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BUNDLE: HESI PHARMACOLOGY V1, V2, V3, Study Prep & Final EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS, All Updated, From Actual Tests, Rated 100%
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HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam Questions & Answers (With Rationales)
HESI Pharmacology V1 Exam Questions & Answers (With Rationales)-A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum c... [Show More] alcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?1. Calcium chloride 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) 4. Large doses of vitamin D - 3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item? 1. Milk 2. Water 3. Apple juice 4. Orange juice - 4. Orange juice Rationale: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Decreased Respirations - 1. Tinnitus Rationale: Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied: 1. Immediately before swimming 2. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun 3. Immediately before exposure to the sun 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun - 4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Notifying the registered nurse 2. Discontinuing the medication 3. Informing the client that this is normal 4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site - 3. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?1.Hyperventilation 2.Elevated blood pressure 3.Local pain at the burn site 4.Local rash at the burn site - 1.Hyperventilation Rationale: Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid, thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than syeffects. An elevated blood pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed? 1. Platelet count 2. Triglyceride level 3. Complete blood count 4. White blood cell count - 2. Triglyceride level Rationale: Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated. Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the client is taking which medication? 1. Vitamin A 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Furosemide (Lasix) 4. Phenytoin (Dilantin) - 1. Vitamin A Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the use of isotretinoin The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication were being applied to which of the following body areas? 1. Back 2. Axilla 3. Soles of the feet 4. Palms of the hands - 2. Axilla Rationale: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). [Show Less]
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Pharmacology HESI V2 Preparation Exam Questions & Answers (Explained)
Pharmacology HESI V2 Preparation Exam Questions & Answers (Explained)-A client is prescribed phenobarbital sodium (Luminal) for a seizure disorder. The med... [Show More] ication has a long half-life of 4 days. Based on this half-life, the medication will most likely be prescribed A. once a day. B. twice a day. C. three times a day. D. four times a day. - ANS: A Medication with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long periods of time. Therefore, this medication can be administered once a day. A nurse educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses. Medication dosages may need to be decreased for which of the following reasons? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased renal excretion B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes C. Liver failure D. Peripheral vascular disease E. Concurrent use of medication metabolized by the same pathway - ANS: C, E Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increase the concentration of medication. This may require decreasing the dosage of medication. When two medications are metabolized in the same way, they may compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications. Increased renal excretion may decrease concentration of the medication, requiring increased dosage. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes can decrease the concentration of the medication. The dose might need increased. Peripheral vascular disease may impair distribution, and more of the medication may be needed. A nurse s preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions related to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A. Using medical aseptic technique B. Asking the client to look up at the ceiling C. Having the client lie in a side-lying position D. Dropping medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac E. Instructing the client to close the eye gently - ANS:B, D, E The medication should be dropped into the center of the conjunctival sac to promote better distribution of the medication. The client should close the eye gently to allow improved distribution of the medication. Surgical aseptic technique is used to administer eye drops. The client should be sitting or in a supine position to facilitate proper administration of eye drops. A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for a transdermal medication. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A. "I will clean the site with an alcohol swab prior to applying the patch." B. "I will rotate the application site weekly." C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair." D. "I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch." - ANS: C Transdermal medication should be applied to a hairless area of skin to promote absorption of medication. The skin should be washed with soap and water and dried thoroughly before applying a transdermal patch. Application sites should be rotated on a daily basis to prevent skin irritation. A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription by the provider to verify the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Have a blood specimen obtained immediately prior to the next dose of medication. B. Verify that the client has been on the medication for 24 hr before ordering a blood specimen. C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication. D. Begin administering the medication, and obtain a blood specimen. - ANS: A To verify trough levels of a medication, a blood specimen is obtained immediately before the next dose of medication. A nurse is preparing a client's medication. Which of the following are legal responsibilities of the nurse? (Select all that apply.) A. Maintaining skill competency B. Determining the dosage C. Monitoring for adverse effects D. Safeguarding medications E. Identifying the client's diagnosis - ANS: A, C, D Determining medication dosage and identifying a diagnosis is the role/responsibility of the provider. The nurse should be informed about a client's diagnosis. A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription by the provider for lisinopril (Zestril) 10 mg PO every day. The nurse should recognize this as which of the following types of prescription? A. Single prescription B. Stat prescription C. Routine prescription D. Standing prescription - ANS: C A routine prescription identifies a medication that is given on a regular schedule. This medication is administered every day until discontinued. A single prescription is to be given once at a specified time or