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BUNDLE OF CADC QUESTION AND ANSWER 2023
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IL CADC Study guide with Question and answers 2023
Purpose of client advocate Formal relationship with the employer, Involve the employer in the patient's treatment, Promote information to employer about t... [Show More] he patient's disease, Educate employer on the treatment process, Help provide support for the patient in recovery Community education purpose Identify the major drug problems in the community AD Role for local churches and religious groups Start a self-help group that meets in the facility Counselor responsibilities Educating other agencies on effective ways to work with specific cases relating to drugs/alcohol Two- Stepping Defense that is destructive to the newly sober client in which they help others with their alcoholism but do not concentrate on their sobriety Signs/symptoms of Alcoholism Solitary drinking, Over permissive norms of drinking, Lack of specific drinking norms, Tolerance of drunkenness, Adverse social behaviors, Utilitarian use of alcohol to reduce tension/anxiety, Lack of ritual/ceremonial use of alcohol, Alcohol use separated from eating patterns Signs/symptoms of Alcoholism Alcohol use separated from family, social functions, Drinking with strangers, Alcohol not introduced in small amounts when a child, Drinking pursued as recreation, Drinking concentrated in young males, Culture that stresses individualism, self-reliance and high achievement Referring to AA/NA Have a AA/NA person meet w/them and explain how the group and recovery can work together, Not proper to refer an atheist since it is built on a belief in God, do not refer if it would seem to be disrespectful of clients rights and views, Make sure the referral meets the clients personality and background Dual Diagnosis Sometimes appear as patients sober up Referral processes Identifying the needs of the client that cannot be met by the counselor/agency and Assisting the client to utilize the support system and community resources available Discharge summary is needed Inpatient, aftercare, detox, half way houses, etc, Communications from one agency to another and increases accountability, Reports and record keeping tells the story of the client from beginning to end, No universally accepted format for maintaining records Reports Explains various aspects of the assessment, treatment plans, and discharge to parties who need such information to enhance the care of the client AD Documents patient can sign Consent for treatment, Public aid, DASA, statistics, Treatment plans, Release of information, To acquire medical attention, Education/prevention, Client education, Crisis intervention Patient has a right to Treatment costs they are liable for, When treatment services are available, Types of counseling approaches used, Opportunity to complain to appropriate staff Client files Only the clinical supervisor has unrestricted access to client's files Physiological dependence for alcohol- Alpha Psychological dependence, no loss of control, reliance on alcohol to weather problems Physiological dependence for alcohol- Beta Psychological dependence, physical problems (cirrhosis) but no physical dependence Physiological dependence for alcohol - Gamma Change in tolerance, physical withdrawal, loss of control. Use for Jellinek Chart with 4 stages Physiological dependence for alcohol - Delta Same as Gamma but no loss of control but drinks Physiological dependence for alcohol - Epsilon Periodic alcoholism/binge drinking Aversive therapy Disulfiram/Antibuse - Most effect for binge drinkers and No alcohol for 2 weeks or severe allergy reactions occur Direct Reinforcement Providing positive feedback and rewarding in a direct way and Introducing new and competing behaviors to replace negative behaviors [Show Less]
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Maine CADC Question with complete solution 2023
The desire and yearning for a specific substance or substances is known as: b. craving The initial stage of crisis intervention involves: c. recog... [Show More] nizing the crisis AD Which of the following is the BEST definition of insight? b. A sudden understanding of self, or realization of how a problem can be solved. MAT refers to: c. The use of medications such as suboxone in the treatment of addiction. Aisha has completed her treatment at an in-patient facility and is ready to be discharged. She has asked her counselor to recommend a therapist to work with her and her husband on an outpatient basis. This process is BEST viewed as an example of: a. a referral. Referral Transfer of patient care from one physician to another. Consultation meeting for discussion or planning Case Management development of patient care plans to coordinate and provide care for complicated cases in a cost-effective manner. Aftercare Plan is designed to address the specific needs of an individual. Following are some common components of a typical aftercare treatment plan: Ongoing Counseling Sober Living Community Family Therapy 12-Step programs Vocational Rehabilitation Housing Educational Assistance Legal Assistance Mental Health Care Case Management Maintenance Medication Which type of therapy is directive, offering the greatest potential for abuse of power by the counselor? c. Gestalt Adlerian Therapy Adlerian therapy is a brief, psychoeducational approach that is both humanistic and goal oriented. It emphasizes the individual's strivings for success, connectedness with others, and contributions to society as being hallmarks of mental health. Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy REBT is an action-oriented approach to managing cognitive, emotional, and behavioral disturbances. AD Gestalt therapy form of directive insight therapy in which the therapist helps clients to accept all parts of their feelings and subjective experiences, using leading questions and planned experiences such as role-playing Person-Centered Therapy a nondirective insight therapy based on the work of Carl Rogers in which the client does all the talking and the therapist listens The primary purpose of professional credentialing for counselors is to: c. protect public safety by ensuring that counselors meet minimum standards of competency. Which of the following in NOT a CNS depressant? a. Alcohol b. Xanax c. Nembutal d. Benzedrine DEPRESSANTS drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions Xanax Valium Halcion Librium Ativan Klonopin Amytal Nembutal Seconal Phenobarbital The concept of informed consent requires that before agreeing to accept treatment, clients should know their rights and obligations, therapeutic goals, frees for service and ______. d. the limits of their confidentiality. Attitudes, policies, and practices that are destructive to other cultures, and their members are examples of lack of cultural_____. b. competence Restlessness, nervousness, flushed face, muscle twitching, tachycardia, or cardiac arrhythmia are all signs or symptoms of: a. caffeine intoxication Of all of the possible substance use disorders, which one is typically not seen in older children or adults? b. Inhalant Use Disorder Needle exchange programs can BEST be described as: b. harm reduction AD Autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, nausea or vomiting, psychomotor agitation, grand mal seizures are all signs or symptoms of: c. sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic withdrawal Among other things,__________involves making a client aware of resources in the community, as well as providing information related to substance abuse, HIV/AIDS and other STDs. c. client education Client Education Provision of information to individuals and groups concerning alcohol and other drug abuse and the available services and resources. In the United States, the population that experiences the lowest prevalence of alcohol use disorder is: d. Asian Americans and Pacific Islanders Classical and operant conditioning are associated with _________ therapy. b. behavior Eric has admitted being sexually active without using any type of protection against sexually transmitted diseases. His counselor has made an appointment for him to be tested for the HIV virus. He then made arrangements for Eric to be transported to the clinic. Facilitating this appointment is BEST described as: b. case management [Show Less]
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CADC Theories Question and answer 2023
CBT Goals 1. to challenge clients to confront faulty beliefs with contradictory evidence that they gather and evaluate. 2. to help clients seek out their... [Show More] faulty beliefs and minimize them. 3. to become aware of automatic thoughts and to change them. Who developed Person-Centered Therapy? Carl and Natalie Rogers in the 1940s Person-Centered Therapy Based on a subjective view of human experiencing. Places faith in. Gives responsibility to client in dealing with their problems Jungian Worldview Personal unconscious, psychological complexes, collective unconscious, shadow within Stages of adjustment Denial, solution finding, disorganization, re-organization, abandonment Jungian theory Developed by Carl Jung. Grounded in the belief that people realize their human potential by finding ways to have a positive impact in the world. Stresses positive, cultural and strength-based factors in a person's development. Highlights that people are constantly going through physical, cognitive, emotional, psychological and spirtual changes. Virginia Satir Developed the human validation process model. She believed that spontaneity, creativity, humor, self-disclosure, risk-taking and personal touch were central to family therapy. Differentiation of the self part of multigenerational family therapy. Involves the psychological separation of intellect, emotion and independence of the self from other. People gain a sense of self identity. Who developed Reality Therapy William Glasser Who developed CBT? Albert Ellis Adlerian Worldview 1. Personal Competence: need for competence, perfectibility and belongingess. 2. Belongingness. 