Bundle
BUNDLE: NUR 155 | NUR 155 MED SURG TEST 1/Exam 1, Test 2/ Exam 2/ Test 3/ Exam 3/FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS, 100% GRADED
3 Items
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 3, Exam Questions & Answers, Deeply Explained With Rationales
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 3, Exam Questions & Answers, Deeply Explained With Rationales-A severely obese patient has undergone Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery... [Show More] . In planning postoperative care, the nurse anticipates that the patient A. may have severe diarrhea early in the postoperative period. B. will not be allowed to ambulate for 1 to 2 days postoperatively. C. will require nasogastric suction until the incision heals. D. may have only liquids orally, and in very limited amounts, during the postoperative period. - D. may have only liquids orally, and in very limited amounts, during the postoperative period. Rationale: During the immediate postoperative period, water and sugar-free clear liquids are given (30 mL every 2 hours while the patient is awake). You are providing care to a patient with COPD who is receiving medical treatment for exacerbation. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. The patient is experiencing extreme hyperglycemia. In addition, the patient has multiple areas of bruising on the arms and legs. Which medication ordered for this patient can cause hyperglycemia and bruising? A) Prednisone B) Atrovent C) Flagyl D) Levaquin - A) Prednisone Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid and can cause hyperglycemia and bruising. (SATA) Which of the following statements are incorrect about discharge teaching that you would provide to a patient with COPD? 1. "It is best to eat three large meals a day that are relatively low in calories 2. "Avoid going outside during extremely hot or cold days." 3. "It is important to receive the Pneumovax vaccine annually." 4. "Smoking cessation can help improve your symptoms." A) 1,4 B) 1,3 C) 2,4 D) 1,2,3 E) All of these F) None - B) 1,3 Rational: The answers are 1 and 3. The patient needs to eat high calorie and protein rich meals that are small but frequent. The pneumovax is definitely recommended for patients with COPD but is given every 5 years (not annually). Clients with chronic illnesses are more likely to get pneumonia when which of the following situations is present? A. Dehydration B. Group living C. Malnutrition D. Severe periodontal disease - B. Group living Rationale: Clients with chronic illnesses generally have poor immune systems. Often, residing in group living situations increases the chance of disease transmission. Pneumonia is a fairly prevalent disease and carries a heavy burden in all populations. A study carried out by the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) aimed at estimating its burden in North America found that CAP accounted for the eighth leading cause of mortality in the United States and the seventh leading cause of mortality in Canada after adjusting for various gender and age differences. - Option A: Pneumonia can also cause dehydration from fever and decreased thirst and appetite, which may require treatment with extra fluids intravenously. Potential benefits of fluids are replacing fluid lost because of fever or rapid breathing, treating dehydration, and reducing the viscosity of mucus. - Option C: Pneumonia is common in malnourished children and is frequently associated with fatal outcomes, especially in children younger than 24 months of age. Studies consistently reported a two- to threefold greater risk of mortality in cases with pneumonia associated with malnutrition. Therefore, pneumonia and malnutrition are two of the biggest killers in childhood diseases. - Option D: Various pathogenic bacteria have been found in patients with deep periodontal pockets. The association between periodontal disease and pneumonia may be due to colonization by pathogenic bacteria in the periodontal pocket, as inhalation of a pathogen is considered a risk factor for pneumonia Which of the following organisms most commonly causes community-acquired pneumonia in adults? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus - C. Streptococcus pneumoniae Rationale: Pneumococcal or streptococcal pneumonia, caused by streptococcus pneumoniae, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the bacterium that has historically been the most common pathogen to cause CAP worldwide. In the era before antibiotics, S. pneumoniae was estimated to be the cause of 95% of all cases of pneumonia. Currently, however, S. pneumoniae accounts for up to 15% of pneumonia cases in the United States and 27% of cases worldwide today. -Option A: H. influenzae is the most common cause of infection in children. Haemophilus influenzae is a bacteria characterized as a small, facultatively anaerobic, pleomorphic, and capnophilic gram-negative coccobacillus of the family Pasteurellaceae. It is a common cause of a variety of