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CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHE... [Show More] M 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing/CHEM 120 Week 1 Answers- Metric Measurement- Chamberlain College of Nursing [Show Less]
1. Which of the following would be considered an ionic compound? a. CH4 b. SO c. LiCl d. N2O4 An ionic compound is formed between cations and anions. ... [Show More] Typically, the cation is a metal and the anion is a nonmetal. In this case LiCl is the ionic compound. 2. In general an ionic bond forms between atoms classified as: a. metals and nonmetals b. more than one metal c. transition metals d. more than one nonmetal Metals and nonmetals interact to form ionic compounds. 3. In an ionic bond electrons are: a. created b. destroyed c. shared d. Transferred In an ionic compound, electrons are transferred, forming a cation and an anion. The cation and anion are then held together by electrostatic forces (think opposites attract). 4. Which of the following would you classify as a polyatomic cation? a. NH4+ b. F- c. O2- d. OHPolyatomic ions are molecular compounds that have an overall, or net, charge. Cations are positively charged ions. NH4+ is a polyatomic cation. As we see in the examples of ionic bonds here, metals lose electrons, forming cations, while nonmetals will gain electrons, forming anions. The resulting charge differences hold the ionic compound together. Molecule Cation Anion Element that lost one or more valence electrons Element that gained one or more valence electron KF K + F - K F MgCl2 Mg2+ Cl- Mg Cl Li2O Li+ O 2- Li O Al2S3 Al3+ S 2- Al S FeCl3 Fe3+ Cl- Fe Cl As we see in the examples the charges of these molecules cancel out. Molecule Number of cations Charge of each cation Number of anions Charge of each anion Na2S 2 +1 1 -2 Mg3N2 3 +2 2 -3 AlBr3 1 +3 3 -1 You may recognize some of these simple ionic compounds on the back of food labels. The correct answers are Calcium oxide, Magnesium phosphide, Sodium iodide, Sodium phosphide, and Lithium sulfide. The crossover method is useful for determining the structure of ionic compounds. The correct answers are Mg3P2, Al2S3, Ca3P2 Aluminum Nitrite= Al(NO2)3 Ammonium Sulfate= (NH4)2SO4 Calcium Phosphate= Ca3(PO4)2 Ammonium Nitrate= NH4NO3 Sodium Phosphate= Na3PO4, Contact solution Sodium Chloride= NaCl, Skincare products Sodium Bicarbonate= NaHCO3, Deodorant 5. Which of the following would be considered an ionic compound? Select all that apply. a. CaSO4 b. CaO c. N3O6 d. Mg3P2 e. CF4 A good indication that you have an ionic compound is that you have the interaction between atoms classified as metals forming cations with those classified as nonmetals forming anions. Polyatomic ions can also act as cations or anions in ionic compounds. Mg3P2, CaO, and CaSO4 are all ionic compounds. The other options do not contain either a metal or a polyatomic ion. 6. What would be the name of the compound with the name Na2O? a. Sodium oxygen b. Sodium oxide c. Sodium Hydroxide d. Sodium dioxide For naming simple ionic compounds, we give the first atom the elemental name and the second atom uses the element name using the ~ide suffix. Na2O is sodium oxide. 7. Na3PO4 would be named as a. Trisodium phosphide b. Trisodium phosphate c. Sodium phosphide d. Sodium phosphate When naming an ionic compound containing a polyatomic ion, the polyatomic ion keeps the original name. We also do not use any prefixes in ionic compounds. Na3PO4 is sodium phosphate. 8. I would expect the compound NaBr to: (select all that apply) a. conduct electricity if dissolved in water b. dissolve in oil c. dissolve in water d. have a crystalline structure Be sure to review the properties of ionic compounds as they are different from the properties of other molecules you will be studying and we want to be able to contrast these properties. Ionic compounds dissolve in water, have crystalline structure, are hard/brittle, and conduct electricity in water. When naming an ionic compound containing a polyatomic ion, the polyatomic ion keeps the original name. If the nonmetal anion is an element, we instead use the ~ide suffix. Na3N is sodium nitride, NaNO3 is sodium nitrate, NaNO2 is sodium nitrite, NaBr is sodium bromide, and Na2CO3 is sodium carbonate. 9. What would be the chemical formula for Calcium Phosphate? a. CaPO4 b. CaPO42 c. Ca3P2 d. Ca3(PO4)2 When working with polyatomic ions, we want to be sure to use parenthesis to clearly show how many of that polyatomic ion we have in the chemical formula. Calcium phosphate is Ca3(PO4)2. 10. In the bond(s) within ionic compounds, what is holding the atoms together? a. Sharing of electrons b. Electrostatic attraction c. Hydrogen bonding d. Attraction between multiple metals When an ionic bond is formed, electrons are transferred from the species forming the cation (usually a metal) to the species forming the anion (usually a nonmetal). Once the electrons are exchanged, the ions are held together through electrostatic interaction. 11. In a reaction forming an ionic bond, which of the following would NOT be expected to occur? a. The transfer of two valance electrons from a metal to a nonmetal b. The sharing of two valance electrons between two nonmetals c. The transfer of a valance electron from a metal to a nonmetal d. The transfer of a valance electron from a metal to a polyatomic ion In the formation of an ionic bond, one or more electrons are transferred. Typically, this transfer happens from a metal to a nonmetal. The sharing of two valance electrons between two nonmetals is not expected to occur. 12. If an ionic bond forms between an atom of Al and an atom of N, how many valance electrons are transferred? a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3 Al has 3 valance electrons and N has 5 valance electrons. When 3 electrons are transferred to the N from the Al, both will have a full valance shell. 13. In an ionic compound, the total charge of the compound must balance out to: a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d. -2 The overall charge on an ionic compound must equal zero for a stable compound to form. 14. The compound nitrogen trifluoride would have what chemical formula? a. NF3 b. (NF)3 c. NF d. N3F When naming molecular compounds (compounds containing only covalent bonds), we use prefixes such as mono, di, and tri to show how many of each atom a molecule contains. Nitrogen trifluoride is NF3 15. Which of the pairs of atoms below would be expected to make covalent bonds? Select all that apply: a. Sodium and bromine b. Carbon and chlorine c. Hydrogen and oxygen d. Calcium and nitrogen Covalent forms tend to form between two atoms classified as non-metals. Sodium and calcium are both metals and so those choices are not correct. In a covalent bond, electrons are: a. transferred b. destroyed c. shared d. taken In covalent bonds, electrons are shared between the atoms within the bond. Covalent bonds form from atoms classified as non-metals. These atoms could be different, such as in N2O3, or the same, as is the case with S8. H2O and S2F10 also form covalent bonds. If a molecule contains a metal, we would expect an ionic bond instead of a covalent bond to form. 16. What is the chemical name of water, H2O? a. Trihydrogen monoxide b. Dihydrogen oxide c. Hydrogen oxide d. Dihydrogen monoxide Since there are two hydrogens and one oxygen, this would be dihydrogen monoxide. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons and is between nonmetals. There are only two electrons in each single covalent bond and the driving force for this bonding interactions is having a valance shell that needs additional electrons to fill. The correct answers are the I I sharing and the I F sharing. Two atoms of Phosphorous= Triple bond. Lithium and Bromine= Ionic bond (metal and nonmetal). Hydrogen and Chlorine= Single bond. Sulfur and Oxygen= Double bond. 17. Select all compounds that you would expect to contain covalent bonds. a. MgCl2 b. O3 c. Na3N d. C2H6 e. N4O6 Bonds between nonmetals tend to be covalent in nature as they share electrons. C2H6, N4O6, and O3 all contain covalent bonds. MgCl2 and Na3N both contain metals and so the bonds would not be covalent. 18. What type of bond would you expect to form between two oxygen atoms? a. Ionic bond b. Single covalent bond c. Double covalent bond d. Triple covalent bond As both oxygen atoms have two unpaired electrons, we would expect a double bond to form. 19. What is the name of the compound P2O5? a. Phosphorus oxide b. Phosphorus tetroxide c. Phosphorus oxygen d. Diphosphorus pentoxide The prefixes help us to determine chemical formula. P2O5 is diphosphorus pentoxide. 20. What is the chemical formula for nitrogen trifluoride? a. N2F2 b. NF c. NF3 d. N4F The prefixes help us to describe how many of each atom are in a molecular compound. Nitrogen trifluoride is NF3 21. Select the pairs of atoms you would expect to form single covalent bonds. Select all that apply. a. Two atoms of O b. O and S c. an atom of F and an atom of H d. H and Cl e. Two atoms of Cl Nonmetals with one unpaired electron tend to form covalent bonds. In this case you would expect H and Cl, Cl and Cl, and F and H to form single covalent bonds. 22. What shape would you expect the compound Hydrogen Fluoride to have? a. Pyramidal b. Tetrahedral c. Bent d. Linear Since there are only two atoms, and you can make a line between any two points, the shape of this molecule would be linear. 23. Which of the following substances would you not expect to dissolve in water? a. Salt b. Alcohol c. Sugar d. Oil You have likely noticed in the kitchen that oil and water to do not mix together. This has to do with hydrogen bonding. There are two electrons in each covalent bond. Nonmetals can also make double or triple bonds to one another, by making two or three covalent bonds between two atoms respectively. The correct one is: Hydrogen atoms each have 1 unpaired valence electron while an oxygen atom has 2 unpaired valence electrons. 24. Between an atom of hydrogen and an atom of oxygen, which do you think could make more covalent bonds? a. oxygen b. hydrogen Hydrogen only has one unpaired valance electron, each hydrogen atom can only make one covalent bond. As an oxygen atom has two unpaired valance electrons, each oxygen can make two single covalent bonds or one double covalent bond. Use the flow chart and Lewis Dot Structure to determine the shapes. CO2= Linear. NH3= Trigonal pyramidal. H2S= Bent. CCl4= Tetrahedral. PF3= Trigonal pyramidal. HCl= Cl. OP= O. NO= O. SeCl= Cl. FO= F. SCl= Cl. 25. Select all molecules that you would expect to contain one or more polar covalent bonds. Select all that apply. a. CF4 b. P2Br6 c. O3 d. CH4 e. NaF Polar covalent compounds have at least two different nonmetal elements, giving an electronegativity difference. Key to note here is that NaF is not considered polar because Na is a metal and covalent bonds are between non-metals. Also, CH4 is not considered polar as C and H have very similar electronegativity values. CF4 & P2Br6 are polar covalent compounds. The key to Lewis Dot Structure is to put the atom that can make the most covalent bonds, as determined by number of unpaired electrons, in the middle and then put all the other atoms around the center atom and match unpaired electrons until all have eight valance electrons (except for H which should have 2). S has two spots to fill and Br has one spot to fill each. This is the correct choice: 26. Which of the molecules below would you expect to participate in hydrogen bonding? Select all that apply. a. H2S b. NH3 c. CH4 d. HCl Hydrogen bonding occurs when polar molecules containing hydrogen interact with another molecule with a negative or partial negative charge to form an intermolecular interaction. H2S, NH3, and HCl have hydrogen bonds. Electron areas such as bonds and unpaired electrons will repel one another, resulting in the shapes. CF4= Tetrahedral PCl3= Trigonal pyramidal CH2S= Trigonal planar CO2= Linear SeF2= Bent 27. Select all molecules that you would expect to contain one or more polar covalent bonds. a. BrF b. N2O4 c. CaCl2 d. S8 e. CF4 Polar covalent bonding involves unequal sharing of electrons. Be sure to review electronegativity trends to help determine when there is unequal sharing of electrons, indicating a polar covalent compound. Also, be sure to note that ionic compounds are not classified as as polar compounds. BrF, N2O4, and CF4 have polar covalent bonds. 28. In which of the following molecules would you expect to contain nonpolar bonds. Select all that apply a. S8 b. HF c. H2S d. N2 Nonpolar covalent compounds involve near equal sharing of electrons. Be sure to review how lack of significant electronegativity differences results in the near equal sharing of electrons. N2 and S8 contain nonpolar bonds. 29. The double helix structure of or DNA is held together by a. Covalent bonds b. Ionic bonds c. Metal to metal bonds d. Hydrogen bonds Hydrogen bonds are an important intermolecular force that explains the boiling point and viscosity of water and is also involved in many important biological processes including holding bases in DNA together and protein folding. [Show Less]
CHEM 120 Week 3 Balancing Chemical Equations Questions and Answers- Chamberlain College Atlanta Balancing Chemical Equations WEEK 3 1. Sodium bromide re... [Show More] acts with calcium chloride to form sodium chloride and calcium bromide. Which of these chemical reactions represents the balanced reaction? a. NaBr + CaCl2 → NaCl + CaBr2 b. 2 NaBr + CaCl2 → 2 NaCl + CaBr2 c. NaBr + 2 CaCl2 → NaCl + 2 CaBr2 d. NaBr + CaCl → NaCl + CaBr Balanced chemical equations have the same number of each atom on each side of the arrow. This equation is correct: 2 NaBr + CaCl2 2 → NaCl + CaBr2 2. The small number 2 in H2O is called a(n): a. Atomic number b. Superscript c. Coefficient d. Subscript Subscripts tell you how many of an atom you have in a chemical formula. 3. Which of the following chemical equations violates the Law of Conservation of Mass? a. 2 H2 + N2 → 2 NH3 b. HCl + KOH → H2O + KCl c. NaCl + KBr → NaBr + KCl d. 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O Check each chemical reaction to determine the one that does not have the same number of each atom on each side of the chemical reaction. If a chemical equation violates the Law of Conservation of Mass, the atoms will not equal out on both sides. The correct answer is 2 H2 + N2 → 2 NH3. There are four atoms of H on the left, or reactant side while there are six atoms of H on the right, or products side. As matter cannot be create or destroyed in a chemical reaction, these are not this choice violates the Law of Conservation of Mass. 4. The Coefficients represent the number of molecules in a balanced chemical equation. The subscripts represent the number of atoms in a chemical formula. atomic numbers, Coefficients, subscripts, superscripts atomic numbers, coefficients, subscripts, superscripts The coefficients represent the number of molecules. The subscripts in a formula represent the number of atoms. 5. 4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(g) > 2 Fe2O3(s) In the equation, how many molecules of O2 are in the chemical equation? a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3 Coefficients show us how many molecules of a given compound are in a chemical equation. In this case there are 3 O2 molecules. 6. 4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(g) > 2 Fe2O3(s) How many total atoms of O are on the left side of the equation? a. 6 b. 5 c. 3 d. 2 The subscripts tell us how many of a molecule we have, and subscripts show how many atoms are in each molecule. This means that by multiplying the coefficient by the number of atoms of a given element in a molecule, we can determine how many atoms of that element. In this case there are 3 x 2 = 6 oxygen atoms. The coefficients show the number of molecules of a given compound. This equation is 2 H2(g) + 1 O2(g) > 2 H2O(g) 1 Ca 1 2 O 2 4 H 4 2 Br 2 3 Mg 3 3 S 3 3 0 O 30 2 Al 2 6 N 6 2 H2 + 1 O2 → 2 H2O 1 FeCl2(s) + 1 H2O(l) → 1 FeO(s) + 2 HCl(aq) 1 C4H8(g) + 6 O2(g) → 4 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) 2 NaHCO3(s)→ 1 Na2CO3 + 1 CO2(g) + 1 H2O(g) 2 NaOH(aq) + 1 MgCl2(aq)→ 2 NaCl(aq) + 1 Mg(OH)2(s) 6. Are these equations balanced or unbalanced? H2 + O2 > H2O Balanced Unbalanced H2 + O2 > H2O2 Balanced Unbalanced K + O2 > K2O Balanced Unbalanced Na + Cl > NaCl Balanced Unbalanced Balanced as written H2 + O2 > H2O2 Na + Cl > NaCl Not balanced as written H2 + O2 > H2O K + O2 > K2O 8. In the following chemical equation, which of the compounds are dissolved in water? Select all that apply AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) a. NaNO3 b. NaCl c. AgNO3 d. AgCl The symbols after the molecule indicate the state of matter. (aq) indicates aqueous compounds, so AgNO3, NaCl, and NaNO3 are all dissolved in water. 9. Balance the unbalanced chemical equation: ----S8(g) + ------ O2(g) → ---- SO3(g) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 Be sure to count up every atom on both the product and reactant side. A balanced equation is 1 S8(g) + 12 O2(g) → 8 SO3(g) 10. In the unbalanced chemical equation Fe2O3(s) + HNO3(aq) → Fe(NO3)3(aq) + H2O(l), how many oxygen atoms are on the product side of the reaction? a. 10 b. 7 c. 4 d. 6 e. 9 The first step of balancing a chemical equation is to find how many atoms of each element are on each side of a chemical reaction. Be sure to count up all atoms in each term for both products and reactants separately. Oxygen has 10 atoms on the product side of this equation. 11. Select all examples where the Law of Conservation of Mass is not being followed. a. H2SO4 + 2 NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2 H2O b. Mg3N2(s) + 3 H2O(l) → NH3(g) + 3 Mg(OH)2(s) c. 2 NaCl + MgBr2 → 2 NaBr + MgCl2 d. S8(g) + Ag(s) → 8 AgS When both sides of a chemical equation have the same number of each atom, the Law of conservation of mass is followed and the equation is balanced. Otherwise, the equation is unbalanced. The equations S8(g) + Ag(s) → 8 AgS and Mg3N2(s) + 3 H2O(l) → NH3(g) + 3 Mg(OH)2(s) are both unbalanced. 