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HESI Pharmacology Exam Practice questions and answers 100% correct
1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse p... [Show More] repare to administer as prescribed to the client? 1. Calcium chloride 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) 4. Large doses of vitamin D 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? 1. Milk 2. Water 3. Apple juice 4. Orange juice 4. Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased respirations 1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied: 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Notifying the registered nurse 2. Discontinuing the medication 3. Informing the client that this is normal 4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site 3. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred? 1.Hyperventilation 2.Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site 1.Hyperventilation Rationale: Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury. 7.) Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count 2. Triglyceride level Rationale: Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment. 8.) A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 1. Vitamin A Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin. 9.) The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands 2. Axilla Rationale: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). 10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for: 1. Acne 2. Eczema 3. Hair loss 4. Herpes simplex 1. Acne Rationale: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments? 1. "The medication is an antibacterial." 2. "The medication will help heal the burn." 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." 4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound." 3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action? 1. Notify the registered nurse. 2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort. 3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed. 4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion. 1. Notify the registered nurse. Rationale: When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider. 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed? 1. Echocardiography 2. Electrocardiography 3. Cervical radiography 4. Pulmonary function studies 4. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication. 14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication? 1. Clotting time 2. Uric acid level 3. Potassium level 4. Blood glucose level 2. Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication. 15.) The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication? 1. Alopecia 2. Chest pain 3. Pulmonary fibrosis 4. Orthostatic hypotension 4. Orthostatic hypotension Rationale: A side effect specific to etoposide is orthostatic hypotension. The client's blood pressure is monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication. 16.) The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client: 1. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache 2. Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening 3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations 4. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair 3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations Rationale: Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed not to receive immunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects. 17.) The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication? 1. Diarrhea 2. Hair loss 3. Chest pain 4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes 4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes Rationale: A side effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client. Peripheral neuropathy can be manifested as numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Depression of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheral neuropathy. Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occur with this medication, although diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication. 18.) The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history? 1. Pancreatitis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 1. Pancreatitis Rationale: Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has elapsed between administration of the doses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication. 19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to: 1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis. 2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids. 3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response. 4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. 4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treat metastatic breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response. 20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication? 1. Glucose level 2. Calcium level 3. Potassium level 4. Prothrombin time 2. Calcium level Rationale: Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitored periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain. 21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply. 1. Tinnitus 2. Ototoxicity 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hypercalcemia 5. Nephrotoxicity 6. Hypomagnesemia 1. Tinnitus 2. Ototoxicity 5. Nephrotoxicity 6. Hypomagnesemia Rationale: Cisplatin is an alkylating medication. Alkylating medications are cell cycle phase-nonspecific medications that affect the synthesis of DNA by causing the cross-linking of DNA to inhibit cell reproduction. Cisplatin may cause ototoxicity, tinnitus, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and nephrotoxicity. Amifostine (Ethyol) may be administered before cisplatin to reduce the potential for renal toxicity. 22.) A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to: 1. Treat thyroid storm. 2. Prevent cardiac irritability. 3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. 4. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone. 3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. Rationale: Hypocalcemia can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed or injured during surgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days after surgery. If the client develops numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingertips, or toes or muscle spasms or twitching, the health care provider is notified immediately. Calcium gluconate should be kept at the bedside. 23.) A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge? 1. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times. 2. