ca2+ Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text More sound volume is perceived when Select one: a. sound wave amplitude increases. b. action potentials from hair cells are blocked. c. sound wave amplitude decreases. d. sound wave frequency decreases. e. sound wave frequency increases. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Arrange the following to reflect the correct sequence an action potential would follow to reach the olfactory cortex of the brain: (1) olfactory bulb (2) olfactory cortex (3) olfactory epithelium (4) olfactory tractSelect one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 3, 4, 1, 2 c. 1, 4, 2, 3 d. 3, 1, 4, 2 e. 4, 3, 2, 1 Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Humans are able to distinguish several million shades of color because Select one: a. humans have large retinas. b. humans have binocular vision. c. they have many different types of cone cells. d. different proportions of cone cells respond to each wavelength of light. e. humans have more cones than rods. Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text What is the function of the inner hair cells? Select one: a. The inner hair cells are responsible for hearing.b. The inner hair cells regulate the tension of the basilar membrane. c. The inner hair cells protect the external auditory canal. d. The inner hair cells detect chemicals in saliva; they are responsible for our ability to taste. Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following cranial nerves would cause a person discomfort when getting dental work done? Select one: a. optic b. facial c. abducens d. trigeminal e. vagus Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following functions is carried out by both aqueous and vitreous humor? Select one: a. cleanses the eye b. nourishment of the eye c. refraction of light raysd. generation of a visual image e. control the amount of light entering the eye Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is part of the spiral organ (organ of Corti)? Select one: a. modiolus b. vestibule c. tectorial membrane d. scala tympani e. chorda tympani Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The sensation of hearing occurs when sensory impulses from the ears are transmitted to the auditory cortex in the __________lobe from the _________nerve. Select one: a. occipital; trochlear b. occipital; vestibulocochlear c. temporal; trochlear d. temporal; vestibulocochlear e. parietal; abducensQuestion 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The transparent anterior portion of the sclera is the Select one: a. iris. b. retina. c. cornea. d. choroid. e. pupil. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The main factor affecting depth of focus is the Select one: a. convergence. b. accommodation. c. shape of the lens. d. size of the lens. e. size of the pupil. Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text The sense of taste is called Select one: a. olfaction. b. perception. c. gustation. d. tastant. e. mastication. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor? Select one: a. More air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium. b. Impulses originate slowly in the olfactory epithelium. c. The tissue needs more time in contact with the odor. d. Threshold for odor detection is high. e. Receptors in the olfactory epithelium are highly specific. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text A branch of the ___________ nerve transmits taste sensations from anterior two-thirds of the tongue, except vallate papillae. Select one: a. Medulla oblongata b. Facial nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Chorda tympani Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Damage to the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in loss of Select one: a. taste. b. sight. c. hearing. d. balance. e. smell. Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Neurons synapsing on the hair cells of the maculae and the crista ampullaris have cell bodies in the Select one: a. superior colliculus. b. vestibular ganglion. c. superior olivary nucleus. d. medial geniculate nucleus. e. cochlear ganglion. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Light and dark adaptation involves Select one: a. pupillary reflexes. b. variations in rod and cone function. c. changes in the amount of available rhodopsin. d. pupillary reflexes and changes in the amount of available rhodopsin. e. pupillary reflexes, variations in rod and cone function and changes in the amount of available rhodopsin. [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 15 Quiz Autonomic Nervous System (100% CORRECT) GUARANTEED A+
BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 15: Autonomic Nervous System Started on Friday, September 10, 2021, 10:11 AM State Finished Completed on Friday, September 1... [Show More] 0, 2021, 10:36 AM Time taken 24 mins 44 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic impulses to the Select one: a. salivary glands. b. lacrimal glands. c. smooth muscle of the eyes. d. thoracic and abdominal viscera. e. thyroid gland. Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Stimulation by the autonomic nervous system results in increased insulin secretion from the pancreas during and after a meal. The following are most likely to be true. Select one: a. increased insulin secretion is due to parasympathetic stimulation b. acetylcholine agonists will stimulate insulin secretion c. increased insulin secretion is due to sympathetic stimulation d. increased insulin secretion is due to adrenergic agonists e. increased insulin secretion is due to parasympathetic stimulation and acetylcholine agonists will stimulate insulin secretion Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following occurs when the parasympathetic system is stimulated? Select one: a. increased blood pressure b. increased motility of the digestive tract c. increased metabolism d. increased heart rate e. decreased motility of the digestive tract Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question textThe figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "B" represent? Select one: a. sympathetic nerveb. increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors c. glossopharyngeal nerve d. decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors e. vagus nerve Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT an effect of parasympathetic action? Select one: a. increased tear production b. increased motility of the intestines c. increased metabolism d. increased gastric secretion Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors, Select one: a. Na+ channels open. b. Ca2+ channels open. c. adrenaline is released. d. G proteins mediate the cell's response.e. Na+ channels are closed. Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Identify structure "D" on the above diagram. Select one: a. autonomic ganglion b. somatic motor neuron c. effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract) d. postganglionic neuron e. preganglionic neuron Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text What part of the brain is in overall control of the ANS? Select one: a. medulla oblongata b. hypothalamus c. thalamus d. cerebrum Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Has greater influence during physical activity Select one: a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text The two divisions of the ANS have antagonistic effects on each of the following EXCEPT Select one: a. the diameter of the blood vessels in skeletal muscles b. the diameter of bronchioles in the lungs c. gastrointestinal peristalsis d. heart rate e. the eye Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. The sympathetic division diverges more than the parasympathetic division. b. Increased parasympathetic activity is consistent with increased physical activity. c. One division of the ANS is always stimulatory and the other is always inhibitory. d. Structures receiving both dual autonomic innervation are regulated equally by both divisions. e. There is dual innervation of all organs. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textMatch the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Stimulation of this system often activates many effectors at the same time Select one: a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic Question 13 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Can produce widespread sweating Select one: a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Inhibits heart rate but stimulates contraction of urinary bladderSelect one: a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Match the phrase to either the sympathetic or parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Craniosacral division Select one: a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Parasympathetic ganglia are called ____ ganglia. Select one: a. pelvic b. chain c. collateral d. terminal e. dorsalQuestion 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a means of parasympathetic innervation of effectors? Select one: a. spinal nerves b. abdominal nerve plexuses c. pelvic splanchnic nerves and pelvic nerve plexuses d. cranial nerves to the head and neck e. vagus nerve and thoracic nerve plexuses Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question textThe figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart. What does "C" represent? Select one: a. sympathetic nerveb. increase in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors c. glossopharyngeal nerve d. decrease in blood pressure detected by carotid baroreceptors e. vagus nerve Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Atropine causes the pupil of the eye to dilate by blocking the effect of muscarinic receptors. This means atropine is a(n) Select one: a. ganglionic blocking agent. b. beta-adrenergic blocking agent. c. alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. d. parasympathetic blocking agent. e. parasympathomimetic agents. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which effector has no innervation with parasympathetic nerves? Select one: a. eye b. pancreas c. heartd. blood vessels [Show Less]
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Straighterline BIO 201 Topic 16 Quiz Functional Organization of the Endocrine System (100% CORRECT)
Page path BIO201_MH_V3 Topic 16: Functional Organization of the Endocrine System Started on Friday, September 10, 2021, 10:43 AM State Finished... [Show More] Completed on Friday, September 10, 2021, 11:20 AM Time taken 36 mins 44 secs Grade 35.00 out of 35.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text When a hormone binds to a membrane–bound receptor and activates G proteins, Select one: a. ion channels could be opened. b. IP3 may be activated. c. cyclic AMP production may be increased. d. DAG may be activated. e. All of the choices may occur from activated G proteins. Question 2 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Most endocrine glands communicate with their target tissues using _____ signals. Select one: a. frequency-modulated b. amplitude-modulated c. pitch-modulated d. resonance-modulated Question 3 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following occurs when a hormone binds to a nuclear receptor? Select one: a. activation of cyclic AMP b. activation of mRNA synthesis c. increased lipid synthesis by ribosomes d. opens membrane channels e. alters membrane permeability Question 4 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text All of the following chemical messengers may be listed in multiple functional classes except Select one: a. Eicosanoids b. Epinephrine c. Prostaglandins d. Acetylcholine Question 5 