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S ST 105 Test 1, questions and answers scored 30 out of 30| graded A+
"The early cooking of southern food was primarily done by blacks, men and women. In the home, in hotels, in boardinghouses, on boats, on trains, and at the... [Show More] White House. Cooking is hard and demanding. It was then, and it still is now." Who wrote this statement? a. Matt and Ted Lee b. Sean Brock c. Edna Lewis d. Sara Franklin Answer: (C) Edna Lewis Combining various disciplinary perspectives, theory, and methodologies to study something is an example of what king of scholarship? a. Ethnographic b. Multidisciplinary c. Quantitative d. Interdisciplinary Answer: (D) Interdisciplinary Which of the following is NOT a defining element of the "pastoral south"? a. Technological change b. A slow, simple, pleasurable life c. An assertion of the superiority of rural virtues d. Interracial harmony Answer: (A) Technological change Where are the two restaurants that Rebecca Skloot profiles in " Two Americas, Two Restaurants, One Town"? a. Freetown, Virginia b. New Martinsville, West Virginia c. New Orleans, Louisiana d. Clarksdale, Mississippi Answer: (B) New Martinsville, West Virginia Which of the following is an adequate definition of terroir? a. Fear of outsiders b. Regional identity c. The love of place d. The taste of place Answer: (D) The taste of place How does the geographer Yi-Fu Tuan define "place"? a. "Where people hang out" b. " Humanized space" c. "Critical and globalized" d. "Socially constructed" Answer: (B) "Humanized space" What does it mean to have a "critical perspective" when studying southern food? a. Evaluating the quality of ingredients and dishes in southern cuisine b. Taking a negative view of the South and southern food c. Thoughtfully examining the narratives and "imaginaries" connected to southern food, and not basing ideas on stereotypes d. Being sure to consider only the most essential elements of southern food Answer: (C) Thoughtfully examining the narratives and "imaginaries" connected to southern food, and not basing ideas on stereotypes According to Joassart- Marcelli and Bosco, what is the relationship between globalization and place- making? a. "Globalization has transformed- and in some ways heightened- the significance of place." b. " Globalization makes all places meaningless." c. " Globalization has contributed to an atmosphere of placelessness, where individual places lose their distinctive characters." d. " There is no relationship between globalization and place- making." Answer: (A) "Globalization has transformed- and in some ways heightened- the significance of place." When does the story of food in "the South" begin? a. 13,000 to 15,000 years ago b. 1607 c. 1619 d. 1861 Answer: (A) 13,000 to 15,000 years ago Which ingredient was a staple in the diets of nearly all Southeastern Indian tribes? a. Pork b. Beef c. Potatoes d. Corn Answer: (D) Corn Which crop became essential for the enrichment of the earliest wave of British settlers? a. Cotton b. Tobacco c. Indigo d. Rice Answer: (B) Tobacco What happened in 1619? a. The British arrive at Jamestown b. The Indian Removal Act initiates the forced removal of 46,000 Native American people form their land east of the Mississippi c. A Dutch ship brings the first forcibly removed Africans to Jamestown d. The British settlers face starvation in the midst of drought and ignorance Answer: (C) A Dutch ship brings the first forcibly removed Africans to Jamestown After the Indian Removal Act, one group of Southeastern Indians refused to leave their lands. The US government sent in 7,000 troops and forced this group to march westward in what became known as the Trail of Tears. 4,000 people died of cold, hunger, and disease on their way to western lands. Which Native group was forcibly removed during the Trail of Tears? a. Choctaw b. Chickasaw c. Seminole d. Cherokee Answer: (D) Cherokee Which Native American tribal community is featured in the Gravy podcast, "Adaptation, Survival. Gratitude"? a. Chickasaw b. Lumbee c. Choctaw d. Cherokee Answer: (B) Lumbee Which of the following crops was/were native to the Americas prior to the Columbian Exchange? a. Potato b. Corn c. Tomato d. All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above Which of the following quotations is an accurate demonstration of the term plantation economy? a. "Today, Mississippi's poultry workers are Americans from nearly every part of the continent." b. "By the end of the 1960s most of Mississippi's chicken plants were run by white management, overseen by white supervisors, and staffed by line workers who were almost entirely African American." c. "The labor's here, but the jobs dont want to pay." Answer: (B) "By the end of the 1960s most of Mississippi's chicken plants were run by white management, overseen by white supervisors, and staffed by line workers who were almost entirely African American." The Fair Food Program, developed by the Coalition of Immokalee Workers and featured in the film Food Chains makes which of the following demands? a. A wage increase of one additional penny per pound, b. An end of forced labor. c. Protections against sexual abuse. d. All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above Approximately how many workers were arrested in Immigration and Customs Enforcement (ICE) raids in seven Mississippi chicken processing plants on August 7, 2019? a. 100 b. 300 c. 500 d. 700 Answer: (B) 300 Which of the following is an Example of a push factor driving human migration? a. Job Opportunities b. Re-uniting with family c. War d. Asylum Answer: (C) War According to the film Soul Food Junkies, and the article by Ashante Reese, which of the following statements is true? a. Community gardening will solve the problem of food access in low income communities. b. There aren't enough grocery stores in low-income communities because people prefer to grow their own food. c. Health and well-being are circumscribed by structural factors like discrimination. d. None of the above are true Answer: (C) Health and well-being are circumscribed by structural factors like discrimination. [Show Less]
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EPIC Training Wheels Behind the Scenes, questions and answers with verified content| graded A+