as soon as possible. A stat prescription is only given once, and it is given immediately. A standing prescription is written for specific circumstances or a specific unit. A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg PO PRN nausea and vomiting for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum. The nurse should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider? A. Name B. Dosage C. Route D. Time - ANS: D The time and frequency of medication administration is not included and should be clarified with the provider. A nurse is orienting a newly hired nurse and discussing how to take telephone prescription. Which of the following statements by the newly hired nurse indicates understanding of the discussion? A. "A second nurse enters the prescription into the client's health record." B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call." C. "The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record." D. "The 'read back' is omitted if this is a one-time prescription." - ANS: B The second nurse should listen to a telephone prescription to prevent errors in communication. The nurse who takes the telephone prescription should enter it into the client's health record to prevent errors in translation. The nurse verifies the prescription is complete and accurate at the time it is given by reading it back to the provider. A telephone prescription includes reading back all types of medication prescription. A nurse on a medical unit is admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administration of medications. Which of the following data should the nurse include in the preassessment? (Select all that apply.) A. Use of herbal teas B. Daily fluid intake C. Current health status D. Previous surgical history E. Food allergies - ANS: A, C, E Use of herbal product,s which often contains caffeine, should be assessed prior to medication administration because caffeine can affect medication biotransformation. Current health status should be reviewed because new prescriptions can cause alterations in current health status. Food allergies should be included in the preassessment that is completed prior to medication administration to identify any potential interactions. Daily fluid intake and surgical history is important, but it is not part of the presassessment that is completed prior to medication administration. A nurse is assessing a client's IV. Which of the following findings is indicative of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.) A. Tingling sensation below insertion site B. Tachycardia C. Palpable, hard mass above insertion site D. Cool, pale skin E. Pain at site - ANS: C, E Pain at the IV site and a palpable, hard mass above the insertion site is a clinical manifestation of thrombophlebitis. A tingling sensation below the insertion site is a clinical manifestation of nerve damage. Tachycardia is a clinical manifestation of fluid volume overload. Cool, pale skin is a clinical manifestation of infiltration. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism? A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hr C. Minimizing tourniquet time D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter - ANS: D The nurse manager should remind the members to avoid reinserting a needle to an IV catheter. This action can result in severing the end of the catheter and consequently cause a catheter embolism. [Show Less]
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HESI Pharmacology FINAL EXAM Test Bank Questions & Answers, All Answers Explained
HESI Pharmacology FINAL EXAM Test Bank Questions & Answers, All Answers Explained-A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a cl... [Show More] ient with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? A) Penicillins. B) Aminoglycosides. C) Erythromycins. D) Sulfonamides. - A) Penicillins. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this drug. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy? A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. - C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body? A) Flank. B) Abdomen. C) Chest. D) Head. - B) Abdomen. Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate liver damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be anticipated. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise. C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull. D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump? A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump. B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure. D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. - B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful information, but are not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B). A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Glaucoma. B) Hypertension. C) Heart failure. D) Asthma. - C) Heart failure. Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1 blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as asthma (D). A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? A) Use contraception during intercourse. B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach. C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation. D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin. - A) Use contraception during intercourse. Cytotec, a synthetic form of a prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy Category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse (A) to prevent loss of an early pregnancy. (B) is not necessary. A common side effect of Cytotec is diarrhea, so constipation prevention strategies are usually not needed (C). Cytotec and Motrin should be taken together (D) to provide protective properties against gastrointestinal bleeding. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications? A) Do not add salt to foods during preparation. B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. C) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. D) Increase intake of milk and milk products. - B) Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription. In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is performing as intended? A) An increase in urine output. B) Two or three soft stools per day. C) Watery, diarrhea stools. D) Increased serum bilirubin. - B) Two or three soft stools per day. Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D). The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks. C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D). Which instruction(s) should the nurse give to a female client who just received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis? (Select all that apply.) A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. B) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use. C) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. E) Use condoms until treatment is completed. F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. - A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. E) Use condoms until treatment is completed. F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. Correct selections are (A, D, E, and F). Increased fluid intake and cranberry juice (A) are recommended for prevention and treatment of urinary tract infections, which frequently accompany vaginal infections. It is not necessary to taper use of this drug (B) or to check the blood pressure daily (C), as this condition is not related to hypertension. Flagyl can cause a disulfiram-like reaction if taken in conjunction with ingestion of alcohol, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D). All sexual partners should be treated at the same time (E) and condoms should be used until after treatment is completed to avoid reinfection (F). A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect? A) Change the time of the dose. B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C) Administer the dose with a snack. D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - C) Administer the dose with a snack. Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B) would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions, such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea. A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? A) Assess for erythema. B) Administer the antidote. C) Apply warm compresses. D) Discontinue the IV fluids. - D) Discontinue the IV fluids. [Show Less]
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HESI Pharmacology V3 Exam Questions & Answers
HESI Pharmacology V3 Exam Questions & Answers-A male client who has been taking a high dose of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) comes to the c... [Show More] linic complaining of gastric pain and blood in his stool. The healthcare provider discontinues the NSAIDs and prescribes esomeprazole. Which information should the client include in the nurse's teaching plan? A. Once pain subsides, NSAID therapy can be continued B. Resume a diet that consists of milk, cream, and bland foods C. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of black stool D. Call the clinic if diarrhea or headache occur when taking esomeprazole - C. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of black stool When administering zolpidem to an older client, which computer documentation indicates that the desired outcome has been achieved? A. Sleeps soundly through the night B. Decreased episodes of incontinence C. Exhibits fewer emotional outburst D. Improved ability to concentrate - A. Sleeps soundly through the night A male client with a fungal infection of the toenail reports to the nurse that he has been applying an over-the-counter triple antibiotic ointment to the infection daily for two weeks without any improvement. Which action should the nurse take? A. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine B. Suggest that the client use the ointment twice a day to be more effective C. Reassure that the treatment of fungus-infected toenails often takes several months D. Advise the client to obtain a prescription-strength formulation of the ointment - A. Instruct the client to obtain a prescription for oral terbinafine A client with a nasogastric tube (NGT) has a prescription for sucralfate. The liquid form of the medication is not currently available in the pharmacy and tablets have been delivered to the medication dispensing system. Which action should the nurse include when administering the medication? A. Crush the tablet and mix it with water separately from other medications B. Crush the tablet and mix it with other crushed tablets diluted in water C. Withhold the medication until a liquid form is available on the nursing unit D. Crush the tablet and mix it with other liquid medications for administration - A. Crush the tablet and mix it with water separately from other medications A client with chronic asthma receives a prescription for montelukast, a leukotriene modifier. Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that medication teaching was effective? A. I should take this medication only when I am having an asthma attack B. I will take the tablet every evening to control my asthma C. This medication will stop an asthma attack immediately D. I will not need to use my inhalers twice a day when I start this medication - B. I will take the tablet every evening to control my asthma The nurse is planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which action should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? A. Assess for secondary Candida infection B. Administer sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime C. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach D. Monitor for electrolyte imbalance - C. Give sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective? A. Reports of increased energy levels and decreased fatigue B. Takes concurrent iron therapy without adverse effects C. Food diary shows increased consumption of iron-rich foods D. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL (120 mmol/L) - D. Hemoglobin level increased to 12 grams/dL (120 mmol/L) The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol's solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications? A. Administer iodine one hour before PTU B. Offer both drugs together with a meal C. Schedule both medications at bedtime D. Give parental dose once every 24 hours - B. Offer both drugs together with a meal Twenty minutes after the nurse starts a secondary IV infusion of cefepime 2 grams using an infusion pump to deliver the dose in one hour, the client reports feeling nauseated. Which action should the nurse implement? A. Continue the infusion and administer a PRN antiemetic prescription B. Stop the medication infusion and notify the healthcare provider of the adverse effect C. Reassure the client that the nausea us not related to the IV infusion D. Increase the rate of the infusion to complete the dose of the medication more rapidly - A. Continue the infusion and administer a PRN antiemetic prescription A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy, who has been taking pregabalin for 2 weeks reports diminished foot pain. The nurse notes that there is no improvement in the healing of several toe ulcerations. Which action should the nurse take? A. Review the plan of care for strategies used to manage the foot ulcerations B. Reassure the client that diabetic foot ulcers take several months to heal C. Explain that the medication dosage will probably need to be increased D. Withhold the next dose of the drug until the healthcare provider is notified - A. Review the plan of care for strategies used to manage the foot ulcerations A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who takes glimepiride by mouth daily calls the nurse to report a recent onset of nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which response should the nurse provide? A. Increases oral fluid intake until these symptoms subside. B. Use insulin sliding scale until symptoms are resolved C. Schedule a visit for evaluation by the healthcare provider D. Return to the clinic for laboratory test for an infection - A. Increases oral fluid intake until these symptoms subside. The healthcare provider increases a client's prescription for glipizide 5mg to glipizide 7.5 mg by mouth every 12 hours. The medication is available in 5 mg scored tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer with each dose? - 1.5 The nurse is administering the muscle relaxant baclofen PO to a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? A. Advise the client to move slowly and cautiously when rising and walking B. Ensure the client knows to stop baclofen before using other antispasmodics C. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours D. Evaluate muscle strength every 4 hours - D. Evaluate muscle strength every 4 hours The nurse retrieves hydromorphone 4 mg/ml from the Pyxis Medstation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 8 hours PRN severe pain. How many mL should the nurse administer to the client? (Round to the nearest tenth) - 0.8 When conducting a drug education about an oral prescription for cyclosporine, which juice should the nurse instruct the client to avoid because it can increase the serum cyclosporine levels? A. Apple B. Grape C. Grapefruit D. Orange - C. Grapefruit [Show Less]
