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Sophia Intro to Ethics Milestone 3 questions and answers, complete top solutions
According to Kant, which of the following violates a person's humanity? Forcing someone to do something On which of the following statements would ... [Show More] a hedonic utilitarian and an idealist utilitarian disagree? Some goods can't be directly compared. In Kantian deontology, the __________ must be derived from reason. categorical imperative Which of the following represents rule utilitarianism? Rick helps his daughter with her taxes because he thinks parents should help their children. Henry vandalizes a local school on a friendly dare. How would a utilitarian classify this action? Impermissible Which of the following represents a potential problem for Kantian deontology? A person who tries and fails to murder someone is just as guilty as someone who succeeds. Which of the following people would likely be satisfied with utilitarianism? Zach is looking for an ethical framework that applies evenly to everyone. When a utilitarian evaluates an action, which of the following is most important? The action's total effects on everyone According to Kantian deontology, which of the following would make an act impermissible? It is done with bad intent. How might a Kantian deontologist evaluate assisted suicide? It is morally wrong because it deprives a person of his or her humanity. My grandmother gives me $5 and tells me to go to the store to buy her some ice cream. She asks me to promise to get the ice cream, and I agree. Which action is supported by utilitarianism but intuitively seems unethical? I see five homeless people on the way to the store and I break the promise to my grandmother to give each of them one of the dollars. I come home and my apartment building is on fire. There is a family of five living in the apartment next to mine and only my mother in my apartment. I can only evacuate one apartment.What is a problem with applying utilitarianism to this scenario? Utilitarianism says I should evacuate the apartment that has five occupants, even though my mother is more important to me. Which of the following people would likely be satisfied with Kantian deontology? Gerard is looking for an ethical framework that can apply to everyone. The statement, "I will read a book when I get bored so as to improve my mind," is a __________. maxim Theo is running for political office. It is a well-known fact that Theo is corrupt— he intends to use his office for his own personal and financial gain, to the detriment of the communities he serves. Yet polls show that he has a considerable lead over his opponents because he can afford aggressive advertising. A group of citizens decides to take matters into its own hands by blackmailing Theo so he will drop out of the election. Blackmailing Theo is morally right because the communities he serves will ultimately be happier with a leader who is not corrupt. [Show Less]
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Sophia: U.S. History I - Final Milestone 100% accurate answers ,latest 2023
"What involvement did women have in the antislavery movement in 1800s America?" Consider the above research question and choose the secondary source tha... [Show More] t is best suited to answer it. A book about the 19th century antislavery movement published this year by a historian. Why did it take the New York colonists nearly 20 years to establish a legislature? The Duke of York controlled the colony and didn't care to listen to colonists. How did colonists in Massachusetts respond to British troops searching for stockpiled arms and ammunition? Groups of minutemen forced British troops to turn back. For what purpose was the Bill of Rights added to the Constitution? To satisfy a commitment made to Anti-Federalists during ratification to clarify the unalienable rights that all Americans possess. Which of the following groups provided southern African Americans with leadership experience after the Civil War? U.S. Army Which of the following actions would be considered salutary neglect? Colonial ship owners easily get away with selling enumerated goods to nations other than Britain. Many thought that, by ending the United States' participation in the international slave trade, slavery would gradually diminish. Why did slavery continue to flourish in the South? Slaves in the US had comparatively high birth rates and low mortality rates, leading to natural increase. Which of the following was a provision of the Compromise of 1850 that appealed to southerners? Enactment of the Fugitive Act "An equality of property, with a necessity of alienation, constantly operating to destroy combinations of powerful families, is the very soul of a republic - while this continues, the people will inevitably possess both power and freedom; when this is lost, power departs, liberty expires, and a commonwealth will inevitably assume some other form." According to this speaker, what is at the root of a republican society? Widespread ownership of land "If the natives do not submit to our total and absolute authority, we will destroy them and their lands." The above statement is most representative of which group of European explorers? Spanish Which of the following statements about the 1828 tariff is true? It was a higher-than-normal federal tax on imports, which was generally viewed favorably by the northern states. Which statement about Lincoln's actions and intentions during the Civil War is true? Lincoln's original goal was to preserve the Union, even if slavery remained. Which of the following statements about slave resistance is true? Most runaway slaves went to join free black communities, or to visit family nearby. Henry Clinton was an important figure in the Revolutionary War. Select the statement that correctly identifies him. "My troops forced the surrender of Charleston, from which I led a new military government." Which of the following actions directly provoked the French and Indian War? English colonists invaded the Ohio River Valley, which connected the two halves of New France. Which of the following statements reflects the process of colonization? It was driven by a desire for raw materials to enrich and expand European empires. Which of the following statements about the domestic slave trade in the 19th century is true? The domestic slave trade was facilitated by the spread of cotton production. Why did the Committee of Merchants for the Relief of Colored People Suffering from the Late Riots emphasize that Peter Heuston's "wife died about three weeks before the riots, leaving her husband an only child... aged eight year"? They wanted to show the pain the rioters caused for the now-orphaned child, who had only recently lost her mother. Which statement represents support for the theory of actual representation? "According to our principles, only colonial assemblies may impose internal taxes. Parliament only has the authority to regulate commerce." Why did some textile companies prefer to hire young women rather than whole family units? Young women had few employment options and could be paid a very low wage. Which of the following statements about the divided political climate during the administrations of George Washington and John Adams is true? Thomas Jefferson and James Madison proposed that states cold nullify a federal law if it threatened state sovereignty. Which factor initially prevented England from establishing permanent colonies in the Americas? The government was more concerned with religious and political disputes than with sponsoring colonization of the Americas. In what way did the Crusades start a chain of events that led to European discovery of the New World? They led to an increased movement between Europe and Asia that resulted in new trade networks. Which resources spurred French Commercial Activity in America? Furs from animals like beavers Which of the following quotations represents most Americans' attitude toward deference by 1820s? "The franchise should be expanded to include most white men." [Show Less]