Before Class Learning Pre-Req E-learning Benefits of E-Learning *Introduction to Epic screens, terms, functionality *Viewed any time *Feel of wo... [Show More] rking without Overhead Classroom Training *Lesson Plans *Slides *Exercise Booklets *Train Environment *Class Info Sheet *Hands-On After Class Learning *Playground *Exercise Booklets End User Engagement Activities *Shadow Charting *Simulation Lab *Production Prep *What-to-do Sessions STS Specialists Training Specialists NTN Nurses Training Nurses Quick Start Guide *Step by step *Walks through workflow Tip Sheet *More targeted then Quick Start Guide *Includes Screen Shots *Clarifies specific 'hard' topics Training Wheels is based on... Epic Foundation System Curriculum Matrix Primary tool for managing curriculum Outline of topics to cover Deliverable Tracker Tracks status of training documents Lesson Plan Lecture outline that includes: *Preparation *FAQ *Key Points *Patients/Scenarios *How to Demo *Instructions *Cues to use other materials *Placeholder brackets for customization Exercise Booklet *Hands-on Practice Guide Classroom Information Sheet Provides: *login information *Playground information *Patient information *Patient Reference Information Specialty Champion Physician who trains peers. Foundation System The starting point for UH's Epic install. Training Wheels are based on this. Production Environment Customized for UH. Holds real patient data. Super User Resource to peers. Receives additional training on advanced topics. Training Environment Built by PTs and is used to support scenarios outlined in lessons and exercises. Credentialed Trainer Facilitates classroom training once they have been trained by the PT and have completed their training panel. Deliverables that support lesson plan. *Exercise booklets *PPT *Classroom Information Sheet *Assessments Training Track What courses to teach and in what order. in the Curriculum matrix Track Times Tab Lists each of the training tracks and required training times. *Does not auto-update *Breaks down the content that the course will cover. Patient Finder *Located on the Track Times Tab of the Curriculum Matrix. *Allows you to select a patien'ts name to see where they are used within the curriculum. *Highlights the role on the track times tab and the sections where the patient's name is being used. Specialist Curriculum Matrix Shared tool for managing curriculum for all specialist tracks. Patient Workflow Crosswalk *In the Specialist Training Wheels. *Contains a list of the training wheels workflows and the corresponding patients recommended for each specialist. Specialist E-Learning Matrix *Specialist Training Wheels *separate tab that lists the different e-learnings and which specialists need to watch them and when. How to use the Deliverable Tracker *Delete unnecessary deliverables *Assign documents to buckets *Update status column *The Used In column allows you to group deliverables by track. Curriculum Development Statuses (6) *Not Started *In Progress *Needs Review *In Review *Ready for MST Build *Ready for Training Role Analysis Workbook TW tool used to map staff members training tracks. Legacy Data collection Workbook collects info about workflows and policies before the install to determine the epic wokflows they'll demo during WFWT. Operational Playbook Used to facilitate decisions and activities operations need to complete during the install. Operational Meetings Operational workgroups that use operational playbook to help make decisions leading up to go-live. Workflow Walkthroughs patient centered, integrated demo of validated workflows performed before build begins. Job Shadowing Watch users before go live. MST Model State of Training ACE Actual Classroom Environment. PLY Playground. EXAM Used for trainees to take assessments. [Show Less]
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POSTTEST 1.05 IM-184 questions and answers| all correct
Ted is planning a new advertising campaign for his company, a stable that offers private horseback-riding lessons. Which of the following is data that woul... [Show More] d be useful for Ted's marketing decision making: Market share data for his company during the past year Which of the following is most likely to be a primary data source: A customer survey Which of the following is most likely to be a secondary data source: A call report Juliana wants to measure her business's actual sales against its goals for the quarter. She needs to conduct a ________________ analysis. sales volume Which of the following is a piece of data that could be obtained from customer complaints files: How a customer's complaint was resolved Which of the following is an example of customer data: Data about buying habits Which of the following data are most likely to be found in a business's customer records: Annual purchases and product usage Cedric just spent $150 taking a potential customer out to dinner. He will submit this information in a(n) expense report. Because not all sales calls result in sales, it's important for salespeople to track customer contacts in call reports. If marketers want to know how salespeople are performing over a period of time, they should consult sales reports. ABC Appliances has received several service calls to fix its latest model of washing machine. product data. Which of the following is a type of financial statement that is useful in marketing decision making: Cash flow statement Which of the following is the best place to start looking for data about competitors: The company's website Simon wants to know how well his company did last quarter in relation to other companies in its industry. He needs to conduct a _________________ analysis. market share Which of the following could provide data on competitors' upcoming plans: Observable changes in marketing strategies Jennifer notices that stock prices have been steadily increasing for several months. How could this piece of data impact her marketing decision making? It indicates that the economy is growing, so marketing decisions might involve expansion or growth. Why are a company's suppliers and distributors sources of competitive data? They work with many companies in the same industry. [Show Less]
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TED-Ed: What is fat? Questions and answers updated 2023
molecule (physics and chemistry) the simplest structural unit of an element or compound fat triglyceride molecules found in living cells bo... [Show More] nd the property of sticking together (as of glue and wood) or the joining of surfaces of different composition saturated fats fatty acids with only single bonds; bad for you in excess unsaturated fats fatty acids with one or more double bonds; most are good for you configuration an arrangement of parts or elements transfat type of unsaturated fat, created by partially hydrogenating unsaturated fat; worse kind of fat for you partially hydrogenated a chemical process that adds hydrogen atoms to an unsaturated oil, but not completely pick on to tease, attack, or focus on in a negative way rancid a fat that has gone bad fatty acids fat molecules [Show Less]
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S ST 105 Final questions and answers, scored A+ | latest updated
"The early cooking of southern food was primarily done by blacks, men and women. In the home, in hotels, in boardinghouses, on boats, on trains, and at the... [Show More] White House. Cooking is hard and demanding. It was then, and it still is now." Who wrote this statement? a. Matt and Ted Lee b. Sean Brock c. Edna Lewis d. Sara Franklin c. Edna Lewis Combining various disciplinary perspectives, theory, and methodologies to study something is an example of what kind of scholarship? a. Ethnographic b. Multidisciplinary c. Quantitive d. Interdisciplinary d. Interdisciplinary Which of the following is NOT a defining element of the "pastoral south"? a. Technological change b. A slow, simple, pleasurable life c. An assertion of the superiority of rural virtues d. Interracial harmony a. Technological change Where are the two restaurants that Rebecca Skloot profiles in "Two Americas, Two Restaurants, One Town"? a. Freetown, Virginia b. New Martinsville, West Virginia c. New Orleans, Louisiana d. Clarksdale, Mississippi b. New Martinsville, West Virginia Which of the following is an adequate definition of