4 stages of Adlerian Counseling and Therapy Strategies are.. 1. Building a trusting relationship 2. Assessment stage 3. Promoting insight 4. Reorientation 4 Jungian Counseling and Therapy Strategies are... 1. Catharsis and Emotional cleansing 2. Elucidation 3. Education 4. Transformation Rational-Emotive-Behavioral Therapy (REBT) Based on the principle that people are not disturbed by events but rather how they see the event. Attitudes & negative self-concepts can start& maintain the process of addiction. REBT concentrates on the here and now rather than the past as to how a person's attitudes, beliefs & self-concepts affect their emotions & behavior. One of the beliefs of this model is that motivations that caused self defeating behaviors of chemical addictions are discomfort, anxiety, & low frustration tolerance. The counselor's job is to help the patient replace these behaviors with rational behaviors. ABC Model of REBT A - Activating event. B- Beliefs & Thoughts. C- Consequences (both emotional & behavioral) Behavioral Modification Theory Based on the idea that all behavior is learned; and what is learned can be unlearned. Learning processes are are tied to the cause, support, & change of behavior & include: Classical Conditioning, Operant Conditioning, & Modeling. Classical Conditioning Substituting a stimulus which brings about the same result. Developed by Pavlov. Operant Conditioning Based on the increase or decrease of certain behaviors through the use of reinforcement. Negative reinforcement can decrease behavior. Developed by Skinner Modeling learning a behavior by observeing another performing the behavior. Then a practice of the behavior occurs followed by reinforcement. Developed by Bandura Control Theory/Reality Theory An approach to counseling which has its base on the idea that it's not the real world that affects one's behavior. Rather it's how the world is perceived to be. Another principle is that people don't have to be a victim of what has happened in the past unless they let it. Parts of control theory/reality theory thinking, feeling, & physiology. This means that the patient has the power to change the way they act & think. Another underlying principle is the emphasis on taking responsibility for satisfying one's needs w/out interfering with the needs of others. A focus is on client changing his total behavior not just his attitudes & feelings. Freudian or Psychoanalytical therapy Therapy based on the idea that people are influenced considered by their unconscious & inner-drives. Conflict is caused by 3 systems interacting. The source of unconscious drives is called the id. The internalized outside world is called the superego. Anxiety is created when there is conflict between the id & the superego. The 3rd system, the ego takes the force of the conflict. This results in the creation of defense mechanisms such as denial. This therapy is helpful when there are many relapses. & serious personality disturbances. Adlerian or Individual Therapy Therapy based on the idea that people are always striving to be better or perfect. It is often thought of as a Growth Model. Developer believed that social urges were what influenced people. When levels of improvement or perfection aren't reached, a feeling of inferiority is felt & dissatisfaction is present. Fictional Finalism Part of Adlerian Therapy. Refers to everyone having a goal that provides a purpose. Sometimes it can be negative a lead to drug abuse Gestalt therpay Therapy based on the idea that people must accept responsibility for what happens to them & find their own way in life. It only deals with the present. One important principle is to help the patient discover what they want to be rather than trying to be someone else. This therapy stresses living with one's feelings rather than running away, even if the feelings make one uncomfortable. Solution Focused Therapy Focuses on what works rather than problems. The idea is to work with the beliefs of the patient to promote change. Family Systems and Addiction Counseling Based on the premise that when a person abuses drugs, the whole family is affected. Several models are being used. Dynamic Family Therapy Based on gaining insight to be able to understand conflicts which are present in the family setting. Experiential/Humanistic Family Therapy Based on the most important factor of recovery is self-determination and awareness. Bowenian Family Therapy Based on the concept that emotions and intellect of a family are entangled. This causes an automatic emotional arousal within the family. The other basis is referred to as differentiation where the individual remains without outside control. Structural Family Therapy When the counselor tries to change the dysfunction structure of the family. Family disease Model Based on the idea that alcoholism is a family disease and the disease itself is codependence Deductive Reasoning The ability to solve problems by working from a given situation to a conclusion Inductive Reasoning The ability to solve problems by working from a specific experience to a conclusion. Taxonomy of Pathology The classification of problems into 2 groups called Axis I disorders, which include behavioral disorders and some physical disorders; and Axis II disorders which are only behavioral Motivational Enhancement Therapy (MET) Therapy based on motivational psychology. Change is internally motivated & very rapid because it is based on the belief that the patient has the capability as well as the responsibility to change. There is an emphasis on Persian choices regarding drug use together with an objective evaluation of behavior. According to ..... positive and negative feedback must be paired together Abraham Maslow The facilitative model of supervision was based on what model of psychotherapy? Carl Roger's client centered therapy In relation to counseling, what is empathy? Being able to understand what another person is experiencing Triangulation a process in which triads result in a 2-against-1 experience Teleogical nature of Humankind The notion that a person's development is impacted by goal-directed drive and purposeful action. [Show Less]
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CADC 2 Question with complete solution 2023
What does bookend mean? Discuss a potentially triggering event before it happens, "bookend" it, and then discuss it again during a debriefing style conver... [Show More] sation Typically how long must someone be in treatment before results are seen? 3 months AD Is inpatient or outpatient more effective? They are generally the same, but provide different levels of services. According to the most popular recovery outline, how many stages are there? 3 Early recovery- (1 month-1 year): involves entering treatment and embarking on abstinence. Relapse is highly likely. Middle recovery (at least one year- could be indefinite): someone may stay in this stage if they continue to relapse. Greater confidence in abstinence is obtained, defeating cravings, lifestyle changes take place. Late recovery/maintenance: maintains abstinence, improves other areas of life (relationships), utilizes relapse prevention skills. What are the group stages as identified by Tuckerman? Forming, storming, morning, performing, adjourning. When is someone most likely to develop an SUD? Adolescents. Because the brain is still functioning, hormonal changes are occurring, significant social stressors. What types of interventions are used for youth in schools and communities? Universal programs- risk and protective factors for all children Selective programs- used with identified at risk youth Indicated programs- address youth who have already been involved with substance use. What is not fundamental to an intake assessment? Any referrals the client has had made. What is not a component of the treatment plan? The morality being used. However, interventions should be listed and perceived benefit of these interventions for the client is essential. What is DAP A format for notes. Data, assessment, plan What is the biggest distinction between self-help groups and other groups? Self-help groups offer support and other groups offer treatment What is the primary aim of case management services? To provide the least restrictive level of care that meets the clients needs. What are the parts of tracking the success of a referral for a client? Who- who is the client, provider, and their demographics What- what led to the referral? How- how did the referral source handle the client and their problem? What steps are taken if a subpoena is issued? 1. Contact the issuing lawyer. 2. Ensure the information the lawyer is requesting is relevant. 3. Contact the client and their lawyer to ask if they would like the information released. If yes, this needs to be in writing. 4. A subpoena does not automatically allow records to be released. How often are treatment and recovery plans updated? 30-90 days or as the client wishes. How often are client treatment program charts update per state requirements? At least weekly. Includes client attendance in programs, progress towards goals, anything preventing progress, and actions to be taken in treatment What are the three ways ethics can be viewed? Moral/professional- the view of the individual counselor. Ethical implications- the view of the governing agency under which the counselors license is held. Legal- the view of the state and federal laws. Does HIV or infectious diseases need to be reported? This is determined on a state by state basis. How are the rights of SU clients different than MH clients? SUD clients can be forced into treatment legally and often are pressured by family and friends. What are the 5 criteria that must be met before a court order is issued? 1. The crime must be serious, such as having a risk of harm. 2. The requested information must be germane to the investigation 3. The info must be unable to be obtained from any other sources 4. The need for the information must be greater than the harm that is likely to be caused to the client, counselor, and program relationship. 