12. Balance the chemical equation: ------ C5H12 + ----- O2 → ----- H2O + ---- CO2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 Be sure to count all atoms on each side every time you change a coefficient. The balanced equation would be 1 C5H12 + 8 O2 → 6 H2O + 5 CO2 Stoichiometry Atomic mass is the lower left number on the periodic table and has units of g/mole. 13. If the balanced chemical reaction for the formation of Li2O is 4 Li(s) + O2(g) → 2 Li2O(s), how many molecules of Li2O(s) would you produce if you used up 6 atoms of Li(s)? a. 6 b. 12 c. 3 d. 2 Just like following a recipe, we can know how many of an ingredient (reactant) we need to make a specified amount of product according to a recipe (balanced chemical equation). You produce 3 molecules of Li2O(s) by using 6 atoms of Li(s). Use g/mol as the unit for molecular mass and make sure to count up all atoms in each molecule. MgCl2 Number of Mg atoms 1 Number of Cl atoms 2 Molecular Mass of MgCl2 95.21 g/mole Ca(OH)2 Number of Ca atoms 1 Number of O atoms 2 Number of H atoms 2 Molecular Mass of Ca(OH)2 74.1 g/mol (NH4)2S Number of N atoms 2 Number of H atoms 8 Number of S atoms 1 Molecular Mass of (NH4)2S 68.17 g/mol Complete the formula for the correct molecular weights: 32.00 g O2 / 1 mole O2 82.98 g Na3N / 1 mole Na3N 132.1 g Ca(NO2)2 / 1 mole Ca(NO2)2 157.9 g P2O6/ 1 mole P2O6 Use the method you learned previously to convert the following: Convert 3.8 grams of H2O into moles (Molar mass of H2O is 18.02 g/mol) 3.8 g H2O 1 mol H2O 0.21 moles H2O 18.02 g H2O Convert 9.6 moles of NaOH into grams (Molar mass of NaOH is 40.0 g/mol) 9.6 mol NaOH 40.0 g NaOH 384 g NaOH 1 mol NaOH The molar mass from the periodic table has units of grams per mole (g/mol). The units of mass are grams, which can be measured easily in a lab or similar. The units of moles are used in balanced chemical equations. Therefore, the molar mass from the periodic table can be used to relate what is measured in lab to what is written in balanced chemical equations. 14. My water bottle contains 500 grams of water, H2O. How many moles of water is this? a. 500 moles b. 18.00 moles c. 27.8 moles d. 9000 moles 500 grams of water, divided by 18.0 g/mol is 27.8 moles of water. 42 moles H2O 1 mole O2 21 moles O2 2 moles H2O Using the chemical formula CaO + 2 NaCl → Na2O + CaCl2, calculate how many moles of CaCl2 you would produce if you used up 5.4 moles of CaO? 5.4 moles CaO 1 mole CaCl2 5.4 mol CaCl2 1 mole CaO 15. What is the molecular mass of Ca3(PO4)2? a. 310.2 g b. 110.98 g c. 110.98 g/mol d. 310.2 g/mol The molecular mass of Ca3(PO4)2 is 310.2 g/mol. 16. If you have 9 moles of CaCl2 and all the Na3PO4 I needed, how many moles of NaCl could you produce? a. 9 moles b. 6 moles c. 18 moles d. 2 moles You could produce 18 moles of NaCl. 17. If you produced 5 moles of Ca3(PO4)2, how many moles of NaCl did you also produce? a. 30 moles b. 1/6 mole c. 1 mole d. 6 moles You would produce 30 moles of NaCl. 18. If you have 17 grams of NaCl, how many moles of NaCl do you have? a. 58.44 moles b. 2.83 moles c. 0.29 moles d. 17 moles You would have 0.29 moles of NaCl. 19. What is the molecular mass of Mg(NO2)2? a. 102.32 g/mol b. 116.31 g c. 116.31 g/mol d. 102.32 g Remember, molecular mass always has units of g/mole and we want to be sure to count every atom. The molecular mass of Mg(NO2)2 is 116.31 g/mol. 20. If you have 0.5 moles of NaCl, how many molecules of NaCl do you have? a. 6.022 x 1023 b. 3.011 x 1023 c. 1.204 x 1024 d. 58.44 Just as 12 makes a dozen, Avogadro’s number (6.022 x 1023) makes a mole. So, just like half of a dozen is 6, half of a mole is half of Avogadro’s number, 3.011 x 1023 21. Use the reaction below to determine how many moles of Al2S3 you would produce from fully reacting 15 moles of Ag2S: 3 Ag2S + 2 Al → 6 Ag + Al2S3 a. 15 moles b. 5 moles c. 1 mole d. 3 moles e. 6 moles You can perform mole to mole conversions using the ratios from a balanced chemical equation. Make sure that your units cancel. In this reaction you would produce 5 moles of Al2S3 22. If the molecular mass of methanol is 32.04 g/mol, what would be the mass of a 56.6 mole sample? a. 0.57 g b. 1813.46 g c. 32.04 g d. 1.77 g You can use molecular mass to convert from grams to moles. A 56.6 mole sample of methanol would have a molecular mass of 1813.46 g. Molecular weight has units of g/mol. Mass has units of grams. The balanced chemical equation has units of moles. One mole of C2H8 will react with 4 moles of O2 to yield 2 moles of CO2 and 4 moles of H2O. 23. After completing a certain chemical reaction, you should have 56 moles of water. What is the mass of this amount of water? a. 1008 g b. 18.0 g c. 3.1 g d. 2016 g Starting with 56 moles H2O and multiplying by 18.0 g H2O/mol H2O will give 1008 grams. 24. Given the following balanced equation, determine how many moles of O2 are needed to completely react with 8 moles of K: 4K + O2 > 2K2O a. 3.0 moles b. 4.0 moles c. 1.0 moles d. 2.0 moles The mole-mole ratio between O2 and K is 1 mol O2 = 4 moles K, so starting with 8.0 moles of K will yield 2 moles of O2. 25. Given the following balanced equation, determine how many moles of HCl will be produced from 4.2 moles of HOCl? 3 HOCl → HClO3 + 2 HCl a. 2.8 moles b. 1.5 moles c. 2.0 moles d. 6.3 moles Given 4.2 moles of HOCl and the mole-mole ratio from the balanced equation of 3 moles of HOCl = 2 moles HCl, multiply 4.2 moles HOCL by 2 moles HCl and divide by 3 moles HOCl to determine the answer: 2.8 moles HCl. Types of Solutions 26. Which of the following would be considered a solution? a. Mustard b. Soda water c. Table sugar dissolved in water d. Milk A solution consists of substances fully dissolved in other substances. Solutions also tend to be transparent. Table sugar in water is a solution. 27. If you were to dissolve 2.5 grams of NaCl in 150 g of water, You would call the NaCl the: a. solution b. solvent c. solute d. mixture In a solution, the solute is the small part that is dissolved and the solvent is what the solute is dissolved in. 28. Mix two liquids together and shake them up. You see that you have microscopic droplets of one liquid suspended in the other. You would call this: a. emulsion b. solution c. solvent d. solute An emulsion is a type of suspension where microscopic droplets of one liquid are dispersed within another liquid. 29. Think back to the cup of tea. Remove the teabag from the cup of tea. Do you think that this cup of tea is a homogenous solution or a heterogenous mixture? Assume when the teabag is removed, no tea leaves remain in the cup. a. Heterogenous b. Homogenous Assuming the tea leaves were removed, the composition of the tea in the cup would be uniform. This tea would therefore be considered a homogenous mixture we call a solution. Solution= Gas canister of oxygen and neon, Salt water, Bleach. Suspension= Urine sample with visible particles. Colloid= Whole blood, Proteins in blood. Emulsion= Butter, Homogenized milk. 29. Which of the following would you expect to have the greatest concentration? a. 5 grams of solute in 2 liters of solvent b. 6 grams of solute in 2 liters of solvent c. 4 grams of solute in 2 liters of solvent d. 3 grams of solute in 2 liters of solvent The more solute in a given amount of solvent, the more concentrated the solution. In this case, the greatest concentration would have 6 grams of solute in 2 liters of solvent. 30. If 20 ml of ethanol is mixed with 100 ml of water, the ethanol would be considered the: a. solution b. solvent c. solute d. suspension The solute is the small portion and the solvent is the major portion of the solution. Therefore, ethanol would be considered the solute. 31. Match each of the following with the term that best describes the mixture: Air --- Solution Blood --- Colloid Cream --- Emulsion Flour in water --- Suspension Each of these terms describes a mixture based on factors such as particle size, composition, dispersal, and transparency. Air= solution. Blood= colloid. Cream= emulsion. Flour in water= suspension. 32. I dissolve 1 gram of salt in 400 ml of hot water. I would call the resulting mixture a: a. Colloid b. Solute c. Solution d. Colloid Solutions are typically transparent and have solutions have a solute completely dissolved in a solvent. Dissolving salt in water results in a solution. Solution Chemistry 33. What is the mass/volume % concentration of a solution that consists of 5 grams of sugar dissolved in a solution with a volume of 140 ml? a. 0.28% b. 28% c. 3.57% d. 0.0357% Calculating mass/volume % is similar to how we determine our % grade on a test. The answer is 5 grams / 140 ml = 0.0357 = 3.57%. 34. I took 20 ml of a 7 % NaCl solution and added water to bring the total volume of the solution to 100 ml. The resulting solution has a concentration of 1.4 %. This process is known as: a. dilution b. solution c. condensation d. concentration The process of taking a concentrated solution and making the solution less concentrated is known as dilution. 35. The osmolarity of a 1 M NaCl solution would be: a. 3 Osm/L b. 2 Osm/L c. 1 Osm/L d. 4 Osm/L Osmolarity is molarity multiplied by the number of ions the dissolved solute breaks into in solution. Since each NaCl breaks down into a Na+ and a Cl-, we multiply 1 M by 2 ions to get 2 Osm/L. 36. Compute the following blood alcohol levels and classify as not impaired or impaired: 0.003 grams of alcohol in a 15 ml sample of blood 0.006 grams of alcohol in a 5 ml sample of blood 0.01 grams of alcohol in a 12 ml sample of blood 0.006 grams of alcohol in a 20 ml sample of blood Not significantly impaired (≤ 0.03% m/v) --- Impaired (≥ 0.08% m/v) --- 0.006 grams of alcohol in a 20 ml sample of blood, 0.003 grams of alcohol in a 15 ml sample of blood, 0.006 grams of alcohol in a 5 ml sample of blood, 0.01 grams of alcohol in a 12 ml sample of blood Both the volume of the solution and solvent mass have a large effect on the % mass/volume concentration. Use the formula mass of solute in gramssolution volume in ml×100% 0.003 grams in 15 ml & 0.006 grams in 20 ml are not significantly impaired, 0.01 grams in 12 ml & 0.006 grams in 5 ml are impaired. 37. Determine the % mass/mass concentration for a solution of 61 g of salt dissolved in 970 g of water. a. 6.3% b. 0.0063% c. 5.9% d. 0.0059% Always remember to add up the total grams on the bottom for mass/mass % and be sure to multiply by 100% in the last step. The answer is 5.9%. 38. A particular solution for administering glucose to patients with low glucose levels is 10% mass/volume glucose in water. Which of the following preparations would give a glucose solution with this concentration? Select all that apply. a. 5 g of glucose mixed with 50 grams of water b. 10 g of glucose mixed with 90 grams of water c. 5 g of glucose mixed with 45 grams of water d. 10 g of glucose mixed with 100 grams of water Be sure to take the total mass of the solution into account. The correct answers are 10 g of glucose mixed with 100 grams of water and 5 g of glucose mixed with 50 grams of water; % mass by volume is determined by: mass (g) / volume (ml) x 100%. 39. What would be the molarity of a solution made by dissolving 4.1 grams of NaCl (molecular mass: 58.44 g/mole) in water to a total volume of 0.4 liters a. 7.3 M b. 0.4 M c. 0.18 M d. 141.6 M Be sure to convert from grams to moles using the molecular mass. A common error is to use the molecular mass as the mole value, so be sure to avoid that. The answer is 0.18 M. 40. What is the % mass/volume concentration of a solution consisting of 36 grams of K2SO4 with a total solution volume of 0.6 L? a. 0.06% b. 1.6% c. 60% d. 6% e. 21.6% Be sure that your mass is in grams and your volume in in ml for % mass/volume. Also, be sure to always multiply by 100 % as a final step. The answer is 6%. 41. If I have 82 ml of a solution with a molarity of 5.3 M NaBr, how many ml of a 1.1 M NaBr solution can I prepare? a. 0.07 ml b. 17.0 ml 478.1 ml 395.1 ml Be sure to use the dilution equation when the situation calls for dilution. You can tell that dilution is needed here because we are going from a more concentrated solution to a less concentrated solution. The answer is 395.1 ml. 42. What is the % mass/mass of a methanol solution prepared by mixing 70 grams of ethanol and 800 grams of water? a. 0.08% b. 0.09% c. 8.05% d. 8.75% When determinizing solution concentration by looking at % by mass/mass, be sure that you add up the total mass of solution on the bottom. Also, be sure to always multiply by 100 %. The answer is 8.05%. 43. What is the Osmolarity of a 0.7 M KNO3 solution a. 3.5 Osm/L b. 1.4 Osm/L c. 0.35 Osm/L d. 0.7 Osm/L Be sure to review our polyatomic ions. Since we know that each KNO3 molecule will break down into K+ and NO3-, we see that each molecule breaks down into two ions. By multiplying number of ions with our molarity, we find our osmolarity. The answer is 1.4 Osm/L. 44. What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 6.0 grams of NaOH (molecular mass = 40.0 g/mol) to a total volume of 300 ml. a. 20.0 M NaOH b. 0.5 M NaOH c. 133.3 M NaOH d. 2.0 M NaOH We must always be sure that our amount of compound is in moles and our volume is in liters to calculate molarity. The way to convert from grams to moles is to use the molar mass from the periodic table. Be sure also to convert your volume to liters. The answer is 0.5 M NaOH. 45. What is the molarity of a solution that consists of 8.50 moles of HCl dissolved in 670.0 ml of solution? a. 78.8 M b. 0.127 M c. 12.7 M d. 5.7 M Molarity is a way to express the amount of moles of a substance per liter. The answer is 12.7 M. [Show Less]
CHEM 120 Week 4 Physical States of Matter Questions and Answers- Chamberlain College Atlanta Physical States of Matter WEEK 4 1. Match the term with the... [Show More] definition: Particles are tightly packed in a set pattern, with a fixed volume and shape. --- Particles are close together with no regular pattern of arrangements; has a set volume that will take the shape of the container it is placed in --- Particles are well separated with no arrangement, and does not have a set volume but rather adapts to the entire volume of the container it is placed in --- Liquid, Solid, Gas Solid: Particles are tightly packed in a set pattern, with a fixed volume and shape. Liquid: Particles are close together with no regular pattern of arrangements; has a set volume that will take the shape of the container it is placed in Gas: Particles are well separated with no arrangement, and does not have a set volume but rather adapts to the entire volume of the container it is placed in. As kinetic energy increases, particles move from a solid to a liquid to a gas state. 2. Oxygen, ------ is inhaled to the lungs, and brought into the blood, which is a ------ . Our bodies exchange the oxygen for carbon dioxide, which is a ------ . The carbon dioxide is forced out of lungs by increasing the pressure of the lungs. Solid, Liquid, Gas Solid, Liquid, Gas Solid, Liquid, Gas Oxygen gas is inhaled to the lungs, and brought into the blood, which is a liquid. Our bodies exchange the oxygen for carbon dioxide, which is a gas. The carbon dioxide is forced out of lungs by increasing the pressure of the lungs. 3. Is the quality associated with solids, liquids, or gases, or multiple? Note yes/no for each. Solid, Liquid, Gas Shape is fixed ---- Shape depends on container ---- Volume is fixed ---- Particles touch, with some but not much space between particles ---- Particles move through space easily, with much free space between particles ---- Yes No Quality Solid Liquid Gas Shape is fixed Yes No No Shape depends on container No Yes Yes Volume is fixed Yes Yes No Particles touch, with some but not much space between particles Yes Yes No Particles move through space easily, with much free space between particles No No Yes 4. Does the property apply to an ideal gas, non-ideal gas, or both? Ideal Gas ---- Non-ideal Gas ---- Both Ideal and Non-ideal Gas ---- Perfectly elastic collisions , Molecules in constant motion, Collisions can cause chemical reactions, Molecules have no volume Molecules do have a small volume, No attractions All gases are in constant motion, and this motion is proportional to their absolute temperature. In ideal gases, we make three assumptions: they undergo perfectly elastic collisions, the molecules themselves have no volume, and there are no attractive or repulsive forces between molecules. In real gases, the collisions can produce chemical reactions, and the individual molecules do have a small though insignificant volume. 5. Determine if the quality best describes solid, liquid, or gas state of matter. Can be compressed slightly by moderate pressure ------- Solid, Liquid, Gas Particles collide but otherwise do not interact ------ Solid, Liquid, Gas Shape remains rigid ------ Solid, Liquid, Gas Solids have a rigid shape, fixed volume, with constantly interacting/touching particles. Liquids can be compressed slightly by moderate pressure, particles flow and move around each other, and their shape depends on their container. Gases can be compressed with moderate pressure, their particles collide but otherwise do not interact, and their shape and volume fills the container. 