terroir? a. Fear of outsiders b. Regional identity c. The love of place d. The taste of place d. The taste of place How does the geographer Yi-Fu Tuan define "place"? a. "Where people hang out" b. "Humanized space" c. "Critical and globalized" d. "Socially constructed" b. "Humanized space" What does it mean to have a "critical perspective" when studying southern food? a. Evaluating the quality of ingredients and dishes in southern cuisine. b. Taking a negative view of the South and southern food. c. Thoughtfully examining the narratives and "imaginaries" connected to southern food, and not basing ideas on stereotypes. d. Being sure to consider only the most essential elements of southern food. c. Thoughtfully examining the narratives and "imaginaries" connected to southern food, and not basing ideas on stereotypes. According to Joassart-Marcelli and Bosco, what is the relationship between globalization and place-making? a. "Globalization has transformed - and in some ways heightened - the significance of place." b. "Globalization makes all places meaningless." c. "Globalization has contributed to an atmosphere of placelessness, where individual places lose their distinctive characters." d. "There is no relationship between globalization and place-making." a. "Globalization has transformed - and in some ways heightened - the significance of place." When does the story of food in "the South" begin? a. 13,000 to 15,000 years ago b. 1607 c. 1619 d. 1861 a. 13,000 to 15,000 years ago Which ingredient was a staple in the diets of nearly all Southeastern Indian Tribes? a. Pork b. Beef c. Potatoes d. Corn d. Corn Which crop became essential for the enrichment of the earliest wave of British settlers? a. Cotton b. Tobacco c. Indigo d. Rice b. Tobacco What happened in 1619? a. The British arrive at Jamestown b. The Indian Removal Act initiates the forced removal of 46,000 Native American people from their land east of the Mississippi. c. A Dutch ship brings the first forcibly removed Africans to Jamestown. d. The British settlers face starvation in the midst of drought and ignorance. c. A Dutch ship brings the first forcibly removed Africans to Jamestown. After the Indian Removal Act, one group of Southeastern Indians refused to leave their lands. The U.S. govt sent in 7,000 troops and forced this group to march westward in what became known as the Trail of Tears. 4,000 people died of cold, removed during the Trail of Tears? a. Choctaw b. Chickasaw c. Seminole d. Cherokee d. Cherokee Which Native American tribal community is featured in the Gravy podcast, "Adaptation, Survival, Gratitude"? a. Chickasaw b. Lumbee c. Choctaw d. Cherokee b. Lumbee Which of the following crops was / were native to the Americans prior to the Columbian Exchange? a. Potato b. Corn c. Tomato d. All of the above d. All of the above What was the agricultural system that replaced slavery in the South after the civil war? a. Industrial agriculture b. Bracero guest worker program c. Sharecropping d. Convict leasing c. Sharecropping According to the historian C. Vann Woodward, _________ was "one of the most significant inventions of the New South." a. The "Old South" b. The cotton gin c. Pancake mix d. Jim Crow a. The "Old South" Which Supreme Court case legalized spatial segregation in the public spaces, including restaurants, in 1896? a. Brown v. Board of Education b. Plessy v. Ferguson c. Loving v. Virginia d. Shelley v. Kraemer b. Plessy v. Ferguson What is the term for adopting or using the cuisine or other cultural product of someone else, and typically profiting in some way? a. Culinary colonialism b. Commodification c. Representation d. Cultural appropriation d. Cultural appropriation From which reading does the following statement come? "The only thing that counts is whether it's served here and not there." a. Green, "Mother Corn and the Dixie Pig" b. Lee and Lee, "The Taste of Right Here" c. Skloot, "Two Americas, Two Restaurants, One Town" d. Lewis, "What is Southern" b. Lee and Lee, "The Taste of Right Here" According to Cindy Hahamovitch, which of the following is "the crux of the farm labor conflict"? a. Race b. Wages c. Labor Supply d. Immigration c. Labor Supply Who were the first "migrant farmworkers" in the region that would become the U.S. South? a. Indentured servants from England b. Enslaved West Africans c. Mexican guest workers d. Chinese farmworkers a. Indentured servants from England Which of the following statements about the Wagner Act is/are true? a. It was signed into law by President Franklin Roosevelt in 1935 b. It gaurantees the right of private sector workers to unionize and take collective action. c. It excluded agricultural and domestic laborers d. All of the above are true d. All of the above are true The film Harvest of Shame, which aired on the day after Thanksgiving in 1960, exposed American viewers to which of the following problems? a. The poverty of migrant farmworkers b. Discrimination faced by African American farmers c. The danger of industrial meatpacking plants d. The harm of chemical fertilizers and pesticides a. The poverty of migrant farmworkers Which of the following federal policies promised "forty acres and a mule" to formerly enslaved Americans? a. The first Morill Act b. The second Morill Act c. The Homestead Act c. Special Order No. 15 c. Special Order No. 15 True or False: The U.S. govt fulfilled its promise to grant land ("forty acres and a mule") to formerly enslaved people. a. True. 40,000 people settles on 400,000 acres in GA and SC, and were granted permanent title to that land. b. Both true and false. 40,000 people settles on 400,000 acres in GA and SC, but were forced to return the land to white rice farmers less than one year later. c. False. Formerly enslaved people were never granted access to land. b. Both true and false. 40,000 people settles on 400,000 acres in GA and SC, but were forced to return the land to white rice farmers less than one year later. Which of the following accurately describes African American land ownership during and immediately following Reconstruction (1865-1910)? a. During this period, African Americans acquired over 14 million acres of farmland and controlled approximately 218,000 farms. b. During this period, most African Americans left the South and bought land in the American West. c. During this period, African Americans were prohibited from acquiring any land. d. None of the above are true. a. During this period, African Americans acquired over 14 million acres of farmland and controlled approximately 218,000 farms. What is the name of the 1999 class-action lawsuit against the United States Department of Agriculture, which led to a nearly one billion dollar settlement with African American farmers who has faced decades of USDA discrimination? a. Plessy v Ferguson b. Pigford v Glickman c. The Homestead Act d. Loving v Virginia b. Pigford v Glickman Which of the following was NOT a major factor contributing to "dispossesion" or African American land loss during the second half of the twentieth century? a. Rural to urban migration b. Industrialism c. Federal, state, and local discrimination against African American farmers. d. Immigration d. Immigration Who defined the term "land hunger" as "this absolutely fundamental and essential thing to any real emancipation of the slaves, which was