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Art History 1- Sophia Practice Milestone 2 questions and answers
The period in Greek Art when a sculpture of the human figure was stiff and unnatural in appearance is known as the ( ) period Archaic Select the tr... [Show More] ait found within the architecture of the Parthenon Doric order 01:03 01:15 The triangular element on the front and back of a Greek temple is known as a(n) Pediment How did Roman architecture differ from Greek architecture? Roman uses both freestanding and engaged columns on the exterior of buildings Which correctly identifies a Greek deity & his or her primary association? Zeus- father of gods Why is the Aegean period of prehistory referred to as the Bronze Age? With the discovery of bronze alloys, many tools and weapons were made out of bronze What element below would you expect to find in Minoan art? Themes of energy and liveliness What sculpture is displayed below (topless woman w/ drape fabric around hips) Aphrodite of Milos Select trait of Mycenaean architecture that is represented in this image Beehive tombs What is the function of the lamassu figures in the palace of Sargon 2 They act as protective deities The stones that lies at the top of an Estruscan or Roman arch that holds the arch together is called a Keystone What earlier Egyptian structure formed the basis for the design of the pyramid Mastaba [Show Less]
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Environmental Science Milestone 1 Sophia question and answers rated A+
"Human beings are not the focal point of all things on Earth. Cutting down our rainforests destroys the habitats of countless plants and animals." The quo... [Show More] tation represents a(n) __________ environmental ethical position. biocentric The Industrial Revolution was a factor in a global population explosion because as the population increased, cities and their infrastructures grew. Select one statement that is NOT a result of this change. Clean water became less accessible. Most scientists believe the event that led to the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a(n) __________. asteroid impact Select the date and time of human arrival according to the one-year calendar model based on the Big Bang theory. December 31, 11:54 p.m. Select the item below that is biotic. Algae Choose the best explanation of the distinction between environmental science and environmentalism from the options below. Environmental science remains objective, while environmentalism is concerned with ethical questions about right and wrong concerning the environment. Ecosystems provide many benefits to humans, which are termed "ecosystem services."Visiting the Grand Canyon on a school field trip is an example of a __________ service that ecosystems can provide. cultural Which statement about projected human population growth below is incorrect? Innovation and technology have little influence on projected population growth. The blueberry bushes in Lawrence's back yard did not have a good yield this year. He wondered if it was because there hadn't been much rain. Lawrence decided to water the bushes closest to the house and see if that made a difference. If Lawrence were following the steps of the scientific method, before he formed and tested a hypothesis, he would __________. do some preliminary research Which statement about human population growth is FALSE? The global population is expected to peak at 7 billion, then begin decreasing. The atmosphere on early Earth (4.5 to 3.8 billion years ago) __________. allowed for the chemical processes that led to early life Which of the following is the best example of how a nonprofit organization can apply environmental science? Promote sanitation and clean drinking water in developing nations Which of the following is NOT a major impact of population growth? The thinning of the ozone layer allowing harmful radiation to reach Earth Which of the following is true about continental drift? Tectonic plates float on the molten core and are constantly in motion. Of the four graphs below, select the one that is misleading. monthly average temps Plant and animal life faced many challenges when moving from water to land. Select the FALSE statement about this transition It was easier for animals to hunt on land. Which of the following correctly defines sustainability? Promotes and maintains conditions under which nature and humans can co-exist indefinitely "DNA in mammalian cells is arranged in distinct configurations within the mitochondrial system." Choose the most likely source for this quotation. A scientist writing in a scientific journal that uses language appropriate for its audience Choose the sentence that describes John Muir and his contributions to environmental awareness. He was a nature-centered environmentalist and the founder of the Sierra Club. Which of the following is a global sustainability issue that was NOT identified by the Brundtland Report in 1987? Safe drinking water Match the graph image with its corresponding type and common use. Scatter plot showing the relationship between two characteristics Which of the following describes an effect of an environmental issue experienced at the global level? The consumption of fossil fuels contributes to air pollution and rising CO2 levels. [Show Less]
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Sophia Learning-Principle of Finance: Milestone 1 questions and answers