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. 3. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise. 4. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage. 2. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. Rationale: Insulin dosages should not be adjusted or increased before unusual exercise. If acetone is found in the urine, it may possibly indicate the need for additional insulin. To minimize the discomfort associated with insulin injections, the insulin should be administered at room temperature. Injection sites should be systematically rotated from one area to another. The client should be instructed to give injections in one area, about 1 inch apart, until the whole area has been used and then to change to another site. This prevents dramatic changes in daily insulin absorption. 24.) A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first 2. Withdraws the regular insulin first 3. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first 4. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial 1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first Rationale: When preparing a mixture of regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the regular insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of regular insulin with insulin of another type. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify the correct actions for preparing NPH and regular insulin. [Show Less]
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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam with complete answers score A+
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse ... [Show More] that the desired effect has been achieved? A. Client states chest pain is relieved B. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90 C. Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90 D. Clients SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96% A. nitroglycerin reduces mycocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces chest pain A client with hyperlipidemia recieves a prescription for niacin (niaspan). which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide a. expected duration of flushing b. symptoms of hyperglycemia c. diets that minimize gi irritation d. comfort measure for pruritis A. flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin. inclusion of this effect in clietn teaching may promote compliance in taking the med. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (tylonel), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body a. flank b. abdomen c. chest d. head B. acetaminophen toxicisty an result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (which might indicated liver damage) A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload a. nitroglycerin b. propranolol c. propranolol d. captopril A. nitroglycerin is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to A. decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid D. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist has been achieved A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1 B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min D. Blood pressure reducedf rom 160/90 to 130.80 D. angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure. Which instructions should the nurse give to a female client who just recieved a prescription for oral metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply) A. increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication E. Use condoms until treatment is completed F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time ADEF The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement A. verify both prescriptions with the HCP B. report the med interactions to the nurse manager C. hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy A. the concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor and a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels. A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client? A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep D. nitroglycerin for angina pain C. persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate? A. stop the infusion of dopamine B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate C. replace the urinary catheter D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. D. A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? A. Penicillins B. Aminoglycosides C. Erythromycins D.Sulfonamides A. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? A. Antacids. B. Benzodiasepines C. Antihypertensives D. Oral antidiabetics B. respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepines Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)? A. Fluid volume deficit B.Risk for infection C. Risk for injury D. Impaired sleep patterns C. Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take FIRST? A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (demorol) B. Administer naloxone (narcan) IV per PRN protocol C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the demerol per protocol D. notify the healthcare provider of the clients confusion and hallucinations C. The client is exhibiting symptoms of demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of demerol recieved over four days. C. is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum demerol. The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement? A. q6h B. QID C. AC and bedtime D. PC and bedtime A. q6h After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin. during administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide. A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation B. this medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection C. This medication dissolves any glots that develop int he legs D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound A Following heparin treatment for a PE, a client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly? A. Perfusion scan B. Prothrombin time (PT/INR) C. Activated Partial thromboplastin (APTT) D. Serum Coumadin Level (SCL) B. When used for a client with PE, the therapeutic goal for wafarin therapy is a PT 1/5 to 2/5 times greater than the control or an INR of 2-3. A perfusion might be preformed to monitor lung function but not monthly. APTT is monitored for Heparin. A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinsons disease has a new prescription for sustained release levodopa/carbidopa (sinemet 25/100 PO BID. The client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? A. take the first dose of sinemet today, as soon as your prescription is filld B. Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the sinemet C. Take both drugs for the 1st week, then switch to taking only the sinemet. D. You can begin taking the sinemet this evening, but do not take anymore levodopa D [Show Less]