6. As the number of collisions of an ideal gas increases, which of the following will also occur? a. the number of chemical reactions will increase b. the pressure will increase c. the gas will become compressed d. the temperature will increase e. the gas will become solid As the number of collisions of a gas increases, the temperature will increase because temperature is a relative measure of the number of collisions. Additionally, the gas molecules will collide more with the walls of the container, increasing the pressure. Ideal gases do not react on colliding, so number of chemical reactions will not increase. This will expand the volume if the container walls are flexible and will not compress the gas. 7. For ideal gases, the molecules themselves ___________, which is one assumption of the ideal gas law. a. will have no collisions b. will have no volume c. will have no pressure d. will have no temperature The molecules of an Ideal gases are assumed to have no volume themselves; this is an assumption, as the volume of the molecules themselves is negligible. This allows us to assume the volume of the gas is the volume of the container without subtracting about the infinitesimally small volume of the individual gas molecules. 8. Liquids and gasses both… a. can be poured b. have molecules that do not touch or interact c. have perfectly elastic collisions d. take the shape of the container they occupy Both liquids and gases take shape of the container: the liquids take the shape of the filled portion of the container, and gases will take the shape of the entire container. 9. We exhale CO2, a ------. We drink water which is a ------ . Our blood transports oxygen, a Solid, Liquid, Gas Solid, Liquid, Gas Solid, Liquid, Gas CO2 and O2 are gases, and water is a liquid. 10. In a hot air balloon, the flame is turned down. What is the result? a. the volume decreases b. the temperature decreases c. the pressure decreases d. the density increases As the flame is turned down, the temperature and pressure will decrease. Because this is a flexible container, the volume will decrease and cause the denisty of the gas to increase. 11. A rigid can of compressed air is used, releasing half of the contents. Which of the following is the result? a. the temperature decreased b. the pressure decreased c. the volume of the rigid can decreased The volume of the container will not change, due to the rigid container. The temperature and pressure will both decrease due to fewer number of collisions when half the volume of gas is released. Gas Laws 12. Consider inflating a balloon. As you inflate the balloon, which of the following is true? Select all that apply. a. the number of molecules of gas in the balloon increases b. the gas takes the shape of its new container c. the volume of the balloon increases d. the gas collides with the inside surface of the balloon e. there are fewer gas molecules in the balloon once it is inflated f. the balloon becomes smaller As you inflate a balloon, your breath increases the number of gas molecules in the balloon. These molecules will take the shape of the balloon by colliding with the inside surfaces. At the end, the volume of the balloon is larger than starting. Rearrange the formula to solve for the unknown in the following problem: This question is looking for the new pressure (P2), given an initial volume (V1), initial pressure (P1) and a new volume (V2) at a constant temperature. The formula used is Boyle’s law, P1V1 = P2V2. To solve for P2, divide both sides by V1. This gives the value of P2 = V1P1V2 13. At a constant temperature, a sample of gas occupies 1.5 L at a pressure of 2.8 ATM. What will be the pressure of this sample, in atmospheres, if the new volume is 0.92 L? a. 2.04 ATM b. 4.6 ATM c. 0.49 ATM d. 0.22 ATM Multiplying P1xV1 and dividing by V2, the answer is 4.56 atm. Charles’ Law describes the relationship between temperature and volume. Boyle’s law describes the relationship between pressure and volume. Avogadro’s Law describes the relationship between volume and number of moles of a gas. Combined gas las describes the relationship between pressure, temperature, and volume. When given initial volume and pressure, with no change in temperature, Boyle’s Law will apply. When given a scenario involving and changes to volume and temperature under constant pressure, Charles’ Law will apply. 14. Determine the new temperature in °C for a sample of neon with the initial volume of 2.5 L at 15 °C, when the volume is changed to 3550 mL. Pressure is held constant. a. 136 ºC b. 294 ºC c. 409 ºC d. 21.3 ºC d. -252 ºC Plugging the given values for T1 (15 C + 273 = 288 K), V1 (2.5 L), and V2 (3550 mL = 3.550 L) into the rearranged equation gives a value of T1 of 409 K. To convert back to C, subtract 273: 409 – 273 = 136 C. 15. Match the units to each of the following variables in the Ideal Gas Law Pressure (P) ---- Temperature (T) ---- Volume (V) ----- Number of moles (n) ---- L, mm Hg, C, mL, F, atm, K, mol, mmo Pressure (P)= atm. Temperature (T) = K. Volume (V)= L. Number of moles (n)= mol. 16. Calculate the pressure, in atm, of 0.0158 mole of methane (CH4) in a 0.275 L flask at 27 °C. a. 0.13 atm b. 1.6 atm c. 0.71 atm d. 1.4 atm This question requires the ideal gas law because this looks at multiple parameters of an ideal gas at one point in time. Temperature must be converted from Celsius to K. n = 0.0158 mol, V = 0.275 L, T = 27 °C = 300 K, R = 0.08211 Latm/mol-K. Solving for pressure, divide both sides by volume. P = x = 1.4 atm 17. The conditions for STP are: 1 K and 0 atm 273 K and 0 atm 273 K and 1 atm 0 K and 1 atm STP is standard temperature and pressure. Standard temperature is 0 °C and 1 atm. In Kelvin, this would be 273 K and 1 atm. 18. You have 33.6 L of neon gas at STP. How many moles is this? a. 22.4 moles b. 11.2 moles c. 1.5 moles d. 752.64 moles Using the STP equivalency of 1 mole = 22.4 L, we can solve for number of moles by dividing the given volume, in Liters, by 22.4 L. 19. The relationship of 22.4 L to 1 mole at STP is true for: a. any gas b. only noble gases c. only oxygen gas d. only halogen gases This relationship is true for all gases at STP. 20. You are using your hot air balloon to travel. At constant pressure, you decrease the temperature of the gas by turning down the flame. What do you expect to happen to the volume of the 400 L balloon as the temperature decreases? a. more information is needed to make a determination b. more than 400 L; as temperature decreases the volume will increase c. about the same as 400 L; temperature alone does not affect volume d. less than 400 L; as temperature decreases, volume also decreases This is an application of Charles’ law: at constant pressure, volume and temperature are proportional. As temperature decreases the volume will also decrease. 21. A sample of nitrogen (N2) has a volume of 50.0 L at a pressure of 760 mmHg. What is the volume of gas at a pressure of 1500 mmHg if there is no change in temperature? a. 96.7 L b. 0.010 L c. 25 L d. 0.040 L This question requires Boyle’s law, which involves changes in pressure and volume at constant temperature. P1 = 760 mmHg, V1 = 50 L, P2 = 1500 mmHg, V2 = x= 25 L. 22. As you breathe in, your diaphragm ------ , increasing the volume of your lungs and ------ the pressure in your lungs. As a result, the volume of the lungs will increase. Compresses, Drops (expands) Decreasing, Increasing As you breathe in your diaphragm will drop (expand), increasing the volume of your lungs and decreasing pressure in the lungs. This drop in pressure is coupled to an increase in volume, and air will rush into the lungs. Exhaling is the opposite, when the diaphragm contracts and increases pressure to expel air by decreasing volume of the lungs. 23. A sample of helium gas has a volume of 6.5 L at a pressure of 1.11 atm and a temperature of 25 °C. What is the pressure of the gas in atm when the volume and temperature of the gas sample are changed to 1850 mL and 325 K, respectively? a. 4.25 atm b. 0.235 atm c. 0.300 atm d. 173.5 atm This question requires the use of the combined gas law and convert volumes to units of L, pressure to units of atmospheres (done for you), and temperatures to K. P1= 1.11 atm, V1= 6.5 L, T1= 25 °C = 298 K, V2= 1850 mL = 1.85 L, T2 = 325 K, P2= x= 4.25 atm. 24. A gas in a balloon has a volume of 4.0 L at 0 °C. You move the balloon and measure the new volume as 6.5 L. What is the final temperature, in °C? a. -273 °C b. 171 °C c. 443.6 °C d. 0 °C It is important to convert the temperature to Kelvin in all gas law problems. This problem looks at a gas under changing volume and temperature, so Charles‘ law is used. V1 = 4.0 L; T1 = 0 C = 273 K; V2 = 6.5 L; T2 = x = 171 C 25. In the gas laws, the units of the amount of gas (n) is moles, the units of pressure are ------ , the units for volume are ------ , and the units of temperature are ------. mm Hg, atm, mL, L, °C, K mm Hg, atm, mL, L, °C, K mm Hg, atm, mL, L, °C, K The units for pressure are ATM, volume is L, and temperature is K in the Gas Laws. This is reflected in the gas constant, R, which has untis of L*atm/K*mol. 26. You are inflating a balloon using a helium tank at constant temperature and pressure. The helium tank ------ the number of moles in the balloon, causing the volume to ------. Decreases, increases Decrease, increase The helium tank is adding molecules of gas to the balloon as it inflates, increasing the number of moles as well as the volume. Rank the following gases by the number of moles they would contain at STP, greatest to least. 27. 30 L of helium gas, 0.5 moles of oxygen gas, 67.2 L of nitrogen gas. Nitrogen Helium Oxygen Using the relationship of 22.4 L = 1 mole for any gas at STP, we know that 30 L of helium gas is the same as 1.34 moles and 3.0 moles of nitrogen gas. This gives the order from greatest amount to least amount as 3.0 moles nitrogen > 1.37 moles helium > 0.5 moles oxygen 28. A sample of hydrogen gas occupies 250 mL at 90 mmHg. For a gas sample at 25°C, determine the number of moles of hydrogen present in the sample. a. 826.4 moles b. 0.00121 moles c. 10,962 moles d. 0.0000912 moles e. 0.920 moles This question requires use of the Ideal Gas Law. The volume should be converted to 0.250 L, the pressure should be converted from 90 mm Hg to 0.118 atm, and the temperature should be converted from 25 C to 298K. The value for R is constant: 0.0821 L*atm/K*mol. Rearrange the formula to solve for moles: n = PV/RT = (0.118 atm)(0.250L) / (298K)(0.0821 L*atm/K*mol) = 0.00121 moles. Acids-Bases 29. Which of the following solutions would you classify as basic? a. A solution with a pH of 7 b. A solution with a pH of 6 c. A solution with a pH of 9 d. A solution with a pH of 4 Acidic solutions have pH values below 7 and basic solutions have pH values above 7. 30. Which of the solutions below do you believe would have the most H+ ions in solution? a. A solution with a pH of 4 b. A solution with a pH of 7 c. A solution with a pH of 6 d. A solution with a pH of 9 The lower the pH value, the more H+ ions are present in solution as the lower the pH value, the more acidic the solution. 31. Which of the following would you expect to be acidic? a. Ammonia b. Bleach c. Baking soda solution d. Lemon juice Soda, most fruit juices, and vinegar are just a few of the acids that you may have seen in your day to day life. Acidic foods and drinks tend to taste sour. 32. Select the acid in this reaction: LiOH + HBr → H2O + LiBr LiOH, HBr, H2O, LiBrSelect the acid , , , , HBr is the acid in this reaction. 33. Select the base in this reaction: HCl + NH3 → NH4+ + ClHCl, NH3, NH4+, ClNH3 is the base in this reaction. 34. Select the acid in this reaction: HBr + H2O → H3O+ + BrHBr, H2O, H3O+, BrHBr is the acid in this reaction. 35. Classify the following reactions: Strong Acid --- Weak Acid --- Strong Base --- Weak Base --- LiOH → Li+ + OHHCN + H2O CN- + H3O+ ⇔ NH4+ + OH- NH3 + H2O ⇔ Ca(OH)2 → Ca2+ + 2 OHHBr + H2O → Br- + H3O+ H3PO4 + H2O H2PO4- + H3O+ ⇔ Strong Acid = HBr + H2O → Br- + H3O+ Weak Acid= HCN + H2O CN- + H3O+ & H3PO4 + H2O H2PO4- + H3O+ ⇔ ⇔ Strong Base= Ca(OH)2 → Ca2+ + 2 OH- & LiOH → Li+ + OHWeak Base= NH4+ + OH- NH3 + H2O ⇔ 36. Complete the following reaction: HClH2OLiClLiOH, +, HClH2OLiClLiOH, →, HClH2OLiClLiOH, +, HClH2OLiClLiOH Acid, , Base, , Water, , Salt The Li+ released from the LiOH and the Cl- released from the HCl will from the salt LiCl. These reactions always form a water and a salt: 37. Use the measured pH values and H3O+ concentrations of the solutions below to sort from most basic to most acidic: pH 12 pH 10 1 x 10-7 M H3O+ 1 x 10-6 M H3O+ pH 5 pH 2 1 x 10-1 M H3O+ Acidic solutions have a high concentration of H+ ions while basic solutions have a low concentration of H+ ions. In terms of pH, the lower the pH value, the more acidic the solution. 38. Which of the following reactions shows a strong acid? a. in water: NaOH → Na+ + OHb. HI + H2O → H3O+ + Ic. NH4+ + H2O NH3 + H3O+ ⇔ d. NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH- ⇔ Acids donate a proton in a chemical reaction. Strong acids dissociate completely in water. The correct answer is: HI + H2O → H3O+ + IWhat is acting as the base in this chemical reaction? 39. H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4- a. H3O+ b. H2SO4 c. HSO4- d. H2O Acids donate H+ ions and bases accept H+ ions. Be sure that for the base you are choosing the reactant that will accept the H+ ion in the reaction. In this case H2O is the base. 40. Match each pH value with the correct H3O+ concentration. pH 4 --- 1 x 10-4 M H3O+ pH 5 --- 1 x 10-5 M H3O+ pH 7 --- 1 x 10-7 M H3O+ pH 9 --- 1 x 10-9 M H3O+ pH 12 --- 1 x 10-12 M H3O+ Please note that the inverse of the exponent in the H3O+ concentration gives the pH. As pH goes up H3O+ concentration goes down and as pH goes down, H3O+ concentration goes up. 41. For the neutralization reaction, what would be the products? Select all that apply. Al(OH)3 + 3 HBr → a. 1 AlBr b. 3 H2O c. 3 AlBr d. 3 AlOH e. 3 OHf. AlBr3 Water and salt are always formed from neutralization reactions. Be sure that the salt, as an ionic compound, has an overall neutral charge. In this case the reaction is Al(OH)3 + 3 HBr → 3 H2O + AlBr3 42. In the reaction: NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH-, what is acting as an acid as we go from right to lef? ⇔ a. NH4+ b. NH3 c. OHd. H2O An acid is the species that donates an H+ ion. Please note that we want to pick the molecule that has one less H than the compound started with on the indicated side. The acid is NH4+ 43. In water, HF dissociates partially in water according to the reaction HF + H2O H3O+ + F ⇔ -. I would classify this compound as a: a. Weak base b. Strong base c. Weak acid d. Strong acid Weak acids donate protons, but do not dissociate completely. The reaction can go both ways. Remember, “strong” means decisive. Buffers 44. If I add a drop of acid to a beaker of buffer solution, I would expect the pH of the solution to: a. drastically increase b. stay mostly the same c. slightly increase d. drastically decrease Buffers will resist change in pH, even with the addition of small amounts of acid or base. 45. Which of the below is an example of a buffer? a. Salt water b. Lemon juice c. Tea d. Contact solution Buffers contain both an acid and base. Contact solution typically contains a phosphate buffer to keep contact coatings near the pH of the human eye. Buffers resist pH change, as in Solutions 1 & 3. This is not always perfect, as we can see in the case of solution 1. 46. Match each of these acids or bases to their corresponding conjugate acid or base. H3PO4 ⇒ CH3COOH ⇒ H2CO3 ⇒ OH- ⇒ CN- ⇒ PO43- ⇒ HPO42- H3PO4 HCN N3- H2PO4- HCO3- CO3- H2O H3O+ CH3- CH3COOCH3COH H3PO4 ⇒ H2PO4 - CH3COOH CH ⇒ 3COOH2CO3 HCO ⇒ 3 - OH- H ⇒ 2O CN- HCN ⇒ PO4 3-⇒ HPO4 2- 47. When a drop of a strong acid is added to a buffer solution, the pH of the solution would ----because the H+ ion from the acid would be ------. Increase, decrease, stay about the same incorporated into, excluded from, the buffer system A buffer system resists pH change by neutralizing and incorporating small amounts of acid or base into the system. 48. If you were trying to prepare a buffer with ammonia, NH3, what would be the substance that you would likely add along with NH3 to prepare the buffer system? a. NH4+ b. NH2- c. CNd. NH3+ A conjugate acid/base pair differ from one another by a single H atom. Together, a conjugate acid/base pair can form a buffer system. You would pair NH3 with NH4+ to form a buffer. 49. To a small, 50 ml sample of buffer, 100 ml of concentrated strong base solution are added. You should expect the pH of this solution to: a. Be fully neutralized b. Stay the same c. Increase d. Decrease While buffers are able to resist pH change by neutralizing and incorporating small amounts of strong acid or base, they have limits. In this case, we see a very large amount of base added to a buffer system, overpowering the buffer effect, so you would expect an increase in the pH. 50. You are trying to determine which unlabeled solutions are buffers by adding a few drops of acid to each and measuring the change in pH. Based on the data below, which solutions would you classify as buffers? Select all that apply. Number of drops of strong acid added Solution W Solution X Solution Y Solution Z 0 (initial pH) 6.32 pH 5.44 pH 7.58 pH 8.84 pH 1 6.31 pH 5.00 pH 7.02 pH 8.84 pH 2 6.32 pH 3.14 pH 6.37 pH 8.83 pH 3 6.32 pH 2.21 pH 3.01 pH 8.84 pH a. Solution W b. Solution X c. Solution Y d. Solution Z Buffers resist pH change, so we would expect no significant change in the pH of a buffer solution when a small amount of acid was added, while unbuffered solutions would have a noticeable decrease in pH value. Solutions W and Z resisted a change in pH and so are buffers. The ------- buffer system found in blood, works to maintain the pH of blood at a pH range between 7.35 and 7.45. If the buffer system is overwhelmed and the pH value of blood goes above 7.45, ------ would occur. Carbonate, cyano Acidosis, alkalosis The carbonate buffer system in our blood resists pH change, preventing, in most cases spikes or drops in pH outside of normal values. Acidosis is caused by a drop in blood pH, while alkalosis is due to an increase in blood pH beyond acceptable levels. [Show Less]