invasive and non-invasive bacterial infections. -Option B: Klebsiella species is the most common gram-negative organism found in the hospital setting. Today, K. pneumoniae pneumonia is considered the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia in the United States, and the organism accounts for 3% to 8% of all nosocomial bacterial infections. -Option D: Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is a major bacterial human pathogen that causes a wide variety of clinical manifestations. Infections are common both in community-acquired as well as hospital-acquired settings and treatment remains challenging to manage due to the emergence of multi-drug resistant strains such as MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus). An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the following symptoms first? A. Altered mental status and dehydration B. Fever and chills C. Hemoptysis and dyspnea D. Pleuritic chest pain and cough - A. Altered mental status and dehydration Rational: Fever, chills, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only an altered mental status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response. A small fraction of patients may have an altered mental status, abdominal pain, chest pain, and other systemic findings. - Option B: Historically, the chief complaints in case of pneumonia include systemic signs like fever with chills, malaise, loss of appetite, and myalgia. These findings are more common in viral pneumonia as compared to bacterial pneumonia. - Option C: Pulmonary findings include cough with or without sputum production. Bacterial pneumonia is associated with purulent or rarely blood-tinged sputum. Viral pneumonia is associated with watery or occasionally mucopurulent sputum production. - Option D: There may be an associated pleuritic chest pain with the concomitant involvement of the pleura. Dyspnea and a diffuse heaviness of the chest are also seen occasionally. The cough may be either non productive or productive with mucoid, purulent, or blood-tinged sputum. A diagnosis of pneumonia is typically achieved by which of the following diagnostic tests? A. ABG analysis B. Chest x-ray C. Blood cultures D. Sputum culture and sensitivity - D. Sputum culture and sensitivity Rational: Sputum C & S is the best way to identify the organism causing the pneumonia. If good quality, sputum evaluation may reveal more than 25 WBC per low-power field and less than 10 squamous epithelial cells. Some bacterial causes present with specific biochemical evidence, such as Legionella, may present with hyponatremia and microhematuria. - Option A: ABG analysis will determine the extent of hypoxia present due to the pneumonia. An arterial blood gas may reveal hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Pulse oximetry of less than 92% indicates severe hypoxia, and elevated CRP predicts a serious infection. - Option B: Chest x-ray will show the area of lung consolidation. Findings may vary from lobar to interstitial infiltrate, to occasionally cavitary lesions with air-fluid levels suggestive of a more severe disease process. - Option C: Blood cultures will help determine if the infection is systemic. These include a series of tests like blood culture, sputum culture and microscopy, routine blood counts, and lymphocyte count. Special tests such as urinary antigen testing, bronchial aspirate, or induced sputum may be used for certain pathogens. A client with pneumonia develops dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and difficulty expelling his secretions. The nurse auscultates his lung fields and hears bronchial sounds in the left lower lobe. The nurse determines that the client requires which of the following treatments first? A. Antibiotics B. Bed rest C. Oxygen D. Nutritional intake - C. Oxygen Rational: The client is having difficulty breathing and is probably becoming hypoxic. As an emergency measure, the nurse can provide oxygen without waiting for a physician's order. Anticipate the need for supplemental oxygen or intubation if the patient's condition deteriorates. These measures are needed to correct hypoxemia. Intubation is needed for deep suctioning efforts and provides a source for augmenting oxygenation. - Option A: Antibiotics may be warranted, but this isn't a nursing decision. Administer prescribed antimicrobial agents as ordered. To prevent relapse of pneumonia, the patient needs to complete the course of antibiotics as prescribed. - Option B: The client should be maintained on bedrest if he is dyspneic to minimize his oxygen demands, but providing additional will deal more immediately with his problem. Encourage adequate rest balanced with moderate activity. Promote adequate nutritional intake. Facilitates the healing process and enhances natural resistance. - Option D: The client will need nutritional support, but while dyspneic, he may be unable to spare the energy needed to eat and at the same time maintain adequate oxygenation. Maintain adequate nutrition