5. The program must be given a chance to consult legal counsel. What are simple, amplified, and double-sides reflections? Simple reflection- repeating the clients statement in one's own words in a non-judgement way. Amplified reflection- repeating the clients statement in an exaggerated form. Double- sided reflection- pointing out a contradiction by acknowledging the clients current statement and then repeating the previous contradicting statement they made. All are ways to deal with resistance. What is reframing? The counselor repeats the clients statement with a positive or different twist to it to help the client see alternative interpretations, useful in dealing with resistance and changing understanding . When would a counselor side with the negative statement of a client? If they were resistant to something. Siding with the negative helps the client feel companionship and change their confrontational direction What are the parts of the brain stem? Oblongata, pons, and midbrain What are the parts of the limbic system? Hypothalamus, hippocampus, amygdala, and others. What does the limbic system primarily control? Emotional response, long-term memory, and is necessary for decision making In what part of the hypothalamus and what does it control? It is part of the limbic system It control involuntary functions such as body temp, heart rate, sex drive, and hunger. Also helps regulate emotions and is a binding spot of drugs. What does the cerebellum control? Coordinates voluntary movements involved in motor learning, language, and attention. Drugs that bind here cause motor dysfunction and balance problems. What does the thalamus control? A part of the midbrain that controls consciousness, regulates arousal, awareness, and sleep cycle. Is involved in relating sensory information to the cerebral cortex and interpreting sensations of pleasure and pain What does the subthalamas do? Works in conjunction with the cerebellum to control motor activity. What are the lobes of the cerebrum? Occipital- vision Parietal- collects information on the location of objects in relation to the body Frontal lobes- planning, processing, impulse control, judgement. Temporal lobes- hearing What is the best way to provide feedback to a client? Be clear Provide both negative and positive communicate clearly give feedback immediately give negative feedback onlyin private encourage the individual to express any feelings or feedback they have. What is chemical testing used for and how is it taken? used to determine if a person has recently used drugs and for tracking compliance with abstinence for people in drug treatment programs. Does not provide an accurate timeline of when drugs were used. Saliva and breath- alcohol Saliva, breath, urine, blood, and hair- other drugs What is SBIRT? Screening Brief Intervention and Referral to Treatment Screening- screening for drug and alcohol use through assessments (AUDIT, CAGE, CRAFFT), interviews, and observations Brief intervention- either a quick discussion on harm reduction or a few follow-up sessions (depends on level of use) Referral to treatment- done if the use is more severe What is the TAPS assessment and how is it used? Tobacco, Alcohol, Prescription drugs, and other Substances. TAPS-1: 4 questions about the frequency of use of these four categories of drugs in the past 12 months. Any "yes" answer leads to administering the TAPS-2 TAPS-2: Includes questions about the frequency and situations of use in the past 3 months. What is the purpose of screening before an assessment for co-occurring disorders? Screening does not necessarily provide detailed information or even identify if there is a co-occurring disorder, it simply establishes areas that need further exploration in the assessment. If screening does identify these problems, it is not until the assessment stage that the problems are elaborated on and the severity, contributing factors, and type of use are identified. What are the different types of drug screenings? chemical drug tests, drug-recognition techniques, self-reports from clients, reports from others. In what order is the screening, intake, and assessment process done? Screening is done first to determine if the client is a good fit for the program or treatment, Intake is then done to go over paperwork for the program, financial forms, confidentiality paperwork, and discuss assignment for a provider, Assessment is the final step before treatment and is done by the professional provider to allow for an in-depth understanding of the person. When does assessment take place? During the screening process Assessment is more comprehensive than the screening process. What is the SBI Screening to Brief Intervention Similar to the SBIRT Assessed for potential problems with all substances. No risk- provide positive reinforcement Low risk- ask further questions and provide educational intervention High risk- ask further questions, motivation interviewing, potentially refer to treatment. Define assessment and assessment for co-occurring disorders Assessment- the evaluation of all aspects of the clients functioning. Co-occurring assessment- like a regular assessment with emphasis on substance use severity, determining abuse versus addiction, and transmit-able diseases. What is the point of analyzing assessment data? To determine the severity of the substance use problem, the personas attitude towards treatment and willingness, differentiate between dependence and addiction, identify the drugs of abuse. This data will determine the course and type of treatment. [Show Less]
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CADC I Exam Prep 1 Question and answers rated A +
Characteristics of PCP Phencyclidine recongized as a hallucinogen, can also act as a stimulant & pain killer. Comes in several forms: powder liquid or tab... [Show More] let. Its often combined with other substances such as LSD or marijuana. Has been used medically as an anesthetic on humans as well as hosres. Steet names are "angel dust" & "horse tranquilizer." Characteristics of LSD A hallucinogen so strong one the size of an asprin equals 3000 doses. Street name is "acid" Its white powder can be bought in capsules, tablets, also put in candy, cookies, or absorebed into paper, postage stamps & ink blottters. AD Benzodiazepines / Tranquilizers Presciption drugs that given to help relieve anxiety and treat some side effects of alcohol withdrawal. Brand names include Valium, Librium, Ativan & Serax. Valium (Diazepam) Best known street drug because its easy to attain & provides a moderate high. Very dangerous when users combine it with alcohol which also depresses the central nervous system. Characteristics of amphetamines Drugs in the stimulant class known as speed, uppers, or bennies. Used medically to treat narcolepsy & ADHD. In the past they were used to treat obesity & depression, but is now against the law to use for these purposes. Characteristics of Opiate Narcorics Usually thought of as pain killing drug or analgesics. These drugs have high potential to cause addiction. The physical effect of use is an intense feeling of well-being & euphoria. They are divided into 2 groups -- natually occurring & synthetic. Morphine & Codeine Opiate narcotics in the natural group & obtained from the opium poppy. Heroin Drug made chemically from morphine. Demerol, Talwin, & Methadone Drugs in the synthetic-group of Opiate Narcotics made in a laboratory. Withdrawal Symptoms of Opiates Stomach cramps, diarrhea, runny nose, tears, yawning, goose bumps, & genneral sense of insecurity. They lessen in severity in a few days, but may take weeks or months to completely subside. Characteristics of Crack Stimulant drug made from cocaine powder street named "rock." Smoking it provides a quicker rush than sniffing cocaine. Use creates euphoria often prescribed as a whole body orgasm, followed vy a crash which includes anxiety, paranoia, & extreme fatigue. Characteristics of Cocaine Stimulant in fine white powder form. Use causes the brain to relase dopamine & norepinephrine causing a euphoric state. Street names include coke snow flake & stardust. Users sniff inject or smoke it known as free basing. Characteristics of Cannabis Mood altering drug made from the flowers of the plant cannabis sativa. Forms include marijuana, hashish & hash Oil. It is usually smoked but can be put into food & eaten. THC / Tetrahydrocannabinol Psychoactive chemical in cannabis which causes its mood altering effects. Hash oil contains up to 60% where as marijuana contains 7-15%. Alcohol A sedative that depresses rhe central nervous system. Effecta include lowering of inhibitions relaxation & inhibition of good judgement decreased reaction time & fine muscle coordination. Short-term effect of PCP Effects vary greatly from person to person because it can act as both a stimulant & depressant. Some find it difficult to concentrate & communicate. Some have a sense of separation from surroundings, confusion, unreal perceptions of time, space & body images. Long-term effects of PCP Known effects include speech problems memory loss depression & anxiety. Flashbacks can occur days or even months after use which may include hallucinations & sensations felt during use. Short-term effects of LSD Effects begin w/in a few minutes & can last as long as 12 hours. Sight hearing & taste can be affected. Causes increase in blood pressure dialated pupils nausea chills & fever numbness & rapid heart beat. Long-term memory is exceptionally clear & strong while short-term memory is almost non-existent. Long-term effects of LSD Effects are most often manifested in flashbacks where all of the short-term effects are experienced all over again. Heavy users are characterized by apathy no interest in the future very little patience or ability to cope with frustration. Also run the risk of developing chronic psychosis. Short-term effects of Tranquilizer use Effects include reduced anxiety tensoin calmness drowsiness slight problems w/ memory & thinking. Fatigue reduced inhibition & clumsiness have also been noted. Long-term effects of Tranquilizers Headaches lack of energy irritability & sexual problems. Abuse can cause problems w/ memory thinking judgement muscle weakness slurring of speech anxiety & insomnia. An overdose can cause coma. Short-term effects of Amphetamines Effect very individually. Increase in blood sugar inability to sleep increased alertness & tremors are all possible. Other side effects might include diarrhea rapid heartbeat increase urine output dry mouth or rapid breathing. Higher dosage use can produce panic depression & irritability . Long-term effects of Amphetamine Insomnia elevated blood pressure skin rashes irregular heartbeat. Eating disorders & nutritional problems result from appetite-suppressant effects. High doses over a long period of time mental problems chronic psychosis which is like paranoid schizophrenia can develop. Short-term effects of Opiate Depends on the amount taken the individual's mood prior to use other drug usage & even the environment. They depress the CNS but stimulate the brain centers. Causes rush of great pleasure after injected. Nausea constipation & drowsiness can occur at low doses. High doses can cause severe respiratory system problems clammy blue skin pin prick pupils & dry mouth. Long-term effects of Opiate Decreased sexual drive menstrual irregularity & constipation. Injection can lead to liver disease AIDS & infections related to dirty needles can occur. Short-tern effects of crack Feeling of euphoria high energy decreased appetite increase heart rate & body temp. Large doses can cause convulsions nausea blood pressure elevation twitching & fever. Overdosing can result in respiratory failure caused by seizures stroke &/or heart failure which can lead to death. Long-term effects of Crack Constipation insomnia impotence &/or weight loss. Lung damage is also possible due to inhalation of the vapors. Because it users get an intense high in a very short time followed by feelings of deep