CHEM 120 Week 5 Oxidation Reduction Questions and Answers- Chamberlain College Atlanta WEEK 5 Oxidation-Reduction 1. Redox reactions involve a transfer ... [Show More] of: a. Neutrons b. Nucleons c. Protons d. Electrons Electrons are exchanged in a redox reaction. 2. If iron reacts with oxygen gas in the reaction 2 Fe(s) + O2(g) → 2 FeO(s), what is oxidized in this reaction? a. O2 b. No oxidation is occurring here c. FeO d. Fe In a redox reaction, the atom being oxidized often accepts an oxygen atom. Iron is oxidized in this reaction as the Fe is joined to an oxygen. 3. Oxidation involves the loss of electrons while reduction involves the gain of electrons. Consider a reaction where a Li+ is converted into Li. Do you think that this Lithium atom gained or lost an electron? a. gained electron b. lost electron As electrons are lost, charge becomes more positive and we call this process oxidation. As electrons are gained, the charge on an atom becomes more negative and is called reduction. Li+ has to gain an electron to become Li (more negative). 4. In the following reactions, indicate if the species is oxidized or reduced: Mg2+ becomes Mg --- Reduced Oxidized, Reduced O becomes O2- --- Reduced Oxidized, Reduced Fe2+ becomes Fe3+ --- Oxidized Oxidized, Reduced F becomes F- --- Reduced Oxidized, Reduced Cu becomes Cu+ --- Oxidized Oxidized, Reduced H becomes H+ --- Oxidized Oxidized, Reduced We can tell if electrons were lost or gained based on the change of charge. Mg2+ becomes Mg = Reduced O becomes O2- = Reduced Fe2+ becomes Fe3+ = Oxidized F becomes F- = Reduced Cu becomes Cu+ = Oxidized H becomes H+ = Oxidized 5. Choose the correct agent in each of these reactions: --- O2(g) Mg(s) + O2(g) → MgO Select the oxidizing agent: Mg(s), O2(g), MgO CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g) Select the reducing agent: --- H2(g) CuO(s), H2(g), Cu(s), H2O(g) 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) Select the reducing agent: --- 2 Na(s) 2 Na(s), Cl2(g), NaCl(s) You can determine oxidizing and reducing agents based on the change in charge. Mg(s) + O2(g) → MgO The oxidizing agent is O2(g) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g) The reducing agent is H2(g) 2 Na(s) + Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) The reducing agent is 2 Na(s) 6. If a species accepts electrons from another reactant in a chemical reaction, this species is: (select all that apply) a. Oxidizing agent b. Reducing agent c. Being oxidized d. Being reduced We use the transfer of electrons to determine the redox character of the reactants. Remember, LEO goes GER. Also note, reducing agents reduce another species in a chemical reaction, while oxidizing agents oxidize another species in a chemical reaction. In this case, if a species accepts electrons from another it is being reduced. 7. Which metal is being oxidized based on the reaction? Cu(s) + Ag+(aq) → Cu+(aq) + Ag(s) a. Cu(s) b. Ag+(aq) c. Cu+(aq) d. Ag(s) Loss of electrons is oxidation. Since electrons have a -1 charge, losing electrons leads to more positive charges while gaining electrons leads to more negative charges. In this case, Cu loses an electrons (becomes more positive) and so is the one being oxidized. 8. What would be the oxidizing agent in the reaction 2 Ag(s) + O2(g) → Ag2O(s) a. Ag(s) b. O2(g) c. Ag2O(s) d. This is not a redox reaction Oxygen is often an oxidizing agent. 9. An important reaction in metabolism involves NAD+. In the reaction, what compound would be considered the oxidizing agent: NAD+ + 2 H → NADH + H+ a. NAD+ b. H c. NADH d. H+ Oxidizing agents accept electrons, which in this case is NAD+ Organic Chemistry- Hydrocarbons 10. Two carbon atoms are bonded directly together, and each have one single bond to a hydrogen. This will require three more bond(s) to meet the bonding requirements of carbon, and will be accomplished by a triple bond. One, two, three, four Single, double, triple, quadruple Because each carbon has one bond, it will need three other bonds to meet the four bond requirement of carbon. This will be accomplished by a triple bond. 11. Match the correct root (prefix) to the number of carbons in the chain 1 --- Meth2 --- Eth- 3 --- Prop4 --- But6 --- Hex8 --- OctOct-, Non-, Eth-, Prop-, Dec-, Pent-, Hex-, But-, Hept-, MethThe prefix for 1 carbon is meth-; for 2 is eth-; for 3 is prop-; for 4 is but-; for six is hex-; for eight is oct-. 12. How many carbons are in butane, often used in cooking fuel? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 The root “but” tells us there are four carbons, and the suffix “-ane” tells us this carbon chain contains only carbon-carbon single bonds. 13. How many carbons are in methane, a common greenhouse gas expelled from cattle? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 The root “meth” tell us there is only one carbon in this carbon chain. The carbon is typed first and its attached atoms are typed immediately following. We know in organic chemistry each carbon will have four total bonds and will bond in carbon chains. When there are carbon-carbon single bonds, there will be three hydrogens attached to carbons on the end and two on carbons in the middle of molecules. For double or triple bonds, there will be fewer than three hydrogens on the end and fewer than two hydrogens attached to middle carbons. Each additional bond will remove two H: one from each carbon where the double bond is found. 14. Which of the following will show the difference in structure between isopropanol (rubbing alcohol) and propanol? Select all that apply. a. Condensed structural formula b. Molecular weight c. Extended structural formula d. Molecular formula The way to determine a difference in structure is through a structural formula such as the extended structural formula, or the condensed structural formula. Molecular formula or molecular mass will be identical for isomers, which have different structures but identical formulas. 15. Which of the following contains triple bonds? a. butene b. butane, butene, butyne c. butane d. butyne Hydrocarbons containing triple bonds are called alkynes, and will have the suffix ‘-yne’ in the name. 16. Determine if the hydrocarbon is saturated or unsaturated. Alkene --- unsaturated Saturated, unsaturated Alkyne --- unsaturated saturated unsaturated Alkane --- Saturated saturated unsaturated Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated. Benzene and cyclohexane both are hexagons; benzene will have double bonds every other carbon, whereas cyclohexane will have only single bonds. Cyclopentane is a pentagon with carbon-carbon single bonds. Naphthalene is a bi-cyclic structure that looks like two benzene rings fused together. Cyclic hydrocarbons are saturated and include cyclohexane and cyclopentane. Aromatic hydrocarbons are unsaturated, and include phenol and benzene. 17. Which of the following contains double bonds? a. CH2CHCH2CH2CH3 b. hexyne c. methane d. ethene e. CH3CH2CH2CH3 Hydrocarbons containing double bonds will have the suffix -ene in the name, and will have one fewer hydrogen in the condensed structural formula compared to an alkane: the alkenes will have CH2 on end carbons and/or CH on middle carbons. 18. Drag the compound to its correct classification: cyclic hydrocarbon or aromatic hydrocarbon. Aromatic Hydrocarbon --- Benzene, Phenol Cyclic Hydrocarbon --- Cycloheptane, Cyclopentane Cycloheptane, Benzene, Phenol, Cyclopentane Cyclic compounds are named with the prefix “cylco-” such as cycloheptane or cyclopentane. Aromatic compounds include benzene, phenol, and naphthalene. 19. Which of the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon containing seven carbons? a. heptene b. hexane c. mutane d. benzene e. pentene The root for seven is "hept-" and the unsaturated hydrocarbon will be an alkene or alkyne. The name heptene shows it is an unsaturated chain of seven carbons. 20. Determine if the compound is saturated or unsaturated: Benzene --- Unsaturated Saturated, Unsaturated Propyne --- Unsaturated Saturated, Unsaturated Methane --- Saturated Saturated, Unsaturated Propane --- Saturated Saturated, Unsaturated Saturated hydrocarbons include the alkanes. These have names that end in the –ane suffix. Unsaturated hydrocarbons include alkenes and alkynes. These have names that end in the –ene or –yne suffixes, respectively. 21. The compound with a condensed structure of CH3CCCH2CH3 has 5 carbons and has a triple bond. The name will be pent yne. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 single, double, triple meth, eth, but, prop pent ane, ene, yne CH3CCCH2CH3 has five carbons total, meaning the root is pent. This has triple bonding because two middle carbons are missing two H each, giving the suffix yne. The name will be pentyne. 22. Choose the correct condensed structure from the name: hexene. a. CHCCH2CH3 b. CH3CHCHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CHCHCH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 Hexene will have six carbons and a double bond, from the “hex” root meaning six and the – ene suffix. The double bond in a condensed structure has one less H on each of the involved carbons. CH2CH2 will have a double bond to fulfill the four bond requirement of carbon. This molecule contains four carbons and one double bond. It’s name is butene, and its condensed structural formula will follow the extended structural formula: CH3CHCHCH3 23. Due to its electron configuration and valence shell electrons, carbon can form 4 bonds, nitrogen can form 3 bonds, and oxygen can form 2 bonds. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 1, 2, 3 ,4, 5 Carbon will form four bonds, nitrogen will form three, and oxygen will form two bonds. 24. Carbons can form carbon-carbon links, also known as __________, that can be linear or cyclic. a. carbon connections b. carbon chains c. carbon bridges d. triple bonds e. root number Carbon has the unique property to bond to itself, resulting in carbon chains. Organic Chemistry- Functional Groups 25. Choose the correct number of total bonds for each of the atoms below: Carbon ---4 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Oxygen ---2 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Nitrogen ---3 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Hydrogen ---1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Based on the number of unpaired valence electrons, Carbon will require 4 bonds, Oxygen requires 2 bonds, Nitrogen requires 3 bonds, and Hydrogen requires 1 bond. For naming, remember to first name the hydrocarbon as if it were an alkane, drop the –e, and then add an –ol ending. Isomers have a different arrangement, so Isopropanol will have the –OH located in the middle rather than on the end carbon. In propanol, the –OH group is located on the end carbon. Aldehydes are carbonyls on the beginning or end carbon. Ketones are carbonyls on a middle compound. Note, the minimum number of carbons to have a ketone is three because that is the first opportunity to have a middle carbon. 26. Match the structural formula to the correct name: CH3CH2CHO --- propanal CH3COCH2CH3 --- butanone CH3CHOHCH2CH3 --- ethanal CH3CHO --- butanol CH3COCH3 --- propanone CH3CH2OH --- ethanal Propanal, Butanone, Ethanal, Butanol, Ethanol, Butanal, Propanone, Ethanone CH3CH2CHO= Three carbons and -CHO give the name propanal CH3COCH2CH3= Four carbons and –CO- in the middle give the name butanone CH3CHOHCH2CH3= Four carbons and –OH in the middle (shown as CHOH in the structural formula) give the name butanol CH3CHO= Two carbons and -CHO on the end give then name ethanal CH3COCH3= Three carbons and –CO- in the middle give the name propanone CH3CH2OH= Two carbons and –OH on the end give the name ethanol 27. Which of the following is a carboxylic acid? a. CH3CH2COOH b. CH3CHOHCH3 c. CH3CH2CHO d. CH3CH2COCH3 The carboxylic acid is identified by –COOH in the condensed structural formula. CH3CH2COOH has this group. Consider the number of carbons in each chain when choosing, and remember that water is a product of this reaction. The resulting ester is from propanoic acid and butanol due to its final structure: the acid chain contains two oxygens, the alcohol chain contains only one oxygen. + → + 28. Match the structural formula to the correct name. Isopentanol --- CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 pentanoic acid --- CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH ethyl propanoate --- CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 Pentanone --- CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3 ethyl propyl ether --- CH3COCH2CH2CH3 CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3, CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 , CH3COCH2CH2CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH, CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 CH3CH2COOCH2CH3 = This compound has an ester group; the alcohol (ethanol) is named first, followed by the acid (propanoic acid). The name is ethyl propanoate for the ester. CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH = This compound has five carbons and a carboxylic acid functional group. Its name is pentanoic acid CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 = This compound has an ether functional group. The chains contain two carbons (eth) and three carbons (prop). Arranging the chains alphabetically, the name will be ethyl propyl ether CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3 = This compound contains an alcohol in the middle of a fivecarbon chain, and is named isopentanol CH3COCH2CH2CH3 = This compound is a ketone with 5 carbons, and its name is pentanone. 29. Which of the following is the correct name for this halocarbon: CH3CH2F a. difluoroethane b. monofluoroethane c. difluoromethane d. fluoroethane This structure has two carbons and one fluorine, so the name is fluoroethane. Use the base name of the compound along with a prefix in front of the halogen name showing how many halogens you have incorporated. (Eg. di for 2, tri for 3, etc). 30. What is the name for this molecule: CH3CH2CH2NH2 a. propylamine b. butyl amine c. methylamine d. ethyl amine This structure has three carbons and an amine group. The name is propyl amine. 31. What is the name for this molecule: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 a. heptyl amine b. hexyl amine c. propylamine d. pentylamine This structure has six carbons and an amine group. The name is hexyl amine. 32. Match the function to the compound: Nail polish remover --- Propanone Preservative for biological tissue --- Methanal Lighter and torch fuel --- Butane Characteristic component of vinegar --- Ethanoic acid Important organic solvent, formerly used as an anesthetic --- Diethyl ether Component of butt --- Butanoic acid Sterilization, also consumed as an intoxicant, commonly found in hand sanitizer --- Butanoic acid Fruity flavoring agent --- Methyl butanoate Methyl butanoate, Methanal, Diethyl ether, Butane, Ethanoic acid, Butanoic acid, Ethanol, Propanone Propanone= Nail polish remover Methanal= Preservative for biological tissue Butane= Lighter and torch fuel Ethanoic acid= Characteristic component of vinegar Diethyl ether= Important organic solvent, formerly used as an anesthetic Butanoic acid= Component of butter Butanoic acid = Sterilization, also consumed as an intoxicant, commonly found in hand sanitizer Methyl butanoate= Fruity flavoring agent Match the function to the organic compound. 33. Used to remove permanent marker and as a household disinfectant Smells nice, perfume --- Fuel --- Propane Vinegar --- Ethanoic acid Propane Octyl ethanoate Propane Ethanoic acid Propane is saturated hydrocarbon used as a fuel. Octyl ethanoate is an ester that smells nice and is used for perfumes. Isopropyl alcohol, also known as rubbing alcohol, is used as a household disinfectant. Ethanoic acid is another name for vinegar. 34. What functional group is shown here: CH3COCH3 a. ether b. ketone c. alcohol d. carboxylic acid e. aldehyde The –CO- in CH3COCH3 shows this is a ketone. 35. What functional group is shown here: CH3CHOHCH3 a. alcohol b. aldehyde c. ketone d. ether e. carboxylic acid The -OH in CH3CHOHCH3shows this is an alcohol 36. What functional group is shown here: CH3CH2CHO a. carboxylic acid b. ketone c. alcohol d. ether e. aldehyde The –CHO in CH3CH2CHO shows this is an aldehyde. 37. What functional group is shown here: CH3CH2COOH a. alcohol b. ketone c. ether d. aldehyde e. carboxylic acid The –COOH in CH3CH2COOH shows this is a carboxylic acid. 38. Name this compound: CH3COCH2CH2CH3 a. pentanol b. pentanal c. pentanone d. propyl ethanoate e. ethyl propyl ether Group = ketone. Chain = 5 carbons. Name = pentanone 39. Name this compound: CH3CH2CH2CHO a. butanal b. butanone c. butanoic acid d. butanol e. butyl methyl ether Group = aldehyde. Chain = 4 carbons. Name = butanal 40. Name this compound: CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH2CH3 a. hexanoic acid b. hexanol c. butyl ethyl ether d. hexanone e. butyl ethanoate Chain = 4 carbons; But- prefix. Group= Ether. Name= Butyl Ethyl Ether 41. Name this compound: a. ethanoic acid b. ethyl ether c. ethyl amine d. ethane e. methyl amine Group = amine. Chain = 2 carbons. Name = ethyl amine. 42. What functional group is shown: a. alcohol b. ether c. ketone d. ester This is an ether 43. What is the name of the molecule shown: a. butanone b. methyl propanoate c. methyl propyl ether d. propyl methanoate This is named methyl propyl ether, by putting the two chains in alphabetical order. 44. Which is the correct condensed formula for difluoropropane? a. CH2F2 b. CH2CHF2 c. CH3CH2CHF2 d. CH3CH2F2 e. CH3CH2F The formula CH3CH2CHF2 matches the name difluoropropane. Organic Chemistry- Applications 45. What atom do all organic molecules have in common? a. Oxygen b. Carbon c. Phosphorus d. Nitrogen Organic molecules contain hydrocarbons as their base, and always contain carbon atoms. 46. Which type of organic molecules are relatively stable and unreactive? a. Carboxylic acids b. Alkanes c. Alkenes d. Alcohols Alkanes are relatively stable and unreactive. They make excellent fuels for this reason. 