continually pushed by all emancipated negroes in every Southern state"? a. Booker T Washington b. George Washington Carver c. W.E.B. DuBois d. Fannie Lou Hamer c. W.E.B. DuBois What is the name of the person whose story of dispossession is told in the Gravy podcast episode "Fighting for the Promised Land"? a. Fannie Lou Hamer b. Shirley Sherrod c. Monica White d. Ashante Reese b. Shirley Sherrod Which of the following is NOT a defining element of neoliberalism? a. Governmental support for social welfare programs b. Strong individual private property rights c. Free markets and free trade d. Entrepreneurial and corporate growth. a. Governmental support for social welfare programs What is the term for "a south which extends or operates outside regional boundaries"? a. Global South b. Hemispheric South c. Transnational South d. Migratory South c. Transnational South Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of contemporary globalization in the U.S. South? a. Increasing urbanization leads to anxieties about change b. Reliance on temporary or migratory labor in rural places c. A condemnation of "big govt" pairs with a business-friendly atmosphere. d. Strong Infastructure for supporting and protecting the rights of immigrant laborers. d. Strong Infastructure for supporting and protecting the rights of immigrant laborers. Who were the first people to work in Mississippi's pultry processing plants? a. White men b. White women c. Black men and women d. Immigrants from Latin America b. White women [Show Less]
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TED TALK - Daniel Pink - The puzzle of Motivation questions and answers 2023
1st Candle Problem Idea of overcoming functional fixedness Timed Two groups - 1. Timed for averages - 2. Offered rewards Findings: Group that was... [Show More] offered incentives took on average 3.5 minutes longer Contingent motivators If you do this you get that (work for somethings but a lot of tasks they don't work or do harm) 00:33 01:18 Extrinsic motivators What our marketplace is built on Ex: Carrots and Sticks 2nd Candle Problem This time the tacks were outside of the box - Insentivised group won by a landslide (example of where If-then rewards work, where there is a clear set of rules and a narrow focus) Right Brain Creative side MIT Student Study Gave them games to play - Small, Medium, or Large prize given If mechanical skill was involved then the incentive worked BUT when even a small amount of cognitive skill was involved the incentives caused them to preform worse Solution Build around intrinsic motivators where we want to do something because we like it, it is interesting, or its important 3 Elements for success 1. Autonomy 2. Mastery 3. Purpose Intrinsic Motivators We wanna do something because we like it, it is interesting, or it is important. Autonomy Urge to direct our own lives - Self direction works best for engagement Ex: company lets engineers work on whatever they want for 24 Hours - "Fed-Ex" Days Ex: 20% Time = 20% of workers time can be working on anything they want Ex: ROWE - Results Only Work Environment - People don't have schedules Mastery Desire to get better and better at something that matters Purpose Do what we do for the purpose of something larger than ourselves [Show Less]
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COM 105 Unit 3 Exam, questions with complete answers ready to score A
Collaborative projects, content communities, and online games are all examples of what category of media? Social media According to Alexis Ohanian ... [Show More] (co-founder of Reddit), what is it that mess people participate in social media? ???? (it's not altruism) Which of the following is a good goal of marketers on social media platforms? All options are good social media marketing goals As per the reading included in the course, the scandal about Facebook and Cambridge Analytica, Facebook exposed data on up to 87 million Facebook users to a researcher who worked at Cambridge Analytica, which worked for the Trump campaign. True Which of the following is a criterion of User Generated Content (UGC)? Shows collaborative creative effort Public relations professionals who use coal media (e.g. a Twitter hashtag) to promote a company's brand should be cautious because ________________________________. All of these answers are correct In the modern workplace, instances of bullying and sexual harassment are harder to manage because they can occur in the digital realm as well as face-to-face encounters. An employer can request that an accused employee provide access to his or her Facebook page for the purpose of verifying whether the allegations are true. True When looking at Morgan's social media page, her last post that she ever wrote state, "I'll just disappear someday and never come back" True Lisa Lang asks Christy what she thinks would have happened if her daughter, Morgan, didn't have social media? Christy believes, Morgan would not have taken her own life Which of the following is NOT true about social media marketing? Most managers are well educated and experienced in successful social media marketing strategies _________________________ is a social interaction, using highly accessible and scalable publishing techniques and web-based technologies to transform ad broadcast media monologues into social media dialogues. Social media In Social cause Marketing, the research technique through which the company verifies potential consumers' perception of fitness of a social cause with the brand prior to making financial commitment, is called ______________________________. Conjoint analysis According the the article, "Millennials have turned the tradition marketing strategy on its head, requiring an entirely new approach", millennials do not want to be part of the conversation. They want to share their opinions, but discretely and are very particular about their privacy online. False Which of the following is true about social media? Nothing is private, despite the settings you choose An effective social media strategy should include research to gather information about: All of these answers are correct In the Qantas Airlines case, the company created the hashtag #QantasLuxury to encourage passengers to share their positive satires about traveling on Qantag. Twitter uses responded by: High hacking the hashtag and sharing their worst experiences with Qantas Which of the following is true about marketing to millennials? All of the above Which of the following are the two dimensions of "social presence"? Intimacy and immediacy "Self-disclosure" is best defined as: an intimate or revealing act In his Ted Talk, Jon Ronson discusses public shaming on social media sites such as Twitter. Individuals and organizations need to be careful about what they post because a comment can quickly be taken out of context or be interpreted negatively even if it wasn't intended to be negative or offensive (ex. He uses the Justine Sacco tweet example). He argues that, while some people who tweet at a person or organization in these situations are genuinely offended or outraged, the majority of people who participate in online shaming do so simply because they find it entertaining or are just too quick to jump on the bandwagon and share or talk about something that they are not fully informed about. Ronson argues