depression addiction often results. Short-term effects of Cocaine Dilation of the pupils rapid heart rate & breathing sweating heightened alertness feeling of confidence & well being. A decrease in appetite can also occur. Heavy use effect are blurred vision high blood pressure hallucinations violent behavior muscle spasms loss of coordination stroke nausea twitching fever & chest pain. Many experience stuffy nose &/or insomnia. Long-term effects of Cocaine Hallucinations weight loss impotence difficultly urinating constipation insomnia restlessness excitability & a suspicious nature. Users are lethargic apathetic & cannot sleep which lead to abuse of other drugs to alleviate symptoms. Short-term effects of Cannabis Relaxation & lowered inhibition after just a few puffs. User may become very talkative or quiet. Increase in the sharpness of the senses & plain everyday items take on special meanings or properties. Attention span & concentration become shorter. Judging distance becomes difficult. Time passage has little meaning. Other effects include red eyes drowsiness balance problems increased appetite & dry mouth. Long-term effects of Cannabis Lung damage apathy failure to set goals difficulty performing simple tasks neglect of personal appearance slow mental responses & difficulty with speech. Inhalants Vapors that are inhaled in order to produce mind-altering effects. They are chemicals most often found in household products. Methamphetamines Chemically made stimulants related to amphetamines but the effects are much greater. Can be injected taken orally snorted or smoked. Methamphetamine Smoking or or injection causes a high or rush that is very pleasurable. Snorting or oral use produces a euphoric high but no rush. Psychoactive Chemical Abuse A faulty adaptation pattern of behavior I which the use of chemicals has led to at least one of the following in a 12 month period: Repeated use resulting in inability to meet responsibilities at work home or school Repeated use in dangerous situations Repeated use leading to legal issues Repeated use despite repeated social or person issues Psychoactive Chemical Dependence A faulty adaptation pattern of behavior in which the use of chemicals has to at least 3 of the following in a 12 month period: Tolerance Withdrawal Increased amount of chemical is taken over a longer period of time Strong desire to reduce or quit use with unsuccessful results Great amount of time is spent getting using & recovering from effects Continued use despite know physical & psychological problems occur Physiological Dependence The body's adaptation to the presence of a chemical. When the chemical is not present the body reacts in a negative manner called withdrawal. Primary or Acute Withdrawal Last from 2-7 days & is characterized by the strongest symptoms usually the opposite of the positive effects of the drug. Secondary or Prolonged Withdrawal Last for weeks or months. Symptoms include nervousness problems sleeping mood swings & changes in body functions. Detoxification The first step of the treatment of substance abuse. The body must be cleansed from the short-term effects of the chemical before treatment can begin. Alcohol & other depressants opiates & cocaine require this. Psychological or Behavioral Dependence When a person takes a chemical to satisfy a feeling or an emotional need. It is described as a craving. It usually appears with the physiological version but not always. Abuse Liability Involves the question "What are the chances or odds of a dangerous drug causing addiction." Controlled Substance Any drug that has an abuse potential and is placed on restricted use by the DEA. Poly-chemical Abuse When more than one psychoactive chemical is used at the same time. Antagonist Psychoactive chemicals that reverse the effects of another drug. Agonist Psychoactive chemicals that enhance the effects of another drug. Schedules I-V The groups that drugs are put into according to their: abuse liability medical usefulness History of use & a use Risk to public health political considerations. Schedule I Drug that have no medical use & high abuse potential. They include: heroin, LSD, marijuana, peyote, psilocybin, mescaline, & MDMA. Schedule II Drugs with a high abuse potential with severe psychic or physical dependence liability even though they have medical uses. These include: methamphetamine, opium, morphine, hydromorphone, codeine, meperidine, oxycodone, & methylphenidate. Schedule III Drugs with less abuse potential. This class includes Schedule II drugs when used in co pounds with other drugs. They include: Tylenol w/Codeine, some Barbiturate compounds, & paregoric. Schedule IV Drugs that have even less abuse potential. They include choral hydrate, meprobamate, fenfluramine, diazepam (Valium), & other benzodiazepines & phenobarbital. Schedule V Drugs with very low abuse potential because they contain vet limited quantities of narcotic & stimulant drugs; some are sold OTC. Robitussin AC (DXM), & Lomotil are 2 examples. Cross Dependence Substituting drugs for each other w/in the body and preventing withdrawal &/or similar drugs persevering the state of dependence. Dependence A compulsive pattern of drug use involving getting a supply, extreme involvement in use, & high relapse occurrences after withdrawal. Detoxification When cross dependent chemicals are substituted for the chemical which being abused together with a slow withdrawal of that chemical. Stage1 Depresent Withdrawal Stage of Depresent Withdrawal characterized by shakes. 90% of patients experience flushed face, nausea, disorientation & inability to sleep. The worst occurs from 24-36 hours after the last drink. Stage2 Depresent Withdrawal Stage of Depresent Withdrawal characterized by hallucination. About 25% of patients experience perception from shadows & movements. In addition, objects can look distorted or unreal. Stage 3 Depresent Withdrawal Stage of Depresent Withdrawal characterized by seizures. Patients may experience Grand Mal(full body) seizures. They occur between 7 & 48 hours. After last drink. Stage 4 Depressant Withdrawal Stage of Depresent Withdrawal characterized by Delirium Tremens (DT). Patients can experience agitation, hallucinations, fever, dilated pupils, delusions, extreme confusion, sleep disorders, tremors, profuse sweating & tachycardia. Occurs in 3-5 days after last drink. Stage 1 Alcohol Withdrawal Stage of alcohol withdrawal characterized by increased blood pressure, pulse & temp. Limited attention span, state of anxiety, sleeplessness, nausea, vomiting, shake, speech is slurred, walking is unsteady, & frequent urination. Stage 2 Alcohol Withdrawal Stage of alcohol withdrawal characterized by hallucinations evidenced by fearful state; distraction &/or disorientation, Grand Mal seizures are possible. DT's develop evedenced by an extreme agitated state, confusion, [Show Less]
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CADC practice questions 100% solved
What does the experienced effect of a drug depend upon? The Amount taken, past drug experiences, form of administration, poly drug use, setting, circumsta... [Show More] nce. How is drug tolerance BEST described? Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time Which of the following is NOT a "drug cue"? Drug avoidance strategies What happens as tolerance for barbiturates develops? The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same What is the most common symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy? Confusion Which of the following conditions does alcohol NOT induce? Hep C (alcohol induces Steatosis, Nephrosis, Cirrhosis) What does formication refer to? A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin What is/are the organ(s) most damaged by cocaine abuse? The heart Which of the following is NOT a basic chemical class of amphetamines? Benzedrine (amphetaimen sulphate, dextroamphetamine, methamphetamine are amphetamines) In terms of difficulty quitting, which of the following drugs ranks the highest? Nicotine Which of the statement below is MOST correct? THC content in marijuana varies widely Regarding substance abuse, what does Convergence Theory propose? Rates of SA among women are converging with those of men Among psychiatric disorders in the elderly, where does alcohol abuse rank? Third Which of the following subcategories of alcohol use disorder onset is NOT found in the elderly? Early-onset alcoholism At an initial meeting with a new client, what is the FIRST requirement? Establish Rapport What does motivational interviewing (MI) primarily involve? Supportive Persuasion What percentage of individuals with dual diagnosis (co-occurring disorders [COD]) received treatment for only their mental illness? 32.9% What factors can affect screening instrument validity? setting, privacy, levels of trust & rapport, instructions given and clarity Which of the following functions is NOT what a certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse counselor can usually perform? Diagnose mental disorders What does GATE stand for? Gather info, Access supervision, Take responsible action, Extend the action To which of the following do assessment processes and instruments NOT need be sensitive? Political orientation What are serious mental health symptoms that resolve with abstinence in thirty days or less MOST likely due to? Substance abuse-induced disorders that require continued abstinence Which one of the following alcohol abuse screening tests is designed specifically for use with adolescents? CRAFFT Which of the following is the MOST important introductory statement or question to ask in a suicidality evaluation? I need to ask you a few questions about suicide What is the purpose of screening? to determine the need for placement or referral What is the primary purpose of SA assessment? To determine the severity of the substance problem Who should create a treatment plan? Collaborative team with the client How must assessment information be handled to be MOST effective? Converted into goal and objectives Which of these key elements does NOT bolster a client's desire to complete the program? frequent interdisciplinary consultations How many levels of treatment placement are recognized by the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? four levels of treatment placement How many assessment dimensions are recognized by ASAM? Six assessment dimensions The Stage Model of Change addresses how many client stages? Six stages Circumstances, Motivation, Readiness, and Suitability (CMRS) Scales are used for what purpose? Assessing client readiness for treatment When is a client fully prepared to enter treatment? When a client accepts the need for treatment Guiding principles in treatment planning are identified by which acronym? MATRS (Measurable, Attainable, Time, Realistic, Specific) In cases involving the criminal justice system, what is the minimum recommendation for frequency of updating treatment plans? At all transition points How many problem domains are addressed in the Addiction Severity Index (ASI)? Six The Addiction Severity Index (ASI) has been formally adopted by which organization? By NIDA (National Institute on Drug Abuse) What does it mean if an assessment instrument is valid? The instrument assesses what it purports to assess All of the following are true of depression and SA EXCEPT that Drugs of abuse can treat depression How does motivation for participating in treatment differ from motivation to change problem behaviors? Motivation for change is internal; treatment may be pushed on a client [Show Less]
