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CARING FOR OLDER ADULTS HOLISTICALLY 6TH EDITION DAHLKEMPER – TEST BANK exam
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Caring For Older Adults Holistically 6th Edition Dahlkemper – Test Bank
Caring For Older Adults Holistically 6th Edition Dahlkemper – Test Bank Chapter 3: Supporting Life Transitions and Spirituality in the Elderly Mult... [Show More] iple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. _ 1. Which statement is LEAST true about life transitions? _ 2. A 76-year-old patient recovering from hip replacement surgery is upset and does not feel at peace because of her inability to attend church as a result of the injury. What is the best response by the nurse? _ 3. Which would NOT be considered a transitional event? _ 4. Which is NOT an identified feature of a transition? _ 5. The nurse respects an older patient’s decision and right to refuse treatment and returns at a later time to offer previously refused medication. Which factor influencing transitional outcomes applies to this patient’s situation? _ 6. Which action would LEAST likely support the degree of change that an older person has to make when preparing to move? _ 7. Which approach is LEAST appropriate when helping patients prepare for transitions? _ 8. Which characteristics should be considered when a person is transitioning? _ 9. What aspects of the environment in a hospital room would most likely allow for smooth transitioning? [Show Less]
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Caring for Older Adults Holistically 7th Edition Dahlkemper Test Bank
Caring for Older Adults Holistically 7th Edition Dahlkemper Test Bank Chapter 6: Promoting Wellness Multiple Choice Identify the choic... [Show More] e that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. What is the popular standard by which health is being defined for older people? 1) The maintenance of independence 2) The absence of debilitating diseases 3) The ability to pay for needed health service 4) The ability to participate in aerobic exercises 2. Which is NOT a goal when treating chronic diseases? 1) Symptom management 2) Prevention of disabling side effects 3) Maximizing the individual’s strengths 4) Focusing on curing the disease process 3. Arthritis is a chronic disease process that affects the health of many older people. What is the best description of health promotion for individuals with arthritis? 1) Activity restrictions to minimize joint pain 2) Pain management to enhance normal physical activity 3) Referral of the person to herbalists and massage therapists to seek potential disea 4) Use of walkers and wheelchairs early in the disease process so that the older pers totally debilitated 4. “One does not have to be free of disease to experience the benefits of wellness and the positive side of living.” What does this statement mean in relationship to the health of older people? 1) Illness is not a good excuse for being inactive. 2) People’s needs are important, even if they are ill. 3) A good attitude makes aging a positive learning experience. 4) Individuals do not have to limit their experience of health simply because they have 5. Society is becoming very focused on health promotion. Which purpose statement would most likely appeal to older people selecting a health-promotion program? 1) Focus on extension of life. 2) Focus on prevention of aging. 3) Focus on enhancing the quality of life. 4) Focus on prevention of chronic disease processes. 6. Which statement best describes the role of the gerontological nurse in developing treatment strategies for people experiencing a chronic disease process? 1) Administering ordered treatments to minimize debilitating symptoms 2) Assessing elderly clients and identifying treatable causes of pain and discomfort 3) Setting goals for elderly clients that consider the individual and the chronic disease 4) Evaluating the impact of the disease process and treatment on individuals and thei 7. What does compliance with a health-promotion program for an elderly person depend on? 1) The older person’s motivation 2) The time of day that the activity takes place 3) The older person’s recognition of a health problem 4) The disabling characteristics of the older person’s disease process 8. What percentage of people older than 65 years reside in nursing homes? 1) 3% 2) 5% 3) 10% 4) 15% 9. Which is NOT an environmental factor that affects the nutritional habits of older people? 1) Food storage 2) Transportation 3) Readability of food labels 4) Lack of nutritional knowledge 10. Which program is designed to meet the nutritional and social needs of older people? 1) Food stamps 2) Meals on Wheels 3) Senior center–based meal programs 4) U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) commodities 11. Which is an appropriate exercise program goal for a frail older adult? 1) Prevent pressure ulcers. 2) Regain strength to ambulate. 3) Maintain and increase functional ability. 4) Increase strength for transfers and physical stamina. 12. What does aerobic exercise strengthen or increase? 1) Strength 2) Flexibility 3) Endurance 4) Relaxation 13. Why is slow and gradual stretching of muscles important? 1) Increases muscle endurance 2) Reduces the risk of muscle injury 3) Is not part of a usual exercise program 4) Increases the strength and the bulk of muscles 14. What is reduced by improving stress-management skills for older adults? 1) Functional disability 2) Many of the losses related to aging 3) The occurrence of stress-related events 4) Worsening of stress-related disease processes 15. What should the nurse keep in mind when asking an older adult to keep a stress log or journal? 1) It can be too stressful for older adults. 2) It is usually an effective stress-management technique. 3) It is difficult because of the long-term nature of most stress for older adults. 4) It helps older adults recognize the stressful events in their lives and their responses 16. Which should NOT be suggested to a patient as a quick relaxer to promote sleep? 1) Imagery 2) Life review 3) Roll breathing [Show Less]