that this type of communication is: the opposite of democracy The most extreme cases of digital addiction tends to be with: Men The Persona Media Strategy lecture discussed three realms of social media leadership. The first is Branding, the second is Engaging, and the third is: Learning Since the spread of social media, most news organizations have abandoned their attempts to be the first to break a news story, focusing instead on being the best at selecting, filtering, and verifying it. True Another story focused on John. John believes that he turned to video games after: He was assaulted as a young child What is the purpose of a hashtag used on social media? All of the above Based on the video "The Impact of Twitter on Journalism", what does Twitter provide for journalists? All of the above Affinity marketing programs are designed to: ____________________- all of these answers are correct Which of the following needs to be addressed by an organization's social media policy? all of these answers are correct When searching the name, "Angelina Jolie" in a web search engine you may find a collection of links relating to her movie awards, movie ratings for movies she has been in, interviews discussing the international adoption process she went through, and her recent political accomplishments. All of these website links contribute to Angelina Jolie's ____ social relevancy ___________ makes it unlawful to listen or observe the contents of a private communication without the permission of at least one party. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act Ringmasters are consider "high speed" because ___________________________ they work with short time frames, sometimes with daily cycles Sponsoring a Rolling Stones concert tour is a ________ fit _________ cause for Budweiser beer. high; commercial According to the Ted Talk: Your online life, permanent as a tattoo by Juan Enrique, which of the following are mentioned as ways of helping to protect our personal privacy? learning lessons from the ancient greeks A cognitive specialist for social media argues that every social media "like", "share", and "comment" triggers what type of response in one's mind? A reward In the video "Pat Spenner Explains the New Media Ringmasters" Pat mentions several reasons why people need new media ringmasters. Which of the following is NOT the answer: To collaborate with the enterprise to make the budget According to the article by Sarah Landrum, which of the following is not a term relating to emotional intelligence of the millennials? none of the above Macy's Belief Campaign promises that if a child with life threatening medical conditions writes a letter to Santa, Macy's will donate to help make wishes come true. This initiative aims to spread holiday cheer to children with life threatening medical conditions. This campaign is an example of _____ social cause related marketing User generated content (UGC) is: public content generated and used by consumers Which of the following types of media is the highest in self-presentation and social presence? Blog [Show Less]
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SOC 105 QUIZ 7, questions and answers 2023
Compared with married couples, cohabitors tend to be: less educated. younger. more likely to be unemployed. all of these answers are correct. Id... [Show More] entify a true statement about cohabitors. Cohabitors tend to have grown up in a single-parent home. In the context of cohabitation, which of the following statements is true of coresidential daters? They basically dislike living the single life and opt to move in with someone. Which of the following statements is true of the comparison between married couples and cohabitors? Children born to cohabiting parents are five times more likely than those born to married parents to experience parental separation. The communication patterns practiced before marriage: are good predictors of marital success. The text points out that the third aspect of timing—________—means that getting married is not merely a matter of finding the right partner but of being at a point in your life where you feel equipped for the challenges and adventure of marriage. general readiness The nineteenth-century philosopher John Stuart Mill was so impressed with the problems of finding a suitable mate that he called marriage a: lottery Ted and Betty study in the same college for their undergraduate program. They attend their piano classes together and live in the same neighborhood. They like each other and eventually get married. Which of the following terms most likely explains their marital decision? Propinquity Which of the following is true regarding education and seeking a marriage partner? Most people are willing to marry someone with more education. According to the text's discussion, cohabitation: is often a testing ground for marriage. Which of the following religious groups has the highest rate of marrying within their religion? Jews The group with the highest rate of intermarriage is: Asian Americans Since the beginning of the twentieth century, age homogamy has been: increasing Dona is a struggling model and is from a low economic background. However, Simon, a business tycoon, wants to marry her for her physical attractiveness and kindness. They marry each other in a lavish wedding ceremony. This is most likely an example of ________. hypergamy ________ is defined as the marriage between two people who are dissimilar in some social and demographic characteristics. Heterogamy [Show Less]
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FIN 323 Chapter 7 Homework, questions and answers for 2023 test |graded A+
Sqeekers Co. issued 11-year bonds a year ago at a coupon rate of 8.9 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments and have a par value of $1,000. If the YTM... [Show More] on these bonds is 7.2 percent, what is the current bond price? $1,119.72 rate: 7.2%/2 nper: (11-1)*2 pmt: -1000*8.9%/2 fv: -1000 cmpt pv Heginbotham Corp. issued 15-year bonds two years ago at a coupon rate of 8.5 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bonds currently sell for 106 percent of par value, what is the YTM? The yield to maturity is given by rate function in excel as =rate(nper,pmt,pv,fv) where nper = 15 * 2 = 30 semiannual periods pmt = 0.085 *1000 = 85/2 = 42.5 pv = 1060 FV =1000 Hence semiannual yield = rate(30,42.5,-1060,1000) = 3.9069% Hence annual yield = 3.9069*2 = 7.8139% = 7.81% DMA Corporation has bonds on the market with 19.5 years to maturity, a YTM of 6.6 percent, and a current price of $1,043. The bonds make semiannual payments and have a par value of $1,000. What must the coupon rate be on these bonds? Coupon Amount = pmt(rate,nper,pv,fv) Coupon Amount = pmt(6.6%/2,19.5*2,-1043,1000) Coupon Amount = $ 34.98 Coupon rate = Coupon Amount*2/Face Value Coupon rate = 34.98*2/1000 Coupon rate = 7.00% Calculator: N= Treasury bills are currently paying 7 percent and the inflation rate is 2.7 percent. What is the approximate real rate of interest? What is the exact real rate? Apx.RealRateOfInterest = bill rate - inflation rate 7% - 2.70% = 4.3 RealRateof Return = (1+bill rate)/(1+inflation rate)-1 (1+7%)/(1+2.70%)-1 = 0.04187 of 4.187%, rounded to 4.19% Suppose the real rate is 4% and the inflation rate is 5.6 percent. What rate would you expect