to offset hypermetabolic state secondary to infection. Ask the dietary department to provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet consisting of soft, easy-to-eat foods. A client has been treated with antibiotic therapy for right lower-lobe pneumonia for 10 days and will be discharged today. Which of the following physical findings would lead the nurse to believe it is appropriate to discharge this client? A. Continued dyspnea B. Fever of 102*F C. Respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute. D. Vesicular breath sounds in the right base. - D. Vesicular breath sounds in right base Rational: If the client still has pneumonia, the breath sounds in the right base will be bronchial, not the normal vesicular breath sounds. If the client still has dyspnea, fever, and increased respiratory rate, he should be examined by the physician before discharge because he may have another source of infection or still have pneumonia. - Option A: Assess the rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration, chest movement, and use of accessory muscles. Tachypnea, shallow respirations, and asymmetric chest movement are frequently present because of the discomfort of moving chest wall and/or fluid in the lung due to a compensatory response to airway obstruction. Altered breathing pattern may occur together with the use of accessory muscles to increase chest excursion to facilitate effective breathing. - Option B: Investigate sudden change in condition, such as increasing chest pain, extra heart sounds, altered sensorium, recurring fever, changes in sputum characteristics. Delayed recovery or increase in severity of symptoms suggests resistance to antibiotics or secondary infection. - Option C: Assess and record respiratory rate and depth at least every 4 hours. The average rate of respiration for adults is 10 to 20 breaths per minute. It is important to take action when there is an alteration in the pattern of breathing to detect early signs of respiratory compromise. The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD would be read as having which of the following results? A. Indeterminate B. Needs to be redone C. Negative D. Positive - C. Negative Rational: This test would be classed as negative. A 5 mm raised area would be a positive result if a client was HIV+ or had recent close contact with someone diagnosed with TB. If the patient is at a high risk of developing an active infection, a repeat test is recommended after an initial negative test to rule out the possibility of missing a case. However, a decision is made based on the risk factors. - Option A: Indeterminate isn't a term used to describe results of a PPD test. It is a time-sensitive test. Tests that are read late are not accurate as they tend to underestimate the size of the skin reaction. Therefore, the reliability of the test is compromised, and the results are doubtful. - Option B: To avoid this, repeat testing is recommended if the reaction is not read on time. The second test can be administered as soon as possible. However, if repeated, the test should preferably be performed within 7 days of the initial test to avoid boosting effect. - Option D: If the PPD is reddened and raised 10mm or more, it's considered positive according to the CDC. If the infection risk is very high, the PPD test need not be repeated. The positive PPD test is usually followed by TB symptom assessment, physical exam, and chest radiograph. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.00
- 0
- 9
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 2, Exam Questions & Answers, Explained With Rationales
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 2, Exam Questions & Answers, Explained With Rationales-The nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was ... [Show More] admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which parameter most carefully during the next hour? A. Urine output of 20ml/hour B. Temperature of 37.6 C C. Blood pressure of 114/70 D. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing - A. Urine output of 20ml/hour Rationale: Urine output should be maintained at a minimum of 30mL/hour for an adult. An output of less than that for each of 2 consecutive hours should be reported to the health care provider. A postoperative client asks the nurse why it is so important to deep-breathe and cough after surgery. When formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that retained pulmonary secretions in a postoperative client can lead to which condition? A. Pneumonia B. Hypoxemia C. Fluid imbalance D. Pulmonary embolism - A. Pneumonia Rationale: Postoperative respiratory problems are atelectasis, pneumonia and pulmonary emboli. Pneumonia is the inflammation of lung tissue that causes productive cough, dyspnea, and lung crackles and can be caused by the retention of pulmonary secretions. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client scheduled for surgery. The nurse should include which activity in the nursing care plan for the client on the day of surgery? A. Avoid oral hygiene and rinsing with mouthwash B. Verify that the client has not eaten for the last 24 hours C. Have the client void immediately before going into surgery D. Report immediately any slight increase in BP or pulse - C. Have the client void immediately before going into surgery Rationale: The nurse would assist the client to void immediately before surgery so that the bladder will be empty. Oral hygiene is allowed, but the client should not swallow any water. The client usually has a restriction of food and fluids for 6 to 8 hours before surgery instead of 24 hours. A slight increase in BP and pulse is common during the preoperative period due to anxiety. A client with a perforated gastric ulcer is scheduled for surgery. The client cannot sign the operative consent form because of sedation from opioid analgesics that have been administered. The nurse should take which most appropriate action in the care of this client? A. Obtain a court order for the surgery. B. Have the charge nurse sign the informed consent immediately C. Send the client to surgery without the consent form being signed D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, following agency policy - D. Obtain a telephone consent from a family member, following agency policy Rationale: Every effort should be made to obtain permission from a responsible family member to perform surgery if the client is unable to sign the consent form. A telephone consent must be witnessed by two persons who hear the family member's oral consent. The two witnesses then sign the consent with the name of the family member, noting that an oral consent was obtained. Consent is not informed if it is obtained from a client who is confused, unconscious, mentally incompetent, or under the influence of sedatives. In an emergency the client may not be able to sign and family members may not be available. In this situation, a health care provider is permitted legally to perform surgery without consent, but tin this case it is not an emergency. Agency policies regarding informed consent should always be followed. A preoperative client expresses anxiety to the nurse about upcoming surgery. Which response by the nurse is most likely to stimulate further discussion between the client and the nurse? A. "If it's any help, everyone is nervous before surgery." B. "I will be happy to explain the entire surgical procedure with you." C. "Can you share with me what you've been told about your surgery?" D. "Let me tell you about the care you'll receive after surgery and the amount of pain you can anticipate". - C. "Can you share with me what you've been told about your surgery?" Rationale: Explanations should begin with the information that the client knows. By providing the client with individualized explanations of care and procedures, the nurse can assist the client in handling anxiety and fear for a smooth preoperative experience. Clients who are calm and emotionally prepared for surgery withstand anesthesia better and experience fewer postoperative complications. The nurse is conducting preoperative teaching with a client about the use of an incentive spirometer. The nurse should include which piece of information in discussions with the client? A. Inhale as rapidly as possible B. Keep a loose seal between the lips and the mouthpiece C. After maximum inspiration, hold the breath for 15 seconds and exhale. D. The best results are achieved when sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees - D. The best results are achieved when sitting up or with the head of the bed elevated 45 to 90 degrees Rationale: For optimal lung expansion with the incentive spirometer, the client should assume the semi-Fowlers or high fowler's position. The mouthpiece should be covered completely and tightly while the client inhales slowly, with a constant flow through the unit. The breath should be held for 5 seconds before exhaling slowly. The nurse has conducted preoperative teaching for a client scheduled for surgery in 1 week. The client has a history of arthritis and has been taking acetylsalicylic acid. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client makes which statement? A. "Aspirin can cause bleeding after surgery." B. "Aspirin can cause my ability to clot blood to be abnormal." C. "I need to continue to take the aspirin until the day of surgery." D. "I need to check with my HCP about the need to stop the aspirin before the scheduled surgery." - C. "I need to continue to take the aspirin until the day of surgery." Rationale: Anticoagulants altered normal clotting factors and increase the risk of bleeding after surgery. Aspirin has properties that can alter the clotting mechanism and should be discontinued at least 48 hours before surgery. However, the client should always check with his or her health care provider regarding when to stop taking the aspirin when a surgical procedure is scheduled. The nurse assess a client's surgical incision for signs