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TEST BANK FOR PRIMARY CARE ART AND SCIENCE OF ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING 6th EDITION
TEST BANK FOR PRIMARY CARE ART AND SCIENCE OF ADVANCED PRACTICE NURSING 6th EDITION TEST BANK FOR PRIMARY CARE ART AND SCIENCE OF ADVANCED PRA... [Show More] CTICE NURSING – AN INTERPROFESSIONAL APPROACH 6TH EDITION DUNPHY Chapter 1. Primary Care in the Twenty-First Century: A Circle of Caring 1. A nurse has conducted a literature review in an effort to identify the effect of hand washing on the incidence of nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections in acute care settings. An article presented findings at a level of significance of <0.01. This indicates that A) The control group and the experimental group were more than 99% similar. B) The findings of the study have less than 1% chance of being attributable to chance. C) The effects of the intervention were nearly zero. D) The clinical significance of the findings was less than 1:100. Ans: B Feedback: The level of significance is the level at which the researcher believes that the study results most likely represent a no chance event. A level of significance of <0.01 indicates that there is less than 1% probability that the result is due to chance. 2. A nurse has read a qualitative research study in order to understand the lived experience of parents who have a neonatal loss. Which of the following questions should the nurse prioritize when appraising the results of this study? A) How well did the authors capture the personal experiences of these parents? B) How well did the authors control for confounding variables that may have affected the findings? C) Did the authors use statistical measures that were appropriate to the phenomenon in question? D) Were the instruments that the researchers used statistically valid and reliable? Ans: A Feedback: Qualitative studies are judged on the basis of how well they capture and convey the subjective experiences of individuals. Statistical measures and variables are not dimensions of a qualitative methodology. 3. A nurse has expressed skepticism to a colleague about the value of nursing research, claiming that nursing research has little relevance to practice. How can the nurses colleague best defend the importance of nursing research? A) The existence of nursing research means that nurses are now able to access federal grant money, something that didnt use to be the case. B) Nursing research has allowed the development of masters and doctoral programs and has greatly increased the credibility of the profession. C) The growth of nursing research has caused nursing to be viewed as a true profession, rather than simply as a trade or a skill. D) The application of nursing research has the potential to improve nursing practice and patient outcomes. Ans: D Feedback: The greatest value of nursing research lies in the potential to improve practice and, ultimately, to improve patient outcomes. This supersedes the contributions of nursing research to education programs, grant funding, or the public view of the profession. 4. Tracy is a nurse with a baccalaureate degree who works in the labor and delivery unit of a busy urban hospital. She has noticed that many new mothers abandon breast-feeding their babies when they experience early challenges and wonders what could be done to encourage more women to continue breast-feeding. What role is Tracy most likely to play in a research project that tests an intervention aimed at promoting breast-feeding? A) Applying for grant funding for the research project B) Posing the clinical problem to one or more nursing researchers C) Planning the methodology of the research project D) Carrying out the intervention and submitting the results for publication Ans: B Feedback: A major role for staff nurses is to identify questions or problems for research. Grant applications, methodological planning, and publication submission are normally carried out by nurses who have advanced degrees in nursing. 5. A patient signed the informed consent form for a drug trial that was explained to patient by a research assistant. Later, the patient admitted to his nurse that he did not understand the research assistants explanation or his own role in the study. How should this patients nurse respond to this revelation? A) Explain the research process to the patient in greater detail. B) Describe the details of a randomized controlled trial for the patient. C) Inform the research assistant that the patients consent is likely invalid. D) Explain to the patient that his written consent is now legally binding. Ans: C Feedback: Just as the staff nurse is not responsible for medical consent, the staff nurse is not responsible for research consent. If patients who have agreed to participate exhibit ambivalence or uncertainty about participating, do not try to convince them to participate. Ask the person from the research team who is managing consents to speak with concerned patients about the study, even after a patient has signed the consent forms. Multiple Selection 6. A nurse leader is attempting to increase the awareness of evidence-based practice (EBP) among the nurses on a unit. A nurse who is implementing EBP integrates which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Interdisciplinary consensus B) Nursing tradition C) Research studies D) Patient preferences and values E) Clinical expertise Ans: C, D, E Feedback: Fineout-Overholt, Melnyk, Stillwell, and Williamson define EBP as a problem- solving approach to the delivery of healthcare that integrates the