to see on a treasury bill? from fisher equation (1+R) = (1+r) * (1+h) R = (1+0.04) * (1+0.056) - 1 R = 1.098 - 1 R = 0.09824 R = 9.8% Say you own an asset that had a total return last year of 11.7 percent. If the inflation rate last year was 6.9 percent, what was your real return? (1 + inflation) ( 1 + real return) = (1 + total return) (1 + 6.9%)( 1 + real return) = (1 + 11.7%) (1 + real return) = (1 + 11.7%) / (1 + 6.9%) = 1.0449 Real Return = 1.0449 - 1 = 0.0449 = 4.49% Locate the Treasury issue in Figure 7.4 maturing in February 2029. Assume a par value of $10,000. What is its coupon rate? What is its bid price in dollars? What was the previous day's asked price in dollars? the coupon rate is 5.250% bid price = [par value x bid quote] =[10,000*1.233594 (/or 123.3594%)] = $12,335.94 asked price = [par value*(asked price-change)] =[10000*(123.3594%-(-0.7031%))] =$12,406 Bond X is a premium bond making semiannual payments. The bond pays a coupon rate of 7 percent, has a YTM of 5 percent, and has 11 years to maturity. Bond Y is a discount bond making semiannual payments. This bond pays a coupon rate of 5 percent, has a YTM of 7 percent, and also has 11 years to maturity. The bonds have a $1,000 par value. What is the price of each bond today? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Price of Bond X $ Price of Bond Y $ If interest rates remain unchanged, what do you expect the price of these bonds to be one year from now? In two years? In six years? In 10 years? In 11 years? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Price of bond Bond X Bond Y One year $ $ Two years $ $ Six years $ $ 10 years $ $ 11 years $ $ Price of Bond X: N=11*2, I/Y=5%/2, PMT=70/2, FV=1000 ---> N=22, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1167.65 Price of Bond Y: N=11*2, I/Y=7%/2, PMT=50/2, FV=1000 ---> N=22, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 848.33 Price of Bond X after 1 year: after 1 year = 11-1 or N=10*2 N=20, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1155.89 Price of Bond Y after 1 year: after 1 year = 11-1 or N=10*2 N=20, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 857.88 Price of Bond X after 2 years: after 2 years = 11-2 or N=9*2 N=18, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1143.53 Price of Bond Y after 2 years: after 2 years = 11-2 or N=9*2 N=18, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 868.10 Price of Bond X after 6 years: after 6 years = 11-6 or N=5*2 N=10, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1087.52 Price of Bond Y after 6 years: after 6 years = 11-6 or N=5*2 N=10, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 916.83 Price of Bond X after 10 years: after 10 years = 11-10 or N=1*2 N=2, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1019.27 Price of Bond Y after 10 years: after 10 years = 11-10 or N=1*2 N=2, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 981.00 Price of Bond X after 11 years: after 11 years = 11-11 or N=0*2 N=0, I/Y=2.5, PMT=35, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1000.00 Price of Bond Y after 11 years: after 11 years = 11-11 or N=0*2 N=0, I/Y=3.5, PMT=25, FV=1000 CPT PV = 1000.00 Both Bond Sam and Bond Dave have 9 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Sam has four years to maturity, whereas Bond Dave has 15 years to maturity. If interest rates suddenly rise by 2 percent, what is the percentage change in the price of Bond Sam and Bond Dave? Percentage change in price of Bond Sam % Percentage change in price of Bond Dave % If rates were to suddenly fall by 2 percent instead, what would be the percentage change in the price of Bond Sam and Bond Dave? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Percentage change in price of Bond Sam % Percentage change in price of Bond Dave % SAM: YTM=9 N= 4*2=8 I/Y=9/2=4.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 1000 YTM=11 N= 4*2=8 I/Y=11/2=5.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 936.65 change in price = (63.35)* --> 1000-936.65 change in percentage -6.3* --> 63.35/1000 * make sure to put (-) if it is negative YTM=7 N= 4*2=8 I/Y=7/2=3.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 1068.74 change in price = 68.74 --> 1068.74-1000 change in percentage 6.9 --> 68.74/1000 DAVE: YTM=9 N= 15*2=30 I/Y=9/2=4.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 1000 YTM=11 N= 15*2=30 I/Y=11/2=5.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 854.66 change in price = (145.34)* --> 1000-854.66 change in percentage -14.5* --> 145.34/1000 * make sure to put (-) if it is negative YTM=7 N= 15*2=30 I/Y=7/2=3.5 PMT = 9%*1000, 90/2=45 FV=1000 CPT PV = 1183.92 change in price = 183.92 --> 1183.92-1000 change in percentage 18.4 --> 183.92/1000 Bourdon Software has 10.4 percent coupon bonds on the market with 16 years to maturity. The bonds make semiannual payments and currently sell for 108 percent of par. What is the current yield on the bonds? Current yield % What is the YTM? YTM % What is the effective annual yield? Effective annual yield % coupon rate: 10.4 maturity (years): 16 price % of par: 108% price: 108%*1000=1080 coupon: 104%*1000=104 current yield: 10% (coupon/price) N= years *2 = 32 I/Y=? PV=-1080* PMT=104/2=52 FV=1000 4.71*2=9.42 --> YTM EAR = (1 + 0.0471)^2-1 = 9.64 *important to enter as a negative number [Show Less]
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PHIL 105 Quiz 4 questions and answers with verified content
An expression is vague if there is no precise boundary between the cases in which it applies and the cases in which it does not apply. Feedback: The co... [Show More] rrect answer is B. An expression is vague exactly when it lacks a precise meaning. A vague expression, in other words, is one without a sharp boundary between cases in which it applies and cases in which it does not apply. Some standard examples of vague terms are "bald," "tall," and "heap." Which of the following expressions is vague? hill The correct answer is E. Because there is no sharp boundary between things that are hills and things that are not hills, the term "hill" is vague. To see why the term "hill" is vague, just imagine a series of lumps on the ground, the first of which is very small, and each subsequent member of which is slightly larger than the last. At the beginning of the series, the lumps are definitely not hills. At some later point in the series, however, there are lumps, which definitely are hills. Yet there is no sharp, precise boundary between the hills and the non-hills. Between the items that are definitely hills and the items that are definitely not, there are many borderline cases. For this reason, the term "hill" is vague. The terms "33," "=," "acceleration," and "mass" are not vague. Either a given number is 33, or else it is not. A number can not be a borderline case of 33; there are not numbers, which are 33 to various degrees. Likewise for mathematical equality. Either a pair of terms are equal, or else they are not. There is no such thing as varying degrees of mathematical equality. Acceleration and mass, likewise, are non-vague concepts. There are, of course, various amounts of mass that a body can have, and also various rates of acceleration, but these facts do not mean that the concepts of mass and acceleration are themselves vague. From the fact that there are different amounts of