What is a question that should be asked about accounts receivable when forecasting? What percentage of sales will likely be made on credit? Which o... [Show More] rganization most fully protects owners from personal liabilities and is taxed separately? C Corp 00:59 01:15 Strategic planning answers the question "__________" Where are we going? What principle of corporate governance requires public clarification of the roles and responsibilities of board and management in order to provide stakeholders with a level of accountability? Disclosure and transparency Over the last six years, prices and investing activity in the bond market rose for two years and then fell consistently for the next four years. How is this market classified? Secular bear market A potential investor in Cristian's company wants to know how much money was paid in dividends in the last reporting period. What type of financial statement should he look at? Statement of changes in equity Which of the following would explain a company's day sales outstanding ratio falling from 37.3 to 25? The company's accounts receivable has decreased while total sales has increased. Tom and Wendy are launching a life coaching business. They plan to have an equal say in any managerial business decisions and they plan to share any profits or losses. They are concerned about their exposure to liability, so they have purchased some professional insurance policies. However, they are pleased with how simple it has been to organize their business. Which form of business structure have Tom and Wendy likely adopted? Partnership Select the option that reflects how revenue is typically organized on an income statement. Sales Cost of goods sold Other revenue Finn is interested in taking over a small business, but he wants to pay a fair price for it, so he consults their income statements. How can he determine the company's overall profitability in each quarter of the previous year? Calculate total revenue minus total expenses Consider the following information: Total current assets$62,301 Deferred income taxes$1,345 Inventories$5,664 Prepaid expenses$2,034 Other assets$2,906 Total current liabilities$29,748 What is the quick ratio? 1.90 If a balance sheet shows $4 million in current assets, $7 million in long-term assets, $2 million in current liabilities and $6 million in long-term liabilities, what is the company's net working capital? $2 million 00:07 01:15 What must be forecasted first in order to prepare the pro forma income statement? Sales Under GAAP, how would dividends paid to company stockholders be accounted for on the statement of cash flows? As a decrease in cash flow from financing Using the DuPont equation, how can a company determine if it has an acceptable ROE? If it is at least 15%. Valuation of a business relies on __________. keeping accurate financial statements Which of the following is an example of an agency conflict? Managerial self-dealing Consider the P/E ratios of the following companies: Company A: 5.34 Company B: 3.33 Company C: 7.90 Company D: 6.75 Which company has the lowest relative value among investors? Company B For which company can trend analysis be most useful? An established hotel company that has made very few changes to its business model The primary factor behind all of finance is __________. time Why is it good for businesses when personal values and company values align? Because employees are more likely to uphold company values. If equity is $2 million and total revenue is $1.3 million, then ROE is __________. incalculable without net profit data Preparing a cash flow forecast helps a company to examine and manage its __________. float times Internet platforms have allowed for the greatest increase of what recent trend in finance? Peer-to-peer lending If Company A has a TIE ratio of 3 and Company B has a TIE ratio of 1.2, then Company A is more likely to __________ than Company B. be able to honor its debt payments Ratios that measure the value of a company's stock are __________. market ratios The purpose of a pro forma balance sheet is to __________. analyze the effects of a sales forecast [Show Less]
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Milestone 1 Art History Sophia questions and answers rated A+
Which of the following is a definition of art appreciation? The application of basic tools of visual literacy to understand and admire works of art ... [Show More] Which of the following terms refers to the economic circulation of works of art? Art Market The idea that a work of art represents an artists unique vision, uninfluenced by other artists or other works of art, is referred to as __________. originality In order to give the illusion of depth in a work of art, an artist might create space between two or more objects. This space between objects is called __________. negative space In the Allegory of the Art of Painting by Jan Vermeer, what object appears in the foreground? The curtain to the left of the chair Which of the following is the correct definition of carving? Creating a sculpture by scraping away or removing material from a hard substance until the desired shape emerges The visual conventions used to depict the Buddha in art are examples of __________. iconography Which of the following characteristics describe this image? Texture, mixed media Artists could make their own paint by combining pigment and a(n) __________, such as oil or water, and could control the thickness of the paint by adjusting the quantity of these ingredients. binder Select the term that does NOT apply to Leonardo da Vinci's "Mona Lisa. Experimental media Which of the following is the correct definition of genius? An exceptionally talented, knowledgeable, or creative person Why is the building below, designed by Frank Lloyd Wright, an example of site specificity? Because it was specifically designed to blend into its surroundings. Which of the following is a definition of "canon?" Works of art that are considered to be most important for study Which of the following is NOT a career that requires knowledge of art history? Corporate lawyer Which of the following elements is present in this image? Curvilinear line __________ refers to the values developed through exposure to the same types of ideas. Mass Culture Which of the following is the correct definition of context? The historical, social, political, religious, and geographical situations in which works of art are created Which of the following best describes the subject matter of this painting? Self-portrait Which of the following elements is present in this image? Positioning Which of the following is a characteristic of this image? Use of complementary colors Which of the following works is an example of new media in art? #3 Computers Which of the following formal elements are present in this image? Asymmetry, balance Which of the following achievements in art history is attributed to Giorgio Vasari? Pioneered the biographical approach to the study of art history Barbara Kruger's use of a particular shade of red represents which type of style? Personal style _____________________ is the organized worship of a higher power or supreme being. RELIGION Which of the following is a characteristic of this painting? It is an example of representation. While not intended to be highly realistic, it is still a recognizable depiction of a landscape. Select the option that is true about the image below. Contains primary color Which set of terms apply to the printmaking process? Two-dimensional and additive Which of the following works is an example of experimental media? #2 Ocean Swirl Which of the answer choices is a characteristic of this work of art? Three-dimensional Which of the following is the correct definition of sociology? The study of the development, structure, and function of human society [Show Less]