best evidence from studies and patient care data with clinician expertise and patient preferences and values. Multiple Choice 7. Mrs. Mayes is a 73-year-old woman who has a diabetic foot ulcer that has been extremely slow to heal and which now poses a threat of osteomyelitis. The wound care nurse who has been working with Mrs. Mayes applies evidence-based practice (EBP) whenever possible and has proposed the use of maggot therapy to debride necrotic tissue. Mrs. Mayes, however, finds the suggestion repugnant and adamantly opposes this treatment despite the sizable body of evidence supporting it. How should the nurse reconcile Mrs. Mayes views with the principles of EBP? A) The nurse should explain that reliable and valid research evidence overrides the patients opinion. B) The nurse should explain the evidence to the patient in greater detail. C) The nurse should integrate the patients preferences into the plan of care. D) The nurse should involve the patients family members in the decision-making process. Ans: C Feedback: Patient preferences should be integrated into EBP and considered alongside research evidence and the nurses clinical expertise; evidence does not trump the patients preferences. The family should be involved, but this is not an explicit dimension of EBP. Similarly, explaining the evidence in more detail is not a demonstration of EBP. 8. The administrators of a long-term care facility are considered the use of specialized, pressure- reducing mattresses in order to reduce the incidence of pressure ulcers among residents. They have sought input from the nurses on the unit, all of whom are aware of the need to implement the principles of evidence-based practice (EBP) in this decision. Which of the following evidence sources should the nurses prioritize? A) A qualitative study that explores the experience of living with a pressure ulcer B) A case study that describes the measures that nurses on a geriatric unit took to reduce pressure ulcers among patients C) Testimonials from experienced clinicians about the effectiveness of the mattress in question D) A randomized controlled trial that compared the pressure-reducing mattress with standard mattresses Ans: D Feedback: The most reliable evidence is considered RCTs. Qualitative studies, case studies, and expert opinion are low on the hierarchy of evidence. [Show Less]
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TEST BANK FOR ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 9TH EDITION BY PATTON ALL CHAPTERS
TEST BANK FOR ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 9TH EDITION BY PATTON ALL CHAPTERS TEST BANK FOR ANATOMY AND PHYSIOL... [Show More] OGY 9TH EDITION BY PATTON Chapter 01: Organization of the Body Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following describes anatomy? a. Using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure b. Investigating human structure via dissections and other methods c. Studying the unusual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli d. Examining the physiology of life ANS: B DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Anatomy and Physiology 2. Systemic anatomy is a term that refers to: a. physiological investigation at a microscopic level. b. anatomical investigation that begins in the head and neck and concludes at the feet. c. anatomical investigation that uses an approach of studying the body by systems—groups of organs having a common function. d. anatomical investigation at the molecular level. ANS: C DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Anatomy and Physiology 3. Physiology can be subdivided according to the studied. a. type of organism b. organizational level c. systemic function d. All of the above are correct. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Physiology 4. Physiology: a. recognizes the unchanging (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of things. b. investigates the body’s structure. c. is concerned with organisms and does not deal with different levels of organization such as cells and systems. d. is the science that examines the function of living organisms and their parts. ANS: D DIF: Memorization REF: TOP: Physiology 5. Metabolism refers to: a. the chemical basis of life. b. the sum of all the physical and chemical reactions occurring in the body. c. an organization of similar cells specialized to perform a certain function. d. a subdivision of physiology. ANS: B DIF: Application REF: [Show Less]
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TEST BANK FOR: SUCCESS IN PRACTICAL/VOCATIONAL NURSING, 8TH EDITION BY PATRICIA KNECHT
TEST BANK FOR: SUCCESS IN PRACTICAL/VOCATIONAL NURSING, 8TH EDITION BY PATRICIA KNECHT ISBN: 9780323 Chapter 01: Personal Resources of an Adult Learner K... [Show More] necht: Success in Practical/Vocational Nursing, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which individual in a practical/vocational nursing class would be identified as a traditional adult learner? a. One who has been out of school for many years b. One who has children and grandchildren c. One who knows the routine of education d. One who is in his or her early 20s ANS: D Traditional adult learners are individuals who come to the educational program directly from high school or another program of study. They are usually in their late teens or early 20s. The learner who has been out of school for many years and the learner who has children and grandchildren would be identified as a returning adult learner. The learner who knows the routine of education does not provide sufficient information for classification. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 3 OBJ: 1 TOP: Adult Learner KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 2. A student enrolled in an LPN/LVN program states, “I’m fresh out of high school and living alone for the first time in my life. I’m learning how to take care of myself as well as learning to care for my patients.” This statement identifies the student as a. a traditional adult learner. b. a returning adult learner. c. someone in need of counseling. d. someone who is not accustomed to formal education. ANS: A Traditional adult learners are individuals who are in their late teens or early 20s who have come to the practical/vocational program directly from high school or another program of study. A returning adult learner is someone who has been out of school for several years. A person in needed of counseling is commonly a student who has been evaluated by the instructor as having areas that need improvement. This student is a traditional adult learner, and traditional adult learners are accustomed to formal education. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 3 OBJ: 1 TOP: Adult Learner KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 3. A nursing student states, “I have taken advantage of informal learning experiences.” Another student asks, “Could you give me an example?” The best example of an informal learning experience is a. caring for a disabled family member. b. taking a continuing education course. c. enrolling in an academic program. d. attending credit classes at the mall. ANS: A Informal learning experiences are those that take place outside a formal educational setting. A person who cares for a disabled family member would gain knowledge and skill in providing personal care. An education course, academic program, and credited classes all take place in a formal educational setting. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 3 OBJ: 2 TOP: Informal educational experience KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 4. What strategy can be used by a nursing student to effectively combat a fear of failure? a. Picture in your mind the rewards of succeeding b. Positive self-talk c. Create a mental script of positive thoughts d. All of the above ANS: D Picturing the rewards of succeeding, positive self-talk, and a mental script of positive thoughts all contribute a positive mental attitude and are all ways to combat the fear of failure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 4 OBJ: 2 TOP: Promoting success in the program of study KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 5. An example of a self-talk “script” that promotes success in a practical/vocational nursing program is a. “I get sick from smelling bad odors.” b. “What if I’m ‘all thumbs’ in practice lab?” c. “I don’t think the instructor likes me.” d. “I work well with my hands.” ANS: D The statement “I work well with my hands” is a positive thought. It focuses on a strength and promotes the expectation that the individual will succeed. All other options are examples of negative thinking that create expectations for problems and failure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 3 OBJ: 2 TOP: Hidden dangers KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 6. Select the factor common to ALL types of adult learners that predisposes them to success in a nursing program. a. They have few responsibilities at home. b. They have the motivation to succeed. c. They automatically qualify for financial aid. d. They have few daily distractions. ANS: B The only statement applicable to all types of adult learners is that the majority is motivated to succeed. The other factors may be applicable to one or two classifications of learners but not to all three. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: p. 4 OBJ: 2 TOP: Factors predisposing to success KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 7. When a class of nursing students discusses their concerns about their program, the concern shared by most learners is generally the fear of a. succeeding. b. economic problems. c. failure. d. ridicule. ANS: C Some degree of fear of failure is nearly universal and often relates to earlier failures or setbacks the learner has experienced in other educational settings. Few individuals are afraid of succeeding. Uncertainty about economic issues is common among students but is not as universal as fear of failure. Fear of ridicule is rarely a concern; if present, it is usually superseded by fear of failure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 4 OBJ: 2 TOP: Hidden dangers KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 8. The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guarantees students the right to a. graduate from a program. b. fail an academic program. c. express oneself in class. d. have unlimited absences. ANS: C The First Amendment provides for freedom of expression as long as what is expressed does not disrupt class or infringe on the rights of peers. The remaining options are topics that are not addressed by this amendment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 6 OBJ: 6 TOP: Learner rights KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 9. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects the learner from being asked to leave an educational program without due process? a. Eleventh b. Twelfth c. Thirteenth d. Fourteenth ANS: D The Fourteenth Amendment guarantees due process. The learner has the right to defend him- or herself if charged with a violation of policy or rules. The Eleventh, Twelfth, and Thirteenth amendments do not address due process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge REF: p. 6 OBJ: 6 TOP: Learner rights KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 10. When a nursing student expresses concern about being dismissed unfairly from the program, the most effective peer response would be a. “Better get over being so negative.” b. “You have rights under the Fourteenth Amendment.” c. “Watch what you say in class to reduce this possibility.” d. “Instructors really do have control