47. Natural chemicals are safer than synthesized chemicals. a. True b. False It is a common misconception that natural compounds are inherently safe. Plants are known to make toxic chemicals, and industrial chemicals are not necessarily harmful. Dosage is the most important consideration in determining safe or unsafe, rather than natural and unnatural. 48. The safety of a chemical is closely related to a. how many carbons it contains b. how natural it is c. how organic it is d. the dosage in which it is used Dosage is more important to consider than source, as natural water and natural snake venom are both deadly in high enough amounts. 49. What is the function of carbohydrates? a. hormones b. energy storage c. nonpolar and found in butter d. component of muscles Carbohydrates function primarily as a source of energy as well as energy storage 50. What functional group is found in amino acids? a. alcohols b. amines c. alkanes d. cyclic hydrocarbon rings Amino acids have amine functional groups, as well as carboxylic acids. 51. Examples of steroids include a. glucose b. muscles c. testosterone d. butanoic acid Many of the hormones in the human body are steroids including estrogen and testosterone. 52. Which of the following molecules are nonpolar? a. proteins b. muscles c. cell membranes d. butanoic acid e. carbohydrates The nonpolar fats will not dissolve in water, such as butter and cell membranes. 53. Match the molecule name to the application. Preservative for biological tissue --- Methanal Nail polish remover --- Propanone Lighter and torch fuel --- Butane Important organic solvent, formerly used as an anesthetic --- Diethyl ether Component of butter --- Butanoic acid Fruity flavoring agent --- Propanone Sterilization, intoxicant, found in hand sanitizer --- Ethanol Butanoic acid, Butane, Diethyl ether, Propanone, Ethanol, Methyl butanoate, Methanal Butane= Lighter and torch fuel Butanoic acid= Component of butter Propanone= Nail polish remover Propanone = Fruity flavoring agent Ethanol= Sterilization, intoxicant, found in hand sanitizer Methanal= Preservative for biological tissue Diethyl ether= Important organic solvent, formerly used as an anesthetic 54. Which compound is used for tissue preservation? a. methanal b. alcohols c. phenol d. methanol Methanal is formaldehyde, and used for tissue preservation. 55. Which compound is used for disinfection? a. CFCs b. ethanol c. propanone d. isopropyl alcohol e. phenol Alcohols are used for disinfection due to their toxic properties. The alcohols here have –ol endings to the names: ethanol, isopropyl alcohol, and phenol. 56. Which compound is used for fuel? a. propane b. CFCs c. phenol d. propanone e. butane The alkanes are often used for fuels, such as propane and butane. 57. Which compound was used as a propellant and refrigerant until it was found that it caused a chain reaction in the ozone layer? a. methanal b. isopropanol c. CFCs d. phenol e. steroids CFCs were used as refrigerants and propellants, but have largely been replaced with other halocarbons due to the chain reaction chlorine causes with ozone. 58. Which compound(s) is often used as a solvent? a. propanone b. isopropyl alcohol c. ethanol Propanone, isopropyl alcohol, and ethanol are all used as solvents. 59. Which two classes of compounds are commonly consumed by humans? a. esters b. ethanol c. ethers Esters give flavors to many candies and fruits, and alcohol can be consumed and cause intoxication. 60. When using hand sanitizer, you are likely using which class of organic molecules as a disinfectant? a. halocarbons b. cyclic hydrocarbons c. alcohols d. carbonyls Alcohols are disinfectants and solvents. 61. The toxicity of alcohols causes intoxication. Which alcohol is produced through fermentation and consumed? a. methanol b. phenol c. isopropanol d. ethanol Ethanol is the alcohol that is produced in fermentation and is the component of beer, wine, and spirits that causes intoxication. 62. Natural compounds found in the human body include: a. phenol b. protein c. halocarbons d. carbohydrates e. steroids Natural compounds in the human body include the macromolecules and steroids. Macromolecules include carbohydrates and proteins here, as well as fatty acids. 63. Which compound would be preferred to flavor candy? a. methanaldehyde b. octyl acetate c. halocarbons d. cyclic hydrocarbons Esters such as octyl acetate give flavor to candy. Octyl acetate specifically has an orange flavor. 64. Steroids found in the human body are best classified as a. halocarbons b. ethers c. alcohols d. cyclic hydrocarbons e. esters Steroids are considered cyclic aromatic hydrocarbons because they contain three sixmember rings fused with a five-member ring. 65. Match the function with the most likely compound: Refrigerant --- Halocarbons Scents and flavorings --- Methyl salicylate Steroidal hormone --- Testosterone, Antiseptic for surgery --- Phenol Component of butter and cell membranes --- Fatty Acid Fuel --- Butane Halocarbons, Fatty Acid, Testosterone, Methyl salicylate, Phenol, Butane Fatty acids are nonpolar and found in butter as well as in the cell membrane. Esters such as methyl salicylate (wintergreen) are used for scents and flavoring. Alkanes such as propane and butane are fuels for grills and stoves. Halocarbons such as CFCs and HFC are used as refrigerants and propellents. The first antiseptic for surgery was phenol, used by Joseph Lister. Testosterone and estrogen are two examples of steroidal hormones in the body. [Show Less]
CHEM 120 Week 6 Laws of Thermodynamics- Chamberlain College Atlanta WEEK 6 Laws of Thermodynamics 1. Which of these would you classify as an exothermic ... [Show More] process? a. Ice melting b. Wood burning c. Evaporation of alcohol d. Photosynthesis Heat is released in exothermic reactions , like burning wood, and absorbed in endothermic reactions. 2. Which of these processes would not be possible? a. Energy spontaneously flows from a hot object to a cool one b. Two liquid chemical are mixed together and the temperature of the mixture rapidly cools c. Energy is transferred in a chemical reaction Energy cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction. 3. For each of the situations, determine if the observed behavior is a consequence of the first or second Law of Thermodynamics: Situation, Select Law As a rocket takes off, energy in the fuel is converted into kinetic energy, heat, and light., --- 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics An ice cube melts on a hot day., --- 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics On a hot day, you turn on the oven, causing the room to become even hotter., --- 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics Turning on a computer results in electricity being converted into mechanical work, heat, and light., --- 1st Law of Thermodynamics, 2nd Law of Thermodynamics The first law has to do with the transfer of energy from one form to another and the second law has to do with the spontaneous and irreversible flow of energy from hot to cold. Examples of the 1st Law are the conversion of rocket fuel into kinetic energy, heat, and light; and the electricity for a computer into mechanical work, heat, and light. Examples of the 2nd Law are ice melting and room heating from a working oven. 4. Match the reaction to the type: Endothermic --- Photosynthesis, Chemical Ice Pack, Iron Melting, Methanol Evaporating. Exothermic --- Water Freezing, Mixed Chemicals producing Heat, Water Condensing, Burning Gas Iron melting, Two chemicals are mixed together, producing heat, Methanol evaporating , Photosynthesis, Burning gasoline, Water condensing on a cool surface, Water freezing, A chemical ice pack Endothermic Reactions: Photosynthesis, Chemical Ice Pack, Iron Melting, Methanol Evaporating. Exothermic Reactions: Water Freezing, Mixed Chemicals producing Heat, Water Condensing, Burning Gas 5. When a cool penny is placed in a hot car in the summer, the heat flows spontaneously from the interior of the car to the Penny, in an illustration of the 2nd Law of thermodynamics. Penny, interior of the car Penny, interior of the car 1 st, 2nd Heat flowing from the hot car interior into the cool penny is an example of the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics. 6. Sort the following process as exothermic or endothermic: Endothermic --- Carbon dioxide converts from a solid to a gas, A pair of chemicals are mixed together in a beaker and the beaker becomes cold, Exothermic --- Wood burns in a bonfire , Your body digests food for energy, generating excess heat , On a humid day water condenses on a cool surface Wood burns in a bonfire, Your body digests food for energy, generating excess heat, On a humid day water condenses on a cool surface, Carbon dioxide converts from a solid to a gas, A pair of chemicals are mixed together in a beaker and the beaker becomes cold Energy from system to surroundings is exothermic and energy from surroundings to system in endothermic. Thus, Endothermic reactions are carbon dioxide moving from a solid to a gas and mixing chemicals that become cold. Exothermic reactions are burning wood, digesting food, and condensation. 7. When sodium hydroxide is dissolved in water within a beaker, you observe that the beaker becomes warm. This situation illustrates: a. The 2nd Law of Thermodynamics b. The 1st Law of Thermodynamics c. An exothermic reaction 5. Select all the following situations that you would classify as endothermic processes: a. Lava cools and becomes a solid b. Hand sanitizer evaporating c. Ammonium nitrate dissolves in water and the solution becomes cold d. Butane combusts to give a flame in a lighter The endothermic reactions are hand sanitizer evaporating and ammonium nitrate dissolving and the solution becomes cold. Radiation 8. Which of the following are types of electromagnetic radiation? a. Alpha particles b. Light c. X-rays d. Radio waves Electromagnetic reactions do not have mass, so alpha particles are not electromagnetic. 9. Which type of radiation would you consider ionizing radiation? a. Gamma rays b. Microwaves c. Sound waves d. Visible light 10. Ionizing radiation can alter the electron structure of an atom, causing an ion to form. Gamma rays are ionizing radiation. Which of the following procedures in healthcare involve the use of radiation to take images? a. Temperature measurements using thermometers b. CT scans c. Pulse measurements d. X-ray Radiation is used extensively in healthcare for imaging as well as treatment. CT scans and X-rays both involve radiation. 11. Is the type of radiation ionizing or non-ionizing? Ionizing --- Gamma rays, X-rays Non-ionizing --- Microwaves, Infrared, Microwaves, Infrared, Visible light Microwaves, Infrared, X-rays, Visible light, Gamma rays, Radio waves Ionizing radiation is higher in energy with shorter wavelengths while nonionizing radiation is lower in energy with longer wavelengths. X-rays and Gamma rays are ionizing; Microwaves, infrared, visible light, and radio waves are non-ionizing. 12. Classify the sources of radiation as ionizing or non-ionizing: Ionizing --- CT scan, High energy UV lamp, Radon, The sun Non-ionizing --- Microwave ovens, Cell phones The sun Microwave ovens High energy UV lamp CT scan Radon Cell phones These are sources of radiation we can encounter in our day to day lives. Ionizing radiation sources include high energy UV lamps, CT scans, the sun, and radon gas. Non-ionizing sources include microwave ovens and cell phones. 13. Select all that would be considered sources of ionizing radiation. a. Microwave ovens b. Radon gas c. Cell phones d. CT scans Recognizing the sources of radiation in your day to day life helps you to make informed decisions about exposure. CT scans and radon gas are both sources of ionizing radiation. 14. This type of radiation cannot remove electrons from atoms or molecules: a. Particulate b. Ionizing c. Non-ionizing d. Electromagnetic Understanding the categories of radiation can help us to understand the properties of different types of radiation. Non-ionizing radiation does not remove electrons. 15. Determine if each of the following electromagnetic radiation types is ionizing or non-ionizing: Ionizing --- Gamma rays, Radio waves Non-ionizing --- Infrared Radio waves Gamma rays Infrared Shorter wavelengths of light are high in energy and able to ionize while longer wavelengths are lower in energy and not able to ionize. Infrared and radio waves are both non-ionizing, while gammy rays are ionizing. 16. Radiation that has mass and can cause atoms and molecules to become charged would be classified as: a. Ionizing b. Particulate c. Electromagnetic d. Non-ionizing Understanding the categories of radiation can help us to understand the properties of different types of radiation. Ionizing and particulate are both classifications of radiation that can cause atoms and molecules to become charged. 17. In the field of healthcare, ionizing radiation is used for: a. CT scans b. Measuring heart rate c. Temperature measurements d. Measuring blood pressure Ionizing radiation is used for mainly imaging and radiation therapy in healthcare. CT scans are a type of imaging used in healthcare and is ionizing. Radioactive Isotopes 18. The atomic symbol of an element can be determined from the: a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Neutron number d. Mass number The atomic number gives the number of protons and determines the identity of the atom. 19. Which of the subatomic particles below are found in the nucleus of the atom? Select all that apply. a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Isotope Protons and neutrons are found in the core of the atom. 20. Which type of radiation would penetrate most deeply into your body? a. Beta electron b. Gamma c. Beta positron d. Alpha Gamma decay produces highly penetrating gamma particles. 21. Using the descriptions, match each to the correct isotopes An isotope with a mass number of 131 and an atomic number of 53 --- An isotope of phosphorus with a mass number of 32 --- An isotope with an mass number of 53 and 25 protons --- P3215, M3215n, Phosphorus-32, P1532, M53131n, I25131, Iodine-131, Iodine-53, M2553n, Manganese-53, I53131 The correct isotopes are shown below for each description. An isotope with a mass number of 131 and an atomic number of 53: Iodine-131, I53131 An isotope of phosphorus with a mass number of 32: Phosphorus-32, P1532 An isotope with an mass number of 53 and 25 protons: Manganese-53, M2553n 22. Complete the radioactive decay by dragging the correct products of each decay to the corresponding box. Alpha decay of Pu-240 --- 23692U, 0-1βBeta (electron) decay of Cd-118 --- 1849In, 4a22+ Beta (positron) decay of In-98 --- 9848Cd, 01β+ 01β+, 9848Cd, 11849In, 0-1β-, 23692U Be sure to that both the top and bottom numbers have the same total on both sides of the chemical reaction. 23. To wrap this up, you will be completing the table below, summarizing each type of radioactive decay studied. Be sure to review the previous sections to brush up on these and then use your understanding of the content to summarize. Type of Process, Effect on mass number, Effect on atomic number Alpha, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4 Beta electron, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4 Beta positron, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4 Gamma, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4 Electron capture, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4, No changeIncrease by 1Decrease by 1Decrease by 2Decrease by 4 Type of Process Effect on mass number Effect on atomic number Alpha Decrease by 4 Decrease by 2 Beta electron No change Increase by 1 Beta positron No change Decrease by 1 Gamma No change No change Electron capture No change Decrease by 1 24. H80171g undergoes alpha decay forming an alpha particle and a. 17179Au b. 17382Pb c. 16778Pt d. 17181Ti We can determine the effect on the decay product by following the Law of Conservation of Mass. When H80171g undergoes alpha decay, an alpha particle and 16778Pt is formed. 25. Sort the following types of radiation in regard to their ability to penetrate the human body from top (most) to least (bottom). a. Alpha b. Gamma c. Beta Electron Gamma Beta Electron Alpha Understanding the penetrative properties of various types of radiation can help us make important safety choices. The most penetrating type of radiation is gamma, while the least is alpha. 26. Select all processes which cause a decrease in the atomic number of an isotope. a. Alpha decay b. Beta Electron Decay c. Gamma Decay d. Electron Capture e. Beta Positron Decay The main ways to decrease atomic number are the removal of protons from the nucleus or the conversion of a proton to a neutron. This could occur via alpha decay, beta positron decay, and electron capture. 27. An proton absorbs an electron. What effect would you predict this to have in an unstable isotope? a. Increase in mass number b. Decrease in mass number c. Increase in atomic number d. Decrease in atomic number By understanding what is happening on a subatomic level, we can better predict what is occurring in unstable isotopes. If a proton absorbs an electron in an unstable isotope, you would see a decrease in the atomic number. 28. During a type of radioactive decay, the atomic number of an isotope increases by one while the mass number is unchanged. I would expect that this is caused by a. a proton combining with an electron b. a proton becoming a neutron c. protons and neutrons being ejected from the nucleus d. a neutron becoming a proton By understanding what is happening on a subatomic level, we can better predict what is occurring in a specific radioactive decay process. When the atomic number increases by one while the mass number is unchanged, a neutron has become a proton. 29. Determine the products of the beta electron decay of Vanadium-52 (select all that apply): a. v2352→ b. S2148c c. β++10 d. T2252i e. C2452r f. v2452 g. β--10 Beta decay increases the atomic number by 1. 