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Hesi Pharmacology (ACTUAL) Questions and answers graded A+
Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to perform what assessment? a-Observe the skin integrity of the ... [Show More] client's rectal and sacral areas b-assess the client strength in moving and turning in the bed c-evaluate the client's ability to recognize the urge to defecate d-determine the frequency and consistency of bowel movements D rationale the nurse should ensure that the client is not experiencing diarrhea (answer choice D) before administering a laxative, which will increase the frequency of bowel movements. answer choices A,B,C R4 and assessments for the provision of care when the client experience is a valve, but are of less priority then answer choice D which provides data about the possible need to hold medication A female client with multiple sclerosis reports having less fatigue and improved memory since she began using the herbal supplement, ginkgo biloba. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plans for this client? a-Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs interact with ginkgo b-nausea and diarrhea can occur when using this supplement c-anxiety and headaches increased with use of ginkgo d-ginkgo biloba use should be limited and not taken during pregnancy Rationale ginkgo biloba has blood thinning properties and should not be used in taking aspirin or unsafe which increased the risk for bleeding. nausea diarrhea anxiety and headaches are also side effects of supplements but they do not pose the same risk as a. Although D is accurate A has a higher priority In explaining the benefits of the combination anti-infective drug code tri-moxazole/TMP-SMZ (bactrium) to a client receiving the medication for a urinary tract infection, more rationale to the nurse provide? -Each drug could cause damage to the kidneys if taken separately -one drug reduces the risk of side effects caused by the drug -while one drug provide releif, the other fights the infection -the two drugs work together to reduce resistance of the bacterial infection of symptoms D rationale the combination of drugs and bacteria work synergistically to reduce bacterial resistance enterprise D, thereby increasing the drug therapeutic benefits answer choices a B &C are incorrect rationales Client being treated with Haldol for schizophrenia is complaining of jaw tightness & a stiff neck. Which interventions should the nurse impliment? -give PRN those of diphenhydramine Benadryl -assess client other sensory hallucinations -massage neck until muscles begin to relax -obtain a 12 lead EKG Rationale jaw tightness and a stiff neck are signs of tardive dyskinesia, a serious side effect of health all that can be reversed with Benadryl answer choice A. the client complaints are not considered hallucinations b. Massaging the neck does not eliminate the symptoms. A 12 lead EKG is not indicated because the pain is not cardiac in origin. Which intervention is most important for the nurse implement for a client is receiving lispro Humalog insulin? -Check blood glucose levels every six hours -provide meals at the same time that insulin is given -assess for hypoglycemia between meals -keeping oral liquid or glucose source available B Rationale Humalog is a rapid acting insulin 15 minutes, so meals should be readily available time administration of lispro (B). Although glucose blood levels a, monitoring for hypoglycemia see, and keeping emergency source of glucose available B should be implemented for client receiving any form of insulin those who take these are at greatest risk for rapid hypoglycemia shortly after it is administered Client takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs every day for rheumatoid arthritis is being treated for anemia which intervention is most important for the nurse to include any plan of care observe for gastrointestinal bleeding monitor liver function test results protect skin from bruising offered dietary selections rich in iron rationale rationale the client is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding duty history of NSAID a .new onset anemia indicates bleeding may be present. NSAIDS May impact liver function b, but this is of less immediacy than a. C is a basic core measure but not one of high priority for this client. D often useful for persons with anemia but is of less priority than a [Show Less]
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HESI PHARM 2022, 49Q questions and answers with rationale
The nurse is caring for a patient taking cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. Which should the nurse consider about administering this drug? A) Administer the dr... [Show More] ug with the first bit of food B) Administer the drug immediately after meals C) Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals D) Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals D) Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals The nurse is discharging a patient with a new patient for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching? A) Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur B) Aspirin may be taken with this medication C) The patient may experience iron deficiency anema D) The patient may experience restlessness A) Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response? A) The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach B) The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach C) The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa D) The medication can reduce the patient's constipation C) The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa The nurse is creating a class for older adults in the community. Which information about laxative use in older adults would be important to include? A) Laxative are not effective in older adults B) All laxative are exactly the same C) Over-the-counter laxatives are misused D) Laxatives can cause potassjum retention D) Laxatives can cause potassjum retention The nurse is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative? A) Cardiac problems B) Abdominal pain of unknown origin C) Several hemorrhoids D) Chronic constipation B) Abdominal pain of unknown origin The nurse is studying antacids that contain magnesium and calcium for the pharmacology exam. The student nurse remembers that these antacids should be used with caution in patients with which condition? A) Hypertension B) Renal failure C) Heart failure D) Peptic