mass, in other words, does not mean that something can have mass to different degrees. Either a thing has mass, or it doesn't. Having mass is an all-or-nothing affair. The question of how much mass one has, in other words, is different from the question of whether one has mass at all. An expression is ambiguous if it has two or more distinct meanings. Feedback: The correct answer is A. An ambiguous expression is one, which has more than one distinct meaning. If the expression has multiple meanings because a single word has multiple meanings, then the ambiguity is semantic. If the expression, however, has multiple meanings because a larger phrase or clause has multiple meanings, then the ambiguity is syntactic. Which of the following expressions is semantically ambiguous? bank Feedback: The correct answer is A. The term "bank" is semantically ambiguous. On one hand, the term can refer to the edge of a river, stream, or body of water. On the other hand, the term can also refer to a financial institution, which stores wealth. Which of the following sentences is syntactically ambiguous? Close doors and open windows. Feedback: The correct answer is A. The phrase "close doors and open windows" could mean two different things. On one hand, it could be a command for people to close doors, and for people to open windows. On the other hand, it could be a command for people to close two sorts of things, namely doors and open windows. Because this ambiguity is not the result of a single term, such as "door," having multiple meanings, the ambiguity is syntactic rather than semantic. It is true that the sentence "I need to deposit some money at the bank" is ambiguous, but its ambiguity is solely due to the semantic ambiguity of the word "bank." Since its ambiguity depends on the ambiguity of a single term, the sentence "I need to deposit some money at the bank" is not syntactically ambiguous. It is only semantically ambiguous. An ad hominem argument is one in which the premises are about the person making a point and the conclusion tells against their making that point. Feedback: The correct answer is A. An ad hominem argument is one, whose premises are about the person or persons who make a certain point, and whose conclusion tells against that point. We saw that there were three kinds of ad hominem arguments: deniers, which state that the given conclusion is false; silencers, which state that someone has no right, or no permission, to make the given conclusion; and dismissers, which state that someone does not have the evidence or justification to make the given conclusion. Which of the following arguments is an ad hominem? Lying Larry told me that it will rain today, therefore, it probably will not rain today. Feedback: The correct answer is B. Because it begins with a premise about a person, and draws a conclusion that rejects that person's testimony, the argument in (b) is an ad hominem argument. None of the arguments in (a), (c), and (d) are ad hominems, since none of them reject the conclusion of the person they mention. Finally, (e) is not an ad hominem because it does not conclude that Sam's testimony is false from Sam's screaming. (e) does not include the word "therefore," in other words. An appeal to authority occurs when the premises are about the person making a point and the conclusion tells in favor of their making that point. The correct answer is B. An appeal to authority is an argument, which supports an argument's conclusion on the basis of something about the person making the argument. We have seen three different kinds of arguments from authority: affirmers, which state that the given conclusion is true; amplifiers, which state that someone has a special right, or special permission, to make the given conclusion; and supporters, which state that someone does has particularly good evidence or justification to make the given conclusion. Which of the following arguments is an appeal to authority? Honest Abe told me that it will rain today, therefore, it will probably rain today. Feedback: The correct answer is A. Because it begins with a premise about a person, and draws a conclusion that supports that person's point, the argument in (a) is an argument from authority. None of the arguments in (b), (c), (d), or (e) are arguments from authority, since none of them support the point of the person they mention. A silencer is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that they are not entitled to make that point in the context in which they did, so you should not listen to them. Feedback: The correct answer is A. Silencer arguments are arguments, which state that a certain person does not have the right, or the permission, to offer the testimony that she offers An amplifier is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that they are especially entitled to make that point in the context in which they did, so you should pay special attention to them. Feedback: The correct answer is D. An amplifier argument is one, which states that someone has a special right, or special permission, to make the argument that they are making. If one points to the fact that Ulrich is the assigned umpire for a baseball game, for instance, and if one also points out that assigned umpires have a special right to offer opinions about the game, then, by concluding that Ulrich's testimony is good, one makes an amplifier argument from Ulrich's authority. A denier is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that the point they are making is false. Feedback: The correct answer is C. A denier argument is one, which begins with some observation about a person, and which concludes that the person's conclusion is false. A denier argument does not conclude that the person in question is unjustified, or that the person has no right to argue for her conclusion. A denier argument merely holds that a certain conclusion is false, and it does so on the basis of something about the person who draws that conclusion. A dismisser is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that they did not have enough evidence to make that point in the context in which they did, so you should not believe them. Feedback: The correct answer is B. A dismisser argument begins with an observation about a person, and concludes that such a person is unjustified or unreliable in her arguments. It does not conclude that the person's conclusion is false, exactly. Nor does it conclude that the person has no right to argue. What it states is that, although there may be some chance that the person is right, the person is nonetheless unreliable or unjustified in what she argues. A supporter is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that they have more than enough evidence to make that point in the context in which they did, so you should be very confident that they are right. The correct answer is E. A supporter argument begins with a statement about a person, and concludes that the person has particularly good evidence for her argument, or is particularly reliable in her arguments. Supporter arguments do not simply say that a person's conclusion is true. Nor do they say that the person in question has a special right, or a special permission to argue. Rather, a supporter argument says that someone is particularly well-justified in making her argument. An affirmer