30. If Magnesium-21 undergoes beta positron decay, I would expect the products of this decay to be a positron and a a. Alumium-22 b. Magnesium-20 c. Sodium-21 d. Sodium-20 We see a decrease of one for the atomic number in positron decay with no change in the mass number. Applications of Radiation 31. Which of the following technologies depend on radioactive isotopes to function. Select all that apply. a. Microwaves b. Light bulbs c. Nuclear power generation d. PET Scans PET scans and nuclear power generation both require radioactive isotopes to function. 32. How many grams of a 4 grams sample of a radioactive material will remain after two half-lives. a. 4 grams b. 2 grams c. 1 gram d. 0 grams Each half-life decreases the amount currently remaining by 50%, so after two half-lives, 4 grams would be 1 gram. 33. Answer the following questions related to half lives. Question 1 / 3 A certain radioactive isotope has a half life of 2400 years. How many half lives have past for a sample of this material collected 12,000 years ago? 5 Question 2 / 3 Oxygen-21 has a half life of about 3.5 seconds. How many half lives will have passed after 14 seconds? 4 Question 3 / 3 Rn-221 has a half life of about 30 minutes. How many half lives have passed after 4 hours? 8 Question 1 Feedback By dividing the time that has passed by the half life, we can determine the number of half-lives that have passed. In this case 12,000/2,400=5. Question 2 Feedback The mass number of oxygen does not effect this equation and we divide the total time by the half life as usual. In this case, 14 / 3.5 = 4. Question 3 Feedback We must make sure both units of time are the same before dividing. In this case, 4 hours x 60 minutes/hour = 240 minutes / 30 minutes = 8 half lives. 34. Answer the following questions about half life calculations. Question 1 / 2 An unstable isotope has a half life of 3 days. How many kg of a 820 kg sample will remain after 6 days? 205 kg Question 2 / 2 Neodymium-161 h as a half life of about 500 ms. What % of a fresh sample of this material would I have after 1 second? 25% Question 1 Feedback By dividing the time that has passed by the half life, we can determine the number of half-lives that have passed. Then we just need to divide by two that many times starting with the initial amount of sample. In this case, 6 / 3 = 2 half lives. 820kg /2 = 410kg /2 = 205kg. Question 2 Feedback Make sure both units of time are the same before dividing the total time by the half life as usual. Starting at 100 %, we divide by two for each half life. In this case, there are 1000 ms /s, divided by 500ms = 2 half lives, so after two half lives 25% remains. 35. Au-180 has a half life of 8 seconds. How much of a 60 gram sample will remain radioactive after 32 seconds? a. 15 g b. 30 g c. 7.5 g d. 3.75 g After determining the number of half-lives that have passed, we simply divide our starting amount by two for each half-life that has passed. 36. Rank the following applications of radioactive materials from highest exposure (top) to least exposure (bottom). a. Full body PET scan b. Smoke detectors c. Hand X-ray d. Radiation therapy with gamma radiation Radiation therapy with gamma radiation Full body PET scan Hand X-ray Smoke detectors By understanding risks, we can make informed choices. Highest exposure is radiation therapy, followed by PET scan, X-ray, and smoke detectors. 37. Which of the following procedures would you expect to expose you to the least amount of radiation? a. PET scan b. Insertion of radioactive seeds into your body as a cancer treatment c. Gamma treatment of a tumor d. Use of radioactive iodine to treat an overactive thyroid In terms of radiation risk, nuclear imaging exposes you to less radiation overall as compared to radiation therapy. 38. What % of a fresh sample of an unstable isotope with a half-life of 4 days remain after 8 days. Assume you start with 100%. a. 12.5 % b. 25 % b. 6.25 % c. 50 % After determining the number of half lives that have passed, we simply divide our starting amount by two that many times. Biological Polymers 39. In condensation reactions, what small molecule is produced as a by-product? a. methane b. hydrogen gas c. water d. acids Water is the by-product of condensation reactions. 40. Answer the following questions about monomers and polymers. Question 1 / 3 Monomers are small molecules used to build large molecules called polymers Monomers, polymers Monomers, polymers Question 2 / 3 Which of the following is not an example of a polymer? a. proteins b. silk c. cotton d. rubber e. styrene Question 3 / 3 Condensation reactions are involved in _____ reactions. a. transfer b. combustion c. anabolic d. catabolic e. neutralization Question 1 Feedback Monomers are small molecules used to build the large polymers. Question 2 Feedback Styrene is the monomer for Styrofoam polymer. Proteins, cotton, rubber, and silk are all polymers. Question 3 Feedback Condensation reactions are involved in anabolic reactions because they build polymers. 41. Click and drag to arrange the following by relative size, from smallest on the top to largest on the bottom. a. polymer b. dimer c. monomer In order from smallest on top to largest on the bottom: monomer dimer polymer 42. Answer the following questions about hydrolysis reactions. Question 1 / 2 In condensation reaction, a water molecule is produced when a bond is Formed In hydrolysis reactions, a water molecule is used when a bond is broken. hydrolysis, condensation formed, broken hydrolysis, condensation Formed, broken Question 2 / 2 Determine if the statement applies to hydrolysis or condensation reactions. Condensation Hydrolysis Monomers are used to form polymers yes Polymers are broken down to form monomers yes Water is a product yes Water is used as a substrate yes Question 1 Feedback Water molecules are produced in condensation reactions, when bonds are formed. Water molecules are used to break bonds in hydrolysis reactions. Question 2 Feedback Water molecules are produced in condensation reactions, when bonds are formed. Water molecules are used to break bonds in hydrolysis reactions. 43. Examples of polymers include a. proteins b. carbohydrates c. silk d. all of the above e. none of the above All major macromolecules include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are polymers, as are rubber, silk, cotton, and plastics. 44. Select the letter next to the circled portion of the molecule that will react in a condensation reaction. A B C D Carboxylic acids (-COOH) can react in condensation. 45. _____ are larger than _____. a. Monomers / polymers b. Monomers / dimers c. Dimers / monomers d. Dimers / polymers Dimers are made from two monomers, so they are larger than monomers. 46. Determine if the statement is true for hydrolysis or condensation. Condensation Hydrolysis Monomers are a product yes Monomers are a substrate yes Bonds are formed yes Bonds are broken yes Monomers are a product of hydrolysis, which breaks polymers apart. In this process bonds are broken. In condensation, bonds are formed when monomers are used as a substrate to form polymers. 47. Hydrolysis reactions are involved in ____ reactions. a. transfer b. anabolic c. neutralization d. combustion e. catabolic Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions because they break bonds. 48. Hydrolysis involves… a. water molecules as a substrate b. polymers breaking apart c. formation of polymers d. a and b only e. a, b and c are correct. Hydrolysis involves water molecules used as a substrate to break apart polymers. The result is the formation of monomers. 49. Which portion of this molecule represents a carboxylic acid? A B C D Carboxylic acids (-COOH) can react in condensation. Carbohydrates 50. Which of the following is a source of carbohydrates? a. sugar, fruits, and bread b. butter and oils c. steaks d. water Sugar, fruits, and bread are sources of carbohydrates. 51. Answer the following questions about the structures and properties of carbohydrates. Question 1 / 3 Carbohydrates are not used for a. cell recognition b. energy storage c. catalysis d. cell walls Question 2 / 3 Select all that apply. Carbohydrates contain _____ functional groups. a. alcohols b. ketones or aldehydes c. amine d. carboxylic acid e. halogen Question 3 / 3 When formed into long chain polymers, they can store energy for future use in the cell such as starch in plants, and glycogen in humans. In plant cells, carbohydrate polymers called cellulose form rigid protective structures called the cell wall. Cellulose, starch, glycogen Question 1 Feedback Carbohydrates are not used for catalysis, but are used for energy, energy storage, structures like cell walls, and cell recognition like blood types. Question 2 Feedback Carbohydrates contain alcohols and either a ketone or aldehyde group. Question 3 Feedback When formed into long chain polymers, they can store energy for future use in the cell such as starch in plants, and glycogen in humans. In plant cells, carbohydrate polymers called cellulose form rigid protective structures called the cell wall. 52. Classify the molecules as aldoses or ketoses: Glucose Fructose Galactose aldose ketose aldose ketose aldose ketose Aldoses contain an aldehyde functional group on the top carbon; ketoses will contain a ketone functional group on a middle carbon. Glucose and Galactose are aldoses, Fructose is a ketose. 53. Select all that apply. Monosaccharides include a. sucrose b. lactose c. glucose d. fructose e. cellulose Monosaccharides include glucose, fructose, and galactose. 54. Click and drag to arrange the following by number of monomers, from smallest number of monomers on the top to largest number on the bottom. a. maltose b. glycogen c. glucose glucose maltose glycogen Glucose is a single monomer, maltose is a dimer that contains two monomers, and glycogen contains many monomers. 55. Drag the terms to the correct location to complete the following sentences. The main component of table sugar is sucrose, made of one molecule of glucose which forms a six-member ring in nature, and one molecule of fructose also known as fruit sugar. The disaccharide found in milk is lactose, made of the monosaccharide galactose that is also known as brain sugar and glucose which is the prominent monosaccharide for energy. The disaccharide maltose is made of two molecules of glucose. Fructose, lactose, sucrose, galactose, maltose The main component of table sugar is SUCROSE made of one molecule of glucose which forms a six-member ring in nature, and one molecule of FRUCTOSE also known as fruit sugar. The disaccharide found in milk is LACTOSE, made of the monosaccharide GALACTOSE that is also known as brain sugar and glucose which is the prominent monosaccharide for energy. The disaccharide MALTOSE is made of two molecules of glucose. 56. Glycosidc Bond Click the glycosidic bond in the following disaccharide. The glycosidic bond joins the two monomers, and forms an ether functional group. 57. For each disaccharide, chose the monomer(s) that are joined in the disaccharide. Fructose Galactose Glucose Lactose yes yes Sucrose yes yes Maltose yes Lactose is made of the monomers galactose and glucose. Sucrose is made of the monomers fructose and glucose. Maltose is made of two glucose monomers. 58. Select all that apply. Carbohydrates can contain _____ functional groups. a. alcohols b. glycosidic c. aldehydes d. ketones e. alkene Carbohydrates can contain alcohol, and either ketone or aldehyde groups. 59. Where will you find sucrose? a. storage of energy in plant cells b. plant cell walls c. storage of energy in animal cells d. table sugar Sucrose is found in table sugar. 60. Select the correct letter corresponding to the circled glycosidic bond in the structure. The glycosidic bond is the ether bond linking the two monomers. 61. Which monomers are used to form maltose? a. fructose b. glycogen c. glucose d. lactose e. galactose Two molecules of glucose are used to form the disaccharide maltose. 62. Select all that apply. Carbohydrates can be used for which of the following cellular functions: a. information storage b. cell recognition c. used for energy d. energy storage e. cell walls Carbohydrates are used for cell recognition such as ABO blood groups, energy storage such as glycogen, used as energy such as glucose, and cell walls such as polysaccharides. They would not be used for information storage. 63. Determine if the molecule is a monosaccharide, disaccharide, or polysaccharide. Monosaccharide Disaccharide Polysaccharide Lactose yes Fructose yes Cellulose yes Sucrose yes Fructose is a monomer, lactose and sucrose are disaccharides, and cellulose is a polysaccharide. [Show Less]
CHEM 120 Week 7 LIPIDS Questions and Answers- Chamberlain College Atlanta WEEK 7 Lipids 1. Which of the following is a source of lipids? a. Water b. S... [Show More] ugar, fruits, and bread c. Butter and oils d. Steaks Water is the by-product of condensation reactions. Answer the following questions below about lipids. Question 1 / 3 Triglycerides are: a. used for catalysis in the body. b. made of fatty acid monomers. c. soluble in water. d. always unsaturated. Question 2 / 3 Select all that apply. Saturated fatty acids contain _____ functional groups. a. amine b. alkanes c. alkenes d. carboxylic acid e. halogen Question 3 / 3 From the condensed structural formula, determine if the structure represents a saturated fatty acid, a monounsaturated fatty acid, or a polyunsaturated fatty acid. SATURATED FATTY ACID MONOUNSATU RATED FATTY ACID POLYUNSATUR ATED FATTY ACID CH3CH2CHCHCH2 COOH yes CH3CHCHCH2CH2 COOH yes CH3CHCHCH2CH CHCH2COOH yes CH3CH2CH2CH2CH 2COOH yes Question 1 Feedback Triglycerides are made of fatty acid monomers. Question 2 Feedback Saturated fatty acids will contain all single bonds, thus contain alkanes, and will contain a carboxylic acid functional group on one end. Question 3 Feedback Alkanes are saturated fatty acids and are represented by CH3 on the end carbon and CH2 for each middle carbon. Monounsaturated fatty acids will contain a single double bond, represented by CHCH in the condensed structural formula; polyunsaturated fatty acids will contain two or more double bonds in the condensed structural formula. 2. Select the correct property for the category of fatty acids that it describes. Contains carboxylic acid = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Contains a single double carbon-to-carbon bond = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Contains multiple double carbon-to-carbon bonds = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Solid at room temperature = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Contains no carbon-to-carbon double bonds = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Liquid at room temp = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Does not mix with water = Saturated, Unsaturated, Both Saturated and Unsaturated Both saturated and unsaturated do not mix with water. Saturated contains no double carbon-to-carbon bonds and is solid at room temperature. Unsaturated contains a single double carbon-to-carbon bond (monounsaturated) or multiple double carbon-to-carbon bonds (polyunsaturated) and are mostly liquid at room temperature. 4. Using the molecule below, answer the following questions. Question 1 / 3 Tis molecule is best described as a. a fatty acid. b. a triglyceride. c. a polyunsaturated fatty acid. d. an unsaturated fatty acid. This image is a lipid, not a fatty acid. It is made from three fatty acids combined with a molecule of glycerol, and is called a triglyceride or triacylglycerol. Question 2 / 3 How many fatty acids were used to create this triacylglycerol molecule? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four Triacylglycerols are made from three fatty acids attached to one glycerol. Question 3 / 3 The fatty acids used to create this triacylglycerol are a. all identical. b. all unsaturated. c. all saturated. d. all connected through an ester linkage. All three fatty acids are connected to the glycerol through ester linkages. They are all different, some being saturated and some unsaturated. 5. Click and drag the name of the lipid to match the function Comprises the majority of cell membranes because it contains a polar head and a nonpolar tail. --- glycerophospholipids Used in soap making. --- triacylglycerol Structure includes three six-member rings fused with a five-member ring, and in cell membranes provides stability and is a precursor for vitamin D. --- cholesterol cholesterol glycerophospholipids Triacylglycerol Glycerophospholipids comprise the majority of cells due to their polar head and nonpolar tails, allowing them to create a stable bi-layer structure. Triacylglycerols are commonly used in soap making when combined with sodium hydroxide (lye). The fused ring structure is cholesterol, one type of steroid. 6. Select all that apply. Which of the following are typically solids at room temperature? a. Polyunsaturated lipids b. Trans lipids c. Monounsaturated lipids d. Saturated lipids e. Unsaturated lipids Both saturated fats and trans fats are solids at room temperature due to their linear structures. 7. Which class of lipids is found in cell membranes? a. Sterols b. Triacylglycerol c. Glycerolphospholipid d. Steroids and Triacylglycerol e. Steroids and Glycerolphospholipid Glycerophospholipids make up the majority of the cell membrane, and sterols such as cholesterol are also found in the membrane and used for stability. 8. What type of linkage is found in triacylglycerols? a. Glycoside b. Ether c. Amide d. peptide e. Ester Tryiacylglycerols have ester linkages between the glycerol and fatty acids. 9. Which of the following is true for both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? a. Both contain carboxylic acid groups b. Both are solid at room temperature c. Both are considered alkenes d. Both are soluble in water e. Both contain ester linkages Both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids are monomers that contain a carbon chain and a carboxylic acid group. 