ulcer disease D) Peptic ulcer disease A patient asks the nurse how to best prevent constipation. Which class of laxative would the nurse recommend to this patient? A) Stimulant laxatives B) Bulk-forming laxatives C) Amollient laxatives D) Hyperosomatic laxatives A) Stimulant laxatives The nurse is caring for patient with short term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving? A) Lubricants B) Probiotics C) Adsorbents D) Anticholinergics B) Probiotics The nurse is creating community education about over-the-counter (OTC) antacids. Which information about calcium antacids would be important to include? A) They cause decreased gastric acid production B) Long-term use may result in kidney stones C) Long-term use may result in fluid retention D) They may cause severe bouts of diarrhea A) They cause decreased gastric acid production The nurse is administering an aluminum-based antacid to a patient. Which side effect of this drug should the student consider? A) Rebound hyperacidity B) Acute constipation C) Chronic indigestion D) Dumping syndrome A) Rebound hyperacidity The nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto- Bismol) at home for several weeks, During the morning assessment, the nurse notices the patient has blue gums while doing the oral assessment. Which action would the nurse take? A) Ask the patient what he had to drink with breakfast B) This is a common side effect; nothing needs to be done C) Ask the patient if he has been eating blur-colored fruits D) Call the healthcare provider and report the blue gums D) Call the healthcare provider and report the blue gums The nurse is caring for patient with severe constipation. Which laxative will produce the most rapid response? A) Magnesium oxide B) Psyllium (Metamucil) C) Magnesium hydroxide D) Docusate salts (Colace) C) Magnesium hydroxide A patient on the oncology unit is experiencing nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy. Which drug will decrease nausea for this patient? A) Cimetidine B) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) C) Scopolamine (Scopace) D) Ondansetron (Zofran) D) Ondansetron (Zofran) The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient taking an antihistamine antiemetic. Which information would be important to include? A) This medication can be taken with a glass of wine at dinner B) It is appropriate for the patient to skip doses with feeling better C) Driving should be avoided due to the possibility for drowsiness D) The patient may experience intermittent problems with taste C) Driving should be avoided due to the possibility for drowsiness The nurse is caring for an older adult who has been taking sodium bicarbonate several times a day for the past month. The nurse will assess for which potential problem that may occur with overuse of sodium bicarbonate? A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Increased gastric secretions C) Decreased bowel sounds D) Metabolic alkalosis D) Metabolic alkalosis The nurse is caring for a patient taking valsartan (Diovan). The nurse will explain to the patient that this medication has which therapeutic effect? A) Increases serum sodium B) Decreases preload and afterload C) Increases serum ADH D) Decreases the renal blow flow B) Decreases preload and afterload The patient is being seen in the emergency department (ED) for confirmed digitalis toxicity. Which drug would the nurse anticipate to administer for treatment of the patient's conditions? A) Digitalis glycoside B) Spironolactone (Aldactone) C) Amiodarone (Cordarone) D) Digoxin immune fab D) Digoxin immune fab Me matoris mins to a mic with fewerdiwxwhris kerkalemit. Whichders from A) Atenolol (Ternormin) B) Hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate (BiDil) C) Furosemide (Lasix) D) Digoxin (Lanoxin) C) Furosemide (Lasix) The nurse is caring for a diabetic patient with heart failure. Which medication should be used with caution in this patient? A) Losartan (Cozaar) B) Propranolol (Inderal) C) Spironolactone (Aldactone) D) Dobutamine (Dobutrex) C) Spironolactone (Aldactone) The nurse is caring for a patient taking Lisinopril (Prinivil). The nurse knows to monitor the patient for which adverse effect? A) Elevated serum potassium B) Increase urine output C) Bronchodilation D) Increased blood pressure A) Elevated serum potassium [Show Less]
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Pharmacology Hesi 2023 test guaranteed to score A+
Digoxin (Lanoxin) - positive inotrope (increases force of contraction); negative chronotrope (decreases heart rate). How do you assess for this? Always ta... [Show More] ke apical pulse for one full minute Client with a long hx of daily digoxin and fourosemide (Lasix) use; creates a high risk for dig toxicity because Lasix can cause hypokalemia, which can lead to dig toxicity What can happen when Digoxin is taken with Dronedarone (Multaq), which is another anti-dysrhythmic drug)? Digoxin can increase in the blood level and further increase the effects What is the normal digoxin level? 0.5-2 ng/mL Normal serum potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L Low potassium or magnesium levels may increase risk for Digoxin toxicity What are the signs and symptoms for digoxin toxcitiy? anorexia, bradycardia, headache, dizziness, confusion, nausea, and visual disturbances such as blurred, yellow, or halo vision. When should you hold off on giving digoxin drug therapy? if apical pulse is less than 60 What effects do Calcium channel blockers (-dipine; amlodipine (Norvasc), nifedipine (Procardia) cause produce vasodialation and reflex tachycardia (lowers BP but increases HR) Verapamil and diltiazam produce vasodialation and cardiosuppresssion (lowers BP and Lowers heart rate) Beta blockers have the drug ending -OLOL such as atenolol, propanolol, esmolol, ect.) Beta 1 blocks receptors in the heart Beta 2 blocks receptors in the lungs Beta blockers can be non selective so be aware of any respiratory conditions such as asthma, emphysema COPD, ect. A nurse should always check _____ and _____ before giving a beta blocker AP and BP do not give if HR is below 60 never stop abruptly Why do you never stop taking a Beta BLocker abruptly Must taper because angina or MI can orccur When would a nurse hold HTN medication Labetalol? A patient with a low pulse rate. Side effect of Labetalol (beta blocker) is weight gain / fluid retention montioring weight is one of the best indicators of loss/gain 1kg is equivalent to 1,000 mL It is important to assess _____ when taking a beta blocker such as Labetalol pulmonary is it OK to give nitroglycerin to a patient who is hypertensive? Yes If an ICU patient on a nirto drip