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CADC Practice Exam Questions (Test 2) Question and answer 2023
1. What are withdrawal symptoms, characterized by severe flu-like symptoms (nausea, vomiting, runny nose, watery eyes, chills, abdominal cramps, anorexia, ... [Show More] weakness, tremors, sweating, etc.), MOST characteristic? a. Opioid withdrawal b. Hallucinogenic withdrawal c. Barbiturate withdrawal d. Benzodiazepine withdrawal a. Opioid withdrawal 2. Genetic factors make up roughly what proportion of the risk for addiction? a. Less than one-tenth b. One-quarter c. One-half d. Three-quarters c. One-half AD 3. What is the adolescent tendency to impulsivity and risk taking due to primarily? a. Poor parenting b. Prior abuse c. Neurological immaturity d. Influences of puberty c. Neurological immaturity 4. What are depressant drugs (e.g., alcohol, opiates, barbiturates, and benzodiazepines) typically used to cope with? a. Excitement b. Fatigue c. Stress d. Boredom c. Stress 11. The “Five As” of tobacco treatment, in proper order, are: a. Assess, advise, admonish, advocate, and arrange b. Ask, assess, assist, arrange, and advise c. Ask, advise, assess, assist, and arrange d. Assess, agree, assist, advocate, and admonish c. Ask, advise, assess, assist, and arrange 6. At low doses, what does alcohol act as physiologically? a. Stimulant b. Psychedelic c. Depressant d. Hallucinogenic a. Stimulant 7. Among the following, what is the MOST harmful drug a mother can abuse during pregnancy? a. Heroin b. Lysergic Acid (LSD) c. Alcohol d. Methamphetamine c. Alcohol 8. Theorists posit that stimulant abuse often occurs to compensate for deficiencies in all of the following neurotransmitters EXCEPT a. norepinephrine. b. acetylcholine. c. serotonin. d. dopamine. b. acetylcholine. 9. What is the euphoria experienced when under the influence of cocaine caused by? a. A cascade-effect of endorphins b. A sudden release of adrenalin c. Increased basal metabolic rate d. A buildup of neurotransmitters d. A buildup of neurotransmitters 10. What kind of drug does the term nootropic refer to? a. Memory enhancing b. Mood stabilizing c. Hallucinogenic d. Psychedelic a. Memory enhancing 20. What is the suicide risk for individuals treated for alcohol use disorder? a. About the same as for the general population b. Two times as high as among the general population c. Five times as high as among the general population d. Ten times as high as among the general population d. Ten times as high as among the general population 12. In the lifecycle of heroin addiction, what is the stage known as disjunction characterized by? a. Entrance into the addiction subculture b. Episodic binge use of heroin in social settings c. Serial treatment, abstinence and relapses d. Crime, arrests, imprisonment, and serial treatment d. Crime, arrests, imprisonment, and serial treatment AD 13. Which of the following is NOT a typical stage in the development of cocaine addiction? a. Compulsive use b. Experimental use c. Isolated use d. Dysfunctional use c. Isolated use 14. Social control theorists suggest that deviance results from which TWO of the following? a. Poor socioeconomic conditions b. Weak societal ties with the individual c. Weak familial ties with the individual d. Confining societal expectations b. Weak societal ties with the individual c. Weak familial ties with the individual 5. Past which point is benzodiazepine treatment of anxiety NOT effective? a. Six weeks b. Four months c. One year d. Eighteen months b. Four months 16. Which is the MOST correct statement regarding individuals voluntarily entering treatment for substance? a. They are committed to change. b. They are fully ready to change. c. They are at varying stages of change readiness. d. They are primarily in need of encouragement. c. They are at varying stages of change readiness. 17. What is ambivalence about substance abuse treatment symptomatic? a. Resistance b. Denial c. Uncertainty d. Confrontation c. Uncertainty 18. What is the primary goal of screening a client with a known substance abuse disorder? a. Get rid of those clients with serious problems b. Determine a best initial treatment course c. Discover any dual diagnoses d. Evaluate the likely length of treatment needed b. Determine a best initial treatment course 19. In screening clients, what does a cutoff score refer to? a. A criteria-based score beyond which a client must be turned away b. The threshold above which a more thorough assessment is indicated c. A score that is incomplete, having been cut off prematurely d. The final score that supersedes any other screening score obtained b. The threshold above which a more thorough assessment is indicated 15. Withdrawal symptoms from anabolic steroids most closely resemble those of which drug? a. Marijuana b. Heroin c. Amphetamines d. Cocaine d. Cocaine 21. Which one of the following MOST properly defines screening and assessment? a. Screening evaluates a problem; assessment diagnoses it. b. Screening identifies a problem; assessment treats it c. Screening looks for a problem; assessment defines it. d. Screening reveals a problem; assessment resolves it. c. Screening looks for a problem; assessment defines it. 22. When does assessment of a client with co-occurring disorders occur? a. Following an initial screening b. During the process of intake c. Upon confirmation of diagnosis d. Regularly over time d. Regularly over time AD 23. Which is the gold standard assessment tool for co-occurring disorders? a. The Addiction Severity Index (ASI) b. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) c. The Mental Status Exam (MSE) d. None of the above d. None of the above 24. During assessment, what does the term collateral contacts refer to? a. Contacts with family b. Contacts with friends c. Contacts with treatment providers d. All of the above d. All of the above 25. Which of the following is NOT included in basic intake information? a. Feelings about institutional treatment (treatment readiness, etc.) b. Background (family, legal, employment, etc.) c. Substance use (first use, current drugs, treatment, etc.) d. Mental health (diagnoses, hospitalizations, treatment, etc.) a. Feelings about institutional treatment (treatment readiness, etc.) [Show Less]
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CADC Sample Exam Question with complete answer 2023
Which of the following is the BEST definition of insight? a. A problem solving strategy involving the elimination of unworkable solutions b. A sudden und... [Show More] erstanding of self, or realization of ow a problem can be solved c. A Freudian defense mechanism that is used unconsciously but not maliciously d. A confrontation technique used in conjunction with Gestalt therapy b MAT refers to: a. a common screening tool for alcoholism b. a lengthy personality inventory used to identify gross psychopathology c. the use of medications such as suboxone in the treatment of addiction d. a nonmedical detox protocol c AD Aisha has completed her treatment at an in-patient facility and is ready to be discharged. She has asked her counselor to recommend a therapist to work with her and her husband on an out-patient basis. This process is BEST viewed as an example of: a. a referral b. a consultation c. case management d. an aftercare plan a Which type of therapy is most directive, offering the greatest potential for abuse of power by the counselor? a. Adlerian b. Rational-emotive c. Gestalt d. Person-centered c The primary purpose of professional credentialing for counselors is to: a. advance the field by ensuring that counselors are recognized as dignified professionals b. ensure that counselors share and understand the accepted philosophies of practice c. protect public safety by ensuring that counselors meet minimum standards of competency d. ensure that counselors receiving third-party payments have professional credentials c Which of the following is NOT a CNS depressant? a. Alcohol b. Xanax c. Nembutal d. Benzedrine d The concept of informed consent requires that before agreeing to accept treatment, clients should know their rights and obligations, therapeutic goals, fees for services and a. availability of referral services b. community resources to be used c. with whom they will be participating in group activities d. the limits of their confidentiality d Attitudes, policies, and practices that are destructive to other cultures and their members are examples of lack of cultural a. blindness b. competence c. destructiveness d. incapacity b Restlessness, nervousness, flushed face, muscle twitching, tachycardia, or cardiac arrhythmia are all signs or symptoms of: a. caffeine intoxication b. cocaine intoxication c. alcohol intoxication d. opioid intoxication a Of all of the possible substance use disorders, which one is typically not seen in older children or adults? a. cannabis use disorder b. inhalant use disorder c. tobacco use disorder d. caffeine use disorder b Needle exchange programs can BEST be described as: a. a nonabstinence technique b. harm reduction c a maintenance method d. a community organization intervention b Autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, nausea or vomiting, psychomotor agitation, grand mal seizures are all signs or symptoms of: a. cannabis withdrawal b. cocaine withdrawal c. sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic withdrawal d. opioid withdrawal c AD Among other things, _____ involves making a client aware of resources in the community, as well as providing information related to substance abuse, HIV/AIDS and other STDs a. case management b. referral c. client education d. consultation c In the United States the population that experiences the lowest prevalence of alcohol use disorder is: a. caucasian men b. adult women c. native americans d. asian americans and pacific islanders d Classical and operant conditioning are associated with _____ therapy a. cognitive b. behavior c. gestalt d. person-centered b Eric has admitted being sexually active without using any type of protection against sexually transmitted diseases. His counselor has made an appointment for him to be tested for the HIV virus. He then made arrangements for Eric to be transported to the clinic. Facilitating this appointment is BEST described as: a. consultation b. case management c. client education d. ethical responsibility b Studies indicate that counseling is most effective when: a. culture and values are taken into account b. the counselor relies on humanistic methods c. the therapist and the client come from similar backgrounds d. a therapeutic contract is clarified in the first session a One basic principle of documentation requires the counselor to: a. describe events as vaguely as possible in case records are requested for a court case b. describe events in objective terms, using measurable language that can be easily understood c. only document group notes, because any twelve step work is not counseling d. document emotions based only on what the client reports, because the counselor's assessment will always be subjective b The _______ model of addiction as a consequence of personal choice a. disease b. moral c. social d. sociocultural b How does solution-focused brief therapy differ from many of the other approaches to counseling? a. Emphasis is placed on the present and future while devaluing the past b. It emphasizes the use of more abstract techniques, such as empty chair c. Greater attention is paid to the particular pathology and associated problems d. More time is spent attempting to understand the problem a Case reviews: a. encourage the sharing of information b. promote client growth c. allow the client the opportunity to offer feedback d. enable the counselor to assess progress and make any necessary changes in the treatment plan d The tendency of the family to try and maintain balance when dealing with a loved one's substance use disorder is called: a. equilibrium b. stability c. homeostasis d. accommodation c AD Your client expresses growing feelings of rage. He has recurring nightmares in which he attacks random women on the street. If you followed through with what you believed was a duty to warn, under what circumstances would you be least likely to be disciplined? a. if the nightmares had escalate in intensity b. if the client was already a convicted criminal c. if the client refuses to answer questions about violent behavior d. if the client discloses the name of a person he plans to harm d In his second counseling session, a client reveals to the counselor that he is gay. Having never worked with a member of this special population, the counselor's BEST course of action is to: a. inform the client of his lack of knowledge of the gay community and commitment to learn. b. offer to refer the client to someone with experience in with special issues associated with the gay community. c. send the client a letter informing him that he has been transferred to another counselor's caseload. d. say nothing because counseling should be value-neutral anyway. b Determining a client's eligibility and appropriateness for treatment occurs during the _______ process a. intake b. assessment c. admission d. screening d Highly structured daily routines, a system of rewards and punishments, and frequent group confrontation are characteristics of: a. intensive out-patient treatment b. therapeutic communities c. any primary care setting d. gestalt b Collateral interviews: a. involve asking significant others about their opinions as to whether or not a person has a substance abuse dependency problem. b. do not require release of information documents if the information is voluntarily given. c. involve gathering information from other persons who are or have been, associated with the person being assessed. d. should only be done with immediate family members and no one else. c A major criticism of the ______ is that the questions are so obvious that this test cannot possible detect alcoholics who deny having a problem. a. MAST b. ASI c. SASSI d. POSIT a The goal of complete abstinence is most consistent with the _____ model of addiction. a. moral b. disease c. sociocultural d. psychological b _______ can develop between natural and synthetic opiates, but not between opiates and CNS depressants. a. Nonsynergistic interaction b. Gestalt c. Cross Tolerance d. Negative Symptoms c Appropriate treatment goals must be: a. observable and measurable, in order to facilitate monitoring progress. b. typed and signed in order to ensure compliance by an unwilling client. c. written in the order that they will be addressed in treatment d. finalized by the time the client is admitted for services a When is confrontation probably least appropriate? a. prior to establishing rapport with the client b. when directed at the client's strengths c. when addressed to specific aspects of a client's behavior d. when used to point out a discrepancy between a client's verbal statements and his or her behavior a AD The goal of screening is to: a. provide clients with an opportunity to discuss their past problems b. determine whether a client is appropriate and eligible for a particular treatment service c. gathering some general information about the future goals of the potential client d. assign a counselor who fits the client's personality the best b _______ drugs are used to treat mental disorders a. psychoactive b. psychotropic c. psychosomatic d. psychointeractive b Jamal believes that he has everything he will ever need materially and financially, so he has decided to devote his time to music and other creative outlets for self-expression. Jamal's motivation is best accounted by: a. psychoanalytic theory b. homeostatic considerations c. humanistic theories d. biological factors c The idea that people have an in-born desire to self-actualize is associated with: a. psychoanalytic theory b. humanistic theory c. cognitive-behaviorism d. classical-conditioning b Methadone, Tramadol and Morphine are all a. schedule v drugs b. cns stimulants c. barbiturates d. opiates d The central focus or "charge" of the twelfth step of alcoholic anonymous is: a. service to others b. relapse prevention c. abstinence d. making amends to others a A counselor's personal values a. should never show lest they cause a client's decisions to be biased b. should be disclosed in order to influence the client to make healthier decisions. c. are irrelevant to the counseling process d. are communicated through the therapeutic goals they offer and how they attempt to reach those goals with the client. d Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that means: a. show unconditional positive regard b. show equal respect for gender c. do no harm d. respect confidentiality c ____________ interventions have been developed or are being sought to block the effects of abused drugs, reduce cravings for drugs and block the toxic effect of drugs. a. socially acceptable b. pharmacological c. biological d. free b The terminology now being used in the DSM-5 for diagnostic categories is: a. substance abuse disorders b. substance dependence disorders c. substance use disorders d. substance addictive disorders c AD Which statement BEST describes the relevance of counselor self-exploration? a. the counselor's personal identity should not be disclosed to the client because of the risk of transference. b. counselors can benefit greatly from being clients themselves, at some point. c. counselors who are in therapy themselves are putting their own clients at risk. d. counselors learn what is most important by helping other people. b __________ is the term used to describe the mental activities involved in acquiring, retaining and using any type of knowledge. a. thinking b. memory c. cognition d. perception c In the DSM-5, for a substance use disorder severity indicator of mild, how many criteria must be present? a. two to three b. four to five c. five to six d. six or more a In which situation is it acceptable to release confidential information without prior consent from the client? a. when the client has a sexually transmitted disease b. if law enforcement officials request information in writing c. after learning that a client was once involved in a crime d. when the client admits to abusing a child d Substance _______ is a syndrome that develops temporarily after ingestion of a psychoactive substance a. withdrawal b. overdose c. intoxication d. anhedonia c "Referral" means: a. assisting a client to utilize the support systems and community resources available b. identifying and ranking problems c. meeting with other professionals for discussions and planning d. attending an A.A. or N.A. meeting with a client a ____________ are a problem associated with consuming alcohol and valium together. a. synergistic effects b. tremors c. cross allergic reactions d. negative symptoms a ___________ is the belief that one's own culture is superior to others a. reverse racism b. ethnocentrism c. nationalism d. negative symptoms b "Excessive use of alcohol is a result of personal choice and therefore should be punished." This statemnet is consistent with the ________ model of addiction a. disease b. moral c. social d. sociocultural b A common problem for beginning counselors is: a. trying to use a variety of techniques, rather than becoming skilled at one approach b. failing to identify an approach that is appropriate to the client c. their bias against working with clients who have a dual diagnosis d. that they allow for conflicting values to exist in the counseling relationship b AD A counselor wants to record a counseling session with a client so that the counselor could listen to the tape, along with her supervisor, as part of ongoing training. According to ethical best practices, the counselors plans are: a. ethical b. unethical c. ethical, as long as the client granted permission beforehand d. unethical, unless the supervisor observes the session c A major criticism of self-report instruments is that the questions are so obvious that these tests cannot possible detect alcoholics who deny having a problem. This issue is the dilemma of ________ questions a. measurable b. face valid c. multi-factor d. analytical ... A mental status exam does NOT assess a. education level b. appearance c. speech d. thought processes a Abstinence is to harm reduction as a. IV drug use is to drinking b. controlled drinking is to willpower c. alcoholics anonymous is to needle exchange d. methadone is to antabuse c Appropriate treatment goals must be a. stated generally, in order to encourage small progress b. typed and signed in order to ensure compliance by an unwilling client