is an argument in which the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that the premises are about the person making a point, and the conclusion is that the point that they are making is true. Feedback: The correct answer is F. An affirmer argument is an argument from authority, which begins with a claim about a person, and which states that the person's conclusion is true. Affirmer arguments do not state that the person is particularly reliable, or that the person has a special right to offer her argument. Affirmers merely state that the conclusion in question is true. An argument begs the question when you have no reason to believe the premises unless you already have a reason to believe the conclusion. Feedback: The correct answer is B. An argument begs the question when the premises cannot be justified independently of accepting the conclusion. If, in order to find an argument's premises plausible, one has to already accept the conclusion of that argument, then the argument begs the question. To refute an argument by parallel reasoning is to show that the form of the argument is invalid, by producing another invalid argument of the same form. Feedback: The correct answer is D. To refute an argument with parallel reasoning, one needs to show that the logical form of the argument is invalid, and to do so, moreover, by producing an obviously invalid argument that has the same logical form. An argument is circular if the conclusion is one of the premises. Feedback: The correct answer is C. Circular arguments include their conclusions in their premises. Because one has to accept the conclusion of a circular argument in order to accept the premises, this means that circular arguments are also question-begging arguments. The converse, however, is not true. All circular arguments are question-begging, but not all question-begging arguments are circular. Consider the following argument: "Capital punishment is clearly wrong. Every death row inmate I've ever spoken to says so. And who would know better than a death row inmate about how wrong capital punishment is?" This argument is a(n) appeal to authority. Feedback: The correct answer is B. Here, the argument assumes the truth of a conclusion on the basis of the persons who support it. In this case, the conclusion is that capital punishment is wrong, and the basis is that persons who support it are death row inmates. The argument assumes, in other words, that death row inmates are right, or that they are reliable, or that they have a special permission to weigh in on whether capital punishment works. In any case, the argument is an argument from authority, since it supports a conclusion by citing a fact about the person(s) making it. Consider the following argument: "Every climate scientist I've talked to says that global warming is occurring. But of course they would say that! They are scientists whose work is funded by the Obama administration, and so they need to advance the leftist agenda of that administration. Naturally, therefore, we should not take their view all that seriously." This argument is a(n) ad hominem dismisser Feedback: The correct answer is A. Because the argument assumes that the scientists need to advance a leftist agenda, and because the argument concludes that the scientists' views are unreliable, the argument above is an ad hominem dismisser. A dismisser argument begins with an assumption about someone, and concludes that their testimony is unreliable, unjustified, or lacks the proper amount of evidence. Since the argument's conclusion is "we should not take their view all that seriously," it is a dismisser. If the argument were a denier ad hominem, it would state that the scientists' views are false . Yet the argument does not state this. Likewise, if the argument were a silencer, it would deny that the scientists have a right to offer their testimony. It doesn't claim this, either. The argument is not circular, since it does not assume that we should not take the scientists' views seriously. Nor is the argument an appeal to authority, since its conclusion does not support anyone's conclusion. Finally, the argument does not require some ambiguity among the premises, so it does not commit a fallacy of ambiguity, either. Consider the following argument: "Every single one of Fred's ex-girlfriends claims that he is a cad. And yet his current girlfriend Barbie claims that Ken is a true gentleman. Clearly, Barbie would know better than any of Ken's ex-girlfriends, since she is currently dating Ken. Therefore, we should take Barbie's word for it." This argument is a(n) appeal to authority Feedback: The correct answer is B. An argument appeals to authority whenever it supports an argument on the basis of something about the person, who is making that argument. In this case, the argument supports the conclusion that Ken is not a cad, and it does so by citing something about Barbie, the person who is making that argument. (More specifically, it cites that she is dating Ken.) Consider the following argument: "Every time I've been in car accidents, it has not been my fault. Of course, some other drivers say that too, even though they are wrong. But you can trust me on this one: after all, would a faultless driver like me lie about this? Clearly not!" This argument is a(n) fallacy of begging the question Feedback: The correct answer is C. The argument concludes that the driver has never been at fault before. The premise, however, is that the driver is faultless. In order to believe that the driver is faultless, however, one must already believe that the driver has never been at fault before. The premise, in other words, is stronger than the conclusion, and one would have to believe the conclusion already to accept it. Since an argument begs the question when its premises can only be justified by accepting the conclusion, this argument begs the premises. It's worth noting, too, that this argument is also an argument from authority. It cites something about the driver--namely, that she is faultless--and it concludes that the driver's testimony is trustworthy. However, "argument from authority" is not one of the options among (a)-(e). To refute an argument is to show that the argument is unsuccessful in meeting its aims Feedback: The correct answer is E. To refute an argument is to show that it does not successfully accomplish its aims. This is different from showing that an argument is unsound. For sometimes, an argument can be sound even though it fails to accomplish its aims. A circular argument, for instance, is sound, because the conclusion is one of the premises. However, although circular arguments are sound, they are nonetheless unsuccessful in meeting their aims as arguments. They are fallacious. To refute an argument is to show that the argument does not accomplish its aims. A reductio ad absurdum is an attempt to show that the argument is unsuccessful by showing that its conclusion is obviously false Feedback: The correct answer is B. To offer a reductio to an argument is to present a case, which is thoroughly obvious and uncontroversial, which shows that the argument's conclusion is false. Pointing out that things move all the time, for instance, is a sufficient reductio to Zeno's paradox about motion. [Show Less]
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