over what happens.” ANS: B The Fourteenth Amendment guarantees due process to the student. The learner has the right to defend him- or herself if charged with a violation of program policy or rules. The other statements are not the most effective responses to give a student concerned with being unfairly dismissed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 6 OBJ: 6 TOP: Learner rights KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 11. A nursing student monopolizes class discussions. Which statement about the situation is most accurate? a. The student is violating the rights of others to participate in class. b. The student is demonstrating interdependency with the instructor. c. The student is demonstrating passive learning strategies. d. The student is at risk for being immediately terminated. ANS: A The First Amendment provides the right to freedom of speech as long as what is said does not disrupt the class or infringe on the rights of other students. In this case, the student who monopolizes discussion is violating the right of free expression by others in the class. Interdependency involves a student who is actively involved in his or her own learning and who has a collaborative relationship with the instructor. A passive learner is someone who is not actively involved in his or her own learning. The Fourteenth Amendment assures the student due process, meaning that first the student must be charged with a violation and presented with evidence of misconduct. The student will be entitled to state his or her case. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 6 OBJ: 6 TOP: Learner rights KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 12. Which remark by a student in a nursing program verbalizes a strategy that promotes success in the program? a. “I set goals and work to achieve them.” b. “I avoid interacting with instructors.” c. “I spend 2 to 3 hours daily surfing the net.” d. “I limit my partying to 3 to 4 nights a week.” ANS: A Setting goals and working to implement them is a strategy associated with active, self-directed learning and will promote success. The other responses refer to behaviors that are not conducive to success, such as avoiding the facilitators of your learning (instructors) and demonstrating poor time management skills. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 8 OBJ: 5 TOP: Active learning KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 13. Which statement is true regarding the teaching/learning process in practical/vocational nursing? a. If the student fails, the instructor is ultimately at fault. b. By asking questions, the student interferes with the instructor’s work. c. The student has little responsibility when it comes to evaluation. d. The student is responsible for preparing for theory classes and clinical experience. ANS: D Advance preparation provides a basis for continued learning in the classroom. It provides the learner the opportunity to ask relevant questions about theory. Preparation prior to clinical experience safeguards patients’ safety. If students fail, it is their own fault; students have responsibility for their own learning. A key responsibility of learners is to receive and participate in evaluation; it plays an important role in their education and throughout their career. Instructors are responsible for creating an environment in which learning can take place, and a critical part of this is being available to assist with questions and problems that students cannot solve. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 11 OBJ: 5 TOP: Learner responsibilities KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 14. A student who wishes to use research findings regarding the best way for students to learn will a. stay up late each night and study. b. actively participate in the learning process. c. sit passively during each lecture session. d. cram before each examination. ANS: B Studies have shown that people learn best when they are actively involved in their own learning and have an interdependent relationship with the instructor. The remaining options are counterproductive behaviors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 7 OBJ: 5 TOP: Learner responsibilities KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 15. When explaining the responsibility of the learner to a group of nursing students, a mentor should emphasize that the learner’s first priority is to a. absorb the knowledge taught by the instructor. b. be self-directed and active in the process of learning. c. study only what the instructor emphasizes in class. d. focus on learning 65% of the information that is taught. ANS: B Studies have shown that people learn best when they are actively involved in their own learning and have an interdependent relationship with the instructor. Absorbing the knowledge taught by the instructor describes passive learning. Studying only what the instructor emphasizes in class and focusing on learning 65% of the information that is taught are approaches that severely limit learning; students must be self-directed and curious in their learning. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: p. 7 OBJ: 5 TOP: Active learning KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 16. Which statement best describes an active learning situation? a. The learner practices bed-making. b. The learner watches a peer make a bed. c. The learner watches the instructor make a bed. d. The learner pays attention during lecture. ANS: A Active learning requires the learner to gain knowledge and skill by his or her own efforts. A learner who participates takes an active role. The other options all describe passive learning situations. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 8 OBJ: 5 TOP: Active learning KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A 17. What understanding about the goal of evaluation would be most helpful to a student in a nursing program? a. Evaluation lowers learner self-esteem. b. Evaluation ridicules student performance. c. Evaluation identifies behaviors that stand in the way of meeting goals. d. Evaluation informs the learner of things that annoy the instructor. ANS: C Progression toward goal attainment is identified by evaluation. During the process, behaviors that stand in the way of goal attainment are identified, along with strengths of performance. Evaluations should not lower self-esteem, ridicule the student, or point out behaviors the instructor finds annoying as these will not help the student attain his or her goal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis REF: p. 8 OBJ: 7 TOP: Role of evaluation KEY: Nursing Process Step: N/A MSC: NCLEX: N/A [Show Less]