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Introduction to Statistics Milestone 1 Sophia questions and answers rated A+
Jay wants to study nutrition and performance in schools using available data. Which of the scenarios below will provide Jay with available data? Going to... [Show More] a local high school and asking the principal for information about students' current and previous grades, then asking the health teacher for the results from a survey students took in health class Which of these random samples represents a representative sample of the number of students in a middle school who walk to school? 150 random students at lunch It's Saturday afternoon, and Denise is going shopping. She stops by a department store because she needs a new pair of shoes. She has picked out three styles that she likes. The store associate asks, "What is your shoe size?" Which type of question has the store associate asked? Closed question A local gym conducts a survey among the people in a mall. Which survey question would have a qualitative response? Do you exercise daily? The owner of a pizza parlor called every fifth person who ordered pizza last week to rate the pizza. What type of statistical study is this? A survey A factory manufactures motorcycles. One of its employees, working in the quality control department, checks the first 10 and the last 10 motorcycles manufactured in a day. This is what type of sampling? Convenience sampling An appliance store manager noted that the sales of home appliances contributed 74% of the store's profits in the year 2010 and 82% in the year 2011. Of the following choices, which statement about home appliance sales is true? Home appliance sales increased profits by 8 percentage points Rob sent an email survey to 2,000 cell phone owners asking about their satisfaction with their current plan. Only 256 people returned the survey and they were predominately 18-24 years old. Which of the following statements is true? The survey likely has bias because the people who could not answer differ from those who did answer. A travel agency contacted a department store and obtained the list of all people who made purchases using their credit cards at the store in the last month. The agency then surveyed a random sample from the list, calling them to ask their preference for air travel or train travel for taking holidays. Which of the following types of bias affects the conclusions of the survey? Selection bias A new pet food product for small dogs has been developed to help with tooth decay. Fifty-two dogs participate in the study. Each dog owner picks a card from a standard deck out of a hat. If the card is red, their dog will be in the treatment group. If the card is black, their dog will be in the placebo group. Which experimental design was used? Completely Randomized Design A different coffee seller offered to sell coffee to Jenae's company for half the cost of their current brand. Jenae knew her co-workers were really partial to the coffee they drank now, so she decided to conduct a study to see if they noticed the difference in flavor. Her co-workers were convinced they would. Jenae provided each person with a sample and said that some had the new coffee and some did not. Only Jenae knew who had which brand of coffee. Jenae's strategy is an example of a(n) ________. blind experiment A survey was conducted to find the frequency with which people go to the movies. A group of 120 people in a mall were asked about how often they go out for a movie and It was found that 36 people go to movies at least once in a month. Which of these is an example of descriptive statistics? 30% of the people surveyed in the mall go to movies at least once in a month. Select the correct statement regarding experiments. A researcher can control the environment and observe the response Scientists want to test a new pair of running shoes. A speed test is performed with two separate groups of participants. The treatment group will wear the new pair of running shoes, while the control group will not. It is believed that age and height may affect speed. Which of the following would be most effective in controlling the confounding variables, such as age and height, in this study? A matched-pair design experiment To determine what percentage of 376 teachers at a university were female, Ryan randomly selected 14 teachers. He then collected and analyzed his data. Select the statement that is TRUE. There are 14 teachers in Ryan's sample, and 376 teachers are in the population. The following shows the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for the years 2000-2005. All of the values use a reference year of 1983. Which of the following is true about the CPI, based on the information? $100 in 1983 would be equivalent to $189.70 in 2004. A local bakery conducts a phone survey to find the most popular types of cakes. They selected 100 random phone numbers from the local telephone directory and called them. This type of sampling method is called __________. Simple random sampling A poll was conducted two weeks before an election and showed that the incumbent would win with 54% of the vote, with a 3% margin of error. What is the confidence interval for this poll? 51% to 57% A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor. The participants are divided by gender. Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks. Which type of experimental design does this situation describe? Randomized Block Design Which of the following data types will be continuous? The total weight of apples harvested in the farm in a season The owner of a new store on Main Street wants to turn the boulevard outside into extra parking spaces because she is concerned about parking availability. She randomly selects 500 residents of the town to take a survey, and these individuals have confirmed their participation. One of the survey questions reads, "Many residents believe the lack of available parking on Main Street is a major problem, and extra spaces along the boulevard would help. Do you agree?" The store owner's survey could suffer from which type of bias? Response bias In a study to assess the risk of obesity with the amount of time exercised per week, researchers matched each patient, in a sample of 500 people who are obese, with a person of the same ethnicity, gender, and age (along with other similar characteristics) who is not obese. The researchers asked the patients and their matches a series of questions, and then tracked eating and exercise habits regularly for several years. Which type of statistical study are the researchers conducting? Prospective study On a candy production line, 3% of bags are overfilled. An employee randomly selects 100 bags and finds that 5% are overfilled. A second employees takes another random sample of 250 bags and finds that 2% are overfilled. Which of the following explains why there is a difference between the two percentages? Random error; the numbers were different due to variability inherent in sampling. James conducts a survey to study the relationship between cell phone use and grades earned during the fall semester. James suspects that