c. written in the order that they will be addressed in treatment d. agreed upon by the client and counselor d Arbitrary inferences and selective abstractions are examples of a. cognitive distortions b. defense mechanisms c. attention-seeking d. developmental difficulties a Beneficence is the ethical principle that means a. help b. show equal respect for gender c. do no harm d. respect confidentiality a Client education on HIV and other sexually transmitted diseases a. is only done at the request of the client b. should be given in specialty groups to those clients that are considered high risk to protect confidentiality c. should be contracted out to a physician or professional medical personnel who have expertise in this are d. is important information to incorporate in the treatment process of every client d Completing necessary documentation for admission to a particular treatment program occurs during the ______________ process. a. intake b. assessment c. admission d. screening a Concise and accurate reporting is necessary in order to: a. assist in client education b. ensure continuity of client care c. identify client strengths and weaknesses d. demonstrate counselor competence b Counselor self-disclosure is BEST limited to: a. the time when the client is ready for discharge b. ideas and emotional reactions in the counseling session c. early childhood experiences d. opinions the counselor has about the client and his or her family b Drowsiness or coma, slurred speech, impairment in attention or memory are all signs or symptoms of: a. caffeine intoxication b. cocaine intoxication c. alcohol intoxication d. opioid intoxication d Generally, the Tarasoff requirement has been interpreted as: a. a duty to hospitalize or otherwise confine the person making the threat b. a duty to make a reasonable effort to prevent the patient from carrying out the threat c. a duty to warn the client of possible consequences d. a duty to warn the intended victim and/or the police d In his second counseling session, a client reveals to the counselor that he is HIV positive. The counselor's BEST course of action is to: a. discharge the client as a precautionary measure against infecting other clients b. offer to refer the client to a counselor with AIDS, since that counselor will understand the special issues involved c. send the client a letter informing him that he will be transferred to another facility d. discuss the client's case with a clinical supervisor in order to meet the needs of this client d In which situation is it NOT acceptable to release confidential information without prior consent from the client? a. when the client has stolen property from the treatment facility b. if law enforcement officials request information in writing c. if the client is in a serious accident requiring medical care d. when the client admits to abusing a child b Jackie is recently discharged from the Air Force. His counselor suspects that he has PTSD, due to his experiences during active duty in Afghanistan. The counselor contacted the Veteran's Administration and located a clinic in the area with special groups for Vets with PTSD. The counselor then made arrangements for Jackie to be attend these groups while he is still in primary treatment for substance abuse. The counselor's actions are BEST described as: a. consultation b. case management c. client education d. ethical responsibility b Methadone maintenance programs can BEST be described as: a. continued substance abuse in disguise b. harm reduction focused c. a secular recovery method d. a community organization intervention b [Show Less]
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CADC exam (practice test) Question with complete solution 2023
1. It is considered unethical for a counselor to: a. talk with a client any place other than the counseling office b. treat client problems that are be... [Show More] yond his skill level c. refuse treatment for certain clients d. discuss some personal feelings b. treat client problems that are beyond his skill level 2. When participating in the screening process, a counselor must also be skilled in: a. consulting with other professionals b. making referrals c. family system dynamics d. release of information forms b. making referrals 3. Which statement is TRUE regarding dual relationships with clients that might impair the counselor's judgement? a. they must be avoided b. they should be discouraged c. they are left to the discretion of the counselor d. they should first be discussed with one's superior a. they must be avoided 4. If the orientation process is neglected or incomplete a client may: a. remain in denial about his/her addiction and leave against staff advice b. have incorrect information and unanswered questions about the program c. need to be referred to an outside agency for additional counseling d. need additional education about addiction and its effects on the body. b. have incorrect information and unanswered questions about the program 5. A common error that counselors make when conducting an assessment is: a. processing the data collected from the client b. asking too many questions and interrupting the client c. moving too quickly from data collection to treatment planning d. focusing on strengths and weaknesses rather than relationships c. moving too quickly from data collection to treatment planning 6. Which of the following is essential for successful recovery from addiction? a. admitting to a drinking and/or drug problem b. working all 12 steps of a 12-step program c. inpatient treatment and aftercare d. resolving family issues a. admitting to a drinking and/or drug problem 7. Interventions by a group counselor should: a. be governed by group content as outlined during the orientation process b. address issues critical to the functioning of the group as a whole c. disregard the group process when it is deemed necessary d. only be made to halt potential violence b. address issues critical to the functioning of the group as a whole 8. When clients ask directly for advice, it is usually helpful for counselors to: a. avoid offering advice, since it negatively effects communication with the client b. encourage the client to explore various alternatives c. discuss with the client his/her request for advice d. give advice since it encourages independence in the counseling relationship b. encourage the client to explore various alternatives 9. Which of the following does NOT have to appear on a "Release of Information" form? a. purpose of the release of information b. name of the recipient of information c. signature of counselor d. signature of client c. signature of counselor 10. A client experiences a crisis situation. As a counselor, your MOST important function is: a. to solve the client's presenting problem b. to refer him/her to the nearest psychiatrist c. to help convert the emergency into a solvable problem d. to try not to get the client any more upset than they already are c. to help convert the emergency into a solvable problem 11. While progress has been made, society still disapproves much more strongly of substance abuse by women than by men. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. women have customarily been expected to live up to a higher standard of moral and social behavior b. society perceives female substance abusers as promiscuous, immoral, and unfeminine c. mothers bear the additional burden of guilt over how substance abuse has interfered with their childrearing responsibilities d. a number of roles traditionally deemed female - in particular, nurturing and maternal duties - are perceived as incompatible with drug-affected behavior c. mothers bear the additional burden of guilt over how substance abuse has interfered with their childrearing responsibilities 12. Which of the following would be MOST appropriate in providing linkage between a treatment program and AA? a. counselors should take their clients to AA meetings b. counselors should assign the client an AA sponsor c. an AA representative should be invited to visit the program d. counselors should visit AA meetings and have a list of meetings to share with clients d. counselors should visit AA meetings and have a list of meetings to share with clients 13. Concise and accurate reporting is necessary in order to: a. assist in client education b. ensure continuity of client care c. demonstrate counselor competence d. identify client strengths and weaknesses b. ensure continuity of client care 14. Consultations are an important component of the treatment process because: a. they are mandated by most funding sources b. they are reviewed and deemed medically necessary c. counselor's caseloads are generally too large to manage alone d. input and information from others will assist the treatment process d. input and information from others will assist the treatment process 15. Which of the following bodily fluids has the highest risk of potential infection? a. tears b. breast milk c. spinal fluid d. vaginal secretions d. vaginal secretions 16. Which of the following is an example of exploitation? a. going to the same AA meeting as a former client b. purposely buying groceries at a store that you know is owned by your client c. leaking to the public the name of a celebrity who is in treatment at your facility d. referring a client to someone you personally know for their aftercare sessions c. leaking to the public the name of a celebrity who is in treatment at your facility 17. In a crisis interview with a client, you are most concerned with: a. the client's family dynamics as they relate to the specific dynamics of the crisis situation b. getting all the information that you can from the client and available family members c. focusing questions about the present situation and the client's means of coping with the stress d. what your immediate response should be regardless of the cleint's response to questions c. focusing questions about the present situation and the client's means of coping with the stress 18. The style of counseling in which a counselor has made a decision to be committed to equality for all people and acts to treat all people alike, regardless of race or cultural background, is known as: a. cultural ignorance b. covert (hidden) prejudice c. overt racism and hostility d. the "color-blind" counselor d. the "color-blind" counselor 19. A person wants to accept a party invitation because he/she is very social but is concerned because there will be a lot of drinking and he/she is a member of AA. He/she is experiencing a(an): a. mixed blessing dilemma b. approach-avoidance conflict c. double-avoidance conflict d. relapse conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict 20. The first stage in the process of