of infection. Which finding by the nurse would be interpreted as a normal finding at the surgical site? A. Red, hard skin B. Serous drainage C. Purulent drainage D. Warm tender skin - B. Serous drainage Rationale: Serous drainage is an expected finding at a surgical site. The other options indicate signs of wound infection. Wound infection usually appears 3 to 6 days after surgery. (SATA)A client who has had abdominal surgery complains of feeling as though "something gave way" in the incisional site. The nurse removes the dressing and notes the presence of a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. Which nursing interventions should the nurse take? 1. Contact the surgeon 2. Instruct the client to try not to cough 3. Prepare the client for wound closure 4. Document the findings and actions taken 5. Place a sterile saline dressing and icepacks over the wound 6. Place the client in a prone position without a pillow under the head. A. 1,3,4 B. 1,2,3,4 C. 5 D. 1,6,3,4 E. All F. None - B. 1,2,3,4 Rationale: Wound dehiscence is the separation of the wound edges. Wound evisceration is protrusion of the internal organs through an incision. If wound dehiscence or evisceration occurs, the nurse should call for help, stay with the client, and ask another nurse to contact the surgeon and obtain needed supplies to care for the client. The nurse places the client in a low fowler's position and the client is kept quiet and instructed not to cough. Protruding organs are covered with a sterile saline dressing. Ice is not applied because of its vasoconstrictive effect. The treatment for evisceration is usually immediate wound closure under local or general anesthesia. The nurse also documents the findings and actions taken. A client who has undergone preadmission testing, has had blood drawn for serum lab studies, including a complete blood count, coagulation studies and electrolytes and creatinine levels. Which lab result should be reported to the surgeon's office by the nurse, knowing that it could cause surgery to be postponed? A. Sodium, 141mEq/L B. Hemoglobin, 8.0 g/dL C. Platelets, 210,000/mm3 D. Serum creatine, 0.8 mg/dL - B. Hemoglobin, 8.0 g/dL Rationale: The complete blood count includes the hemoglobin analysis. All these values are within normal range except for hemoglobin. If a client has a low hemoglobin level, the surgery likely could be postponed by the surgeon The nurse receives a telephone call from the post-anesthesia care unit stating that a client is being transferred to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to take which action first on arrival of the client? A. Assess the patency of the airway B. Check tubes or drains for patency C. Check the dressing to assess for bleeding D. Assess the vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements - A. Assess the patency of the airway Rationale: The first action of the nurse is to assess the patency of the airway and respiratory function. If the airway is not patent, the nurse must take immediate measures for the survival of the client. The nurse then takes vital signs followed by checking of the dressing and tubes or drains. A patient is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for treatment of hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates they understood your discharge teaching about this medication? A. I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium. B. I will only take this medication if my blood pressure is high. C. I understand a dry cough is a common side effect with this medication. D. I will monitor my glucose levels closely because this medication may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia. - A. I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium. Which of the following patients does not have a risk factor for hypertension? A. A 25 year old male with a BMI of 35. B. A 35 year old female with a total cholesterol level of 100. C. A 68 year old male who reports smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day. D. A 40 year old female with a family history of hypertension and diabetes. - B. A 35 year old female with a total cholesterol level of 100. A patient with hypertension is started on a new medication for treatment and is reporting a continuous dry cough. Which of the following medications do you suspect is causing this problem? A. Lisinopril B. Labetalol C. Losartan D. Hydrochlorothiazide - A. Lisinopril Which of the following patients is not a candidate for a beta blocker medication? A. A 45 year old male with angina. B. A 39 year old female with asthma. C. A 25 year old female with migraines. D. A 55 year old male with a history of two heart attacks. - B. A 39 year old female with asthma. Which family of drugs are the following medications considered: Amlodipine, Verapamil, Diltiazem? A. Beta blockers (BB) B. ACE Inhibitors (ACEI) C. Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) D. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) - D. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) [Show Less]