there might be a lot of other factors that affect grades besides cell phones. Which of the following could be a confounding variable in James's study? Time spent studying Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample? It is a sample where the population is first broken into groups and then elements are randomly selected, in proportion, from each group. In a game, Rachel throws three bean bags, aiming for the hole in the wooden board. Which of the following best classifies the arrangement of bean bags? Low accuracy and low precision Jenae's study ignored the fact that only some of her coffee choices had caffeine, even though her co-workers preferred caffeinated coffee. Therefore, Jenae decided to label one type of decaffeinated coffee as having caffeine to see what would happen. As she anticipated, this coffee became more popular with her co-workers, and they claimed that the extra boost of caffeine helped them focus on their work. The growing popularity of the decaffeinated coffee among co-workers, under the false impression that it gave them extra caffeine, is an example of ________. the placebo effect Jenae noticed that many of her co-workers would opt for the coffee that appeared to be most recently brewed, regardless of the flavor of the coffee offered. This leads her to believe that what she was witnessing was not really representative of everyone's true flavor preferences. She adapted her experimental study accordingly. Select one control in Jenae's experimental study. Jenae makes sure that the coffee in different pots is brewed at the same time. [Show Less]
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Sophia Business Law Unit one milestone questions and answers ,A+ content
Which of the following is a consideration when choosing a form of business organization?Which of the following is a consideration when choosing a form of b... [Show More] usiness organization?Which of the following is a consideration when choosing a form of business organization? The level of difficulty and cost associated with establishing the business entity Since corporations are separate legal entities from their shareholders, which of the following is true? Shareholders are usually not financially accountable for the actions of the corporation, but neither do they own the assets of the corporation. Which level of state court has the right to select which cases it wishes to hear? Supreme court Which of the following is true of U.S. positive law? It includes common law, as well as federal and state statutory law. Compared to traditional litigation, arbitration and mediation are both __________. quicker and more cost-effective Select the example where the court has established personal jurisdiction over the defendant. Miguel is being sued by an acquaintance of his over unpaid debts. Both Miguel and the plaintiff are residents of Colorado. Miguel has not been personally visited by a process server with a summons to appear in court, but he did receive one in the mail at his home. Why do LLCs often have problems borrowing funds for business growth? Because the members of the LLC are not personally liable for the debts and loans received by the LLC In which scenario do the different court systems in the U.S. interact properly? An Indiana court hears a case related to an auto accident that happened in the state between residents of Ohio and Illinois. When trying the case, the Indiana state court judge considers the laws of Indiana, since that's where the accident occurred. Select the true statement about primary sources of law in the U.S. Speed limits are an example of substantive law. A corporation is concerned about their exposure to criminal liability after the most recent election cycle placed a number of new legislators in Congress who campaigned against corporate corruption. Select the strategy that would be least effective in reducing the company's criminal liability. It could donate to the election campaigns of the new members of Congress to establish goodwill. Which statement accurately characterizes the constitutional relationship between the states and the federal government? State laws cannot conflict with federal laws or with the U.S. Constitution. The new CEO of a large coffee corporation makes fighting sexual harassment a cornerstone of the company's culture after a series of embarrassing incidents involving several of the company's managers are leaked to the media. The corporation drafts a new code of ethics with an expanded set of policies related to sexual harassment, creates a series of mandatory workshops for its workforce, and fires the managers involved in the incidents.Consider what you have learned about the factors that impact corporate culture. What is the ethical strength of the corporation in the example? Strong, because the CEO is setting expectations for ethical behavior and holding violators accountable. Which of the following is an example of a general partnership? Ken and Paul start a graphic design business together. When Ken fails to deliver on a contract with a customer, Ken and Paul are held equally responsible when the customer sues for damages. According to Josephson's core values model for ethical decision-making, what should X Corporation do next? Evaluate whether the decision to suppress the information would satisfy any core values and contrast it to other possible decisions. Which of the following correctly pairs the levels of the federal court system with the types of cases each decides? U.S. Circuit Court - appeals; U.S. District Court - trials Which of the following do legal positivists believe? The only human rights are those that have been created by human-made law. ABC Corporation is one of the largest energy companies in the United States, with over $50 million in publicly traded shares. The corporation's unusual accounting practices have disguised the fact that the company has accumulated significant losses over the past five years, making it appear far more profitable than it is. The CEO of ABC Corporation has decided to continue misleading investors by hiding its mounting debt in order to support the company's current market valuation.How would a deontologist evaluate this decision? ABC Corporation is acting unethically because it sees the investors' interests as unequal to the interests of the CEO and the corporation. If a breach of contract case is filed in federal court, the court __________. has subject matter jurisdiction if the claim is for more than $75,000 and no plaintiff lives in the same state as any defendant Select the true statement about the relationship between law, ethics, and business. People generally have similar opinions on what actions or conduct are called moral, and the marketplace rewards businesses that conduct themselves in such a manner. Select the true statement about statutory law. Statutes are formed by democratically elected legislative bodies, subject to a system of checks and balances. [Show Less]
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INTRO TO BUISNESS SOPHIA MILESTONE 1 questions and answers