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TEST BANK FOR VARCAROLIS FOUNDATIONS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 9TH EDITION
TEST BANK FOR VARCAROLIS FOUNDATIONS OF PSYCHIATRIC MENTAL HEALTH NURSING 9TH EDITION MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A parent says, “My 2-year-old child ref... [Show More] uses toilet training and shouts ‘No!’ when given directions. What do you think is wrong?” What is the nurse’s best reply? a. “Your child needs firmer control. It is important to set limits now.” b. “This is normal for your child’s age. The child is striving for independence.” c. “There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2.” d. “Some undesirable attitudes are developing. A child psychologist can help you develop a plan.” ANS: B This behavior is conventional of a child around the age of 2 years, whose developmental task is to develop autonomy. The distracters indicate the child’s behavior is abnormal. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. A nurse wants to find information on current evidence-based research, programs, and practices regarding mental illness and addictions. Which resource should the nurse consult? a. American Psychiatric Association b. American Psychological Association (APA) c. Clinician’s Quick Guide to Interpersonal Psychotherapy d. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) ANS: D The SAMHSA maintains a National Registry of Evidence-based Practices and Programs. New therapies are entered into the database on a regular basis. The incorrect responses are resources but do not focus on evidence-based information. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Client Needs: Management of Care 3. A 26-month-old displays negative behavior, refuses toilet training, and often says, “No!” Which psychosocial crisis is evident? a. Trust versus mistrust b. Initiative versus guilt c. Industry versus inferiority d. Autonomy versus shame and doubt ANS: D The crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt relates to the developmental task of gaining control of self and environment, as exemplified by toilet training. This psychosocial crisis occurs during the period of early childhood. Trust versus mistrust is the crisis of the infant. Initiative versus guilt is the crisis of the preschool and early-school-aged child. Industry versus inferiority is the crisis of the 6- to 12-year-old child. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. A 4-year-old grabs toys from other children and says, “I want that now!” From a psychoanalytic perspective, this behavior is a product of impulses originating in which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious ANS: A The id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of impulses. The ego acts as a mediator of behavior and weighs the consequences of the action, perhaps determining that taking the toy is not worth the mother’s wrath. The superego would oppose the impulsive behavior as “not nice.” The preconscious is a level of awareness rather than an aspect of personality. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. The parent of a 4-year-old rewards and praises the child for helping a sibling, being polite, and using good manners. These qualities are likely to be internalized and become part of which system of the personality? a. Id b. Ego c. Superego d. Preconscious ANS: C The superego contains the “shoulds,” or moral standards internalized from interactions with significant others. Praise fosters internalization of desirable behaviors. The id is the center of basic instinctual drives, and the ego is the mediator. The ego is the problem-solving and reality-testing portion of the personality that negotiates solutions with the outside world. The preconscious is a level of awareness from which material can be retrieved easily with conscious effort. This item relates to an audience response question. PTS: 1 DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. A nurse supports a parent for praising a child who behaves in helpful ways to others. When this child behaves with politeness and helpfulness in adulthood, which feeling will most likely result? a. Guilt b. Anxiety c. Humility d. Self-esteem ANS: D The individual will be living up to the ego ideal, which will result in positive feelings about self. The other options are incorrect because each represents a negative feeling. [Show Less]
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Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers, 5th edition Woo Robinson Test Bank
Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice Nurse Prescribers, 5th edition Woo Robinson Test Bank Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescrib... [Show More] er Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: 1. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing 2. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration 3. The State Board of Nursing for each state 4. The State Board of Pharmacy 2. The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include: 1. Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program. 2. Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding their care. 3. APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances. 4. APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice. 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes: 1. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed 2. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process 3. Handing out drug samples to poor patients 4. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include: 1. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them 2. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management 3. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription 4. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration guidelines for prescribing 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform because of: 1. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes 2. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently 3. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health- care reform 4. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level Chapter 1. The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 3 PTS: 1 2. ANS: 2 PTS: 1 3. ANS: 1 PTS: 1 4. ANS: 2 PTS: 1 5. ANS: 1 PTS: 1 Chapter 2. Review of the Basic Principles of Pharmacology Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and laboratory results reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: 1. Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected. 2. The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption. 3. There will be less free drug available to generate an effect. 4. Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidneys. 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect: 1. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only 2. Bypass the hepatic circulation 3. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action 4. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be the: 1. Kidneys 2. Lungs 3. Bile and feces 4. Skin 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed intramuscularly (IM) to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs: 1. Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue 2. Are the reason for giving loading doses 3. Increase the length of time a drug is available and active 4. Are most common in collagen tissues 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s: 1. Propensity to go to the target receptor 2. Biological half-life 3. Pharmacodynamics 4. Safety and side effects 6. Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: 1. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range 2. Requires four- to five-half-lives to attain 3. Is influenced by renal function 4. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: 1. Minimum adverse effect level 2. Peak of action 3. Onset of action 4. Therapeutic range 8. Phenytoin requires that a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done: 1. When the drug has a wide therapeutic range 2. When the drug will be administered for a short time only 3. When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites 4. To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range 9. A laboratory result indicates that the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: 1. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects 2. Concentration will produce an adverse response 3. Time between doses must be shortened 4. Duration of action of the drug is too long 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property? 1. Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site 2. Upregulation with chronic use 3. Desensitization or downregulation with continuous use 4. Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause: 1. Downregulation of the drug receptor 2. An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued 3. Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs 4. An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include: 1. Liver enzyme activity 2. Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule 3. Lipid solubility of the drug 4. Ability to chew and swallow 13. Drugs administered via IV: 1. Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed 2. Begin distribution into the body immediately 3. Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized 4. May use pinocytosis to be absorbed 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is: 1. The sum of the effects of each drug individually 2. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually 3. Less than the effect of each drug individually 4. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? 1. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained-release mechanisms. 2. All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability. 3. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily. 4. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability. 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true? 1. Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly. 2. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. 3. The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother. 4. Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women. 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase I or phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to: 1. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues 2. Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes 3. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete 4. Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be: 1. More active than the parent drug 2. Less active than the parent drug 3. Totally “deactivated” so they are excreted without any effect 4. All of the above [Show Less]
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