- Exam
- $14.00
- 0
- 10
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 1, Exam Questions & Answers
NUR 155 Med Surg Test 1, Exam Questions & Answers-In your patient's health history you read that the patient has a cataract in the right eye. You know that... [Show More] this eye disorder can be best described by which statement below? A. This eye disorder is caused by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve. B. This eye disorder occurs in the eye when the macula of the retina become damaged and impair the central vision. C. This eye disorder occurs when the lens of the eye loses its transparency. D. This eye disorder occurs from uncontrolled high blood glucose levels which lead to retinal damage. - C. This eye disorder occurs when the lens of the eye loses its transparency. In your patient's health history you read that the patient has a glaucoma in the right eye. You know that this eye disorder can be best described by which statement below? A. This eye disorder is caused by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve. B. This eye disorder occurs in the eye when the macula of the retina become damaged and impair the central vision. C. This eye disorder occurs when the lens of the eye loses its transparency. D. This eye disorder occurs from uncontrolled high blood glucose levels which lead to retinal damage. - A. This eye disorder is caused by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve. In your patient's health history you read that the patient has a macular degeneration. You know that this eye disorder can be best described by which statement below? A. This eye disorder is caused by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve. B. This eye disorder occurs in the eye when the macula of the retina become damaged and impair the central vision. C. This eye disorder occurs when the lens of the eye loses its transparency. D. This eye disorder occurs from uncontrolled high blood glucose levels which lead to retinal damage. - B. This eye disorder occurs in the eye when the macula of the retina become damaged and impair the central vision. In your patient's health history you read that the patient has a diabetic retinopathy. You know that this eye disorder can be best described by which statement below? A. This eye disorder is caused by increased intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve. B. This eye disorder occurs in the eye when the macula of the retina become damaged and impair the central vision. C. This eye disorder occurs when the lens of the eye loses its transparency. D. This eye disorder occurs from uncontrolled high blood glucose levels which lead to retinal damage. - D. This eye disorder occurs from uncontrolled high blood glucose levels which lead to retinal damage. What is the most common cause of cataracts? A. Congenital B. Aging C. Trauma D. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels - B. Aging Rationale: You may say the others can cause cataracts... And you would be correct, but this question is looking for the most common cause, which is aging. Time is our Enemy... :o( What is the most common cause of retinopathy? A. Congenital B. Aging C. Trauma D. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels - D. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels Rationale: Can also be caused by Hypertension(HTN) Diabetic Retinopathy -> Diabetes => Treat the Diabetes but usually laser photocoagulation is required. Hypertensive Retinopathy -> High BP aka Hypertension => Treat the high BP to restore vision What is the most common cause of glaucoma? A. Congenital B. Trauma C. Aging D. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels - C. Aging Rationale: Remember, Time is our Enemy... What is the most common cause of macular degeneration? A. Congenital B. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels C. Trauma D. Aging - D. Aging Rationale: Remember, Time is our Enemy... What is the most common cause of retina detachment? A. Congenital B. Aging C. Trauma D. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels - B. Aging Rationale: While trauma is a major contributor, especially in younger patients, it's not the most common. Remember Time is our Enemy... Cataracts causes light to be scattered and preventing it's proper travel to the retina's _______________, and this leads to visual impairment. A. ganglion cells B. amacrine cells C. cones and rods D. crystalline proteins - C. cones and rods Rationale: Cones and Rods are the photoreceptors in the retina that allow us to see and discern light from dark and colors. Which patient finding below is associated with the development of cataracts? A. Loss of central vision B. Loss of peripheral vision C. Cloudy, hazy vision D. Black Spots in vision(floater) - C. Cloudy, hazy vision Which patient finding below is associated with the development of glaucoma? A. Loss of central vision B. Loss of peripheral vision C. Cloudy, hazy vision D. Black Spots in vision(floater) - B. Loss