Which of the following is an advantage of buying a franchise as an existing business, instead of starting from scratch? The ability to use a well-known br... [Show More] and A business owner analyzes which supplies and equipment will be used on a regular basis and buys them in bulk. Which element of business success is reflected by this scenario? Planning and organizing Which of the following is a disadvantage of a sole proprietorship? May have difficulty raising money for business operations Which of the following describes an entrepreneur rather than a small business owner? More likely to develop innovations and business expansions The US government limited the amount of raw sugar that could be brought into the country to three billion pounds. Which of the following trade restrictions is illustrated in this scenario? Import quota Greg's team developed a social responsibility program to have employees participate in an annual clothing drive. The employees donated and then delivered clothes and shoes to needy families. Which of the following activities would be performed in the Follow Through step? The team determined the number of employees who participated and the number of families assisted. Henri owned a company that made gourmet cookies in New York. The chocolate he used was made in Belgium. The pecans he used were grown in Georgia and the Macadamia nuts were grown in Australia. The dried fruits he used were made in California. He used eggs and butter produced by local farmers. Select the item(s) below that had to be imported in order for Henri to use it in his recipes. Chocolate Jill owned a small business in California. The state passed new legislation that required all small businesses to use new measures to protect the personal, financial and health information of both customers and employees. Jill's business will be impacted by which external business environment below? Political-legal A large cable company is the only provider of cable TV and Internet for a small community. As a result, consumers in the community who want either of these services must purchase from this company. In which of the following economic markets is the cable company operating? Monopoly Carole was an avid investor. She purchased 500 shares of common stock for GH Inc. based on an article she read about the publicly traded company. Which of the following would Carole be considered? A stockholder of GH Inc. How is a business plan used by the management of a business? To monitor and track performance goals for the business Joel, Evan and Chase partnered to own and operate a microbrewery that produced craft beers. After reviewing the numbers for the fourth quarter, Chase thought the amount he was paid from the company's earnings was way too low. He called a meeting to discuss the issue with Joel and Evan. With which element of a partnership agreement below would Chase have an issue? How profit or loss would be divided A country had a per capita income of $2,000. Which of the following would the World Bank categorize this country as being? A lower-middle income country Which of the following best describes ethics? Making choices based on morality A business owner decides to only use products that do not test on animals. Which social responsibility stance below did the business owner demonstrate? Proactive In addition to providing products and services, which of the following can a business often create? Quality of life for consumers Which of the following controls production in a planned economy? Centralized government In which of the following are investors most interested? They are concerned with the company safely increasing profitability Anita borrowed money from a bank to help her start her small business. Which factor of production below does the loan represent? Capital [Show Less]
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Pathophysiology WGU questions and answers with complete top solutions
Malara Symptoms are fever and flulike illness, including shaking chills, headache, muscle aches, and malaise. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea may also occu... [Show More] r. can cause anemia and jaundice because of the destruction of RBCs. MRSA Signs and symptoms depend on where the infection causes disease. For example, if the infection occurs in a wound, the wound will be painful, reddened, swollen, and warm to the touch. If the skin infection spreads to the lung, causing pneumonia, or to the bloodstream, then the symptoms will be more systemic. Staph Infection Symptoms and signs include a collection of pus, such as a boil, furuncle, or abscess. The area is typically tender or painful and may be reddened and swollen. Warm to the touch H1N1 The symptoms are the same as for seasonal flu. They include fever, cough, sore throat, nasal congestion, body aches, fatigue, and headaches. Some experience diarrhea and vomiting. Second Degree Burns The skin appears red and blistered and it may be swollen. First Degree Burns The skin is red, painful, and dry, but there are no blisters. Third Degree Burns The skin most likely appears white, pearly, or leathery. Fourth Degree Burns Extends into underlying bones, muscles, tendons, nerves, and blood vessels. The skin appears white or charred; sensation is lost because nerve endings are destroyed. Near drowning The person generally aspirates fluid or may have an obstructed airway caused by a spasm of the larynx when gasping underwater, resulting in hypoxemia (insufficient oxygenation of the arterial blood). Later, within minutes or possibly days, the person may experience respiratory distress. Adenoma A benign tumor formed from glandular structures in epithelial tissue Osteoma A new piece of bone usually growing on another piece of bone, typically the skull. It is a benign tumor. Paget Disease Some individuals may first notice a swelling or other deformity in one of the long bones of the body or a need to increase their hat size if the bones of the skull are involved. The gradual onset of dull but persistent pain around the area of the affected bone may be the first symptom in some individuals. The pain may become severe enough to be disabling. Nerves may be pinched by enlarged bones, and tingling or numbness may be felt. The skin is often warm to the touch over the affected area. Headache and vision loss may occur due to enlargement of the skull, and gradual hearing loss may occur if the ossicles or nearby skull bones are involved. Dislocation The bone may be visibly out of alignment or position and have a deformed appearance. Movement is limited, and the surrounding area may swell or bruise. Pain at the joint is severe, especially when in use. Fibromyalgia Pain begins as a constant, dull muscle ache. Additionally, pain comes from tender points or sites where firm pressure causes an increase in pain. These spots include the back of the head, tops of shoulders, outer elbows, upper hips, and inner knees. Exhaustion is also common because of the inability to enter into the restorative phase of sleep Sprain Symptoms are localized pain and inflammation, black-and-blue discoloration at the site of the injury, and loss of mobility. caused by chronic overuse of a ligament, muscle, or tendon typically cause stiffness, soreness, and tenderness, whereas a sharp, transient pain may result when either condition is acute. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Pain, burning, weakness, numbness, or tingling in one or both hands are the classic symptoms. unable to clench the fist or demonstrate a strong grip. Discomfort is usually worse at night and in the morning. Vitiligo Depigmentation or white spots on the skin appear most often on those areas exposed to sunlight, such as the face, lips, hands, and feet. White patches also commonly occur in the armpits, navel, groin, genital, and rectal areas Urticaria (hives) The condition is characterized by the eruption of pale, raised wheals on the skin, possibly surrounded by erythema. The lesions usually form and then resolve quite rapidly, often moving from one area of the body to another. This vascular reaction usually is accompanied by intense itching. Contact dermatitis The symptoms include erythema and the appearance of small skin vesicles that ooze, scale, itch, burn, or sting. The affected area may be hot and swollen. Tinea pedis Persistent itching and peeling dry skin between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. Eczema (atopic dermatitis) There will be pruritus and often severe characteristic lesions on the face, neck, upper trunk, and bends of the knees and elbows. may cause vesicular and exudative eruptions in children and dry, leathery vesicles in adults. Herpes Zoster (Shingles) The first symptom is pain along the affected nerve, usually occurring 1 to 3 days before appearance of the lesions. The skin eruption begins as an erythematous maculopapular rash that develops quite rapidly into vesicles. The site of these lesions is usually on one side of the trunk of the body, but if nerves supplying the face are involved, lesions may also appear on one side of the face, mouth, or tongue or around one eye. The region around the affected site is often intensely painful. Ischemic CVA Symptoms may include the sudden onset of muscle weakness in the arm, leg, or foot on one side of the body. Other symptoms may include diplopia, speech deficits, dizziness, and staggering or uncoordinated gait. TIAs generally do not result in unconsciousness. Hemorrhagic CVA Rupture of blood vessel, high fatality rate, Impaired consciousness, Hemiparesis Peripheral neuropathy The symptoms depend on the nerve(s) affected. The most common locations for pain and loss of sensation are in the extremities. The pain is often described as tingling, prickling, burning, or freezing, with extreme sensitivity to touch. The onset is slow in most cases and may be marked by progressive muscular weakness, loss of dexterity, tenderness, and pain. Physical wasting, loss of reflexes, and clumsiness may result. When the autonomic nerves are affected, a number of symptoms result. They can include blurred vision, dizziness, abdominal bloating, constipation or diarrhea, urinary hesitancy or incontinence, and heat intolerance. Subdural Hematoma The symptoms typically include difficulty walking, headache, confusion, confused or slurred speech, visual problems, and an initial loss of consciousness. As the condition worsens, there may be paralysis of half the body (hemiparesis), severe headache, and dilated pupils. These symptoms may appear within a short period of time or over a period of days, depending on the rate at which blood accumulates. Cerebral Contusion The signs and symptoms vary according to the location and extent of the tissue injury to the brain. Symptoms may range from transient loss of consciousness to coma. When conscious, an individual may exhibit hemiparesis; severe headache; nausea; vomiting; and a variety of behavioral disturbances ranging from lethargy, apathy, and drowsiness to hostility and combativeness. Blood pressure and temperature are subnormal. Parkinson disease The onset is slow and insidious. Symptoms eventually may include bradykinesia, or abnormally slow movements; progressively rigid extremities; and "pill-rolling" tremors beginning in the fingers. There often is difficulty with balance, a shuffling walk, and muffled speech. The individual's facial expression may appear fixed. Stress, fatigue, and anxiety tend to aggravate the tremors, whereas purposeful movement and sleep decrease the tremors Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Symptoms include involuntary muscle contractions and muscular atrophy, weakness, and twitching, especially in the muscles of the extremities. The individual may have problems with speech, chewing, swallowing, and even breathing if the brain stem is affected. There is no sensory nerve involvement. With all voluntary muscle action affected, the person in the later stages of the disease becomes totally paralyzed. Multiple Sclerosis A change in vision may be the first symptom. Others may include sudden and transient motor and sensory disturbances, muscle weakness, paralysis, incontinence, fatigue, balance problems, numbness, and mood swings. Cataract A gradual loss or blurring of vision is the common symptom. Colors appear faded. Some people report seeing halos around lights, and some have problems driving at night because of glare from the lights of oncoming cars. As it matures, the pupil of the eye may appear white to an observer. The condition is painless. Glaucoma The most common forms develop asymptomatically and often are not detected until irreparable damage has already occurred to the retinas or optic nerves. When symptoms appear late in the course of the disease, they may include mild aching in the eyes and visual disturbances, such as seeing halos around lights or a noticeable loss of peripheral vision. Otosclerosis A gradual bilateral hearing loss of low tones and/or soft sounds is the first sign. Tinnitus may accompany the condition. Affected clients may turn their head to hear better or may notice they cannot use the telephone on the affected ear. Ménière disease The classic symptoms are severe vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. An acute attack of vertigo may cause nausea, vomiting, sweating, and loss of balance. These attacks may occur several times a year, but remissions also can last several years. Aneurysm Severe headache, dilated pupils, blurred or double vision, neck pain, nausea, sensitivity to light, and loss of sensation a. Clients may report speech problems, diminished thought processes, loss of balance and coordination, and vision deficit Thrombus Clot of blood in artery Embolus a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit, or other object that has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism Myocardial infarction The classic symptoms include a crushing chest pain that may radiate to the left arm, neck, and jaw. The pain may be similar to angina pain but usually is severe and is not relieved by the same measures that relieve angina. Some individuals may exhibit few symptoms or confuse the pain with indigestion. There is growing incidence showing that symptoms for women are fatigue, nausea, vomiting, and shortness of breath. Individuals with CAD