becomes hypotensive what immediate action should the nurse take? titrate (decrease the rate) of the nitro drip. This drug is used for a rapid diuresis in emergencies to decrease pulmonary edema Furosemide (Lasix) a loop diuretic Furosemide (Lasix) can cause hypokalemia When taking furosemide (Lasix) a nurse should assess for what signs of hypokalemia? muscle cramps and muscle weakness Hypotension F/E abnormalities dehydration Side effects with aminoglycosides (-mycin drugs) dizziness head ache tinnitus N/V/D low potassium hyperglycemia ototoxicity Foods containing potassium dried fruits, fish, leafy veggies, squash, beans, meats, nuts, bananas, potatoes, dairy products It is important to use a large vein, such as AC (antecubital when administering __________ because it can irritate the vein potassium It is important to notify the nurse immediately is burning at the IV site when giving potassium because this can result in necrosis of the tissue Can potassium be given in a fast IV push? NO, always diluted at a rate of 10 mEq/hr for peripheral 20 mEq/hr for central line Requires an infusion pump IV site should be assessed every hour Which antihypertensives will raise potassium? ACEs (-pril) ARBs (-sartan) and other renin inhibitors Which antihypertensives will lower potassium? loop diuretics such as furosemide (-ide) and thiazides such as hydrochlorthiazide This drug can be administered via NG tube or as an enema to reduce severe serum potassium levels when life threatening values are seen Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) To correct severe hyperkalemia administration of dextrose and insulin, sodium bicarbonate, and calcium gluconate or chloride are often required followed by oral or rectal use of Kayexalate or even hemodialysis to eliminate the extra potassium in the body What are some potassium sparing diuretics that inhibit sodium and water reabsorption? Spionolactone (Aldactone), amiloride (Midamore), triamterene (Dyrenium) What is important when teaching patients to take diuretics? Take in the AM avoid salt substitutes ACEs and ARBs are often taken with other thiazide diuretics to treat... Edema, hypertension, and heart failure When taking an atorcastatin (Lipitor) the _____should increase whereas the ______ and total cholesterol should decrease. HDL increases LDL decreases An important patient teaching on diet when taking statin medications is eating a diet low in animal fats and high in fiber Checking for muscle pain and monitoring _____ should be done when a patient is taking Crestor (rosuvastatin) LFTs (LIver Function Tests) CK (Creatine Kinase) ______ are agents that reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the outflow of fluids from the eye, and are usually used to reverse angle closure glaucoma or prevent angle closure in eyes with narrow chamber angles Miotics (see Cholinergic drugs) _____ are agents used to produce dilation of pupils for eye exams and ocular surgery Mydriatics Decongestants and bronchodialators have ______ effects such as ___, ____, and ___. sympathomimetic (adrenergic) effects are increased heart rate nervousness insomnia Decongestants and bronchodialators should be taken during the ______ take during the day not at night Bronchodialators that stimulate B2 receptors if taken at a high enough dosage can ________ selectivity and also stimulate ______ so it is important to monitor ______ loose selectivity B1 receptors monitor cardiac When a patient is being discharged on warfarin (Coumadin) it is important to teach a patient about ways to avoid _____ and they should use _____. avoid bleeding risks soft toothbrush, electric razor, do not go without shoes [Show Less]
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PN HESI PHARM QUESTION WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS 2023
While taking a client's history, the practical nurse (PN) discovers that the client, who takes Coumadin daily, has added a ginger supplement on the advice ... [Show More] of a friend. What comment is critical for the PN to provide to this client? "Your health care provider is interested in all medications and herbs you take." A client with diabetes mellitus takes insulin daily and is prescribed propranolol (Inderal). Which information should the nurse provide to this client? A sign of hypoglycemia is that propranolol slows a rapid heart rate. A client has a positive skin test for tuberculosis. What prophylactic drug should the practical nurse (PN) expect to be prescribed for this client? Isoniazid (INH) Amitriptyline hydrochloride (Elavil) is prescribed for an adult female client who is clinically depressed. Five days after beginning the drug, the client is admitted to the hospital because of suicide ideation. She tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because she is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide? "It takes 2 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective." In planning care for a client diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia, which intervention should the practical nurse implement? Obtain the sputum specimen before administering prescribed antibiotics. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is prescribed for a client who has a seizure disorder. Which statement by the client indicates to the practical nurse that the instruction about this drug has been effective? "I know that I should never stop taking this medication abruptly." The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a female client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens (Premarin) 0.625 mg PO daily. Before taking the first dose of the medication, which information is most important for the PN to obtain from the client? Cigarette smoking history A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the well-baby clinic because the baby has developed oral thrush. Which pharmacological agent should the practical nurse (PN) expect to be prescribed for the thrush? Nystatin (Mycostatin) The H2 receptor blocker famotidine (Pepcid) is prescribed for a client who has been taking antacids for chronic gastritis. Which client statement indicates to the practical nurse (PN) that teaching was effective regarding concurrent use of these medications? "I will take the antacid after meals and the Pepcid at bedtime." A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the clinic because the child has had "bad diarrhea" for the last 3 days. She states, "I bought some of this liquid at the pharmacy and gave my daughter a half-ounce." The practical nurse (PN) sees that the bottle contains loperamide (Imodium AD). What intervention is most important for the PN to implement initially? Ask the mother when the child last voided. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion (Restasis) for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide? Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of Restasis and artificial tears. The health care provider prescribes morphine sulfate grain 1/8 IM stat. Morphine is available in 8 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the practical nurse (PN) administer? 1 mL A 74-year-old female client asks the practical nurse (PN) if she should get a flu shot. Which response should the PN provide? "Yes. Normal aging decreases your immunity, making you more susceptible to contagious diseases such as the flu." A 78-year-old client with congestive heart failure (CHF) receives the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg PO daily. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the medication has been effective? Clear breath sounds bilaterally. The healthcare provider orders 1000 mL of 0.5% normal saline to run over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/min? (Round to the nearest whole number.) 31 A client asks the practical nurse (PN) if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. What answer should the PN provide? "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present." A female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day reports to the nurse that the medication is causing slight anorexia. She also states that she continues to experience urinary frequency, so she takes the medication with a small sip of cranberry juice and limits her fluid intake. What information should the practical nurse provide Drink a full glass of water with the medication and drink additional fluids throughout the day A health care provider prescribes cefadroxil (Duricef) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the practical nurse (PN) to consider that a cross allergy is possible with what drug allergy? Penicillins A client is receiving the antipsychotic medication haloperidol (Haldol). In evaluating the effectiveness of this medication, which action provides the practical nurse with the most reliable information? Observe the client for changes in behavior weekly. A client is receiving benztropine (Cogentin) and olanzapine (Seroquel) to control psychotic behavior. When reinforcing teaching to the client and/or significant others about these medications, what should the practical nurse (PN) explain about the use of benztropine (Cogentin)? The benztropine (Cogentin) is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms. Which question should the practical nurse (PN) ask an older client before beginning treatment with gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin)? Are you hard of hearing?" Oral metronidazole (Flagyl) is prescribed for a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis, a protozoan infection. What precautions should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to follow while taking this medication? Avoid ingesting any alcoholic (ethanol) beverage. Which finding indicates that the desired effect of phenazopyridine (Pyridium), used in the management of urinary tract infections (UTIs), has been achieved? Client denies pain when voiding. [Show Less]
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HESI Pharmacology Practice Test 100% accurate answers
The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client with depression on the psychiatric unit. Wh... [Show More] ich information is most important for the nurse to assess? A. Consumption of any alcohol or tyramine rich foods B. Reports of nausea or vomiting C. Therapeutic serum drug levels D. Blood pressure and pulse prior to taking each dose A The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess thr client during the initial dose? A. Bradykinesia B. Dystonia C. Somatization D. Akathisia B While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the health care provider concerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply) A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) B. Closed angle glaucome C. Chronic hypertension D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Crohn's disease B,C A client prescribed ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Withhold the medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider B. Give PRN medication for nausea and vomiting and evaluate client in 30 minutes C. reassure client that the ipratropium given will alleviate the symptoms D. Delay administration of ipratropium until the next maintenance medication is scheduled A A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer? A. High dose methylprednisolone intravenously B. Baclofen three times a day C. Broad spectrum antibiotic coverage orally D. Immunomodulatory drug therapy periodically A The nurse administers 30 mL of lactulose for a client with stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. Which assessment finding would indicate the medication is being therapeutic? A. A decrease in blood ammonia levels B. A softening in the stools C. An increase in glucose absorption D. A suppression of gut acidification A The nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes about neutral protamine Hagedor (NPH) insulin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of how the medication works? A. It facilitates the transport of glucose into the cells B. It stimulates the function of beta cells in the pancreas C. It increases the intracellular receptor site sensitivity D. It delays the carbohydrate digestion and absorption A The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea? A. Colchicine (Mitigare, Colcrys) B. Erythromycin (E-mycin) C. Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn) D. Labetolol (Normodyne) A A client newly prescribed esomeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) asks the nurse how the medication will help. Which is the best explanation to provide the client? A. It will promote rapid tissue healing B. It will increase gastric emptying C. It will improve esophageal peristalsis D. It will neutralize gastric secretions A A nurse is providing medication education for a client prescribed a beta-blocking agent for treatment of glaucoma. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the mechanism of the medication? A. It inhibits the aqueous humor production B. It enhances the aqueous humor outflow C. It increases the intraocular pressure D. It prevents extraocular infection A A nurse is planning a teaching session for a client newly prescribed a miotic drug for the treatment of glaucoma. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? A. The medication enhances the aqueous humor outflow B. The medication inhibits the aqueous humor production C. The medication dilates the pupils D. The medication prevents extraocular infection A The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes a medication for an older adult client who is reporting insomnia, and the HCP instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription? A Zolpidem (Ambien) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime B. Eszopiclone (Lunesta) 10 milligrams orally at bedtime C. Temazepam (Restoril) 7.5 milligrams orally at bedtime D. Ramelteon (Rozerem) 8 milligrams orally at bedtime B A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a prescription for esomeprazole (Nexium) 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction? A. Drink fluids between meals to relieve gastric distress B. Monitor for an increase in blood pressure during therapy C. Dissolve capsule contents in fruit juice for easier ingestion D. Take at same time each day one hour before eating a meal D A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin (Cipro), a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which information in the client history requires special emphasis by the nurse? A. Snacks on dairy products such as yogurt or ice cream B. Previously had a mild allergic reaction to a cephalosporin C. Consumes alcoholic drinks occasionally on the weekends D. works twenty hours a week as a lifeguard at the local pool D The nurse administers the initial dose of a fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch to a client. Which assessment finding should the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication? A. The absence of seizures B. The increase in lactation C. The presence of bowel sounds D. The number on the numeric pain scale D Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontinues the current prescription for another broad spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client received the broad spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Obtain peak and trough serum levels so the aminoglycoside antibiotic can be initiated B. Administer the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible C. Withhold antibiotic administration until the healthcare provider clarifies the prescriptions D. Schedule the initial dose of the aminoglycoside antibiotic for the following day B The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who recently received a prescription for clozapine (Clozaril). Which instruction should be included in this client's teaching plan? A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure B. Rise slowly from a lying position C. Do not eat any aged cheese D. Take as needed for anxiety B A client receives a new prescription for nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching? A. Take the medication at least an hour before every meal B. Monitor your pulse for 60 seconds before administration C. Place under the tongue as needed every 5 minutes up to 3 times D. REsume normal activities after chest pain relief is obtained C Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) following neurosurgery? (select all that apply) A. Mood swings B. Decreased appetite C. Increased weight gain D. Serum glucose level of 65 mg/dl E. Delayed incisional wound healing F. Serum hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dl A,C,E,F A client prescribed sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) reports nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? A. Rash B. Diarrhea C. Hematuria D. Muscle cramping A What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil (Viagra)? (select all that apply) A. Frequent use can lead to the development of hypertension B. Most effective if taken after at least 6 hours of REM sleep C. Take within 30 to 60 minutes of sexual stimulation D. Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more E. Can cause facial flushing and headache C,D,E A client is administered an injection of medroxyprogesterone acetate (deop-provera). Which physical finding should the nurse instruct the client is an expected side effect of the medication? A. leg or calf pain B headaches or visual changes C. Vaginal bleeding or spotting D. Jaundice or angioedema C A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondnsetron (zofran). Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. headache B. dry mouth C. impaired taste D. blurred vision A A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which medications should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe for the client? (select all that apply) A. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) B. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) C. Misoprostol (cytotec) D. Omeprazole (Prilosec) E. Metronidazole (Flagyl) F. Sucralfate (Carafate) A,D,E The nurse is preparing to administer esomeprazole to a client for the management of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which finding in the client's history should the nurse hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider? A. Eats spicy food three times a week B. treatment for deep vein thrombosis C. drinks 2 alcoholic beverages on weekends D. Family history of diabetes mellitus B Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication? A. tinnitus and hearing loss B. Photosensitivity and nervousness C Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia D. Hyperventilation and central nervous system effects A A client receives a prescription for tetracycline (sumycin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching? A. Take the medication with a glass of orange juice B. Avoid over-the-counter medications containing alcohol C. Avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking the medication D. Do not use teeth whitening agents during the treatment regimen C [Show Less]
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Pharmacology HESI V2 Preparation questions and answers, latest updated