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Receptors for most lipid-soluble hormones are located Select one: a. in the cytoplasm of their target cells. b. on the plasma membrane of their target cells. c. in the lysosomes of their target cells. d. on the nuclear membrane of their target cells. e. in the nucleus or cytoplasm of their target cells. Question 6 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Parathyroid hormone is released when blood calcium levels decrease. This is an example of control by __________ stimuli. Select one:a. hormonal b. neural c. humoral d. visceral Question 7 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text A chemical produced in a cell that activates specific processes in response to a hormone interaction with a membrane-bound receptor is referred to as a(n) _____. Select one: a. hormone response element b. transcription factor c. messenger RNA d. intracellular mediator Question 8 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text In general, the response of target cells to endocrine stimulation is _______ than their response to nervous stimulation. Select one: a. faster and briefer b. slower and more prolonged c. more accurated. more restricted to a small area of the body e. more intense Question 9 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Increased testosterone levels reduce the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the anterior pituitary. This is an example of Select one: a. inhibition of hormone release by humoral stimuli b. inhibition of hormone release by neural stimuli c. inhibition of hormone release by external stimuli d. inhibition of hormonal release by environmental stimuli e. inhibition of hormone release by hormonal stimuli Question 10 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text David has been feeling tired lately, and after having blood work completed, it shows elevated TSH, low iodine, and low thyroid hormone levels. Predict the possible cause from the choices below. Select one: a. David could possibly have a thyroid tumor. b. David may have iodine deficiency that is causing his thyroid to produce too little thyroid hormone.c. David could have a pituitary gland tumor. d. Too little information is given to determine the cause. Question 11 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of the endocrine system? Select one: a. Regulates the rate of metabolism. b. Controls development and functions of the reproductive system. c. Regulates equilibrium and balance from the inner ear. d. Prepares the body for physical activity and stress. e. Regulates heart rate and blood pressure. Question 12 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text All of the following are regulatory functions of the endocrine system except Select one: a. labor contractions. b. development of tissues. c. immune functions. d. metabolic rate. e. thermoregulation. Question 13Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of the endocrine system? Select one: a. Regulates water balance by controlling the solute concentration of the blood. b. Regulates skeletal muscle contraction strength. c. Regulates satiation and the breakdown of food into individual nutrients. d. Regulates the rate of metabolism. e. Regulates the levels of nutrients such as glucose in the blood. Question 14 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text Which of the following situations might be the result of hypersecretion of glucocorticoids? Select one: a. weight loss b. hypoglycemia c. depression of the immune response d. increased plasma levels of ACTH e. proteins and fats are unused Question 15 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75Flag question Question text Describe the mechanism of action of thyroid hormones. Select one: a. These hormones interact with membrane signaling proteins. b. Thyroid hormones bind to molecules of the cytoskeleton in the cell cytoplasm. c. Thyroid hormones bind to epithelial cell membranes that line the intestine. d. These hormones bind to molecules of the cytoskeleton in the cell cytoplasm. Question 16 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The hypothalamohypophysial portal system carries hormones from the Select one: a. anterior pituitary to the hypothalamus. b. posterior pituitary to the hypothalamus. c. hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. d. hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary. e. anterior pituitary to posterior pituitary. Question 17 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag questionQuestion text All of the following classes of hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex except Select one: a. mineralcorticoids. b. glucocorticoids. c. androgens. d. steroid hormones. e. water-soluble peptides. Question 18 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text The embryonic origin of the posterior pituitary gland is Select one: a. epithelium from the oral cavity. b. nervous tissue from the area of the hypothalamus. c. an outpocket of the nasal cavity. d. glandular tissue from the cerebrum. Question 19 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text During exercise, the energy necessary to sustain skeletal muscle cell contraction comes from Select one:a. increased insulin production. b. increased epinephrine and glucagon release. c. decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. d. storing glucose as glycogen. e. conservation of glucose. Question 20 Correct 1.75 points out of 1.75 Flag question Question text All of the following are changes due to age-related decreases in endocrine secretions, except Select one: a. decrease in muscle mass. b. decrease in bone mass. c. change in sleeping patterns. d. increased susceptibility to infection. e. inability to regulate blood glucose levels. [Show Less]
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