should be suspicious if angina occurs with increasing frequency and duration. For some, its preceded by vague feelings of discomfort, fear, nausea, and vomiting. Congestive Heart Failure Left ventricular failure may be manifested as dyspnea and fatigue and will result in primarily pulmonary symptoms. Right ventricular failure may cause distended neck veins and hepatomegaly and is more likely to result in systemic symptoms. Signs of advancement may include tachypnea, palpitations, edema, weight gain, diaphoresis, and cyanosis. As the disease progresses, there may be hemoptysis, cyanosis, and pitting edema of the ankle (when an indentation in the skin remains a few minutes after the area is pressed with the finger). Pericarditis The classic symptom is a sharp and often sudden pleuritic pain that increases with deep inspiration. The fluctuating nature of pericardial pain clearly differentiates it from the pain produced by an MI. If pericardial effusion (an escape of fluid) occurs in acute pericarditis, orthopnea, dyspnea, and tachycardia (abnormally rapid heart rate) typically result. If the fluid accumulates rapidly, the pressure against the heart may result in clammy skin, pallor, and a decrease in blood pressure. This condition, called cardiac tamponade, is considered life-threatening. Mitral Stenosis A narrowing of the mitral valve opening that blocks (obstructs) blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. Malignant Hypertension Is extremely high blood pressure that develops rapidly and causes some type of organ damage. Normal blood pressure is below 120/80. A person with this has a blood pressure that's typically above 180/120 Aplastic Anema The onset may be insidious or may occur slowly over a period of time. Signs and symptoms can include fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath upon exertion, irregular heart rate, purpura, nosebleeds and bleeding gums, infections, headache, and dizziness. Pancytopenia, a decrease in all cellular components of the blood, may occur if the bone marrow is damaged to the point that healthy blood-forming tissues are replaced by fatty abnormal tissue. HIV (AIDS) predominantly infects cells called T4 lymphocytes (T4-helper cells), which are critical to the operation of the body's immune system. The virus replicates by taking over the genetic machinery of the T cell it invades. The replication process continues until the host cell is destroyed. The newly produced infected cells can then infect other T4 lymphocytes, leaving the body open to opportunistic infections. Mononucleosis (Upper Resp) Initial symptoms are usually vague, mimic those of other diseases, and may include malaise, anorexia, and chills. After 3 to 5 days, sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph glands in the throat and neck occur. Early in the infection, a rash that resembles rubella sometimes develops. Osteoarthritis The first symptom may include deep, aching joint pain that usually is relieved by rest. There may be stiffness and some swelling, especially in the morning, and aching during weather changes. There usually is minimal inflammation. Crepitation, a crackling sound due to the grating of bones, may be heard on joint movement. Deformity may be minimal in some cases, but bony enlargement can occur. Myasthenia gravis Skeletal muscle weakness and fatigability occur. Onset may be sudden, and most affected individuals will notice drooping eyelids and double vision as the first signs that something is wrong. Because the muscles most affected are usually those innervated by the cranial nerves (face, lips, tongue, neck, and throat), a blank expression, nasal regurgitation of fluids, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), blepharoptosis (drooping eyelid), dysphasia (difficulty speaking), and a bobbing head may result Muscle weakness typically occurs later in the day or after strenuous exercise. Menses, emotional stress, prolonged exposure to sunlight or cold, and infections heighten the symptoms. Respiratory muscle weakness or myasthenic crisis (the sudden inability to swallow and respiratory distress) may be severe enough to require mechanical ventilation. Rheumatoid Arthritis develops insidiously among most affected individuals. The earliest signs and symptoms may include malaise, persistent low-grade fever, fatigue, and weight loss. Joint pain and stiffness gradually emerge as the principal symptoms, usually affecting the joints of the fingers, wrists, knees, ankles, and toes in a symmetric pattern. The pain is characteristically aggravated by movement of the affected joints. In advanced cases of RA affecting the hands, the interphalangeal joints are swollen and edematous and have a characteristic tapered appearance. Impetigo begin as macules, vesicles, and pustules, usually accompanied by pruritus. The primary lesion ruptures, leaving a honey-colored serous liquid. The liquid hardens, and a thick, yellow crust eventually forms over the infected site. can occur anywhere, but it is most common on the mouth, nose, neck, or extremities. Satellite lesions may appear as a result of autoinoculation. Erythema with ulcerations and scarring may result Decubitus Ulcers Early signs include shiny, reddened skin, usually appearing over a bony prominence (stage 1). If not treated quickly, the ulcer may become more serious when skin is swollen and shows a blister (stage 2). A craterlike ulcer that goes deeper into the skin (stage 3) and a deep ulcer that goes into fat, muscle, or bone (stage 4) are very serious. If the ulcer becomes infected, it will be foul-smelling and purulent. Pain may or may not accompany the lesion Rosacea flushing of the cheeks, forehead, nose, or chin. For others, small red pustules form on the same areas, and the skin of the cheeks, forehead, and nose may thicken. The nose may also enlarge and become misshapen, resulting in a condition called rhinophyma. Eye problems, such as redness, burning, dryness, and excessive tearing, occur in 50% of cases. Alzheimer Disease In the early stages, the person has small difficulties at work or in social settings with memory loss but generally can hide the loss and function independently. Depression may occur. As the disease progresses, the person exhibits mild mental impairment. This impairment includes loss of short-term memory, inability to learn new tasks, and subtle changes in personality. Then increased forgetfulness, agitation, irritability, and extreme restlessness occur. The person may retell the same stories, and others can no longer reason with him or her, which may further increase the person's anxiety. Conversations become difficult. Eventually, the individual is unable to perform self-care, becomes incontinent, and is unable to communicate. The person becomes emotionally detached and may show sleep disturbances, restlessness, and hostility. In the terminal stage, the person usually requires total care. The rate at which an individual progresses through the disease varies; within 5 to 10 years, there is profound deterioration of intellectual and physical ability. [Show Less]
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