10. Triacylglycerols contain ___. a. 1 molecule of glycerol and 3 steroids b. 3 molecules of glycerol and 1 molecule of fatty acid c. 1 molecule of glycerol and 3 molecules of fatty acid d. 3 molecules of glycerol and 1 steroid Triacylglycerols are made of 1 molecule of glycerol and 3 fatty acids. Proteins 11. Rank the levels of protein structure from top (least complex/structured) to bottom (most complex/structured). a. Secondary – alpha helices, beta strands, and loops b. Quaternary – interaction of multiple tertiary structures c. Primary – sequence of amino acids d. Tertiary – the three dimensional structure The levels of protein structure in order of complexity are: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. 12. Examples of proteins include a. meat and muscle b. sugars and candy c. butter and oil d. all of these Meat and muscle are example of proteins. 13. Answer the following questions about the structure of amino acids. Question 1 / 3 The backbone of an amino acid refers to all of the following except a. the amine. b. the carboxylic acid. c. the sidechain. d. the alpha carbon. Question 2 / 3 Select all that apply. What functional groups are found in amino acids? a. Alkene b. Amine c. Ester d. Hydroxyl e. Carboxylic acid Question 3 / 3 Alpha carbons are always bound to a. the amine. b. a hydrogen. c. the carboxylic acid. d. the sidechain. e. All of these. Question 1 Feedback The backbone is the portion of the amino acids that is consistent in each of the 20 amino acids. This includes the amine, the alpha carbon, and the carboxylic acid. The sidechain will be different for each amino acid, so that is not part of the backbone. Question 2 Feedback Amino acids all contain amine and carboxylic acid functional groups. Question 3 Feedback Alpha carbons are the center of the amino acid, bound to an H, the amine, the acid, and the sidechain. 14. Dipeptide Locate these parts of the dipeptide: Peptide Bond , N-Terminus and C-Terminus c 15. Protein sequences go from the N terminus, to the C terminus. The N terminus represents the first amino group of the protein backbone, and the C terminus ------- represents the last carboxylic acid group of the protein backbone. N terminus, C terminus N terminus, C terminus N terminus, C terminus N terminus, C terminus Protein sequences are defined as amino to acid: from N terminus to C terminus. The N terminus is called the “N” terminus because it refers to the first functional group in the chain, the amine which contains a nitrogen atom. The final functional group is the C-terminus because it is the carboxylic acid. 16. Click and drag to match the structure to the description LEVEL OF STRUCTURE, DESCRIPTION PRIMARY sequence of amino acids held together by peptide bonds SECONDARY the way that the local amino and carboxylic acid groups interact with each other in space TERTIARY the overall, three-dimensional and completely folded structure QUATERNARY the combination of two or more tertiary protein structures QUATERNARY, SECONDARY, TERTIARY, PRIMARY Primary structure – sequence of amino acids held together by peptide bonds. Secondary structure – the way that the local amino and carboxylic acid groups interact with each other in space Tertiary structure – the overall, three-dimensional and completely folded structure Quaternary structure – the combination of two or more tertiary protein structures 17. What is the driving force for each level of structure? Peptide bonds H-bonding of the backbone Hydrophobic sidechain interactions Primary yes Secondary yes Tertiary yes The primary structure is the sequence of amino acids, and is driven by the covalent peptide bonds between amino acids in the polypeptide. The secondary structure is formed due to the backbone Hydrogen bonding, specifically the carbonyl of the acid and the amine found in each amino acid. The tertiary structure is primarily driven by the burying of hydrophobic sidechains, as they rearrange to be away from surrounding water. 18. Modeling Protein Structure with Wire Complete the following activity and then answer the questions below about protein structure. Locate two long pieces of thin, bendable wire in your home (such as pipe cleaner, garden wire, electrical wire, or similar), preferably 5-10 inches in length as well as a pencil. Straighten the wire and while grabbing each end, give it a good tug. This represents the primary structure, held together with covalent bonds. Next, twirl 2 inches of the wire around a pencil to make a spiral, leave a small gap of 1-2 inches of straight wire, then crinkle the next part two inches; the model should be in a relatively straight line as you complete this process. Repeat this pattern, or any pattern, for the remaining length of the wire. This represents the secondary structure elements: alpha helix is the spiral, the loop is unstructured, and the crinkles are the beta strands. This structure is held in place by hydrogen bonds, intermolecular forces that are not as strong as covalent bonds. Next, bend the structure at the loops to bury the hydrophobic sidechains and make a 3D structure. This represents the tertiary structure, in which hydrophobic sidechains are buried, hydrophilic sidechains are left on the surface, and various other intermolecular interactions occur to lock the 3D structure in place: disulfide bridges form between two sulfur-containing sidechains; salt bridges form between cationic and anionic sidechains, and hydrogen bonds between polar Hydrogen and nitrogen or oxygen form. Some proteins will be fully functional at the tertiary structure, but we will model the quaternary structure. Finally, take the second wire and repeat the process. When you have your two complete tertiary structures, place them near to each other to represent the quaternary structure, which is made from two or more tertiary sequences. Next, we will model denaturation. In this process, a protein will lose most of its structure due to high salt, high temperature, a low pH, or a high pH. When a protein loses its structure, it loses the ability to function. Salt, temperature, and pH will cause the intermolecular forces to become interrupted. Move the two protein chains apart to denature the quaternary structure. Pick up one chain, and holding both ends as you did when starting the demo, pull the ends to straighten the wire. Question 1 / 5 What level of structure did the straightened wire represent throughout the demonstration? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Question 2 / 5 How did secondary structure differ from tertiary structure in this demo? a. secondary structure was the straight wire, tertiary structure was the twists and crinkles a. secondary structure was when the straightened wire was twisted and crinkled, tertiary was when the twists and crinkles were bent further to make a 3D shape b. secondary structure and tertiary structure were indistinguishable in this demo c. secondary structure is the completed 3D protein chain, tertiary structure was when the second chain was placed next to the first chain. Question 3 / 5 After denaturation, what level of protein structure remained? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Question 4 / 5 Select all that apply. What levels or protein structure were affected by denaturation? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary Question 5 / 5 What causes denaturation? Select all that apply. a. high pH b. low pH c. high salt d. high temperature Question 1 Feedback The straightened wire represents the primary protein structure, or the sequence of amino acids connected by strong covalent bonds. Question 2 Feedback Secondary structure was when the straightened wire was twisted around a pencil (alpha helix) and crinkled (beta strands). The secondary structure was kept mostly in a line until ready to fold at the loops to make the tertiary structure. The tertiary structure was when the twists and crinkles were bent further to make a 3D shape. Question 3 Feedback After denaturation, the straight wire remained. This wire represents the primary structure of the protein. Question 4 Feedback Denaturation was modeled by separating the two chains and pulling on the wire. The result was a straight piece of wire (primary structure). This means that quaternary, tertiary, and secondary structures were all affected by denaturation. Question 5 Feedback Denaturing of proteins is caused by high pH (basic), low pH (acidic), high salt, or high temperature. 19. Which level of protein structure is the three-dimensional shape? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary The 3D shape is the tertiary structure. 20. Which of the following is unique to each amino acid? a. The amine b. The alpha carbon c. The carboxylic acid d. The sidechain There are 20 different sidechains on amino acids. They all contain amines, alpha carbons, and carboxylic acids. 21. Identify the sidechain in the dipeptide. A B C D The largest sidechain is the aromatic benzene ring on the C-terminal amino acid. 22. The primary structure of a protein is held together by a. peptide bonds. b. glycosidic bonds. c. ester bonds. d. All of these The primary protein structure is the sequence of amino acids held together by amide, or peptide, bonds. 23. What causes denaturation? a. high pH b. low pH c. high salt d. high temperature e. all of the above f. none of the above Denaturation is caused by high pH, low pH, high salt, or high temperature. 24. Which level of protein structure is the interaction of multiple protein chains? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary The interaction of multiple protein chains is the quaternary structure. 25. Select all that apply. What is the result when a protein is denatured? a. the primary structure is altered b. the secondary structure is altered c. the tertiary structure is altered d. the quaternary structure is altered e. all four levels of protein structure are altered f. it can no longer function When a protein is denatured, it can no longer function because its secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures have been altered. Enzymes 26. Which of the following macromolecules best describes enzymes? a. proteins b. carbohydrates c. nucleic acids d. lipids 27. Enzymes are a type of protein that functions in performing chemical reactions quickly (catalysis). When an enzyme is denatured, this will affect both its structure and its function. a. True b. False, this will not affect its structure. c. False, this will not affect its function. d. False, this will not affect either structure or function. When an enzyme is denatured, its structure falls apart. An incorrectly folded structure will affect the enzyme’s ability to function. This statement is therefore true. 28. Answer the questions below about the structure and role of enzymes. Question 1 / 3 An Enzyme is a type of protein that performs chemical reactions quickly without being consumed, also called a Catalyst. To start the reaction, the enzyme must bind the Substrate molecule in its Active site, a specific location in the enzyme where the chemical reaction will occur. When the chemical reaction is complete, the Substrate is released and the enzyme can start the process again. Enzyme, Substrate, Active site, Catalyst, Active site Drag and drop the correct answers into the boxes. You can also click the correct answer, then the box where it should go. Reset my answers. Question 2 / 3 True or false. Enzymes bind a single substrate or class of substrates. a. True b. False Question 3 / 3 Which part of the enzyme allows substrate specificity? a. active site b. Protein c. allosteric site d. reaction site Question 1 Feedback An enzyme is a type of protein that performs chemical reactions quickly without being consumed, also called a catalyst. To start the reaction, the enzyme must bind the substrate molecule in its active site, a specific location where the chemical reaction will occur. When the chemical reaction is complete, the product is released and the enzyme can start the process again Question 2 Feedback Because of the specific shape and polarity of the active site, only one substrate or extremely similar types of substrates will be able to bind for catalysis. Question 3 Feedback The active site is a specific size and polarity, allowing only specific substrates to bind. 29. Answer the questions below about factors that affect enzyme activity. Question 1 / 4 Which of the following affects an enzyme’s ability to function? a. High pH b. Low pH c. Cofactors d. Inhibitors e. All of these above affect an enzyme’s ability to function Question 2 / 4 A molecule that mimics the substrate in size and polarity binds the active site, preventing the true substrate from being catalyzed. This is an example of a. a coenzyme. b. noncompetitive inhibition. c. Denaturing. d. competitive inhibition. e. a cofactor. Question 3 / 4 A molecule binds an allosteric site on the enzyme away from the active site, which causes the enzyme’s active site to change shape. This is an example of a. a cofactor. b. competitive inhibition. c. Denaturing. d. a coenzyme. e. noncompetitive inhibition. Question 4 / 4 There are several ways that enzyme structure and function are affected. Mark whether the example will affect the protein’s tertiary structure and overall folding, or if it will not affect the protein’s structure. Affects enzyme’s tertiary structure Does not affect enzyme’s tertiary structure Coenzymes yes Competitive inhibition yes Noncompetitive inhibition yes Denaturing yes Question 1 Feedback Temperature, pH, and salt will denature the enzyme; cofactors and coenzymes are required for a functioning holoenzyme; inhibitors negatively affect an enzyme’s ability to bind a substrate in the active site. Question 2 Feedback Competitive inhibition involves a molecule similar to the substrate competing for the active site and binding there, blocking the true substrate. Question 3 Feedback Noncompetitive inhibition will have a molecule binding to an allosteric site, and as a result the active site will change shape. Question 4 Feedback Competitive inhibition does not affect an enzyme’s overall structure, and is easily reversible. 30. Answer the questions below about enzymes. Question 1 / 3 When __________, inorganic ions required for the complete structure of the enzyme, are not incorporated into the enzyme structure, the remaining protein-only portion is called ______. a. coenzyme / holoenzyme b. cofactor / holoenzyme c. coenzyme / apoenzyme d. cofactor / apoenzyme The apoenzyme is the protein-only portion of a holoenzyme, and is not functional without its cofactors/coenzymes. Answer the questions below about enzymes. Question 2 / 3 Determine if the example would act as a coenzyme or a cofactor in a holoenzyme. Coenzyme Cofactor Vitamin B12 yes Iron yes Niacin yes Magnesium yes Calcium yes Example Coenzyme Cofactor Vitamin B12 x Iron x Niacin x Magnesium x Calcium x Answer the questions below about enzymes. Question 3 / 3 Which of the following is an example of a typical enzyme function? a. Catabolizing nutrients into monomer building blocks b. Anabolizing glycogen c. Catalyzing the construction of DNA d. All of these e. None of these Enzymes play a role in catabolism as well as anabolism (polymerization). 31. Drag and drop the term to the correct description. Term, Description allosteric site ------- Location where a noncompetitive inhibitor will bind active site ------------ Location where a competitive inhibitor will bind allosteric site, apoenzyme, holoenzyme, active site The allosteric site is where a noncompetitive inhibitor will bind. The active site is where the competitive inhibitor will bind, because it is similar in shape and polarity to the true substrate. 32. How many substrates does an enzyme typically have? a. One, or one group of similar substrates b. Two, or two groups of similar substrates c. It varies, but typically one for each quaternary structure d. Many: there is no limit An enzyme typically has one substrate, or a group of extremely similar substrates. This is due to the specificity of the active site, which can accommodate only certain sizes and polarities. 33. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? a. activation energy – location where the substrate will bind and the reaction will occur b. denature – to cause a protein to lose its secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures c. noncompetitive inhibitor – binds the allosteric site to alter the shape of the active site d. cofactor – inorganic ion required for holoenzyme function e. catalyst - increases the speed of a reaction without being consumed Thea active site is the location where the substrate will bind and the reaction will occur. 34. C oenzyme are organic vitamins required for the complete structure of the enzyme, called holoenzyme. Cofactor, apoenzyme, coenzyme, holoenzyme Cofactor, apoenzyme, coenzyme, holoenzyme Coenzymes are the organic vitamins required to complete the structure of the holoenzyme. 35. Which of the following is a possible role of enzymes? a. Performs structural role in cell walls and catabolic reactions b. Performs catabolic and anabolic reactions c. Performs a structural role in cell walls d. Performs anabolic reactions e. Performs catabolic reactions Enzymes perform catabolic and anabolic reactions 36. Enzymes decrease a. the activation energy of a reaction. b. the total number of reactions. c. the speed of a reaction. d. the number of products in a reaction. Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction, thereby increasing the speed, total number of reactions, and the number of products. Nucleic Acids 37. What are the monomers of nucleic acids? a. amino acids b. Monosaccharides c. Nucleotides d. fatty acids Nucleotides are the monomers that make up nucleic acid polymers. 