of peripheral vision Which patient finding below is associated with the development of macular degeneration? A. Loss of central vision B. Loss of peripheral vision C. Cloudy, hazy vision D. Black Spots in vision(floater) - A. Loss of central vision Which patient finding below is associated with the development of retinopathy? A. Loss of central vision B. Loss of peripheral vision C. Black spots in vision D. Cloudy, hazy vision - C. Black spots in vision Rationale: Diabetic Retinopathy has a version called nonproliferative that has loss of central vision but that is due to the spots. MD is the main one to display central vision loss. A patient is being evaluated for cataracts. The Dr uses a slit-lamp to assess the patient's eyes. As the nurse you know that this device will? A. help test the patient's visual acuity B. test the strength of the ciliary muscles C. enlarge the front area of the eye (cornea, iris, lens etc.) D. help for visualization of the fundus - C. enlarge the front area of the eye (cornea, iris, lens etc.) Pt is having a phacoemulsification for treatment of a cataract. You're providing education about the procedure. Which statement by the patient demonstrates he understood the educational material provided about this procedure? A. "The cloudy lens in my eye will be broken up with sound waves and removed. Then a new permanent lens, called an intraocular lens, will be placed in my eye." B. "A small air bubble is injected into the eye to help push the retina back into position to help the lens refract light." C. "An incision is made to remove the trabecular meshwork and this will help drain fluid out of the cloudy lens." D. "The surgeon will remove parts of the iris and lens. - A. "The cloudy lens in my eye will be broken up with sound waves and removed. Then a new permanent lens, called an intraocular lens, will be placed in my eye." Pt is having a retinopexy for treatment of a retina detachment. You're providing education about the procedure. Which statement by the patient demonstrates he understood the educational material provided about this procedure? A. "The cloudy lens in my eye will be broken up with sound waves and removed. Then a new permanent lens, called an intraocular lens, will be placed in my eye." B. "A small air bubble is injected into the eye to help push the retina back into position to help the lens refract light." C. "An incision is made to remove the trabecular meshwork and this will help drain fluid out of the cloudy lens." D. "The surgeon will remove parts of the iris and lens. - B. "A small air bubble is injected into the eye to help push the retina back into position to help the lens refract light." Pt is having a trabeculectomy for treatment of a chronic open-angle glaucoma. You're providing education about the procedure. Which statement by the patient demonstrates he understood the educational material provided about this procedure? A. "The cloudy lens in my eye will be broken up with sound waves and removed. Then a new permanent lens, called an intraocular lens, will be placed in my eye." B. "A small air bubble is injected into the eye to help push the retina back into position to help the lens refract light." C. "An incision is made to remove the trabecular meshwork and this will help drain fluid out of the cloudy lens." D. "The surgeon will remove parts of the iris and lens. - C. "An incision is made to remove the trabecular meshwork and this will help drain fluid out of the cloudy lens." Rationale: C and D could be used to treat Glaucoma. The key here is Chronic Open-Angle glaucoma treatment is usually trabeculectomy where Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma utilizes the iridectomy procedure. Pt is having a iridectomy for treatment of a acute angle-closure glaucoma. You're providing education about the procedure. Which statement by the patient demonstrates he understood the educational material provided about this procedure? A. "The cloudy lens in my eye will be broken up with sound waves and removed. Then a new permanent lens, called an intraocular lens, will be placed in my eye." B. "A small air bubble is injected into the eye to help push the retina back into position to help the lens refract light." C. "An incision is made to remove the trabecular meshwork and this will help drain fluid out of the cloudy lens." D. "The surgeon will remove parts of the iris and lens. - D. "The surgeon will remove parts of the iris and lens. Rationale: C and D could be used to treat Glaucoma. The key here is Chronic Open-Angle glaucoma treatment is usually trabeculectomy where Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma utilizes the iridectomy procedure. [Show Less]
- Exam
- $15.00
- 0
- 8
Purchase the bundle to get the full access instantly
- 3 Million+ Study Documents
- 100% Money Back Guarantee
- Immediate Download Access
Add To Cart
Reviews 0
Bundle Details
$26.00
- Trusted by 800,000+ Students
- 24/7 Money Back Guarantee
- Download is directly available
10
0
Seller Details