family change is: a. a referral to a licensed family therapist b. a period of sobriety for all family members c. development of a 3-generation genogram d. interruption of ongoing patterns with confrontation or disengagement d. interruption of ongoing patterns with confrontation or disengagement 21. Hallucinogens work on the brain by interfering with various neurotransmitters, causing an overlap of the senses to occur. The term for this overlap of the senses is: a. synergy b. synthesis c. synesthesia d. synaptic overload c. synesthesia 22. In alcohol and drug abuse, denial is: a. stronger in males than in females b. not a problem after one year of sobriety c. not a problem for the non-substance abusing family members d. a common barrier to overcome in the early stage of accepting the abuse problem d. a common barrier to overcome in the early stage of accepting the abuse problem 23. Burnout in counselors might be avoided by periodic: a. self-assessment b. attitude adjustment c. medication evaluation d. disputing of rational beliefs a. self-assessment 24. During the screening process, a critic task is that the counselor has is to: a. complete a mental status exam b. engage the client's family in treatment c. develop a treatment plan d. establish rapport with the client d. establish rapport with the client 25. During the intake, a counselor can expect to address all of the following issues EXCEPT: a. a client's fears and denial b. information gathering c. preliminary identification of client goals d. treatment planning d. treatment planning 26. According to Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy, we develop emotional disturbances because of our: a. need to be accepted by most people b. intrinsic beliefs about certain beliefs c. overemphasis on childhood experiences d. need for systematic desensitization b. intrinsic beliefs about certain beliefs 27. Which of the following is the BEST indicator that an individual is physically dependent upon alcohol or another drug? a. the amount consumed daily b. the length in years of heavy drinking or drug use c. presence of withdrawal symptoms d. the frequency of memory blackouts c. presence of withdrawal symptoms [Show Less]
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CADC Practice Exam Questions (Test 1) Question and answer 2023
1. A wife refers her husband for substance abuse counseling. His drug of choice is cocaine, which he has been using episodically with friends at a poker ga... [Show More] me—biweekly to weekly—for some years. She is disturbed at the illicit nature of the drug and the long-standing use. He states that though he recreationally uses, he doesn't crave cocaine, doesn't seek it out but rather uses with friends at the game who bring it. He feels that other than his wife being upset, he has no other social or occupational issues. Given the information provided, how is his use of cocaine BEST described? a. Substance abuse b. Cocaine intoxication c. Cocaine use disorder d. None of the above d. None of the above 2. What does the experienced effect of a drug depend upon? a. The amount taken and past drug experiences b. The modality of administration c. Polydrug use, setting, and circumstance d. All of the above d. All of the above 3. How is drug tolerance BEST described? a. The inability to get intoxicated b. The need for less of a drug to get intoxicated c. Increased sensitivity to a drug over time d. Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time d. Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time 4. Which of the following is NOT a "drug cue"? a. A prior drug-use setting b. Drug use paraphernalia c. Seeing others use drugs d. Drug avoidance strategies d. Drug avoidance strategies 5. What happens as tolerance for barbiturates develops? a. The margin between intoxication and lethality increases b. The margin between intoxication and lethality decreases c. The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same d. Tolerance does not develop for barbiturates c. The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same 6. What is the MOST common symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy? a. New memory formation b. Loss of older memories c. Psychosis d. Confusion d. Confusion 7. Which of the following conditions does alcohol NOT induce? a. Steatosis b. Nephrosis c. Hepatitis d. Cirrhosis b. Nephrosis 8. What does formication refer to? a. The creation of freebase cocaine b. Sex between two unmarried individuals c. A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin d. Extrapyramidal symptoms of agitation c. A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin 9. What is/are the organ(s) most damaged by cocaine abuse? a. The brain b. The lungs c. The kidneys d. The heart d. The heart 10. Which of the following is NOT a basic chemical class of amphetamines? a. Amphetamine sulphate b. Phenethylamine c. Dextroamphetamine d. Methamphetamine b. Phenethylamine 11. In terms of difficulty quitting (dependence), which of the following four drugs ranks the highest? a. Alcohol b. Cocaine c. Heroin d. Nicotine d. Nicotine 12. Which of the statements below is MOST correct? a. THC content in all marijuana is about the same. b. THC content in hashish is lower than in a joint. c. THC content in marijuana is predictable. d. THC content in marijuana varies widely. d. THC content in marijuana varies widely. AD 13. Regarding substance abuse, what does Convergence Theory propose? a. Rates of substance abuse among women are converging with those of men. b. All individuals eventually narrow drug use to a drug of choice preference. c. Age is a key factor in eventual substance abuse abstinence. d. As individuals age, gender disparities in rates of abuse tend to converge. a. Rates of substance abuse among women are converging with those of men. 14. Among psychiatric disorders in the elderly, where does alcohol abuse rank? a. twenty-fifth b. fifteenth c. fifth d. third d. third 15. Which of the following subcategories of alcohol use disorder onset is NOT found in the elderly? a. Late-onset alcoholism b. Delayed-onset alcoholism c. Late-onset exacerbation drinking d. Early-onset alcoholism d. Early-onset alcoholism 16. At an initial meeting with a new client, what is the FIRST requirement? a. Establish rapport. b. Evaluate readiness for change. c. Review rules and expectations. d. Discuss confidentiality regulations. a. Establish rapport. 17. What does motivational interviewing primarily involve? a. Focused confrontation b. Behavioral accountability c. Reality testing d. Supportive persuasion d. Supportive persuasion 18. What percentage of individuals with a dual diagnosis (co-occurring disorders [COD]—i.e., substance abuse disorder and an existing mental illness) received treatment for only their mental illness? a. 32.9 percent b. 27.6 percent c. 12.4 percent d. 8.8 percent a. 32.9 percent 19. What factors can affect screening instrument validity? a. The screening setting and privacy b. The levels of rapport and trust c. How instructions are given and clarified d. All of the above d. All of the above 20. Which of the following functions is NOT what a Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor can usually perform? a. Client screening b. Substance abuse assessment c. Diagnose mental disorders d. Formulate a treatment plan c. Diagnose mental disorders 21. What does the acronym GATE stand for? a. Gather information; Access supervision; Take responsible action; Extend the action b. Gather resources; Access procedures; Take clinical notes; Extend the intervention c. Gather documentation; Access contacts; Take counsel; Extend positive outcomes d. Gather the team; Access records; Take consultation; Extend documentation a. Gather information; Access supervision; Take responsible action; Extend the action 22. To which of the following do assessment processes and instruments NOT need be sensitive? a. Political orientation b. Age and gender c. Race and ethnicity d. Disabilities a. Political orientation AD 23. What are serious mental health symptoms that resolve with abstinence in thirty days or less MOST likely due to? a. A resolution of transient situational stressors at home, school, or work b. A serious underlying mental disorder that temporarily improved c. Substance abuse-induced disorders that require continued abstinence d. Malingering to manipulate circumstances for underlying goals c. Substance abuse-induced disorders that require continued abstinence 24. Which one of the following alcohol abuse screening tests is designed specifically for use with adolescents? a. CAGE b. CRAFFT c. MAST d. AUDIT b. CRAFFT 25. Which of the following is the MOST important introductory statement or question to ask in a suicidality evaluation? a. Have you ever tried to take your own life? b. Do you have thoughts about killing yourself? c. I need to ask you a few questions about suicide. d. Have you ever attempted suicide? c. I need to ask you a few questions about suicide. 26. What is the purpose of screening? a. To prepare the client for program admission b. To determine client readiness for change c. To establish client diagnoses and treatment needs d. To determine the need for placement or referral d. To determine the need for placement or referral 27. What is the primary purpose of substance abuse assessment? a. To determine the current level of health deterioration b. To identify a substance abuser's drug of choice c. To provide co-occurring disorder(s) diagnosis d. To determine the severity of the substance problem d. To determine the severity of the substance problem 28. Who should create a treatment plan? a. A multidisciplinary team of professionals b. Collaborative team with the client c. The primary treatment provider d. A professional boilerplate to ensure completeness b. Collaborative team with the client 29. How must assessment information be handled to be the MOST effective? a. Carefully documented b. Converted into goals and objectives c. Available to all treatment providers d. Summarized with the client for feedback b. Converted into goals and objectives 30. Which of these key elements does NOT bolster a client's desire to complete the program? a. Knowledge of the benefits of treatment b. Understanding of the treatment process c. Fully assuming the patient role d. Frequent interdisciplinary consultations d. Frequent interdisciplinary consultations 31. How many levels of treatment placement are recognized by the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? a. Two levels of treatment placement b. Four levels of treatment placement c. Six levels of treatment placement d. Eight levels of treatment placement b. Four levels of treatment placement [Show Less]
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