38. Which of the following is an example of a nucleic acid? Select all that apply. a. Carbohydrate b. Lipids c. Proteins d. DNA e. RNA DNA and RNA are examples of nucleic acids 39. Sort the nucleotides to correctly categorize as purines or pyrimadines. Purines Pyrimadines Nucleotides Adenine, Guanine Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine, Thymine, Uracil Purines include adenine and guanine. Pyrimidines include cytosine, thymine, and uracil. 40. Identify the sugar, phosphate, and base in the image of the nucleotide. Phosphate, nitrogen base sugar, 1 Phosphate, nitrogen base, sugar, 2 Phosphate, nitrogen base, sugar, 3 41. Answer the following questions about nucleic acids. Question 1 / 5 ________ are the monomers of nucleic acids. a. Amino acids b. Monosaccharides c. Nucleotides d. Fatty acids Question 2 / 5 Select all that apply. The backbone of a nucleic acid includes: a. hydrogen bonds b. nitrogen base c. carboxylic acid d. Sugar e. phosphate Question 3 / 5 Which portion of a nucleotide creates the primary structure of a nucleotide? a. Deoxyribose sugar b. Ribose sugar c. Diester bonds d. Nitrogen base e. Phosphate Question 4 / 5 Which type of bonding is found in nucleic acid backbones? a. Acid anhydride bonds b. Phosphodiester bonds c. Hydrogen bonds d. Glycosidic bonds Question 5 / 5 Click the box to indicate that the description is correct for DNA, RNA, or both. DNA RNA Contains a single strand yes Contains deoxyribose sugar yes Contains uracil nucleotide yes Contains adenine nucleotide yes yes Hydrogen bonds between nucleotides on opposite strands stabilize its structure yes Question 1 Feedback Nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids. Question 2 Feedback Sugars and phosphates connected by phosphodiester bonds create the backbone of nucleic acids. Question 3 Feedback The sequence is the order of the nitrogen bases. Question 4 Feedback Phosphodiester bonds join nucleotides in the nucleic acid polymer: the phosphate forms ester bonds to two sugars in the structure. Question 5 Feedback DESCRIPTION DNA RNA Contains a single strand X Contains deoxyribose sugar X Contains uracil nucleotide X Contains adenine nucleotide X X Hydrogen bonds between nucleotides on opposite strands stabilize its structure X 42. Click the boxes to determine if the nitrogenous base is present in DNA, RNA, or both. DNA RNA Adenine yes yes Cytosine yes yes Guanine yes yes Thymine yes Uracil yes Nucleotide DNA RNA Adenine x x Cytosine x x Guanine x x Thymine x Uracil x 43. Sugar Molecule Click the location of on the sugar molecule that determines if this is deoxyribose or ribose. The 2’ –OH on the second carbon from the nitrogen base is the location of the hydroxyl (alcohol) group that determines if the sugar is ribose or deoxyribose. Structural differences give different functions to DNA and RNA. The large and bulky DNA holds the entire genetic code, or the DNA sequence, of the organism. This molecule does not move around the cell because it is large and bulky. The smaller, single stranded RNA molecules hold information from part of the genetic code. RNAs have the ability to travel in the cell and perform different functions due to their structure. Both of these molecules are used to create proteins in the cell. There are three types of RNA, each with a unique function: Messenger RNA (mRNA) – copies the information encoded in the DNA and carries it to the site of protein synthesis called the ribosome Transfer RNA (tRNA) – carries an individual amino acid to the ribosome, where it pairs with the mRNA Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) – one structural component of the ribosome 44. Drag the label to the correct location on the image below rRNA is used to build the ribosome. The mRNA carries the message to the ribosome and is represented by the RNA strand inside the ribosome. The tRNA carries the amino acid and is shaped like a letter “t”. 45. Match the nucleic acid with its function. Stays in one location in the cell and holds all genetic information --- DNA Carries a part of the genetic information to the ribosome --- mRNA Makes up the ribosome --- rRNA Carries amino acids to the ribosome --- tRNA TRNA, rRNA, mRNA, DNA rRNA is used to build the ribosome. The mRNA carries the message from the DNA to the ribosome. The tRNA carries the amino acid to the ribosome. The DNA is the entire genetic code of the organism. 46. Answer the following questions relating to DNA and RNA. Question 1 / 2 Which is the best description of the function of DNA? a. It carries the amino acid to the ribosome b. It builds the ribosome c. It carries part of the DNA genetic information to the ribosome d. It holds the entire genetic code Question 2 / 2 47. Both DNA and RNA… a. are nucleic acids and information molecules b. move to different parts of the cell c. are nucleic acids, information molecules, and move to different parts of the cell d. are information molecules e. are nucleic acids Question 1 Feedback The DNA holds the entire genetic code and does not move within the cell. Question 2 Feedback Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids, and both are information molecules. Only RNA moves in the cell, due to its smaller structure. 48. Which is the best description of the function of tRNA? a. It carries the amino acid to the ribosome b. It holds the entire genetic code c. It builds the ribosome d. It carries part of the DNA genetic information to the ribosome tRNA carries the amino acid to the ribosome. 49. A purine base will pair with a pyrimidine base. Purine, lysine, guanine Pyrimid, pyrimidine, perimeter A purine base will pair with a pyrimidine base 50. Match the structural description to DNA or RNA. DNA --- Double stranded, Deoxyribose sugar, ACGT bases RNA --- Single stranded, ACGU bases, Ribose sugar ACGT bases, Single stranded, Deoxyribose sugar, ACGU bases, Ribose sugar, Double stranded Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids with different structures. The main structural differences between DNA and RNA are that DNA has two strands but RNA is single stranded; DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, and RNA contains ribose sugar; DNA contains A, C, G and T nitrogen bases in its nucleotides, but RNA contains A, C, G and U nitrogen bases. 51. A nucleotide contains ribose sugar. This nucleotide would likely be found in the polymer a. Glycogen b. Ribosome c. RNA d. DNA This nucleotide would likely be found in the polymer RNA. 52. Where is rRNA found in the image below? a. In the blue mRNA strip. b. Outside the ribosome. c. In the lime green ribosome constucted of large and small subunits. d. In the colored columns along the blue mRNA strip. rRNA is the ribosomal RNA that makes up part of the ribosome structure. The ribosome is used to make a protein. 53. Select all that apply. Which of the following are purine bases? a. Cytosine b. Thymine c. Adenine d. Guanine e. Uracil Purines include adenine and guanine, and contain two rings in their nitrogen bases. 54. The general structure of a nucleotide includes a. sugar and nitrogen base b. nitrogen base c. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base d. phosphate and nitrogen base e. sugar and phosphate A nucleotide contains a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen containing base. Flow of Genetic Information 55. The monomer of proteins is the _________. a. Monosaccharide b. fatty acid c. nucleic acid d. amino acid Amino acids are the monomers of proteins. 56. Match the RNA with its function. moves amino acid to the ribosome --- tRNA makes up the ribosome --- rRNA moves genetic information from DNA to ribosome --- mRNA RRNA, tRNA, mRNA moves amino acid to the ribosome – tRNA makes up the ribosome – rRNA moves genetic information from DNA to ribosome – mRNA 57. Answer the following questions to check your knowledge on DNA replication. Question 1 / 4 In DNA replication, each new DNA molecule is a. Unique b. transformed into RNA c. made of one parent and one daughter strand d. all of the above Question 2 / 4 Which enzyme functions to make the new DNA strand through complementary base pairing with the original strand? a. RNA polymerase b. Helicase c. DNA polymerase d. ribosome Question 3 / 4 Place the steps of DNA replication in the correct order from top to bottom. Helicase enzyme unwinds DNA strands DNA polymerase enzyme copies the DNA strand The two new DNA molecules contain one original and one new DNA strand Question 4 / 4 Determine the sequence of the new DNA strand. Orgin inal DNA: T C G C G T T C A New DNA: A G C G C A A G T Question 1 Feedback In DNA replication, the new DNA molecules each contain one new strand (the daughter strand) and one original strand (parent strand). These strands will be identical to the original, and remain DNA. Question 2 Feedback DNA polymerase is the enzyme that makes a DNA polymer in replication. Question 3 Feedback In DNA replication, first the helicase enzyme unwinds the double stranded DNA to expose the nucleotides. Then, DNA polymerase makes a copy through complementary base pairing. When DNA polymerase is complete, the two newly formed DNA molecules contain one original and one new strand of nucleotides. Question 4 Feedback In DNA, T will pair with A, C will pair with G, G will pair with C, and A will pair with T. Following these rules, the new strand would be A-G-C-G-C-A-A-G-T 58. Answer the following questions to check your knowledge on transcription. Question 1 / 2 Determine the sequence of the mRNA strand. Orgin inal DNA: T C G C G T T C A mRN A A G A G A G A G A G A G A G A G A G C U C U C U C U C U C U C U C U C U Question 2 / 2 Which enzyme is responsible for the unwinding the DNA double helix in transcription? a. DNA polymerase b. Ribosomes c. Helicase d. RNA polymerase Question 1 Feedback In transcription, the T will pair with A, C will pair with G, G will pair with C, and A will pair with U instead of T. Following these rules, the resulting mRNA sequence would be AG-C-G-C-A-A-G-U. Question 2 Feedback As in DNA replication, the helicase enzyme will unwind the DNA helix. 59. Click and drag to label the processes shown in this figure of gene expression (central dogma) Replication, Transcription, Translation Transcription, Translation, Replication DNA replication is the first process shown, where DNA is copied. Transcription is the process where DNA code is paired to make an RNA code. The final step is translation, where the RNA code is read to create the protein. 60. Place the steps of translation in order from top to bottom. a. The ribosome disassembles, releasing mRNA, tRNA, and the polypeptide chain. b. The ribosome moves to the next codon, releasing the empty tRNA. c. Ribosome assembles around mRNA and tRNA. d. The amino acid is transferred onto the growing polypeptide chain. e. Elongation continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon. f. A new tRNA enters the ribosome. Ribosome assembles around mRNA and tRNA. A new tRNA enters the ribosome. The amino acid is transferred onto the growing polypeptide chain. The ribosome moves to the next codon, releasing the empty tRNA. Elongation continues until the ribosome reaches a stop codon. The ribosome disassembles, releasing mRNA, tRNA, and the polypeptide chain. Click and drag the enzymes to the correct portion of the paragraph. 61. The DNA polymerase copies DNA in replication. The RNA polymerase uses DNA to make mRNA in transcription. The ribosome is the site of protein synthesis. Ribosome, RNA polymerase, DNA polymerase Most of the enzymes are named for what they do or their product. The enzyme DNA polymerase copies DNA, and creates two new DNA molecules identical to the original. The RNA polymerase uses DNA to make an mRNA molecule in transcription. The ribosome is the site of protein synthesis, and the polymerase responsible for making proteins. 62. Match the description to the process. This process uses mRNA to create a polypeptide --- Translation This process uses DNA to make mRNA --- Transcription This process uses DNA to make DNA --- Replication Transcription, Replication, Translation This process uses mRNA to create a polypeptide – Translation This process uses DNA to make mRNA – Transcription This process uses DNA to make DNA – Replication 63. Answer the following questions using the codon table below. Second Base First Base U C A G Third Base U UUU → Phe UUC → Phe UCU → Ser UCC → Ser UAU → Tyr UAC → Tyr UGU → Cys UGC → Cys UGA → STOP UUA → Leu UUG → Leu UCA → Ser UCG → Ser UAA → STOP UAG → STOP UGG → Trp C CUU → Leu CUC → Leu CUA → Leu CUG → Leu CCU → Pro CCC → Pro CCA → Pro CCG → Pro CAU → His CAC → His CAA → Gln CAG → Gln CGU → Arg CGC → Arg CGA → Arg CGG → Arg A AUU → lle AUC → lle AUA → lle AUG → MET ACU → Thr ACC → Thr ACA → Thr ACG → Thr AAU → Asn AAC → Asn AAA → Lys AAG → Lys AGU → Ser AGC → Ser AGA → Arg AGG → Arg G GUU → Val GUC → Val GUA → Val GUG → Val GCU → Ala GCC → Ala GCA → Ala GCG → Ala GAU → Asp GAC → Asp GAA → Glu GAG → Glu GGU → Gly GGC → Gly GGA → Gly GGG → Gly Question 1 / 6 What is the amino acid encoded by the mRNA codon UAC? a. Met b. Val c. Tyr d. His Using the codon table, the first letter is U, second is A, and third is C. On the codon table, UAC is the amino acid Tyr. Question 2 / 6 What is the amino acid encoded by the mRNA codon AUU? a. Leu b. Ile c. Stop d. Asn Using the codon table, the first letter is A, second is U, and third is U. On the codon table, AUU is the amino acid Ile Question 3 / 6 What is the dipeptide encoded by the mRNA sequence UACAUU? a. Ile-Tyr b. Tyr-Ile c. Val – Asn d. both a and b are correct First we separate the codons in the mRNA sequence into UAC | AUU. Using the codon table, the first codon is Tyr and the second is Ile. The resulting dipeptide is Tyr-Ile. Question 4 / 6 What is the dipeptide encoded by the DNA sequence ATGACC? a. Gly - Asp b. Ile - Thr c. Tyr-Trp d. Pro - Leu This is an example of gene expression. First, the DNA sequence is transcribed to mRNA through base pairing: ATGACC will pair with UACUGG in the mRNA. The mRNA is then separated into codons UAC and UGG, and translated into Tyr-Trp. Question 5 / 6 Which best describes gene expression? a. the translation of mRNA to form a protein b. the transcription and translation of a region of DNA to form a protein c. the transcription of DNA to form mRNA d. the replication of DNA Gene expression is the process of transcription and translation of a region of DNA to form a protein. The encoding region of the DNA is the gene, and when it is expressed it forms a protein. Question 6 / 6 Degeneracy… a. allows multiple amino acids to be encoded by the same codon b. allows a single amino acid to be encoded by multiple codons c. allows a large variety of amino acids to be encoded by four nucleotide bases d. all of the above Degeneracy is the idea that there can be some variation in codon, and it will not change the protein structure. This means that multiple codons will encode the same amino acid. 64. Complete the gene expression for the following DNA sequence: Origi nal DNA: A G T C A C G T A mRN A: U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G U C A G Protei n: Ser Val His In transcription, the T will pair with A, C will pair with G, G will pair with C, and A will pair with U instead of T. Following these rules, the resulting mRNA sequence would be u-ca-g-u-g-c-a-u. This gives the codons UCA – GUG – CAU encoding Ser-Val-His, respectively. 65. Codons show ______, because multiple codons code for the same amino acid. a. Replication b. Consistency c. Structure d. degeneracy The concept of degeneracy allows for small variations in the genetic code at the codon level without altering the protein structure. This means that multiple codons can be used to encode the same amino acid. 66. Which process of gene expression uses mRNA as a template to produce a protein? a. Translation b. Transcription c. Replication d. transformation In translation, the language of the nucleic acids is changed to that of amino acids and polypeptides. 67. The final product of gene expression is a. DNA b. all RNAs c. MRNA d. protein Gene expression uses DNA to produce proteins. The protein would be final product, the end result. 68. Determine the sequence of the mRNA strand. Orgin inal DNA: T A C T G G C A T mRN A A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C G U In transcription, the T will pair with A, C will pair with G, G will pair with C, and A will pair with U instead of T. Following these rules, the resulting mRNA sequence would be AU-G-A-C-C-G-U-A 69. Complete the gene expression for the following DNA sequence. The codon table is provided below. Origi nal DNA: A G T C A C G T A mRN A G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C G A U C protei n Val Ser His Val Ser His Val Ser His Second Base First Base U C A G Third Base U UUU → Phe UUC → Phe UUA → Leu UUG → Leu UCU → Ser UCC → Ser UCA → Ser UCG → Ser UAU → Tyr UAC → Tyr UAA → STOP UAG → STOP UGU → Cys UGC → Cys UGA → STOP UGG → Trp C CUU → Leu CUC → CCU → Pro CCC → CAU → His CAC → CGU → Arg CGC → Arg CGA → Arg Leu CUA → Leu CUG → Leu Pro CCA → Pro CCG → Pro His CAA → Gln CAG → Gln CGG → Arg A AUU → lle AUC → lle AUA → lle AUG → MET ACU → Thr ACC → Thr ACA → Thr ACG → Thr AAU → Asn AAC → Asn AAA → Lys AAG → Lys AGU → Ser AGC → Ser AGA → Arg AGG → Arg G GUU → Val GUC → Val GUA → Val GUG → Val GCU → Ala GCC → Ala GCA → Ala GCG → Ala GAU → Asp GAC → Asp GAA → Glu GAG → Glu GGU → Gly GGC → Gly GGA → Gly GGG → Gly In transcription, the T will pair with A, C will pair with G, G will pair with C, and A will pair with U instead of T. Following these rules, the resulting mRNA sequence would be u-ca-g-u-g-c-a-u. This gives the codons UCA – GUG – CAU encoding Ser-Val-His, respectively. 70. What is the amino acid encoded by the mRNA codon CCA? a. Pro b. Gly c. Thr d. Trp The mRNA codon CCA has C in the first position, C in the second position, and U in the third position. This encodes the amino acid Pro (proline). [Show Less]
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