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Hesi Pharmacology (ACTUAL) Questions, Pharm Hesi Exam Prep Answers
Hesi Pharmacology (ACTUAL) Questions, Pharm Hesi Exam Prep Answers-Before administering a laxative to a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse ... [Show More] to perform what assessment? a-Observe the skin integrity of the client's rectal and sacral areas b-assess the client strength in moving and turning in the bed c-evaluate the client's ability to recognize the urge to defecate d-determine the frequency and consistency of bowel movements - D rationale the nurse should ensure that the client is not experiencing diarrhea (answer choice D) before administering a laxative, which will increase the frequency of bowel movements. answer choices A,B,C R4 and assessments for the provision of care when the client experience is a valve, but are of less priority then answer choice D which provides data about the possible need to hold medication A female client with multiple sclerosis reports having less fatigue and improved memory since she began using the herbal supplement, ginkgo biloba. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plans for this client? a-Aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs interact with ginkgo b-nausea and diarrhea can occur when using this supplement c-anxiety and headaches increased with use of ginkgo d-ginkgo biloba use should be limited and not taken during pregnancy - Rationale ginkgo biloba has blood thinning properties and should not be used in taking aspirin or unsafe which increased the risk for bleeding. nausea diarrhea anxiety and headaches are also side effects of supplements but they do not pose the same risk as a. Although D is accurate A has a higher priority In explaining the benefits of the combination anti-infective drug code tri-moxazole/TMP-SMZ (bactrium) to a client receiving the medication for a urinary tract infection, more rationale to the nurse provide? -Each drug could cause damage to the kidneys if taken separately -one drug reduces the risk of side effects caused by the drug -while one drug provide releif, the other fights the infection -the two drugs work together to reduce resistance of the bacterial infection of symptoms - D rationale the combination of drugs and bacteria work synergistically to reduce bacterial resistance enterprise D, thereby increasing the drug therapeutic benefits answer choices a B &C are incorrect rationales Client being treated with Haldol for schizophrenia is complaining of jaw tightness & a stiff neck. Which interventions should the nurse impliment? -give PRN those of diphenhydramine Benadryl -assess client other sensory hallucinations -massage neck until muscles begin to relax -obtain a 12 lead EKG - Rationale jaw tightness and a stiff neck are signs of tardive dyskinesia, a serious side effect of health all that can be reversed with Benadryl answer choice A. the client complaints are not considered hallucinations b. Massaging the neck does not eliminate the symptoms. A 12 lead EKG is not indicated because the pain is not cardiac in origin. Which intervention is most important for the nurse implement for a client is receiving lispro Humalog insulin? -Check blood glucose levels every six hours -provide meals at the same time that insulin is given -assess for hypoglycemia between meals -keeping oral liquid or glucose source available - B Rationale Humalog is a rapid acting insulin 15 minutes, so meals should be readily available time administration of lispro (B). Although glucose blood levels a, monitoring for hypoglycemia see, and keeping emergency source of glucose available B should be implemented for client receiving any form of insulin those who take these are at greatest risk for rapid hypoglycemia shortly after it is administered Client takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs every day for rheumatoid arthritis is being treated for anemia which intervention is most important for the nurse to include any plan of care observe for gastrointestinal bleeding monitor liver function test results protect skin from bruising offered dietary selections rich in iron rationale - rationale the client is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding duty history of NSAID a .new onset anemia indicates bleeding may be present. NSAIDS May impact liver function b, but this is of less immediacy than a. C is a basic core measure but not one of high priority for this client. D often useful for persons with anemia but is of less priority than a When treating a patient with a hospital acquired infection with Vancomycin, what would you do? a) report the HAI to Medicare b) assess patient's response c) obtain WBC count d) ensure to obtain a peak and trough - d) ensure to obtain a peak and trough MD ordered 1000ml D5w to infuse over 12 hours? How many ml/hr? - 83 mL/hr What further teaching is needed when rifampin (rifordin) is given for TB? - Reduces effectiveness of oral contraceptives; turns skin, sweat, tears, urine, feces, sputum, saliva, & tongue red/orange/brown; stains contacts. Patient with ED reports congestion, dizziness, and nausea. Which nursing assessment takes priority? a) muscle and back pain b) breath sounds c) palpate for distention d) measure BP standing and lying down - D) measure BP standing and lying down. Test for orthostatic hypotension. A patient on mechanical ventilation is getting Zantac; what is the purpose of this treatment? - Prevents irritation to abdomen due to decreased stomach acid. Zantac decreases abdominal secretions. MD prescribes PTU (propylthiouracil) & Lugol's (Iodine) for hyperthyroidism- how is it administered? - Administer Lugol's (Iodine) 1 hour before PTU A patient with cancer metastasis and renal insuficency is breathing shallow with respiration rate of 8 breaths/min is getting Fentanyl- what should the nurse do first. - Notify the Doctor Patient is taking verapamil (calan) what should the nurse assess? - Asses BP; Verapamil (calan) is a BP med. [Show Less]
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