A client is prescribed phenobarbital sodium (Luminal) for a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. Based on this half-life, the m... [Show More] edication will most likely be prescribed A. once a day. B. twice a day. C. three times a day. D. four times a day. ANS: A Medication with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long periods of time. Therefore, this medication can be administered once a day. A nurse educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses. Medication dosages may need to be decreased for which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased renal excretion B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes C. Liver failure D. Peripheral vascular disease E. Concurrent use of medication metabolized by the same pathway ANS: C, E Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increase the concentration of medication. This may require decreasing the dosage of medication. When two medications are metabolized in the same way, they may compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications. Increased renal excretion may decrease concentration of the medication, requiring increased dosage. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes can decrease the concentration of the medication. The dose might need increased. Peripheral vascular disease may impair distribution, and more of the medication may be needed. A nurse s preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions related to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A. Using medical aseptic technique B. Asking the client to look up at the ceiling C. Having the client lie in a side-lying position D. Dropping medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac E. Instructing the client to close the eye gently ANS:B, D, E The medication should be dropped into the center of the conjunctival sac to promote better distribution of the medication. The client should close the eye gently to allow improved distribution of the medication. Surgical aseptic technique is used to administer eye drops. The client should be sitting or in a supine position to facilitate proper administration of eye drops. A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for a transdermal medication. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A. "I will clean the site with an alcohol swab prior to applying the patch." B. "I will rotate the application site weekly." C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair." D. "I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch." ANS: C Transdermal medication should be applied to a hairless area of skin to promote absorption of medication. The skin should be washed with soap and water and dried thoroughly before applying a transdermal patch. Application sites should be rotated on a daily basis to prevent skin irritation. A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription by the provider to verify the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Have a blood specimen obtained immediately prior to the next dose of medication. B. Verify that the client has been on the medication for 24 hr before ordering a blood specimen. C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication. D. Begin administering the medication, and obtain a blood specimen. ANS: A To verify trough levels of a medication, a blood specimen is obtained immediately before the next dose of medication. A nurse is preparing a client's medication. Which of the following are legal responsibilities of the nurse? (Select all that apply.) A. Maintaining skill competency B. Determining the dosage C. Monitoring for adverse effects D. Safeguarding medications E. Identifying the client's diagnosis ANS: A, C, D Determining medication dosage and identifying a diagnosis is the role/responsibility of the provider. The nurse should be informed about a client's diagnosis. A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription by the provider for lisinopril (Zestril) 10 mg PO every day. The nurse should recognize this as which of the following types of prescription? A. Single prescription B. Stat prescription C. Routine prescription D. Standing prescription ANS: C A routine prescription identifies a medication that is given on a regular schedule. This medication is administered every day until discontinued. A single prescription is to be given once at a specified time or as soon as possible. A stat prescription is only given once, and it is given immediately. A standing prescription is written for specific circumstances or a specific unit. A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg PO PRN nausea and vomiting for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider? A. Name B. Dosage C. Route D. Time ANS: D The time and frequency of medication administration is not included and should be clarified with the provider. A nurse is orienting a newly hired nurse and discussing how to take telephone prescription. Which of the following statements by the newly hired nurse indicates understanding of the discussion? A. "A second nurse enters the prescription into the client's health record." B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call." C. "The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record." D. "The 'read back' is omitted if this is a one-time prescription." ANS: B The second nurse should listen to a telephone prescription to prevent errors in communication. The nurse who takes the telephone prescription should enter it into the client's health record to prevent errors in translation. The nurse verifies the prescription is complete and accurate at the time it is given by reading it back to the provider. A telephone prescription includes reading back all types of medication prescription. A nurse on a medical unit is admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administration of medications. Which of the following data should the nurse include in the preassessment? (Select all that apply.) A. Use of herbal teas B. Daily fluid intake C. Current health status D. Previous surgical history E. Food allergies ANS: A, C, E Use of herbal product,s which often contains caffeine, should be assessed prior to medication administration because caffeine can affect medication biotransformation. Current health status should be reviewed because new prescriptions can cause alterations in current health status. Food allergies should be included in the preassessment that is completed prior to medication administration to identify any potential interactions. Daily fluid intake and surgical history is important, but it is not part of the presassessment that is completed prior to medication administration. A nurse is assessing a client's IV. Which of the following findings is indicative of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.) A. Tingling sensation below insertion site B. Tachycardia C. Palpable, hard mass above insertion site D. Cool, pale skin E. Pain at site ANS: C, E Pain at the IV site and a palpable, hard mass above the insertion site is a clinical manifestation of thrombophlebitis. A tingling sensation below the insertion site is a clinical manifestation of nerve damage. Tachycardia is a clinical manifestation of fluid volume overload. Cool, pale skin is a clinical manifestation of infiltration. [Show Less]
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